Form Number : Paper Code : 0999 DM610216001

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2016 - 2017)

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2017
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIIMS
TEST DATE : 19 - 03 - 2017
TEST SYLLABUS : SECTION-II
Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your
Form No.

Correction Paper code Form No. dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
mail

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+91-744-5156100, 5162200 dlp@allen.ac.in www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/19-03-2017
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. A particle starts from the point (0m, 8m) and 1.
(0m, 8m)
3i m/s
moves with uniform velocity of 3i m/s . After
5 seconds, the angular velocity of the particle
about the origin will be y

3m/s
y

3m/s
8m

8m x
O

x
O 8
(1)
289

8
(1) rad/s 3
289 (2)
3 8
(2) rad/s
8
24
24 (3)
289

(3) rad/s
289
8
8 (4)
(4) rad/s 17
17
2. In the following figure r1 and r2 are 5 cm and 2.
r1 r2 5
30
30 cm respectively. If the moment of inertia of 5100
2

the wheel is 5100 kg-m 2 then its angular

:
acceleration will be :- 10N
10N 3 0
r1

30
r1 12N
9N
12N r2
9N
r2
(1) 104 (2) 103
2 2
(1) 104 rad/sec2 (2) 103 rad/sec2
(3) 102 (4) 101
2 2
2 2
(3) 10 rad/sec (4) 101 rad/sec2
3. A solid sphere is placed on a horizontal plane. 3.
A horizontal impulse I is applied at a distance h
I
h above the central line as shown in the figure.
h/R
Soon after giving the impulse the sphere starts

rolling.
The ratio h/R would be- I

I h
C
h R
C
R

1 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 2 1 1 2 5 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 4 5

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4. There is a concentric hole of radius R in a solid 4. 2R
R
sphere of radius 2R. Mass of the remaining
M

portion is M. What is the gravitational potential

?
at centre?

5GM 7GM
5GM 7GM
(1) (2)
7R 14R
(1) (2)
7R 14R
3GM 9GM
3GM 9GM
(3) (4)
7R 14R
(3) (4)
7R 14R
K
5. The gravitational field due to a mass 5. x
E 3
x
K (K
)
x
distribution is E in the xdirection. (K is
x3

a constant). Taking the gravitational potential
to be zero at infinity, its value at the distance x K K
(1) (2)
is : x 2x

K K K K K K
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 2 (4)
x 2x x2 2x 2 x 2x 2
6. The rotation of the Earth having radius R about 6. R
its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
600
latitude angle 600 feels weightless. The duration
of the day in such case will be
R g R g
(1) 8 g (2) 8 (1) 8 (2) 8
R g R

R g R g
(3) g (4) 4 (3) g (4) 4
R R

7. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows 7. 200

0.1% decrease in its volume at the bottom.
0.1%
What is the bulk modulus of the material of the

:
ball : 8 2 10 2
(1) 19.6 108 N/m2 (2) 19.6 1010 N/m 2 (1) 19.6 10 N/m (2) 19.6 10 N/m
10 2 8 2
(3) 19.6 1010 N/m2 (4) 19.6 108 N/m2 (3) 19.6 10 N/m (4) 19.6 10 N/m
8. To what height h should a cylindrical vessel of 8. d
h

diameter d be filled with a liquid so that the total
force on the vertical surface of the vessel be
equal to the force on the bottom :
(1) h = d (2) h = 2d
(1) h = d (2) h = 2d
(3) h = 3d (4) h = d/2
(3) h = 3d (4) h = d/2
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9. A cylindrical container of radius 'R' and height 9. R
h
'h' is completely filled with a liquid. Two
L
horizontal L shaped pipes of small cross
section area 'a' are connected to the cylinder a
as shown in the figure. Now the two pipes
are opened and fluid starts coming out of the
pipes horizontally in opposite directions. Then
the torque due to ejected liquid on the system

is

2R
2R

h/2 h/2
h/2 h/2
R R
R R

(1) 4 aghR (2) 8 aghR (1) 4 aghR (2) 8 aghR

(3) 2 aghR (4) none of these (3) 2 aghR (4)
10. A capillary of the shape as shown is dipped in 10.
a liquid. Contact angle between the liquid and
00
the capillary is 0 and effect to liquid inside the
meniscus is to be neglected. T is surface tension T,

of the liquid, r is radius of the meniscus, g is
r
g

acceleration due to gravity and is density of
the liquid then height h in equilibrium is:
h

h h

2T 2T
(1) Greater than (1)
rg

rg

2T 2T
(2) Equal to (2)
rg

rg

2T 2T
(3) Less than (3)
rg

rg
(4) Of any value depending upon actual value (4)
11. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line 11.
PV
passing through origin. The molar heat
capacity of the gas in the process will be

(1) 4 R (2) 2.5 R
(1) 4 R (2) 2.5 R
4R
(3) 3 R (4) 4R
3 (3) 3 R (4)
3
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12. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons 12.
A
B
contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas
300 K
A
at 300 K. The piston of A is free to move while
that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat B
is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise
A
30 K
in temperature of the gas in A is 30 K, then the
B

rise in temperature of the gas in B is
(1) 30 K (2) 18 K (3) 50 K (4) 42 K (1) 30 K (2) 18 K (3) 50 K (4) 42 K
13. Which of the following graphs correctly 13.
ln E In T
represents the relation between ln E and ln T
E

where E is the amount of rediation emitted per
unit time from unit area of a body and T is the
T
absolute temperature
n E n E
n E n E
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
n T n T
n T n T

n E n E
n E n E
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
n T
n T 0 n T
0 n T

14. For proper ventilation of building, windows 14.

must be open near the bottom and top of the
walls so as to let pass
(1) In more air (1)
(2) In cool air near the bottom and hot air out (2)
near the roof
(3) In cool air near the roof and hot air out near (3)
the bottom
(4) Out hot air near the bottom (4)
15. The energy spectrum of a black body exhibits 15.
0
a mximum around a wavelength 0 . The
temperature of the black body is now changed
3
such that the energy is maximum around a
0

4
3 0
wavelength . The power radiated by the
4

black body will now increase by a factor of
256 64
256 64 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 81 27
81 27
16 4
16 4 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 9 3
9 3

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16. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a 16.
gas is found to be proportional to the cube of
Cp/C
v
its absolute temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv for the

gas is
3 4 5 3 4 5
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) (1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 3 3 2 3 3
17. A cyclic process for 1 mole V 17.
V
C
of an ideal gas is shown in V2 C V-T V 2

figure in the V-T, diagram.

AB, BC
The work done in AB, BC V1 A B V A 1 B
O T1 T CA
O T T2
T
and CA respectively T2 1

V V
(1) 0,RT2 ln 1 , R(T1T2) (1) 0,RT2 ln 1 , R(T1T2)
V2 V2

V1 V1
(2) R(T1T2), 0, RT1 ln (2) R(T1T2), 0, RT1 ln
V2 V2

V V
(3) 0,RT2 ln 2 , R(T1T2) (3) 0,RT2 ln 2 , R(T1T2)
V1 V1

V V
(4) 0,RT2 ln 2 , R(T2T1) (4) 0,RT2 ln 2 , R(T2T1)
V1 V1
18. A particle is oscillating simple Harmonically 18.
with angular frequency and amplitude A. It A
is at a point (A) at certain instant (Shown in (A)
(2)
figure). At this instant it is moving towards

(2) t

mean position (2). It takes time t to reach mean
position (2). If time period of oscillation is T. T
A B
The average speed between A & B is:- :-
x=0 x=0
A B A B

A cost) Asint) A cost) Asint)

(1) (2) (1) (2)
t t t t

A cost) ASint) A cost) ASint)

(3) (4) (3) (4)
T T T T
19. Two particles A & B perform SHM along the 19.
A
B
same straight line with the same amplitude 'a'
'a'
'f'
'o'
same frequency 'f' and same equilibrium position
'o'. The greatest distance between them is found
'a'
to be 'a'. At some instant of time they have the
same displacement from mean position. What is
it's displacement:-
:-

3a a 7 3a 3a a 7 3a
(1) (2) (3) a (4) (1) (2) (3) a (4)
2 2 4 4 2 2 4 4

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20. A particle in SHM has velocities U, V and 20.
acceleration a, b in two of its positions find the U, V
a, b
distance between these two positions:-
:-

V2 U2 V2 U2 V2 U2 V2 U2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
ab ab ab ab

U2 V2 U2 V2
(3) (4) None of these (3) (4) None of these
ab ab
21. Which of the following graph represents 21.
variation of loudness versus intensity:-
L L

(1) (1)
I I
L L

(2) (2)
I I
L L

(3) (3)
I I
L L

(4) (4)
I I
22. The diagram below shows a sinusoidal curve. 22.
:-
The equation of the curve will be:-
y(cm)
y(cm)
2
2 1
1 2 t(s)
3
2 t(s) 1
3
1 2
2

(1) 2sin 2t (2) 2sin t
(1) 2sin 2t (2) 2sin t 6 3
6 3

(3) 2 cos t (4) 2 cos t
(3) 2 cos t (4) 2 cos t 3 3
3 3

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23. A 1m long wire having tension T is fixed at A 23. T
1 m
A
and free at B. The point C, 20 cm from B is
B
B 20 cm
constrained to be stationary. What is shape of C
string for fundamental mode:-
:-

A C B A C B

20cm 20cm
C C
(1) (1)

C C
(2) (2)

(3) C (3) C

C C
(4) (4)

24. The Diagram shows two pulses, A & B to the 24.

A
B
right along a uniform rope. Compare to pulse B,
A
:-
A, pulse B has:-

A B
A B
(1)
(1) the same speed and more energy (2)
(2) a slower speed and more energy
(3)
(3) a faster speed and the same energy
(4) a faster speed and less energy (4)
25. Two plane mirrors M 1 and M 2 each having 25.
M1
M2
length 2 3 m are separated by 0.2 m. A ray of 2 3 m
0.2 m
light is incident on one end of mirror M1 at an
M1 30
angle 30. How many reflections the ray will
suffer before going out from the other end
(
(excluding the first one) :-
) :-

2 3m 2 3m

M2 M2

30 30
M1 M1

(1) 28 (2) 30 (3) 32 (4) 34 (1) 28 (2) 30 (3) 32 (4) 34

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS-MAJOR/19-03-2017
26. In young's double slit experiment, the 26.
S1 S2
seperation between two coherent sources S1 &
S 2 is d and distance between the source and
d
D
screen in D. In the interference pattern, it is
found that exactly infront of one slit, there
occurs a minimum. Then the possible
:-
wavelengths used in the experiment are :-
d 2 d2 d 2 d2 d2 d2
2
d d d 2 2 2
d d d 2 2 (1) , , (2) , ,
(1) , , (2) , , D 3D 5D D 5D 9D
D 3D 5D D 5D 9D
d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 d2
d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 (3) , , (4) , ,
(3) , , (4) , , D 2D 3D 3D 7D 11D
D 2D 3D 3D 7D 11D
27. In YSDE two slabs of t1,1 27. YSDE
t1 t2 t1,1
thickness t 1 & t 2 &
1 2
refractive index 1 & 2 S
O S1 S2S O
are inserted infront of
two slits S 1 & S 2, then
condition for which t2,2
t , 2 2

central maxima is obtained at centre will be:-

:-
(1) 1t1 = 2 t2 (1) 1t1 = 2 t2
(2) (1-1) t1 = (21)t2
(2) (1-1) t1 = (21)t2
(3) If 1 > 2 then t1 > t2 (3) 1 > 2 t1 > t2
(4) None (4)
28. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a 28.
plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are
parallel to each other. If the lenses are made of 1
2
different materials of refractive indices 1 and
2 and R is the radius of curvature of curved
surfaces of the lenses, then the focal length of R
:-
combination is :-
R 2R
R 2R (1) (2)
(1) (2) (1 2 ) ( 2 1 )
(1 2 ) ( 2 1 )
R R
R R (3) (4)
(3) 2( ) (4) 2 ( ) 2(1 2 ) 2 (1 2 )
1 2 1 2

29. A prism of refractive index 2 has a refracting 29. 2

30
angle of 30. One of the refracting surfaces of
the prism is polished. A beam of
monochromatic light will retrace its path if its
angle of incidence on the refracting surface is
(1) 0 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 60 (1) 0 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 60
30. In an astronomical telescope in normal 30.
adjustment a straight black line of length L is
L
drawn on inside part of objective lens. The
eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The

I
length of this image is I. The magnification of
the telescope is :
L L L LI L L L LI
(1) (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) (1) (2) 1 (3) 1 (4)
I I I LI I I I LI

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31. A plane wave front of wave length 6000 is 31. 6000
0.2 mm
incident upon a slit of 0.2mm width, which
enables Fraunhofer's diffraction pattern to be
2 m
obtained on a screen 2 metre away. Width of
the central maxima in mm will be :
mm
(1) 10 (2) 12 (1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 8 (4) 2 (3) 8 (4) 2
32. In figure the graph ploted between stopping 32.
potential (V 0 ) and frequency () for photo
(V0)
sensitive surface of cesium , potecium, sodium ()
and lithium. These curves are parallel to each

other then the decreasing order of work function
for their target:-
:-

V0 V0

ium
ium

ium

um
ium

um

tec
m

thi
siu
tec

od
thi
siu

od

Po

) li
)s
ce
Po

) li
)s
ce

(ii)

(iii

(iv
(i)
(ii)

(iii

(iv
(i)

14
5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 (2 1014) 5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 (2 10 )

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) (2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(4) (i) = (iii) > (ii) = (iv) (4) (i) = (iii) > (ii) = (iv)
33. If the mass of a radioactive substance is 33.
doubled. Then the Activity and decay constant
:-
of substance respectively :- (1)
,
(1) Increases , constant
(2)
,
(2) decreases, Increases
(3)
,
(3) decreases, constant
(4) Increases, decreases (4)
,
34. At a particular instant in a substance, number 34.
of undecayed radioactive nuclei is 25%. After
25% 10 sec
10 sec the undecayed nuclei decreased to 6.25%

6.25% then the average life of nuclei :-
:-
(1) 14.43 sec (2) 7.21 sec (1) 14.43 sec (2) 7.21 sec
(3) 5 sec (4) 10 sec (3) 5 sec (4) 10 sec
35. Maximum energetic electrons are bombarding 35.
on the target. Target element have 30 neutrons
30
the ratio of radius of target nucleus and Helium

141/3
nucleus are 14 1/3 . The atomic number of
nucleus:-
:-
(1) 25 (2) 26 (1) 25 (2) 26
(3) 56 (4) 30 (3) 56 (4) 30

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36. The readings of ammeters A 1 and A 2 in the 36.
A1 A2
given diagram will be (neglect the resistance (
)
of ammeters) 10
10 A1
A1

2v
2v
A2
A2 10
10
(1) Zero, Zero (2) Zero, 0.1 A (1) Zero, Zero (2) Zero, 0.1 A
(3) 0.1 A, Zero (4) Zero, 0.2 A (3) 0.1 A, Zero (4) Zero, 0.2 A
37. For the transistor circuit shown below, if 37.
= 100,
= 100, voltage drop between emitter and base
0.7V
VCE
is 0.7V then value of VCE will be :-
:-

100 100
C C
8.6k 8.6k
V CE 18V V CE 18V
B B
E E

5V 5V
(1) 10V (2) 5V (1) 10V (2) 5V
(3) 13V (4) 0V (3) 13V (4) 0V

38. Boolean term A.B A.B is equal to :- 38. A.B A.B

:-
(1) A.B A.B (2) A.B A.B (1) A.B A.B (2) A.B A.B
(3) A.B A.B (4) A.B A.B (3) A.B A.B (4) A.B A.B
39. A electron moving in the field :- 39.
(i)
(i) Moving opposite to the electric field
(ii)
(ii) Moving in the direction of electric field as
showing in figure. Then the de brogli wave
:-
length in each condition.
v e
v
v e e
v
e
E
E
E E (i) (ii)
(i) (ii)
(1)
,
(1) Increase, Increase
(2)
,
(2) Increase, decrease
(3)
,
(3) Decrease, Increase
(4) Unchanged in both situation (4)
40. In semi-conductors at a room temperature :- 40.
:-
(1) The valence band is partially empty and the (1)
conduction band is partially filled
(2) The valence band is completely filled and (2)
the conduction band is partially filled
(3) The valence band is completely filled (3)
(4) The conduction band is completely empty (4)

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41. Suppose the following reaction :- 41.
O

O2 O
H H /
+ CH3CH=CH2 A B C+CH3CCH3 H

O2
H /
+ CH3CH=CH2 A B C+CH3CCH3

The structure of intermediate compound 'B' will

be :-
'B'
CH3 CH3
OH OCHCH3 OH OCHCH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

CH 3COOH CHCH2OOH CH 3COOH CHCH2OOH

(3) (4) (3) (4)

42. Most suitble reagent for following conversion 42.

will be :-
O OH O OH

? O ? O
O O
COCH3 COCH3 COCH3 COCH3

(1) LiAH4 (2) NH2NH2/ OH (1) LiAH4 (2) NH2NH2/ OH

(3) NaBH 4 (4) HI/P(red) (3) NaBH 4 (4) HI/P(red)
43. The product of following reaction will be :- 43.
O
H3O O
O (hydrolysis) Products H3O
O (hydrolysis) Products
OH H
OH H
OH C=O
(1) OH C=O
+
(1) +
OH OH
OH OH
(2) +
O (2) +
O
OH O
OH O

(3) + (3) +
OH
OH

(4) 2
(4) 2

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44. Suppose following reaction :- 44.
OH O OH O

Alc. KOH (1) Tallen's reagent CH3CO Alc. KOH (1) Tallen's reagent CH3CO
2 2
+ CHCl3 A B Product + CHCl3 A B Product
(main (2) H (Analgesic) (main (2) H (Analgesic)
product) product)

The structure of product will be :-

O O

OH OCCH3 OH OCCH3
O O O O
COH COH COH COH
(1) (2) (1) (2)

OO OH O O OO OH O O
C=O C=O
COCCH3 COCCH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)

45. Which of the following compound does not 45.

NaHCO3
CO2
evolve CO2 on reaction with NaHCO3?
OH COOH OH COOH
O2 N NO2 O2 N NO2
(1) (2) (1) (2)

NO2 NO2

OH OH
NH3Cl NH3Cl
(3) (4) (3) (4)

46. In following reaction main product will be :- 46.

N2Cl N2Cl
OH OH
OH OH
products products

CH3 CH3
OH OH OH OH
N=N N=N
(1) (2) (1) (2)

N=N CH3 CH3 N=N CH3 CH3

OH ON=N OH ON=N

(3) (4) (3) (4)

CH2N=N CH3 CH2N=N CH3

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47. Which of the following undergoes electrophilic 47.
NaNO2
HCl
nitrosation reaction at aromatic ring when
treated with NaNO2 & HCl ?
Cl NO2 OH NH 2 Cl NO2 OH NH 2

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

48. Diethyl ether reacts with O 2 to form an 48.

O2
explosive compound. The structure of this
compound is :-
OOH
OOH (1) CH3CH2OCHCH3
(1) CH3CH2OCHCH3 OH
OH
(2) CH3CH2OCHCH3
(2) CH3CH2OCHCH3
O
O (3) CH3CH CHCH3
(3) CH3CH CHCH3 O
O

(4) (4)
49. Suppose the following SN2 reaction 49.
CH3 CH3
HC CNa
NCCCl Product HC CNa
NCCCl Product
H H
If the configuration of substrate is 'R', then the
'R'
configuration of product will be :-
(1) R (2) S (1) R (2) S
(3) 50% R & 50% S (4) Cannot predict (3) 50% R & 50% S (4) Can't predict
50. Suppose the following reaction - 50.
Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
+ CH3 ONa Product
+ CH3 ONa Product
NO2
NO2
The structure of Major Product will be :-
Cl Cl OCH3
OCH3 OCH3
OCH3 Cl Cl
(1) (2) (1) (2)

NO2 NO2 NO 2
NO 2

Cl Cl
CH3O Cl OCH3 CH3O Cl OCH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO2 NO 2 NO2 NO 2

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51. The main product of following reaction will be:- 51.

CH2Br CH2Br
Cl Cl
NaOH(aq) NaOH(aq)
Product Product
NO2 NO2

CH2OH CH 2Br CH2OH CH 2Br

Cl OH Cl OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)

NO2 NO 2 NO2 NO 2

CH 2OH CH2Br CH 2OH CH2Br

OH Cl OH Cl
(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO 2 OH NO 2 OH
52. Arrange the following in order of their 52.
reactivity toward elimination reaction -

Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl

I II III I II III

(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I (4) I > III > II (3) III > II > I (4) I > III > II
53. The main product of following reaction will be 53.
N2Cl N2Cl
HBF4 HBF4
solid salt Product

NH2 NH2
(1) (1)

BF3 BF3
(2) (2)

F F
(3) (3)

Cl Cl
(4) (4)

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K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2So4 NaOH 54.
54. 'X' Y Z (yellow)
Brick red orange-red
flame colour gas

X, Y, Z are:- X, Y, Z
:-
X Y Z X Y Z
(1) BaCl 2 CrO2Cl2 Na2CrO4 (1) BaCl 2 CrO2Cl2 Na2CrO4
(2) CaCl 2 CrO2Cl2 Na2CrO4 (2) CaCl 2 CrO2Cl2 Na2CrO4
(3) CaCl 2 CrO3 Cr2O3 (3) CaCl 2 CrO3 Cr2O3
(4) BaCl 2 CrO2Cl2 CrO3 (4) BaCl 2 CrO2Cl2 CrO3
55. Which of the following d-block metal can 55.
d-

H2SO4
NaOH
produce H2 with dil. H2SO4 & NaOH both in

H2
:-
separate test :-
(1) Fe (2) Ag (3) Cu (4) Zn (1) Fe (2) Ag (3) Cu (4) Zn
56. Coloured & Paramagnetic oxoanion is :- 56.
:-
(1) MnO4 (1) MnO4

(2) CrO42 (2) CrO42

(3) MnO 2
4
(3) MnO 2
4

(4) Cr2O2
7
(4) Cr2O2
7

57. Which of the following pair of complexes have 57.

same magnetic moment, same hybridisation
EAN :-
and same EAN value ?
(1) [Ti (H 2O)6]+3 and [Mn(NH3)6]+2
(1) [Ti (H2O)6]+3 and [Mn(NH3)6]+2
(2) [AuCl 4] and [PdCl 4]2
(2) [AuCl 4] and [PdCl 4]2
(3) [Fe(dmg)2] and [Ni(dmg)2] (3) [Fe(dmg)2] and [Ni(dmg)2]

(4) [Fe(CO)2(NO)2] and [Ni(CO)4] (4) [Fe(CO)2(NO)2] and [Ni(CO)4]

58. The complex ion having only two 58.

stereoisomers, is : :-
(1) [CoBr2(en)2]+ (1) [CoBr2(en)2]+

(2) [PtBr(CN)(NO2)(NH3)] (2) [PtBr(CN)(NO2)(NH3)]

(3) [Zn(en)2]++ (3) [Zn(en)2]++

(4) [Cr(ox)3]3- (4) [Cr(ox)3]3-

59. The IUPAC name for 59. K2[CrVINH3(CN)2(O)2(O2)] IUPAC
:-
K2[CrVINH3(CN)2(O)2(O2)] is :- (1) potassium amminedicyanido
(1) potassium amminedicyanido dioxidoperoxidochromate(VI)
dioxidoperoxidochromate(VI) (2) poteassium amminedicyanotetraoxochromium
(2) potassium amminedicyanotetraoxochromium (III)
(III)
(3) potassium amminedicyanochromate(IV)
(3) potassium amminedicyanochromate(IV)
(4) potassium amminocyanodiperoxochromate
(4) potassium amminocyanodiperoxochromate
(VI)
(VI)

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60. On heating lead (II) nitrate gives a brown gas 60. (II)
"A"
"A". The gas "A" on cooling changes to
"A"
"B"
colourless solid "B". At 250K Solid "B" with 250K "B" NO
NO changes to a blue solid 'C'. Identify 'A', 'B'
'C''A', 'B', 'C'
:-
and 'C':
(1) NO, NO2, N2O (1) NO, NO2, N2O
(2) NO2, N2O4, N2O3 (2) NO2, N2O4, N2O3
(3) NO2, NO, N2O3 (3) NO2, NO, N2O3
(4) N2O, NO2, N2O4 (4) N2O, NO2, N2O4
61. Which of the following substances has the 61.
highest proton affinity?
:-
(1) PH3 (1) PH3
(2) H2O (2) H2O
(3) H2S (3) H2S
(4) NH3 (4) NH3
62. Which of the following is oxidised by O3 ? 62.
O3
:-
(1) BaMnO4 (1) BaMnO4
(2) Fe2(SO4)3 (2) Fe2(SO4)3
(3) KMnO4 (3) KMnO4
(4) K2Cr2O7 (4) K2Cr2O7
63. Which of the following statements is not true? 63.
:-
(1) Only type of interactions between particles (1)
of noble gases are due to weak dispersion
force. (2)
(2) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is
very close to that of xenon.
(3) XeF6
(3) Hydrolysis of XeF 6 is redox reaction
(4)
F
F
(4) Xenon fluorides can act as both F acceptor
and F donor
64. Which of the following order is not correct? 64.
:-
(1) Cl3 Br3 I 3 Stability (1) Cl3 Br3 I 3
(2) HCl > HBr > HI > HF Vapour pressure (2) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
(3) HClO4 < HNO3 < H2CO3< H3BO3 pKa values (3) HClO4 < HNO3 < H2CO3< H3BO3 pKa
(4) ClO2 > Cl2O > H2O Bond angle (4) ClO2 > Cl2O > H2O
65. Which of the following is not correctly 65.
:-
matched?
(1) ZnCO 3 Zn
(1) ZnCO3 Zn Calcination followed by
smelting (2) Al(OH)3 Al

(2) Al(OH)3 Al Calcination followed by
electrolytic reduction (3) PbS Pb
(3) PbS Pb Partial roasting followed
by self reduction
(4) Cu2S Cu
(4) Cu2S Cu R o asting follow ed by
carbon reduction

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66. Which of the following line is not correctly 66. ellinghm's
represent in ellinghm's diagram?
:-

O C + O 2CO2 O C + O 2CO2
M3 + G M3 +
G O2 O2
O
(ve) O (ve)
O O 2 O
O 2 M2 +
M2 + O O
M 1 + O2
M 1 + O2

T K T K
(1) M1O (2) M2O (3) M3O (4) CO2 (1) M1O (2) M2O (3) M3O (4) CO2
1 1
67.
k 0.1M min
Consider a reaction A(g) 2B(g). 67. k 0.1M min
A(g) 2B(g)
If initial concentration of A is 0.5 M then select
A
0.5 M
correct graph :-
(1) (1)

0.5M 0.5M

[B] [B]
5 10 5 10
time (in min)
( )

(2) 1.0M (2) 1.0M

[B] [B]
0.5M 0.5M

5 10 5 10
time (in min)
( )
(3) (3)

1.0M 1.0M
[B] [B]

5 10 5 10
time (in min)
( )

(4) 2.0M (4) 2.0M

1.0M 1.0M
[B] [B]
5 10 5 10
time (in min)
( )
68. Which of the following statements in incorrect ? 68.
(1) A second order reaction must be a (1)
bimolecular elementary reaction
(2) A bimolecular elementary reaction must be (2)
a second order reaction
(3) Zero order reaction must be a complex (3)
reaction
(4) First order reaction may be complex or (4)
elementary reaction
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69. Decomposition of HI (g) on Gold surface is 69.
HI (g)
zero order reaction. Initially few moles of H2
H 2
are present in container then which of the
following graph is correct ?

PH2 PH2 PH2 PH2

(1) (2) (1) (2)
time time

PH2 PH2 PH2 PH2

(3) (4) (3) (4)
time time
70. One gm metal M 3+ was discharged by the 70. 1
M3+
(discharge)
passage of 1.81 1023 electrons. What is the 1.81 10
23

atomic weight of metal ?

(1) 33.35 (2) 133.4 (1) 33.35 (2) 133.4
(3) 66.7 (4) None of these (3) 66.7 (4)
71. A 100.0 mL dilute solution of Ag +
is 71. Ag+ 100.0
1.25 A
electrolyzed for 15.0 minutes with a current of 15.0

1.25 mA and the silver is removed completely.
Ag+
[Ag+]
What was the initial [Ag+] ?
:-
(1) 2.32 101 M (2) 2.32 104 M (1) 2.32 101 M (2) 2.32 104 M
(3) 2.32 103 M (4) 1.16 104 M (3) 2.32 103 M (4) 1.16 104 M
72. In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, what 72. NaCl
STP
volume of Cl 2(g) is produced in the time that 5.0 H2(g)
it takes to liberate 5.0 liter of H2(g) ? Assume Cl2(g) STP
that both gases are measured at STP. (1) 5.0 (2) 2.50
(1) 5.0 (2) 2.50 (3) 7.50 (4) 10.0 (3) 7.50 (4) 10.0
73. Which of the crystal systems contains the 73.
(Bravais
maximum number of Bravais lattices ? lattices)
(1) Cubic (2) Hexagonal (1) (2)
(3) Triclinic (4) Orthorhombic (3) (4)
74. The fraction of volume occupied by atoms in 74.
(bcc)
a body centered cubic unit cell is :- (volume fraction)
(1) 0.32 (2) 0.48
(3) 0.68 (4) 0.74 (1) 0.32 (2) 0.48 (3) 0.68 (4) 0.74
75. Corresponding coordination number for the 75.
simple, fcc and bcc lattices are :-
:-
(1) 12 sc; 12 fcc; 8 bcc (1) 12 sc; 12 fcc; 8 bcc
(2) 6 sc; 14 fcc; 8 bcc (2) 6 sc; 14 fcc; 8 bcc
(3) 8 sc; 12 fcc; 6 bcc (3) 8 sc; 12 fcc; 6 bcc
(4) 6 sc; 12 fcc; 8 bcc (4) 6 sc; 12 fcc; 8 bcc

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76. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is 76.
exothermic because :
:
(1) free energy increases (1)
(2) entropy decreases (2)
(3) entropy increases (3)
(4) interaction developed between gas and solid (4)
particles
77. Which of the following statement is not 77.


correct? (1)
(1) Physical adsorption is due to vander Waal's
forces
(2)
(2) Physical adsorption is irreversible
(3) Chemical adsorption increses with increase (3)
in temperature upto certain limit than
decreases
(4)
(4) Enthalpy of adsorption (|H|) for a chemical

adsorptionis greater than that of physical

adsorption
78. For an ideal binary liquid solution with 78.
PA PB , XA
PA PB , which relation between X A (mole (
A
)
YA (
fraction of A in liquid phase) and YA (mole A
)
fraction of A in vapour phase) is correct ? (1) YA < YB (2) XA > XB
(1) YA < YB (2) XA > XB
YA X A YA X A YA X A YA X A
(3) Y X (4) Y X (3) Y X (4) Y X
B B B B
B B B B
79. The solubility of a specific non-volatile salt is 79. 25C (non-volatile)
4g in 100g of water at 25C. If 2.0 g, 4.0 g and 100g 4
25C
6.0 g of the salt added to 100 g of water at 25C, X, Y, Z2.0
, 4.0
6.0
in system X, Y and Z. The vapour pressure
100
would be in the order :- :-
(1) X < Y < Z (1) X < Y < Z
(2) X > Y > Z (2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > X = Y (3) Z > X = Y
(4) X > Y = Z (4) X > Y = Z
80. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of 80.
water-ethanol is less than that of both water and
ethanol. Then :-
(1)
(1) the mixture will show negative deviation

from Raoult's law
(2) the mixture will show positive deviation (2)
from Raoult's law
(3) the mixture will show no deviation from (3)
Raoult's law
(4) the mixture cannot be considered as true
(4)
solution

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81. How many statements are correct :- 81.
:-
(a) High quality meat is a meat with less lipid (a)
(b) In MOET fertilised eggs are recovered at (b) MOET
32 64
32 to 64 celled stage

(c) Most common species of honeybee is Apis

(c)
mellifera
(d)
(d) Hisardale is an out cross product of sheep
(1) Only 1 statement is correct (1) 1
(2) Only 2 statement are correct (2) 2
(3) Only 3 statement are correct (3) 3
(4) All 4 statement are correct (4) 4
82. Read the following statements carefully :- 82.
:-
(a) The exine exhibit a fascinating array of (a)
patterns and designs.
(b) Pollen consumption has been claimed to (b)
decrease the performance of atheletes
(c) Carrot grass has become ubiquitous in
(c)
occurance and causes pollen allergy.

(d) Viability of pollen grain in rosaceae is for
(d)
a months
How many above statements are wrong ?
?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (1) (2) (3) (4)
83. Plant which prevent both autogamy and 83.
:-
geitonogamy :-
(1) (2)
(1) Castor (2) Maize
(3) Datepalm (4) Cucumber (3) (4)
84. Consider the following four statements (A D) 84.
(A D)
and select the option which include all the :-
correct ones only :-
(A)
(A) In diplospory megaspore mother cell directly
gives rise to an embryosac without meiosis.
(B) Formation of sporophyte from gametophyte (B)
without fertilization is apogamy.
(C) In adventive embryony, an embryo is
(C)
formed from any diploid cell of the ovule

except embryosac.

(D) In apospory gametophyte directly from
sporophyte without meiosis. (D)
(1) Statements A, B, C, D
(2) Statements A, B (1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B
(3) Statements B, C
(4) Statements A, B, C (3) B, C (4) A, B, C
85. Caruncle is :- 85.
:-
(1) Out growth of funicle (1)
(2) Out growth of integument near chalaza (2)
(3) unevenness on the surface of endosperm (3)
(4) Out growth of integument near micropyle (4)
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86. The wall of anther consist of four different 86.
layers where:- :-
(1) Middle layer lies between endothecium and (1)
tapetum.
(2) Endothecium lies inner to middle layer (2)
(3) Tapetum lies just below the endothecium (3)
(4) Tapetum lies just below the epidermis (4)
87. Ovulation takes places in human :- 87.
:-
(1) After coitus (1)
(2) Before coitus (2)
(3) On 14th day of menses cycle (3) 14
(4) On 17th day of menses cycle (4) 17
88. Which one of following is a non-glandular 88.
:-
structure:- (1) (2)
(1) uterus (2) Vagina
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Penis (3) (4)
89. A female suffering from the labour pain and doctor 89.
want to be parturation done earlyer so doctor
inject a hormon in mother body that helps in :-
:-
(1) Increase the activity of smooth muscles (1)
(2) Increase the metabolic rate (2)
(3) Increase the glucose level in blood (3)
(4) Increase the endometrium contriction (4)
90. Which technique is useful to produce the child if 90.
the male are impotent :-
:-
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) IUT (4) AI (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) IUT (4) AI
91. Male heterogamety is found in all of these 91.
except :-
(1) Human beings (2) Drosophilia (1) (2)
(3) Bird (fowl) (4) Grass hopper (3) (4)
92. In a dihybrid cross, how many plants are 92.
F2
2000
impure only for one character in F2 generation
out of 2000 plants ?
(1) 1000 (2) 500
(1) 1000 (2) 500 (3) 250 (4) 2000 (3) 250 (4) 2000
93. When F1 progeny resembles both the parents then 93. F1
the type of gene interaction is ?
(1) Incomplete dominance (1)
(2) Complementary gene interaction (2)
(3) Codominance (3)
(4) Dominance (4)
94. Morgan's experiment the F2 ratio deviated very 94.
F2
9:3:3:1
significantly from 9:3:3:1, this is due to :-
:-
(1) Independent assortment (1)
(2) Segregation (2)
(3) Linkage (3)
(4) Dominance (4)
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95. Which of the following is not a N 2 fixing 95.
N2
?
microbe ?
(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium
(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium
(3) Azospirillum (4) Glomus (3) Azospirillum (4) Glomus
96. Match Column I to Column II :- 96.
I
II :-
Column I Column II I II
(Microbes) (Application) (
) (
)
a
Bacillus
i
Biocontrol agents for
thuringinesis several plant pathogen a i
attack insects and other
b Trichoderma ii
arthropods b ii
to control butterfly
c Baculovirus iii
catterpillar c
iii

(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)

(1) i ii iii (1) i ii iii
(2) ii iii i (2) ii iii i
(3) ii i iii (3) ii i iii
(4) iii i ii (4) iii i ii
97. Agrobacterium tumifaciens used for gene 97.
Agrobacterium tumifaciens
transfer in :-
:-
(1) E.coli (2) Dicots (1)
. (2)
(3) Animals (4) Monocots (3) (4)
98. Which method is used for development of 98.
pomato ? ?
(1) Somatic embryogenesis (1)
(2) Somatic hybridization (2)
(3) Cybridization (3)
(4) RDT (4) RDT
99. 99.9% of base sequence among humans is the 99.
99.9%
same. Assuming human genome as 3109 bp, in
3109
how many base sequence would be differences ?
?
(1) 3104 (2) 3105 (1) 3104 (2) 3105
(3) 3106 (4) 3107 (3) 3106 (4) 3107
100. DNA finger printing involves identifying 100. DNA
differences in some specific regions in DNA
:
sequences called as :
(1)
DNA (2)
-
DNA
(1) repetitive DNA (2) non-repetitive DNA
(3) satellite DNA (4) (1) & (3) both (3)
DNA (4) (1) (3)
101. What is first step of southern blotting ? 101.
?
(1) Denaturation of DNA (1) DNA
(2) Hybridization
(2)
(3) Autoradiography
(3)
(4) All of thease
(4)

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102. Which of the following is a mismatch regarding 102.
the transgenic plant and its application ?
?
(1) Golden rice Vitamin A enriched rice (1)

A
(2) Flavr savr tomato Delay ripening (2) Flavr savr


(3) Tabacco herbicide resistant (3)

(4) Bt corn Resistant to nematode (4) Bt

103. In mung bean resistant to yellow mosaic virus 103.
and powedry mildew were induced by which
?
method ?
(1) (2)
(1) Selection (2) Hybridization
(3) Mutation (4) Introduction (3) (4)
104. In the given experiment which gases were used 104.
by miller

Electrodes Electrodes
To vacuum To vacuum
pump pump
Spark Spark
discharge discharge

Water out Water out

Conclenser Conclenser
Water in Water in
Water droplets Water droplets
Water contaning Water contaning
Boiling water Boiling water
Liquid water in trap Liquid water in trap

(1) NH3, CH4 and H2O(V) (1) NH3, CH4 and H2O(V)
(2) CH4, O2, H2O(V), H2 (2) CH4, O2, H2O(V), H2
(3) H2, C, N2, O2 (3) H2, C, N2, O2
(4) CH4, NH3, H2O, H2 (4) CH4, NH3, H2O, H2
105. Which of the following is not a part of Darwin's 105.
theory of evolution
(1) Genetic drift (1)
(2) Natural selection (2)
(3) Survival of fittest (3)
(4) Struggle for existence (4)
106. A scientist measures the circumference of acorns in 106.
a population of oak tree and discover that the most
2
common circumference is 2 cm. What would you cm
10
expect the most common circumference to be after
10 generation of disruptive selection.
(1) 2 cm (1) 2 cm
(2) greater than 2 cm or less than 2 cm (2) 2 cm 2 cm
(3) greater than 2 cm and less than 2 cm (3) 2 cm
2 cm
(4) plant will disappear (4)

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107. How many of the following are an examples 107.
of homologous structure in plant :-
(a) Eyes of octopus and mammal (a)
(b) Potato and sweet-potato (b)
(c) Fore limbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human (c)
(d) Vertebrate heart
(d)
(e) Thorn of bougainvillea and Tendrils of
(e)
cucurbits
(f) Potato and carrot (f)
(g) Potato and Radish (g)
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
108. Match Column 'A' with 'B' ? 108.
'A' 'B'
?

A B A B
(i) Infective stage of (a) Sporozoites (i)
(a)
plasmodium in human
(ii) Last stage of plasmodium (b) Gametocytes (ii)
(b)
in human
(iii)
RBC (c)
(iii) stage of plasmodium (c) Merozoites
which attacks on RBC
(iv)
(iv) s t a g e o f p l a s m o d i u m

formed inside Mosquito
(v)
(v) S ta g e o f p la s mo d iu m
which enters the liver first
Liver

(i) (ii) (iiii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iiii) (iv) (v)
(1) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c) (1) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c)
(2) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (2) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a)
(3) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (3) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c)
(4) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (4) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b)
109. Which of the following is not a fecooral route 109.
infection?
(1) (2)
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Typhoid
(3) Dengue (4) Ascariasis (3) (4)
110. Which of the following event not considered in 110.
(Innate)
innate immunity?
?
(1) NK Cells attacks tumour cells (1) NK
(2) Acidic Ph of Gastric secretions. (2)
(3) Interferons works as antiviral protein (3)
(4) IgG antibody gained by foetus from mother (4)
IgG
111. Which kind of immunity got affected if T-helper 111. T-
count goes on decreasing?
?
(1) Innate Immunity (1)
(Innate)
(2) only cell mediated immunity
(2)
(3) Both cell mediated & Antibody mediated
Immunity (3)
(4) All of the above (4)

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112. Match the following Column-I with Column- 112. -I
II

II and give correct answer :- :-
Column-I Column-II
-I
-II
(A) Temperature (i) Dobson (A) (i)
(B) Light (ii) Thermister
(B) (ii)
Bomb
(C) Biomass (iii)
Calorimeter (C) (iii)
(D) Ozone layer (iv) Lux meter (D) (iv)
(1) A(i), B(iii), C(iv), D(ii) (1) A(i), B(iii), C(iv), D(ii)
(2) A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i) (2) A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i)
(3) A(iii), B(i), C(iv), D(ii) (3) A(iii), B(i), C(iv), D(ii)
(4) A(iv), B(ii), C(i), D(iii) (4) A(iv), B(ii), C(i), D(iii)
113. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is :- 113.
:-
(1) Vallisneria NelumboAzollaCarrax (1) Vallisneria NelumboAzollaCarrax
Oak Oak
(2) AzollaNelumboCarraxVallisneria (2) AzollaNelumboCarraxVallisneria
Oak Oak
(3) OakVallisneriaCarraxNelumbo (3) OakVallisneriaCarraxNelumbo
Azolla Azolla
(4) CarraxNelumboAzollaVallisneria (4) CarraxNelumboAzollaVallisneria
Oak Oak
114. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 114.

?
(1) Trophic level represents functional level not a (1)
species level.
(2) Same species may occupy more than one (2)
trophic level in same ecosystem at same time.
(3) In most ecosystem, pyramids of number, (3)
Biomass and energy are upright.
(4) Energy at higher trophic level is more as (4)
compared to lower levels as they are
physically strong.
115. 115.
P Q P Q
R R

S S
T T

Above given pie chart is showing number of

vertebrate species. In above pie chart identify S
S
is representing species of :- :-
(1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians (1) (2)
(3) Birds (4) Fishes (3) (4)
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116. What can be correct for following food 116.

:-
web :-
J T4
J T4
H I T3
H I T3
E F G T2
E F G T2
A B C D T1
A B C D T1
(1) J
(1) J is decomposer
(2) C
(2) C is herbivore
(3) I is scavanger (3) I

(4) F is carnivore (4) F

117. Which statement is/are correct ? 117.

?
(a) Net primary productivity is available (a)
biomass for consumption to heterotrophs

(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of
formation of new organic matter by (b)
heterotrophs.
(c) The annual net primary productivity of
(c)
NPP,
ocean is greater than land
(d) Net community production increases during (d)
succession.
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d (4) a, b (3) a, b, d (4) a, b
118. After exponential increase, population growth 118.
declines and stagnates the growth curve is :-
:-
(1) S-shaped (1) S-
(2) J-shaped (2) J-
(3) straight line (3)
(4) Circular (4)
119. Choose the correct food chain given below 119.

A
where A is grass M is bacteria and J is lion :- M
J
:-
(a) A B B D (a) A B B D
(b) K L M N (b) K L M N
(c) G H I J (c) G H I J
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c (1) a, b, c (2) b, c
(3) only b (4) only c (3) only b (4) only c
120. The UN conference of parties (cop-21) on 120.
UN
climate change in the year 2015 was held at :- (cop-21) 2015
?
(1) Warsaw (2) Durban (1) (2)
(3) Lima (4) Paris (3) (4)

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DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 121 180

These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
answering these Questions you are required to

choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A.
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B.
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
C.
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False. D.
121. Assertion :- The stream of water flowing at high 121. :-
speed from a garden hose pipe tends to spread

like a fountain when held vertically up, but
tends to narrow down when held vertically
down.
Reason :- In any steady flow of an :-
incompressible fluid, the volume flow rate of
the fluid remains constant.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion :- As wind flows left to right and a ball 122. :-
is spined as shown, there will be a lift of the

ball.

Reason :- Decrease in velocity of air below the

ball, increases the pressure more than that above
:-
the ball.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion :- Escape velocity is independent of 123. :-
the angle of projection.
Reason :- Escape velocity from the surface of 2GM
:- R
2GM
Earth is .
R
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion :- When a planet approaches the point 124. :-
which is farthest from the Sun, its orbital speed
decreases.
Reason :- Work done on the planet by the :-
gravitational force exerted by the Sun is
negative. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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125. Assertion :- A disc is rolling on an inclined 125. :-
plane without slipping. The velocity of centre

v
of mass is v. There are others points on the
disc lies on a circular arc having same speed
as centre of mass.
Reason :- When a disc is rolling on an inclined :-
plane, the magnitude of velocities of all the
point from the contact point is same, having
distance equal to radius r. r
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion :- The radiation from the sun's 126. :-
surface varies as the fourth power of its
absolute temperature.
Reason :- The sun is not a black body.
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion :- Animals curl into a ball, when they 127. :-
feel very cold.
Reason :- Animals by curling their body :-
reduce the surface area
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion :- In adiabatic compression, the internal 128. :-
energy and temperature of the system get
decreased.
Reason :- The adiabatic compression is a slow :-
process
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion :- A man with a wrist watch (spring 129.
:-
wound) on his hand falls from the top of a tower.
The watch will show correct time during free fall.
Reason :- The working of the wrist watch :-
(spring wound) depends on spring action and
it has nothing to do with gravity
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion :- In simple pendulum performing 130.
:-
S.H.M net acceleration is always between
tangential and radial acceleration except at
lowest point
Reason :- At lowest point tangential :-
acceleration is non-zero.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion :- The more the velocity of a simple 131. :-
Harmonic wave in a string the more is the
maximum velocity of the particle of string.
Reason :- Vmax = A :- Vmax = A
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion :- The quality of sound depends on the 132.
:-
number of overtones produced by the
instrument. :-
Reason :- The pitch of sound depends on
fundamental frequency of the sound.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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133. Assertion :- The sun appears some time before 133. :-
the actual sun-rise.
Reason :- Because of the refraction through the :-
different layers of atmosphere.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- In modern microscope multicomponent 134. :-
lenses are used for both objective and eye piece. (multicomponent lenses)


Reason :- Multicomponent lenses system
:-
reduces aberration.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion : In YDSE interference pattern 135. : YDSE
disappears when one of the slits is closed.
Reason : Interference occurs due to super-
:
imposition of light wave from two coherent
sources.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion : If a person wants to observe sharp 136. :
and clear frings of good contrast then
interference experiment is prefrable compare
to diffraction.
:
Reason : In diffraction intensity after the central
maxima decreases rapidly, so fringe pattern
become blurred.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- A free neutron is unstable but a 137. :-
similar free proton decay is not possible.
Reason :- Since a proton is slightly lighter then
:-
neutron.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion :- Photoelectric effect demostrates the 138. :-
wave nature of light
Reason :- The number of photoelectrons is :-
proportional to the frequency of light.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- In Zener diode the depletion layer 139. :-
junction width is small and junction field is
high. :-
p
n
Reason :- In Zener diode both p and n-sides
are heavily doped.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion :- When base region has larger width, 140. :-
the collector current decreases.
Reason :- In transistor, sum of base current and :-
collector current is equal to emitter current.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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141. Assertion :- CH3CH2OH > CH3OH 141. :- CH3CH2OH > CH3OH
Reactivity towards Lucas reagent.
Reason :- More stable carbocation is formed :-
with Lucas reagent with CH3CH2OH
CH3CH2OH
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- F Cl 142. :- F Cl

< <

N N N N
O O O O O O O O
reactivity order towards nucleophilic
substitution.
Reason :- Because the leaving group ability is
:-
in order Cl > F Cl > F
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. Assertion :- 143. :-

C2H 5ONa C2H 5ONa

C2H5OH (major) C2H5OH (major)
F F
Reason :- Strong-I effect of F will stabilize the :- F-I
partial negative charge in transition state.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- 144. :-
O HO OH O
|| H +/H2O(k1) HO OH
|| H +/H2O(k1)
HCH HCH HCH HCH
HO OH HO OH
H +/H2O(k2) H +/H2O(k2)
CH3CCH3 CH3CCH3 CH3CCH3 CH3CCH3
|| ||
O O
k1 > k2
k1 > k2
Reason :- HCHO is highly reactive as
:- HCHO
compared to CH3CCH3 towards
|| O
O ||
nucleophilic addition CH3CCH3
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- 145. :-
O HO SO 3Na O HO SO 3Na
|| ||
C C C C
R R' + NaHSO 3 R R' R R' + NaHSO 3 R R'

In ketones methyl ketones and cyclic ketones

given this reaction, most other ketones don't given
Reason :- Due to steric reasons :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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146. Assertion :- 146. :-
RCX + H2O RCOH RCX + H2O RCOH
|| || || ||
O O O O
order of reactivity

Reason :- Halogens will stabilize the :-

intermediate tetrahedral anion by their-I effect -I
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- -D-glucose is more stable than 147. :- -D-
-D-
-D-glucose
Reason :- OH at anomeric carbon in :- -D-
OH
-D-glucose is present on axial position
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- NH3 is mild but BiH3 is strong 148. :-
15
NH3
reducing agent in hydride of 15th group
BiH3
element
Reason :- Thermal stability of hydrides of 15th :-
15
group elements decreases down the group.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- AgCl is soluble in NH4OH. 149. :- AgCl, NH4OH
Reason :- Aquous solution of ammonia is basic. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- White phosphorus is more reactive 150. :-
than red phosphorus.
Reason :- White phosphorus catches fire in air :-
and give dense white fumes of P 4O10. P4O10
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- HCl is not used to provide acidic 151. :- KMnO4
HCl
medium in volumetric analysis of KMnO4.
Reason :- HCl is weak acid :- HCl
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Oxide ores are calcinated before 152. :-
reduction of metal oxide.
Reason :- By calcination volatile matters are :-
removed from metal oxide.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
3
153. Assertion :- (FeF6) is more paramagnetic than 153. :- (FeF6) , (CoF6)
3 3

(CoF 6)3. :- (FeF6)3 5

e
Reason :- (FeF 6) 3 has 5 unpaired electrons
(CoF6)3
3
e
while (CoF 6)3 has 3 unpaird electorns.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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154. Assertion :- Ce+4 is used as an oxidising agent 154. :-
Ce+4
in volumetric analysis.
Reason :- Ce+4 can oxidise water. :- Ce+4
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- For each 10C rise in temperature 155. :-
10C
k
the k is nearly double.
Reason :- Energy wise distribution of :-
molecules in a gas sample is an exponential
e Ea / RT


E a / RT
function of temperature so e is quadruple.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. Assertion :- Ecell is negative for electrolytic 156. :-

Ecell
cell.
Reason :- G is ve for electrolytic cell. :-
G
ve
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :- The SRP of three metallic ions A, 157. :-
A, B, C SRP
B, C are 0.3, 0.5, 0.8 volt respectively, so 0.3, 0.5, 0.8
oxidizing power of ions is C > A > B. C > A > B
Reason :- Higher the SRP, higher the oxidizing :- SRP
power.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- In any ionic solid [MX] with 158. :-
[MX]
Schottky defects, the number of positive and
negative ions are the same. :-
Reason :- Equal number of cation and anion
vacancies are not present in Schottky defects.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- For adsorption G, H, S all have 159. :-
G, H, S
ve values.
Reason :- Adsorption is a spontaneous and :-
exothermic process in which randomness
decreases due to force of attraction between
adsorbent and adsorbate.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- An ideal solution obeys Raoult's 160. :-
law. :-
Reason :- In an ideal solution, solute-solute as

well as solvent-solvent, interactions are not
similar to solute-solvent interactions.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- In angiosperm, the first fertilization 161.
:-
is called syngamy.
Reason :- Second fertilization is called :-
vegetative fertilization. (1) A (2) B
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D

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162. Assertion :- Geitonogamy is functionally cross 162. :-
pollination and genetically self pollination.
Reason :- It involves pollinating agent but :-
pollen grains come from the same plant.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Polygonum type of embryosac, is 163. :-
most common in angiosperm.
Reason :- It is found in most of angiospermic
plants. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- Oestrogen and progesterone 164. :-
developed the secondary sex characters in
female.
:-
Reason :- Oestrogen and progesteron is a
gonadotropic hormon release from ovary.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion :- Monozygotic twins are identical 165. :-
and their sex are same. (sex)
Reason :- In monozygotic twins two sperm are :-
enter in one egg.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- In gel electrophoresis the smaller 166. :-
the fragment size, the farther it moves.
Reason :- The seperated of DNA fragments :- DNA
cutting out from gel is known as elution.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- Virus having RNA genome and 167. :-
having shorter life span and evolve faster.
Reason :- RNA being unstable, mutate at a :-
faster rate.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- Sutton & Boveri noted that the 168. :-
behavior of chromosome was Parallel to the
behaviour of genes. :-
Reason :- they provides experimental

evidences to prove this statement.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Prokaryotic DNA is less stable than 169. :-
DNA
eukaryotic DNA. DNA
Reason :- Higher percentage of GC is present :-
DNA GC
in prokaryotic DNA.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- In polycistronic mRNA, stop 170. :-
mRNA
codon is present in between the reading frame.
Reason :- More than One polypeptides are :-
mRNA
formed from polycistrionic in mRNA.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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171. Assertion :- Genetic variability is the root of 171. :-
any plant breeding programme.
Reason :- The entire collection (of plants/seeds) :-
having all the diverse alleles for all genes in (
/
)
given crop is called germplasm collection.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Meristem culture is used for 172. :-
recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants.
Reason :- Meristematic cells have diseased :-
resistant gene.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- Pouched mammal of Australia 173. :-
survived.
Reason :- On Australia, there was no other :-
carnivorus mammal present.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- The eye of a octopus and of 174. :-
mammals are analogous structure.
Reason :- They are not anatomically similar but :-
they perform similar function.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. Assertion :- AIDS does not have preventive 175. :-
vaccination. :-
TH
Reason :- In AIDS, the number of T H cells
(1) A (2) B
decrease.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- B-Cells also takes part in activating 176. :-
T-helper cells apart from Antibodies
production.
:-
Reason :- B-Cell acts as an 'Antigen presenting
cell'.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Lichens are friends of the nature. 177. :-
Reason :- They help in soil building. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- Utricularia, Dionea, Drosera and 178. :-

Nepenthes are predatory plants.
Reason :- They are incapable of
photosynthesis. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- Biosphere consists of hydrosphere, 179. :-
lithosphere, and atmosphere.
Reason :- Only nonliving organism in :-
atmosphere can be considered biosphere.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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180. Assertion :- In mutualism both the populations 180. :-
are benefitted and neither can survive under
natural condition without other.

Reason :- Both populations are benefitted by
the association but their relationships are not :-
obligatory.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. On Basant Panchami which of the following 181.
puja is performed ? (1) (2)
(1) Shiva Puja (2) Lakshmi Puja
(3) Saraswati Puja (4) Ganesh Puja (3) (4)
182. Whose birth anniversary was celebrated on 182.
23
23rd January in India ?
(1) Subhash Chandra Bose (1)
(2) Khudi Ram Bose (2)
(3) Rajiv Gandhi (3)
(4) Vallabh bhai Patel (4)
183. What is Bharat Parv ? 183.
(1) National Mission (2) National Scheme (1) (2)
(3) National Festival (4) Cultural Conference (3) (4)
184. Gwadar port is located in which country ? 184.
(1) China (2) Iran (1) (2)
(3) Pakistan (4) India (3) (4)
185. India has been declared free from which 185.
influenza ?
(1) Bird flu (1)
(2) Avian flu (2)
(3) Chikunguniya (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
186. Finland is the safest country on earth according 186.
to a report by which world body ?
(1) WEF (2) WHO (1) WEF (2) WHO
(3) WB (4) UNIDO (3) WB (4) UNIDO
187. Which of these words is also a part of the name 187.
of an Union Territory of India ?
(1) Mahal (2) Chaupal (1) (2)
(3) Chabutara (4) Haveli (3) (4)
188. Dakshina Ganga is also known by the 188.
name :
(1) Godavari (2) Cauvery (1) (2)
(3) Krishna (4) Periyar (3) (4)
189. Who was the first Indian to be awarded the 189.
Kalinga prize for popularizing science ?
(1) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai (1)
(2) Jagjit Singh (2)
(3) Verghese Kurien (3)
(4) Jayant Narlikar (4)

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190. If C is coded as 3 in a certain code language. 190.
C
3
DASH
DASH is coded as 32, then DANCE will be 32
DANCE
coded as :
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) 27 (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) 27
191. If '+' means minus, '' means multiplication, '' 191. '+'
''
''
means plus and '' means division, then :
''
15 3 + 10 5 5 15 3 + 10 5 5
(1) 5 (2) 22 (3) 48 (4) 52 (1) 5 (2) 22 (3) 48 (4) 52
192. From the given alternative words, select the 192.
word which cannot be formed using the letters
of the given word 'INTELLIGENCE' ? 'INTELLIGENCE' ?
(1) INCITE (2) CANCEL (1) INCITE (2) CANCEL
(3) NEGLECT (4) GENTLE (3) NEGLECT (4) GENTLE
193. If 5th day of a month is four days earlier than 193.
5
Wednesday. What day will it be on 28th day of 28

the month ? (1) (2)
(1) Sunday (2) Monday
(3) (4)
(3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
194. Find the missing characters from the given 194.
alternatives :
B G N
B G N
D J R
D J R
G N ?
G N ?
(1) U (2) V (3) W (4) X (1) U (2) V (3) W (4) X
195. India's longest expressway connects Agra with 195.
_____ .
(1) Delhi (2) Allahabad (1) (2)
(3) Varanasi (4) Lucknow (3) (4)
196. When Prime Minister Narendra Modi declared 196.
500 1000
demonetisation of 500 and 1000 Rs. notes ?
(1) 4th November, 2016 (1) 4 2016
(2) 8th November, 2016 (2) 8 2016
(3) 10th November, 2016 (3) 10 2016
(4) 14th November, 2016 (4) 14 2016
197. Research and Analysis Wing is the intelligence 197.
agency of _____.
(1) America (2) Britain (1) (2)
(3) India (4) Canada (3) (4)
198. Who among the following Prime Ministers of 198.
India was never been a member of Lok Sabha ?
(1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) ChandraShekhar (1) (2)
(3) Manmohan Singh (4) Charan Singh (3) (4)
199. The full form of 'ECS' in Banking is :- 199.
ECS
(1) Essential Commodity System (1) Essential Commodity System
(2) Electronic Clearing System (2) Electronic Clearing System
(3) External Commercial System (3) External Commercial System
(4) Electronic Commodity System (4) Electronic Commodity System
200. Nathula pass in Sikkim, connects India with 200.
which country ?
(1) Bhutan (2) Myanmar (1) (2)
(3) China (4) Bangladesh
(3) (4)

LATS-36/36 0999DM610216001