Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 4

HEMATOLOGY

1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis 26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-Luebering Shunt
2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis 27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute Basophil
3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with ______: Count
Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) 28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed plasma is
4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with 0.105 M normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged, suggestive of :
NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren Presence of FVIII inhibitor
5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell activating 29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer, increase
factor effect in stimulating erythroid and myeloid PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)
proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9 30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of oxygen and
6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells: Polyploid carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin
megakaryocyte 31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for determining Hgb
7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop shaped: Cabot using HCN: 540nm
rings 32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either
8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid recognizable (Differential spectrophotometer, gas
precursor: pronormoblast chromatography)
9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o specific 33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC count
cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes 34. Young cells w/ residual RNA polychromatophilic RBC in
10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/ irregular cell air dried film stained with __?: Brilliant Cresyl Blue
membrane with blunts and pseudopods: and New Methylene Blue
Megakaryoblasts 35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size and bright
11. Common precursor for granulocytes, monocytes, red granules: Eosinophil
erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: Myeloid stem cells 36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round nucleus w/
12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of hemoglobin light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi zone adjacent to
w/ dark Hgb containing area: Leptocytes nucleus: Plasma Cell
13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes 37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47
14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus which often 38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease hematopoietic cell lines
nearly hidden by granules: Basophils resulting to low all blood levels: Aplastic Anemia
15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic Normoblast 39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis:
16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-GEM Thallasemia
expresses: CD34/CD33 40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte
17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of macrophage CSF
megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin 41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium: HbH
18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has reticular 42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF
chromatin and prominent nucleolus: Osteoblast 43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts cannot
19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to failure of classify using morphologic, cytochemical, ultrastructural
gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factors: Pernicious and immunologic or DNA analysis: Acute
Anemia undifferentiated Leukemia
20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in adults, 0.2-7% 44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3-20%
are HbF: TRUE 45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and normochromic:
21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary findings, Anisochromia
ABN granulocyte are rare and less than 1% blast cells: 46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3, CD 7, CD2,
Refractory Anemia CD17
22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4 47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass: absolute
23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe and small polycythemia vera
amount of basophilic cytoplasm: Megakaryoblast 48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7%
24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen forms FDP: 49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid, Iron, Protein
Plasmin or Vitamin E
25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic to parasite 50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue inclusion
that neutralize heparin and release histamine: Major resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin Anomaly
Basic Protein
51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal segmentation of 74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic cell w/
neutrophils: Pelger Huet Anomaly non-hodgkins lymphoma: lymphosarcoma cell
52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0 leukemia
53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___ polypeptide chain: 2 75. This altered of immune response against host own
54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during oxidative immune system that produce Antibody against itself:
hemolysis: SulfHgb AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia
55. Principle involved in automated counting: Electric 76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait that
Impedance elevated upto 7%: HbA2
56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to fibrin 77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis characterized by triad
stabilizing clot: PT findings vary in fibrosis in the marrow, splenomegaly
57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin: mycosis and leukoerythroblastic anemia: Myelofibrosis w/
fungoides myeloid metaplasia
58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis: template 78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine deficiency.
BT Measures ability of marrow cells in vitro to utilize
59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and convert deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis: deoxyuridine
plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA suppression test
60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia: ACP 79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days
61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C, Protein S): 80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6th week of fetal life: Liver
warfarin 81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has capacity to
62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin
deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor: F8,9, 11, 82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium potassium ratio
12 in the RBC: Stomatocytes
63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with 83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A
deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic factor: F7 84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC: MCHC
64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by activated F8: 85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder: AML
F5 86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and kupffer cell:
65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase contrast: IL-18
1%NH4Oxalate 87. HgB constituent that may degraded and return to amino
66. In phase contrast microscope, how many squares in acid pool: Globin
platelets in improved neubauer: 25 small squares 88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of mitosis:
67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell counting chamber Myelocyte
is used to measure: cytoplasmic granularity 89. Production of azurophilic granules: Promyelocyte
68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this blood cell is 90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and protein:
infected: B-lymphocyte Ferritin
69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the activity of anti- 91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5 days(in
thrombin as natural anticoagulant: Heparin vitro)
70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as hematopoietic 92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury: platelet plug
origin: secretion of mitogen 93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase megakaryocytes,
71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA granules: granulocytes, erythrocytes: Polycythemia vera
Reticulocytes 94. General measure in intrinsic and common pathway: PTT
72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes spleen 95. General measure in extrinsic and common pathway: PT
destruction 96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and mast cell:
73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue factor that IL-4
activates F7 in extrinsic pathway: thromboplastin
MICROBIOLOGY

1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids: Mycobacterium 27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for anaerobes:
2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease (-), non Microtube broth dilution
motile, lysine decarboxylase (-): Shigella dysenteriae 28. Mycobacterium that can grown in MacConkey Agar: M.
3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S. chelonae-fortuitum complex
epidermidis: Coagulase Test 29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which group of
4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer of gastric streptococcus: Group A
mucosa 30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from catalase test
5. Campylobacter is associated with: gastroenteritis from S. aureus as it uses the reagent: 30% H2O2
6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as: Woolsorters 31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural test for G.
Disease vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH
7. Eatons Agent is another name of what genus: 32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat: Leprosy
Mycoplasma pneumonia 33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in susceptibility medium is
8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize peptidoglycan cell significant when testing the susceptibility of P.
wall: L-form aeruginosa to: Gentamicin
9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma venereum 34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition: Vancomycin
10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in clinical lab: K 35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein synthesis:
antigen Gentamicin
11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl is test for: 36. Heat shocking of an original culture may be needed for
Streptococcus pneumoniae the recovery of : Anaerobic sporeforming G(+)
12. Species that is soluble to Na-Desoxycholate: bacilli
Streptococcus pneumonia 37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either toxigenic or
13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia liquefaciens non-toxigenic
14. Positive to malonate reaction: Enterobacter 38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase +, motile, VP +,
aerogenes dont produce acid from mannitol
15. Species that have buff(light brown) colony: 39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, it is essential to:
Flavobacterium meningosepticum demonstrate toxin production
16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce small colonies 40. Pasteurization is process of in which: total bacterial
required urea and cholesterol for growth: T-strain count is lowered by heating at 62 degree Celsius
17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio cholera from for 30 mins.
stool: TCBS and alkaline peptone water 41. Paper strip for H2S producer is impregnated with: Lead
18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product of acetate
glucose fermentation: acetoin 42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson
19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5 43. Porphyrin test is for identification of: Haemophilus sp.
20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine Deaminase: 44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite broth
Morganella, Proteus, Providencia 45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red
21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood and bone 46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of Weil Disease :
marrow as specimen: Biphasic-Castaneda with leptospirosis
Brucella broth 47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: Elementary body
22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as pink eye: 48. Which of the ff grow in artificial medium: Rickettsia
Hemophilus influenzae biotype III typhi, Chlamydia trachomata, R. rickettsii, Rochalimaea
23. Majority of H. influenza infection are caused by capsular Quintana
serotype: b 49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: Coccidiodes, Mucor,
24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease: Borrelia Microspores, Candida albicans
burgdorferi 50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous portion is:
25. Using Loefflers methylene blue, it shows various letter Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus, Candida sp.
shapes and metachromatic granules, it is most likely: 51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain from skin by what
Corynebacterium sp. method: scrap tissue from the infected area
26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause pseudomembranous 52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans
colitis: C. difficile 53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms: Dimorphic fungi
54. All genera are dermatophytes except: Sporothrix
55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF: Cryptococcus 79. The ff specimen is acceptable for microbiology culture:
neoformans with swab and specimen with catheter
56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever: Sporothrix 80. Grape-like microconidia: Trichophyton
57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes braziliense is: yeast mentagrophytes
cell with multipolar budding around the 81. Media for pigment development for T. rubrum:
periphery Cornmeal agar
58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus 82. Transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhea
59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola 83. Most important cause of respiratory viral infection in
60. When should pregnant women concern in Rubella children: Influenza, Parainfluenza, human papilloma
infection: 1st trimester virus, respiratory syncitial virus
61. Steps involved in replication of virus except: Mitosis 84. Among this bacteria, which is least biochemically reactive
62. Kopliks spot: Measles of Enterobacteriacea: Shigella
63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule 85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic: gastric washings,
64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases, while toxic products midstream urine, stool, aspiration biopsy
accumulated in: stationary phase 86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate pathologic fungi
65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry heat oven: B. from contaminants: penicillin-streptomycin, vancomycin-
subtilis v. niger nystatin, cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatin-
66. Iodophores compose of iodine and: detergents streptomycin
67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily inactivated by: 87. quality control in monitor reagent in antibiotic disk is:
organic material container first open, once a week, once a month
68. Which of the ff is not G(-): Peptococcus, Salmonella, 88. gram () anaerococcus seen as red fluorescence under
Branhamella, Aeromonas UV light: veilonella, neisseria, fusobacterium,
69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Veilonella, peptococcus
Fusobacterium, actinomyces, Campylobacter 89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this virus: EBV, CMV,
70. Most abundant normal flora in throat cultures: Alpha adenovirus, rubella
hemolytic Streptococcus 90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells of urine of infants
71. Most common pathogen in throat cultures: Group A w/ symptoms jaundice, neurologic defects, low birth
streptococcus rate: EBV infection, CMV infection, Variola virus, Rubella
72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with Antiserum is used virus
which of ff sero test in CSF: Coagglutination 91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid composition,
73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates beta hemolytic: mode of transmission, cross-reacting ag, reqd of reverse
Hemophilus transcriptase
74. UTI in old women: Staph. Saprophyticus 92. Scalp infection in children are from this epidemic
75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium and Modified ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus, microsporum
Thayer: Nystatin gypseum, microsporum aldonei
76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + rods 93. Concentration methods for AFBS: digestion of bleach,
77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA centrifugation, digestive of mucus alkali, AOTA
78. German measles: Rubeola 94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen bromide