Chapter 1. Introductory Topics b. 54.

9 dB
c. 45.9 dB
1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in d. 51.9 dB
accordance with the low-frequency intelligence to create a
modulated signal? 8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth
than a 2-kHz sinewave?
a. Phase
b. Frequency a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave.
c. Time
d. Amplitude b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics,
whereas the sinewave has only one.
2. Communication systems are most often categorized by what c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.
characteristic? d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage,
whereas the sinewave does not.
a. Modulation frequency
b. Carrier frequency 9 The relationship between information and bandwidth is called
c. Transmission distance
d. Information transmitted
a. Information theory
3 Voltage gain in decibels is b. Fourier analysis
c. FFT
d. Hartley's law
a. 10 ln
10 Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when

b. 10 log a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.

b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
c. 20 ln c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.

d. 20 log 11 Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel
resonant circuit?
4 Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W
reference a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a
minimum.
a. dBm(1) b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if
b. dB1 it were a series.
c. dBW c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. dB(W) d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum
current from the constant-voltage source.
5 An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75 input
resistance. If it is operating at 22 C and 12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank
has a voltage gain of 300, the noise produced at the output of circuit for swamping out the effect of the
this amplifier would be approximately transistor's internal capacitances is the

a. Hartley design
a.
b. Clapp design
b. c. Colpitts design
c. d. Crystal design

d. 13 The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is

due to
6 Which of the following is not an example of external noise
a. The flywheel effect
a. Fluorescent light b. Barkhausen criteria
b. Solar emission c. The piezoelectric effect
c. Resistor noise d. Frequency synthesis
d. Lightning

7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal

mixed in with 45 V rms of undesired noise. The load 14 The Barkhausen criteria has to do with
impedance is 50 . What is the amplifier's output S/N level in
dB? a. Receiver noise
b. Fourier analysis
a. 22.9 dB c. Oscillation
 d. Troubleshooting
7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W when
15 Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan? modulated with a single sinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously
modulated with another sinewave at 60% modulation, calculate
the total transmitted power.
a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages
b. Signal tracing and signal injection a. 1084 W
c. Voltage and resistance measure b. 1170 W
d. Substitution c. 1350 W
e. All the above d. 1224 W

8. Low-level modulation is
Chapter 2. Amplitude Modulation: Transmission
a. The most economic approach for low-power transmitters.
1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is b. Characterized by the use of "linear" power amplifiers to
not called the amplify the AM signal.
c. Characterized by having the carrier and the intelligence
a. Modulating signal signals mix at low power levels
b. Information signal d. All the above.
c. Modulating wave
d. Carrier 9. The main advantage of a high-level modulation system
compared to a low-level system is that it
2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three
frequency components of 100 Hz, a. Allows more efficient amplification.
200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence signal.
lower sideband? c. Provides higher modulation percentage.
d. Is more economical.
a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 Mhz
b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz 10. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a
c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 Mhz transmitter?
d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 Mhz
a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious
3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured to be frequencies in the output signals.
850 W. What is the total output sideband b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency.
power if it has a percent modulation of 100%? c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from drifting off
frequency.
a. 425 W d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.
b. 850 W
c. 283.3 W 11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to
d. 141.65 W
a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the
4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz 2kHz signal. The antenna's impedance to provide maximum
upper sideband is power transfer.
b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas
a. 102 kHz at the same time.
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM
c. 101 kHz output signal.
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier
frequency at the same time.
5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which percentage of
a full sinewave? 12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to

a. 25% a. Prevent damage to output circuits.

b. 50% b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
c. 100% c. Prevent overmodulation.
d. 200% d. Prevent undesired transmissions.

6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p and at minimum is 13. A spectrum analyzer is

40 V p-p. The modulation percentage is
a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on
a. 250% a CRT.
b. 40% b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is
c. 25% free from any spurious signals.
d. 37.5% c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency
range.
 d. All the above. b. Varicap diodes
c. VVC diodes
d. All the above
14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the
following. 6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver using
a 455-kHz IF and tuned to a station at 680
a. Verify that a problem exists. kHz would be
b. Isolate the defective stage.
c. Isolate the defective component. a. 1135 kHz
d. Replace the defective component and hot check. b. 225 kHz
e. All the above. c. 1590 kHz
d. 1815 kHz
15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and
sideband combine to form the AM waveform
is 7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of

a. The tangential method. a. Image frequency

b. Phasor representation. b. Tracking
c. Keying. c. Diagonal clipping
d. None of the above. d. Poor sensitivity

8. An auxiliary AGC diode

Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation: Reception
a. Reduces selectivity
1. The main problem with the TRF design is b. Increases sensitivity
c. Decreases sensitivity
a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stations d. All the above
b. Poor demodulation of an AM station
c. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one station 9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having
d. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations AGC?

2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to
a. Withstand shock
b. Receive one station versus another
c. Receive weak stations
d. All the above
3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device is an AM
waveform consisting of a carrier and its
sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing produces the
original intelligence because
a. The intelligence signal is one of its inputs.
b. A dc component is also produced.
c. The difference between the carrier and its sidebands is the
original intelligence frequency.
d. The intelligence frequencies are the upper and the lower
sideband frequencies.
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while
tuning from a weak signal to a strong signal.
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the
speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume
control as the weather and ionosphere change.
d. All the above
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver
manufactured on an integrated circuit is
a. Tuned circuits and volume controls
b. Cost
c. Phase-locked loops
d. Ceramic filters
11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable receiver
input signal and its sensitivity is called

4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of 940 kHz is to be a. The decibel power gain of the receiver
mixed with a local oscillator output signal in b. Automatic gain control (AGC)
order to produce an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At c. The dynamic range of the receiver
what should the L.O. frequency be set? d. The IF amplifier gain

a. 455 kHz 12. The simplest AM detector is the

b. 1395 kHz
c. 910 kHz a. Synchronous detector
d. 1850 kHz b. Product detector
c. Heterodyne detector
5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to produce a d. Diode detector
capacitance that varies inversely proportional to
the amount of reverse bias are called 13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a

a. Varactor diodes a. Trimmer capacitor

 b. Padder capacitor
c. Varicap diode 6.Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to
d. a and b SSB?
e. All the above
a. Crystal filter
14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band, b. Ceramic filter
the likely problem is c. Mechanical filter
d. Tank circuit
a. Low RF gain
b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity 7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter is
d. LO tracking
a. The shape factor
15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem b. The peak-to-valley ratio
area is the c. The insertion loss
d. The quality factor
a. Power supply
b. RF section 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase
c. Audio amplifier method over the filter method in producing SSB?
d. AGC diode
a. The design of the 90 phase-shift network for the
intelligence frequencies is simple.
Chapter 4: Single-Sideband Communications b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically used,
because a high-Q filter is not necessary.
1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50 c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary,
load results in a PEP rating of because high-Q filters are not needed.
d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other.
a. 200 W
b. 50 W 9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be amplified
c. 100 W by
d. 800 W
a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system. b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy
c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
b. Easy carrier reinsertion
c. Elimination of carrier interference 10. The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB do
d. a and c not apply to transmission of

3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is a. Code

b. Music
a. 35 dB c. Noise
b. 57 dB d. All the above
c. 810 dB
d. 1012 dB 11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband" attenuation
of a Butterworth filter.
4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a
regular modulator? a. 3-dB slope per octave
b. 3-dB slope per decade
a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced c. 6-dB slope per octave
modulator. d. 6-dB slope per decade
b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180 phase shift between
the upper and lower sidebands. 12. An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal by
c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the
suppressed. resulting different frequencies
b. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and the
5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is internally generated carrier signal
accomplished by c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband signal
frequencies
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry d. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action
b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic
fields 13. Common types of balanced modulators include
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages a. Ring modulator
 b. Phase modulator modulating input voltage level is called the
c. Lattice modulator
d. All the above a. Frequency deviation
b. Index of modulation
14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB transmitter's c. Deviation constant
balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier d. Deviation ratio
leakthrough.

a. Trapezoidal wave 6 Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum bandwidth

b. Sinewave of
c. FM wave
d. AM wave a. 150 kHz
b. 200 kHz
15. The two-tone test is used to
c. 75 kHz
a. Test carrier suppression d. 15 kHz
b. Test filter ripple
c. Test amplifier linearity 7 Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary
d. None of the above
a. Frequency deviation
Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation Transmission b. Bandwidth
c. Capture ratio
1 Angle modulation includes the following types of modulation: d. Modulation index

a. FM 8 An FM transmitter has an output power of 500 W when it is

b. PM not modulated. When intelligence is added, its modulation
c. AM index is 2.0. What is its output power with a modulation index
of 2.0?
d. All the above
e. a and b
a. 250 W
b. 500 W
2 The amount of frequency increase and decrease around the
c. 1000 W
center frequency in an FM signal is called the
d. 2000 W
a. Index of modulation
b. Frequency deviation 9 Another way to describe the modulation index is using the
c. Phase deviation
a. Deviation ratio
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal
b. Deviation constant
c. Capture ratio
3 The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the
intelligence frequency in d. Maximum deviation

a. An FM signal 10 The inherent ability of FM to minimize the effect of undesired

b. A PM signal signals operating at the same or nearly the same frequency
as the desired station is known as the
c. Both FM and PM signals
d. Neither FM nor PM signals
a. Capture effect
b. Signal-to-noise ratio
4 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and a c. Noise figure
maximum deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is set at
162.4 Mhz, what is its index of modulation? d. Bessel function

a. 10 11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center

b. 5 frequency of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is passed
through four cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two
c. 2
triplers, one doubler, and one quadrupler. What type of signal
d. 20 appears at the output of the last multiplier stage?

5 The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz
 b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz amplifier stages.
c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be able to
decode stereo signals.
d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz
3 A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 113
12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a dB prior to its limiter. The limiter's quieting voltage is
transmitter up to a specified value is called the 400 mV. Its sensitivity is approximately

a. Multiplier a.
b. Expander b.
c. Pump chain c.
d. All the above d.

4 The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier stages

13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast
transmitter is to a. Offers increased dynamic range over those of
JFETs
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L R audio b. Produces higher-frequency responses than do
b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L R channels JFETs
c. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do
c. Separate the left channel from the right channel JFETs
d. Modulate the L + R and L R signals with the carrier d. Is not compatible with AGC
signal
5 The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to the
14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a ratio detector in that it
maximum deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is
a. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude
variations
a. 125 b. Also provides an output AGC signal
b. 0.2 c. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM
c. 5 deviations
d. 6 d. Does not need a limiter stage

6 Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation through

15 Frequency multipliers the

a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal of a. Receiver's wiring
an FM signal b. IF transformer
c. Antenna
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit that
d. All the above
filters out a single harmonic
c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM 7 Which is not one of the three stages in which a PLL
signal can be operated?
d. All the above
a. Free-running
b. Capture
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception c. Locked/tracking
d. Searching
1 A difference between AM and FM receiver block
diagrams is that the FM version includes a 8 A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9 Mhz.
The VCO does not change frequency unless its input
a. Limiter is within 75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz. After it does lock, the
b. Discriminator input frequency can be adjusted within 120 kHz of
c. Deemphasis network 8.9 Mhz without having the PLL start to free-run again.
d. All the above The capture range of the PLL is

2 An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without an a. 75 kHz

RF amplifier because b. 120 kHz
c. 150 kHz
a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input signal d. 240 kHz
levels due to thei noise
characteristics 9 Slope detection is seldom used due to
b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth.
c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in their IF a. Nonlinearity
 b. Attenuation FM receivers than they are in SSB or AM receivers?
c. Complexity
d. All the above a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.
10 In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of the b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic.
2353-kHz filter? c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.
d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design.
a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the
discriminator
b. To filter out the L R signal at the output of the 2 The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a superheterodyne
discriminator receiver are called the
c. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the
discriminator a. Front end
d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L + b. Tuner
R and L signals c. Preselector
11 A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of d. All the above
channel separation. If the right channel has 4 W of
output power, how much of this power could be due to 3 The signal-strength meter that shows the relative signal-
the left channel intelligence? strength level is called the ________ .

a. 4 W
a. S meter
b. 79 nW
c. 1.26 W b. Signal meter
d. 2.25 mW c. Strength meter
d. All the above
12 The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the

a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked 4 An AM broadcast receiver has two identical tuned circuits
b. Allowable range of dc voltage with a Q of 50 prior to the IF stage. The IF frequency is 460
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage kHz and the receiver is tuned to a station on 550 kHz. The
d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures image-frequency rejection is

a. 41 dB
13 The input signal into a PLL is at the
b. 36.2 dB
a. VCO c. 72.4 dB
b. Low-pass filter d. 82 dB
c. Comparator
d. Phase detector
5 An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at some
14 The square-law relationship of the FETs input versus arbitrarily high value of received signal in order to prevent
output overloading the receiver is known as

a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver a. Arbitrary AGC

b. Provides improved noise performance b. Auxiliary AGC
c. Reduces shot noise
c. Delayed AGC
d. Minimizes cross-modulation

15 When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the input

signal should be abouto 6 Up-conversion offers the following advantage(s):

a. a. Less expensive filters

b. b. Good image-frequency rejection
c. 1 mV rms
d. 100 mV rms c. Minimized tuning range for the LO
d. .b and c

7 The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier

provides a usable output is called the
Chapter 7 Communication Technique
a. Level of acceptability
b. Dynamic range
1 Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem in
c. Degree of usefulness
 d.Specified input a. A small frequency error
b. A large frequency error
8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth, a c. No output
6-dBm third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. d. All the above
Its sensitivity is

15 A transceiver is
a. 94 dB
b. 82.2 dB
a. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of
c. 79.2 dB frequencies
d. 81 dB b. A transmitter that transmits digital data
c. A receiver that receives digital data
9 Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of d. A transmitter and receiver in a single package
frequencies into the VHF band due to

a. Its ability to work at practical power consumptions Chapter 8 Digital Communication : Coding Technique
b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
c. The insufficient speed and power of the basic 1 The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications over
programmable divider designs analog include
d. All the above
a. Noise performance
10 The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS) over b. Regeneration
analog frequency synthesizers is c. Digital signal processing
d. All the above
a. Its complexity and cost
b. Its limited maximum output frequency 2 In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage
c. Its higher phase noise is
d. All the above
a. Aperture time
11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of b. Acquisition time
c. Flat-top time
a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB modulation d. Dmin
modes
b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation 3 Error signals associated with the sampling process are called
mode and a channel guard function
c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF frequencies a. Foldover distortion
d. A cellular telephone transceiver b. Aliasing
c. Nyquist rate
12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly d. a and b
switched frequency or time transmissions is known as
4 Which of the following is not a common RZ code?
a. Synthesizing
b. Facsimile a. RZ-unipolar
c. Spread spectrum b. RZ-bipolar
d. Compression c. RZ-M
d. RZ-AMI
13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.
5 In an asynchronous data system
a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
b. Capture-division multiple-access systems a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to the
c. Code-division multiple-access systems same clock frequency.
d. Channel-division multiple-access systems b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and followed
by a stop bit to frame the word.
14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received data
frequency synthesizer is stream.
d. All the above.
 a. Quantile interval
6 A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth of b. Codec
20 Hz to 20 kHz. The minimum sample rate to satisfy the c. BCC
Nyquist criteria is
d. Syndrome
a. 20 Hz
13 Which of the following is not an example of code error
b. 20 kHz
detection and correction in a data communication channel?
c. 40 Hz
d. 40 kHz a. Parity
b. Frequency-shift keying
7 With respect to converter circuits c. Block-check character
d. Hamming code
a. DACs include an ADC
b. ADCs include a DAC
14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the
c. DACs and ADCs are virtually identical receiver are called
d. All the above.
a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
8 The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the b. Block-check characters (BCC)
parameters of the transmitted and received signal is known c. Forward error correcting (FEC)
as
d. Parity
a. Phase modulation
15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble digital
b. Pulse modulation
noise are
c. Amplitude modulation
d. Frequency modulation a. Systematic codes
b. PN codes
9 An alphanumeric code for representing the decimal values c. Pseudonoise codes
from 0 to 9 that is based on the relationship that only one bit
d. b and c
in a binary word changes for each binary step is known as

a. ASCII Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission

b. EBCDIC
c. Baudot code 1 Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits
d. Gray code that provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is called
a(n)

10 The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be

a. Constellation pattern
made less significant by
b. Loopback
a. Companding c. Statistical Concentration
b. Using time-division multiplexing d. Eye pattern
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
d. Filtering out the alias frequency 2 Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic
equipment?

a. It uses an automatic request for repetition.

11 When the message and the BCC are transmitted as separate
parts within the same transmitted code, it is called a(n) b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code.
c. The parity bit is difficult to detect.
a. Systematic code d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an
b. CRC extremely complicated process.
c. (n,k) cyclic code
d. Interleaved code 3 A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data
rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called

12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have
a. Delta modulation
been shifted in is the
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)
 c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) c. Radio facsimile
d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) d. Radio telemetry

4 FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude- 11 The bit error rate is
modulation systems with respect to
a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number of
a. Noise performance bits transmitted
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel b. The most common method of referring to the quality of a
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics digital communication system
d. Power consumption c. Virtually the same as the error probability
d. All the above
5 Which is not a type of pulse modulation?
12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) a. Excessive noise producing errors
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) b. Slope overload
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM) c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design
6 PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in
13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of 2047
a. Noise characteristics if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is
b. Bandwidth characteristics
a. 30,000 bits per second
c. Simplicity in design
b. 33,000 bits per second
d. Frequency response of the intelligence signal
c. 38,500 bits per second
d. 35,000 bits per second
7 Half-duplex operation involves communication

a. In one direction only 14 The AT&T T1 lines

b. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time
a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
c. Where both parties can talk at the same time
b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels
d. All the above
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels
8 A procedure that decides which device has permission to
transmit at a given time is called
15 A digital transmission has an error probability of and
a. Line control is long. Its expected number of error bits is
b. Protocol
c. Flow control
a.
d. Sequence control
b.
9 The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to c.
generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by
comparing the phase of two successive data bits is d.

a. CSU/DSU
Chapter 10 Network Communications
b. TDM
c. CVSD 1 An interconnection of users that allows communication with
d. DPSK one another is known as a

10 Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular a. Modem

phenomenon without the presence of human monitors is b. UART
known as
c. Network
a. Radio teletype d. Protocol
b. Radio multiplexing
2 A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from signals
that are traveling down long transmission lines is called a(n) a. Bridge
b. Gateway
a.. Delay equalizer
c. Router
b. UART
d. Node
c. Attenuation distortion filter
d. Trunk switcher
9 In telephony, traffic is defined in

3 Which of the following is not a way that designers of a. Hundred-call seconds

telephone equipment are adapting to the increasing use of
b. Average number of calls in a specific period of time
computers and digital coding in telephone communication
links? c. Erlang
d. All the above
a. The use of shorter transmission lines
b. The use of computers in finding unused portions of 10 The Internet and the WWW are
multiplex systems to maximize use
c. The application of digital switching theory to increase a. The same thing
channel capacity b. Completely different
d. Sharing of communication links by voice and data signals c. Related
d. Local area networks
4 The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an example
of
11 In a telephone system, the grade of service is
a. A cellular telephone system
a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered
b. A telephone system that uses frequency reuse
b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered
c. A cell-splitting telephone system
c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
d. All the above
d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
e. a and b
5 Which is not a major function of a protocol?

12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone

a. Framing
systems.
b. Line control
c. Flow control a. Frequency reuse
d. Topology b. Cell reuse
e. Sequence control c. Cell splitting
d. Handoff
6 The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment
Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is called
13 In local area networks, the following topology or topologies
are seldom used.
a. IEEE-488
b. Ethernet a. Star
c. OSI b. Ring
d. CSMA/CD c. Bus
d.a and b
7 A device interconnecting two networks that use different
protocols and formats is called a
14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax
and twisted pair is rarely used
a. Bridge
b. Gateway a. 10 Base 2
c. Router b. 10 Base 5
d. Node c. 10 Base T
d. 100 Base FX
8 A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have e. a and b
identical protocols at the physical and data link layers is
called a
15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is
 d. Has a reflection coefficient at the load equal to zero
a. VDSL e. All the above
b. SDSL
c. HDSL 7 A flat line indicates
d. IDSL
e. ADSL a. No reflection
b. VSWR = 1
c. No physical imperfections
Chapter 11 Transmission Lines d. a and b

1 The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line is

8 A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit
has an
a. Minimized radiation losses
b. Low cost a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the
c. Low noise pick up incident voltage
d. Low resistive losses b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in
magnitude to the incident voltage
2 Unshielded twisted-pair cable is c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than
the incident voltage
a. Seldom used due to noise problems d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in
magnitude than the incident voltage
b. Increasingly used in computer networking
c. More costly than coaxial cable
9 A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and
d. All the above
attenuation is

3 The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is called a. ACR

b. CAS
a. Velocity factor
c. CAA
b. Relative dielectric constant
d. AAC
c. Velocity of propagation
d. Delay time
10 A 50- transmission line that has a load impedance of 300
has a VSWR of
4 In a balanced line, the same current flows in each line but is
a. 6:1
a. 45 out of phase b. 1:6
b. 90 out of phase c. 0.666:1
c. 180 out of phase d. 1.5:1
d. 270 out of phase
11 The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a 50-
5 What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG- transmission line that is terminated with a short is
8A/U coaxial cable at a frequency of 144.2 Mhz if its velocity
factor is 0.69. a. 50
b. 0 (a short)
a. 52.1 cm
c. Infinite (open)
b. 35.9 cm
c. 143.6 cm d. 100
d. 2.08 m
12 A device that is used to match an unbalanced transmission
line to a balanced transmission line is called a
6 A nonlossy transmission line that is terminated with a
resistive load that is equal to the characteristic impedance of
a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformer
the line
b. Balun
a. Has the same impedance at all points along the line c. Shorted-stub section
b. Has a VSWR of 1:1 d. Slotted line
c. Has the same voltage at points along the line
13 A 50- transmission line with a 300- load impedance b. Isotropic point source
has a reflection coefficient of c. Omnisphere
d. Shadow zone
a. 6
b. 0.166
5 The process of waves, which traveling in straight paths,
c. 0.714 bending around an obstacle is
d. 1.4
a. Radiation
14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1 b. Reflection
nF/ft. The delay introduced by a 1-ft section is c. Refraction
d. Diffraction
a. Not able to be calculated with the given information
b. 6 Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio wave
from the transmitting to receiving antenna?
c.
d. a. Ground wave
b. Shadow wave
15 A transmission line can be used as a(n) c. Space wave
d. Satellite link
a. Inductor e. Sky wave
b. Capacitor
c. Filter 7 The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F
d. Matching section layers of the ionosphere is:
e. All the above
a. Ground wave
b. Space wave
Chapter 12 Wave Propagation c. Sky wave
d. Satellite
1 An antenna can be thought of as a(n)

a. Oscillator 8 The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when

transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions is
b. Capacitor called the
c. Transducer
d. Frequency multiplexer a. Critical frequency
b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)
2 A wave that is characterized by having its direction of c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
propagation perpendicular to its oscillation is known as d. Skip zone

a. Isotropic
9 The characteristic impedance of free space is
b. Transverse
c. Polarized a. Not known
d. Refractive b. Infinite
c. 50
3 Which is not an effect of our environment on wave
d. 377
propagation?

a. Radiation 10 The area between the point where the ground wave ends and
first sky wave returns is called the
b. Reflection
c. Refraction
a. Quiet zone
d. Diffraction
b. Skip zone
c. Null Zone
4 A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy equally
d. All the above
in all directions is called
e. a and b
a. Transverse
11 The refraction and reflection action of a skywave between the d. Phased array
ionosphere and ground is known as
3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such
a. Space diversity that the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength
b. Skip section is called a
c. Tropospheric scattering
d. Fading a. Hertz antenna
b. Dipole antenna
12 A satellite communication system used by companies such c. Marconi antenna
as K-Mart to quickly verify credit cards and check inventory d. All the above
data is called
4 The angular separation between the half-power points on an
a. VSAT antenna's radiation pattern is the
b. MSAT
c. SATCOM a. Bandwidth
d. WESTAR b. Front-to-back ratio
c. Lobe distribution
13 A common type of radio wave interference is d. Beamwidth

a. EMI 5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is

b. Fading approximately
c. Reflections
d. All the above a. 36.6
b. 50
14 Diversity reception does not include: c. 73
d. 300
a. Space diversity
b. Time diversity 6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below
c. Frequency diversity a quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance
d. Angle diversity
a. Increases
15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often overcome b. Decreases
diffraction problems by finding a c. Remains the same
d. All the above
a. Null zone
b. Downlink 7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 transmission line.
c. Hot spot If a quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used as the
d. Skip zone non-resonant matching section, what must be the
characteristic impedance of the cable used in the matching
transformer?
Chapter 13 Antennas
a. 186.5
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and b. 103.9
transmitting operations of antennas is known as c. 122.5
d. 147.9
a. Polarization
b. Reciprocity
8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission
c. Efficiency line as it approaches the antenna is called a
d. Counterpoise
a. Delta match
2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as b. Quarter-wave matching device
c. Director
a. Marconi antenna d. Counterpoise
b. Hertz antenna
c. Vertical antenna 9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to
 a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input
impedance of the antenna
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input
Chapter 14 Waveguides & RADAR
impedance of the antenna
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
1 At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter-receiver distance of
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna 30 mi, which is the most efficient device for energy transfer?

10 Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of a. Transmission lines

transmitting antennas? b. Waveguides
c. Antennas
a. Driven collinear array d. None of the above
b. Marconi array
c. Yagi-Uda
2 The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal 1500
d. Log-periodic ft would typically be

11 The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast a. Transmission lines

receivers is a b. Waveguides
c. Antennas
a. Ferrite loop antenna
d. None of the above
b. Folded dipole antenna
c. Slot antenna
3 The dominant mode for waveguide operation is
d. Log-periodic antenna
a. TE10
12 The folded dipole antenna has b. TE01
c. TM10
a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipole
d. TM01
b. A 288- input impedance
c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole 4 The propagation velocity of the signal in a waveguide, when
d.. a and b compared to the speed of light is
e. b and c
a. larger
13 The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of b. smaller
c. the same velocity
a. A driven director and parasitic reflector d. either b or c
b. A driven reflector and parasitic director
c. A parasitic director and reflector 5 Ridged waveguides are advantageous over rectangular
d. All the above waveguides in their

14 A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of tuned a. cost

circuits b. attenuation
c. ability to work at lower frequency
a. By connection in series with the inductance d. ease of construction
b. By connection in parallel with the inductance
c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit 6 A circular waveguide is used for
d. By connection in series with the capacitance
a. Efficiency reasons
15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that b. Ease of manufacture
indicates a problem is c. Rotating section applications
d. Greater bandwidth
a. Greater than 1
b. Less than 1 7 Variable attenuators are used in waveguides to
c. Greater than 1.5
d. Less than 0.5 a. Isolate a source from reflections at its load so as to
 preclude frequency pulling. 14 The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides is
b. Adjust the signal levels.
c. Measure signal levels. a. 75
d. All the above. b. 377
c. Dependent on frequency
8 The coupling in dB of a directional coupler that has 85 mW d. Dependent on waveguide shape
into the main guide and 0.45 mW out the secondary guide is e. c and d

a. 22.8 15 A dielectric waveguide is

b. 18.9
c. 188.9 a. Enclosed by a conducting material
d. 45.6 b. A waveguide with just a dielectric
c. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar dielectrics
9 The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by can guide waves
changing the cavity's d. b and c

a. Volume
b. Inductance Chapter 15 Microwaves & Lasers
c. Capacitance
d. All the above 1 Which is not a type of horn antenna design for microwave
frequencies?

10 The guide wavelength is a. Parabolic horn

b. Circular horn
a. Greater than free-space wavelength
c. Pyramidal horn
b. Equal to free-space wavelength
d. Sectoral horn
c. Less than free-space wavelength
d. All the above
2 Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna involves a

11 The process of employing radio waves to detect and locate a. Dipole antenna
physical objects is known as
b. Point-source antenna
a. The Doppler effect c. Secondary reflector
b. Radar d. Any of the above
c. Directional coupling
d. Cavity tuning 3 Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish antenna with a
6-m mouth diameter when used at 5 Ghz.

12 The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller a. 0.49

conductive strip with constant separation by a dielectric
material on a printed circuit board for use at frequencies b. 4.9
above 500 Mhz is known as c. 7
d. 0.7
a. Artwork traces
b. Dielectric waveguide 4 Zoning refers to
c. Microstrip/stripline
d. MICs or MMICs a. A method of producing a radome
b. Changing a spherical wavefront into a plane wave
13 Second return echoes are c. Creating a polar radiation pattern
d. Fading into nonreality
a. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a
second trip 5 Which microwave oscillator has high gain, low-noise
b. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulse characteristics, and wide bandwidth?
c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long
d. All the above a. Traveling wave tube oscillator
b. Gunn Oscillator
 c.Klystron oscillator b. Baritt diode
d. Magnetron oscillator c. Zener diode
d. Tunnel diode
6 Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide
oscillator? 13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for a
TWT amplifier?
a. Ease of removing heat from the chip
b. Small size a. Low gain
c. Ruggedness b. Spurious modulation
d. Lack of filaments c. Poor frequency response
e. Low cost of manufacture d. Low RF output
e. All the above
7 The i in P-I-N diode refers to
14 Which of the following is not used as a microwave antenna?
a. Indium
b. Impact a. Patch antenna
c. Integrated b. Marconi antenna
d. Intrinsic c. Lens antenna
d. Horn antenna
8 Which is not a typical application of a ferrite in a microwave
system? 15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power supplies
are
a. attenuator
b. amplifier a. Less efficient
c. isolator b. More efficient
d. circulator c. Simpler
d. Heavier
9 A low noise microwave amplifier that provides amplification
via the variation of a reactance is known as a
Chapter 16 Television
a. Maser
b. Laser 1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals at once.
They are
c. Yig
d. Parametric amplifier
a. An amplitude-modulated video signal and frequency-
modulated audio signal
10 The major difference between a laser and a maser is the b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and audio
c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and frequency-
a. Frequency of the signal being amplified modulated video signal
b. Amplitude of the signal being amplified d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and audio
c. Bandwidth of the signal being amplified
d. Phase of the signal being amplified 2 The most widely used type of TV camera is the

11 Lasers are useful in a. Charge couple device

b. Vidicon
a. Industrial welding c. Image orthicon
b. Surgical procedures d. Iconoscope
c. Distance measuring
d. Compact disc players 3 Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing pulses,
e. All the above followed by serrations, followed by more equalizing pulses at
a rate of 60 times per second are called
12 The following semiconductor is not used as a microwave
device: a. Color synchronizing pulses
b. Horizontal retrace pulses
a. PIN diode c. Vertical retrace pulses
 d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses a. Alignment
b. Convergence
4 The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is c. Interleaving
approximately d. Interlacing

a. 30 frames per second

b. 40 frames per second 11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and
c. 60 frames per second raster but no picture must have a problem in the
d. 100 frames per second
a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power
supply
5 Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to 210 Mhz.
The channel 12 carrier frequency is b. Main power supply
Approximately c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff
d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff
a. 204.5 Mhz
b. 205.25 Mhz 12 Raster refers to
c. 211.25 Mhz
d. 211.75 Mhz a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being
received
6 The length of time an image stays on the screen after the b. CRT resolution
signal is removed is termed c. CRT aspect ratio
d. All the above
a. Retention
b. Flicker 13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from
c. Persistence the low-voltage power supply using
d. Back porch
a. Its power-line transformer
7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV receiver? b. The yoke coil
c. The vertical oscillator
a. The rf amplifier stage d. The flyback transformer
b. The mixer stage
c. The local oscillator stage 14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has
d. The video-detector stage been hampered by

a. Delays in chip designs

8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical and
horizontal retrace pulses from the video signal is the b. Shortages of appropriate chips
c. Customer rejection
a. Video detector d. Less than ideal regulatory climate
b. Video IF amplifier
c. Sync separator 15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in
d. Sound detector the video, it is

a. due to bandwidth problems

9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the electron
beam with its magnetic field is called the b. Called a pixelate
c. Due to noise
a. Coil d. b and c
b. Yoke
c. Deflector
Chapter 17 Fiber Optics
d. Magneto
1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over
10 A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV receiver in using transmission lines or waveguides?
order to make sure that the three electron beams of the
picture tube are positioned exactly on their respective color
a. Small size
dots on the face of the picture tube is called
b. Extremely wide bandwidths
 c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)
d. Lower cost a. 50 nW
e. All the above b. 500 nW
c. 5 uW
2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is d. 50 uW

a. Infra-red 9 Which is not an important characteristic of a light detector?

b. Red
c. Violet a. Responsitivity
d. Ultraviolet b. Dark current
c. Power consumption
3 The optical band designation(s) include d. Response speed
e. Spectral respons
a. S
b. C 10 The dispersion in fiber optics is termed
c. L
d. a and b above a. Modal
e. All the above b. Chromatic
c. Polarization mode
4 In the telecommunications industry, the most commonly used d. All the above
fiber(s) are e. a and b above

a. 50 micron
b. 62.5 micron 11 Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due to
c. 50 and 62.5 micron
d. 125 micron a. Air gaps
b. Rough surfaces
5 The abrupt change in refractive index from core to cladding of c. Axial misalignment
fiber-optic cable is called the d. Angular misalignment
e. All the above
a. Total internal reflection
b. Numerical aperture
12 Fiber optic technology is used in applications of
c. Dispersion
d. Step index a. Local area networks (LANs)
b. Cable TV (CATV) systems
c. Telephone networks
6 A technique that is used to minimize the pulse dispersion
d. All the above
effect is to

a. Use a higher frequency light source 13 The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a portion
of the light energy traveling in the cladding is called
b. Use plastic cladding
c. Minimize the core diameter
a. Modal dispersion
d. All the above
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
7 The loss (attenuation) of signal in optical fiber is due to
d. Cable dispersion

a. Scattering
14 Recent laser developments for fiber optic communication
b. Absorption
include
c. Macrobending
d. Microbending a. Distributed feedback (DFB)
e. All the above b. Heterojunction
c. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
8 Calculate the optical power 100 km from a 0.5 mW source on d. a and b above
a single mode fiber that has 0.10 dB per km loss.
e. a and c above
15 The following consideration is important when deciding
between using a diode laser or an LED

a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above
ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

1 C D C C E D B D D C A C B C A A E

2 B A C D B A C A D A B B B B C A A

3 D C C D B C A D C A A A C A D C E

4 C B B A B A D C C D C B D B B A C

5 D C D B C C B B C D B D C C A B D

6 C D C D B C D D A B E B B C A C C

7 C C A B B D B B B B D C D D D D E

8 B D C A B C C B A A B A A A B C D

9 D A D D A A D D D D A D A D D B C

10 A C A B A B D A D C A E B A A B D

11 A A C C B C B A D E C B A B E C E

12 B D D B C A C D B B B A D C C A D

13 C D D A B D C B C C C D C B E D C

14 C D D D C D D C C E B B C E B D E

15 E B A C D D D D A A E C C D B D A