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NMAT CHEMISTRY MOCK EXAM

I. Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. Lithium and sodium have similar chemical properties. For example, both can form
ionic bonds with chloride. Which of the following best explains this similarity?

(A) Both lithium and sodium ions are positively charged.

(B) Lithium and sodium are in the same group of the Periodic Table.
(C) Lithium and sodium are in the same period of the Periodic Table.
(D) Both lithium and sodium have low atomic weights.

2. What determines the length of an elements atomic radius?

I. The number of valence electrons
II. The number of electron shells
III. The number of neutrons in the nucleus

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II, and III

3. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

(A) Mg
(B) Cl
(C) Zn
(D) I

4. An electron returns from an excited state to its ground state, emitting a photon at
= 500 nm. What would be the magnitude of the energy change if one mole of
these photons were emitted? (Note: h = 6.626 10-34 J s)

(A) 3.98 10-21 J

(B) 3.98 10-19 J
(C) 2.39 103 J
(D) 2.39 105 J

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5. Suppose that an atom fills its orbitals as shown:

Such an electron configuration most clearly illustrates which of the following

laws of atomic physics?

(A) Hunds rule

(B) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(C) Bohr model
(D) Rutherford model

6. Which of the following quantum number sets is possible for Zn2+?

7. Which of the following correctly ranks the compounds below by ascending boiling
point?
I. Acetone
II. KCl
III. Kr
IV. Isopropyl alcohol

(A) I < II < IV < III

(B) III < IV < I < II
(C) II < IV < I < III
(D) III < I < IV < II

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8. Although the octet rule dictates much of molecular structure, some atoms can
violate the octet rule by being surrounded by more than eight electrons. Which of
the following is the best explanation for why some atoms can exceed the octet?

(A) Atoms that exceed the octet already have eight electrons in their outermost
electron shell.
(B) Atoms that exceed the octet only do so when bonding with transition metals.
(C)Atoms that exceed the octet can do so because they have d-orbitals in which
extra electrons can reside.
(D) Some atoms can exceed the octet because they are highly electronegative.

9. Both BF3 and NH3 have three atoms bonded to the central atom. Which of the
following is the best explanation for why the geometry of these two molecules is
different?

(A) BF3 has three bonded atoms and no lone pairs, which makes its geometry
trigonal pyramidal.
(B) NH3 is nonpolar, while BF3 is polar.
(C) NH3 has three bonded atoms and one lone pair, which makes its geometry
trigonal pyramidal.
(D) BF3 is nonpolar, while NH3 is polar.

10. Which of the following compounds has a formula weight between 74 and 75
grams per mole?

(A) KCl
(B) C4H10O
(C) MgCl2
(D) BF3
11. What is the most specific characterization of the reaction shown?

(A) Single-displacement
(B) Neutralization

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(C) Double-displacement
(D) Oxidationreduction

12. What is the molecular formula of a compound with an empirical formula of B2H5

and a molar mass of ?

(A) B2H5
(B) B3H7
(C) B4H10
(D) B6H15

13. In a certain equilibrium process, the activation energy of the forward reaction is
greater than the activation energy of the reverse reaction. This reaction is:

(A) endothermic.
(B) exothermic.
(C) spontaneous.
(D) nonspontaneous.

14. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a catalyst?

(A) Catalysts are used up in the reaction, increasing reaction efficiency.

(B) Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction by lowering the activation energy.
(C) Catalysts alter the thermodynamics of the reaction to facilitate the formation
of products or reactants.
(D) Catalysts stabilize the transition state by bringing it to a higher energy.

15. What would increasing the concentration of reactants accomplish in a solution

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containing a saturated catalyst?

(A) It would increase the rate constant but not the reaction rate.
(B) It would decrease the rate constant but increase the reaction rate.
(C) It would increase the rate constant and increase the reaction rate.
(D) The reaction rate would be unaffected.

16. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction:

Cu2SO4 (s) 2Cu+ (aq) + SO24- (aq)?

17. What is the proper equilibrium expression for the reaction below?

2NO2 (g) + 4H2 (g) N2 (g) + 4 H2O (g)

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18. Given the reaction below:

FeI (aq) + I (g) FeI (aq)

Which of the following would increase the formation of product?

(A) Decreasing the volume of the container

(B) Decreasing the pressure of the container
(C) Increasing the volume of the container
(D) Decreasing the volume of the container while maintaining a constant pressure

19. Consider the chemical reaction in the vessel depicted in the following diagram.

(A) The reaction is spontaneous.

(B) The reaction is nonspontaneous.

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(C) The reaction is at equilibrium.
(D) There is not enough information to determine if the reaction is spontaneous

20. A chemical reaction has a negative enthalpy and a negative entropy. Which of the
following terms necessarily describes this reaction?

(A) Exothermic
(B) Endothermic
(C) Exergonic
(D) Endergonic

21. Which of the following statements is true of process that is spontaneous in the
forward direction?

(A) G > 0 and Keq > Q

(B) G > 0 and Keq < Q
(C) G < 0 and Keq > Q
(D) G < 0 and Keq < Q

22. Ideal gases:

I. have no volume.
II. have particles with no attractive forces between them.
III. have no mass.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II, and III

23. The kinetic molecular theory states that: the average kinetic energy of a molecule
of gas is directly proportional to the
temperature of the gas in kelvin.

(A) the average kinetic energy of a molecule of gas is directly proportional to

the temperature of the gas in kelvin
(B) collisions between gas molecules are inelastic.

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(C) gas particles occupy discrete areas of space.
(D) all gas molecules have the same kinetic energy at the same temperature.

24. Given that the gases at the center of the sun have an average molar mass of

compressed to a density of under 1.30 10 atm of pressure,

what is the temperature at the center of the sun?

(A) 2.6 104 K

(B) 2.6 106 K
(C) 2.6 107 K
(D) 2.6 1010 K

25. An aqueous solution was prepared by mixing 70 g of an unknown nondissociating

solute into 100 g of water. The solution has a boiling point of 101.11C. What is

the molar mass of the solute? (Kb= )

26. Two organic liquids, pictured in the figure below, are combined to form a solution.
Based on their structures, will the solution closely obey Raoults law?

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(A)Yes; the liquids differ due to the additional methyl group on toluene and,
therefore, will not deviate from Raoults law.
(B)Yes; the liquids are very similar and, therefore, will not deviate from Raoults
law.
(C) No; the liquids differ due to the additional methyl group on toluene and,
therefore, will deviate from Raoults law.
(D) No; the liquids both contain benzene rings, which will interact with each
other and cause deviation from Raoults law.

27. One hundred grams of sucrose are dissolved in a cup of hot water at 80C. The
cup of water contains 300.00 mL of water. What is the percent composition by
mass of sugar in the resulting solution?

(Sucrose = C12H22O11, density of water at )

(A) 25.0%
(B) 25.5%
(C) 33.3%
(D) 34.2%

28. Which of the following is not a BrnstedLowry base?

29. The function of a buffer is to:

(A) maintain a neutral pH.
(B) resist changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added.

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(C) slow down reactions between acids and bases.
(D) speed up reactions between acids and bases.

30. How many liters of 2 M Ba(OH)2 are needed to titrate a 4 L solution of 6 M

H3PO4?

(A) 1.33 L
(B) 12 L
(C) 18 L
(D) 56 L

31. Consider the following equation:

6 Na (s) + 2 NH3 (aq) 2 Na N (s) + 3 H2 (g)
Which species acts as an oxidizing agent?

(A) Na
(B) N in NH3
(C) H in NH3
(D) H2

32. Lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4 ) is often used in laboratories because of its
tendency to donate a hydride ion. Which of the following roles would lithium
aluminum hydride likely play in a reaction?

(A) Strong reducing agent only

(B) Strong oxidizing agent only
(C) Both a strong reducing agent and strong oxidizing agent
(D) Neither a strong reducing agent nor a strong oxidizing agent

33. The following electronic configurations represent elements in their neutral form.
Which element is the strongest oxidizing agent?

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34. One way to test for the presence of iron in solution is by adding potassium
thiocyanate to the solution. The product when this reagent reacts with iron is
FeSCN2+ , which creates a dark red color in solution via the following net ionic
equation:

How many grams of iron sulfate would be needed to produce 2 moles of

FeSCN2+?

(A) 110 g
(B) 220 g
(C) 400 g
(D) 500 g

35. How many electrons are involved in the following half-reaction after it is
balanced?

(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
36. Rusting occurs due to the oxidationreduction reaction of iron with environmental
oxygen:

Some metals cannot react with oxygen in this fashion.

Which of the following best explains why iron can?

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(A)Iron has a more positive reduction potential than those metals, making it more
likely to donate electrons to oxygen.

(B)Iron has a more positive reduction potential than those metals, making it more
likely to accept electrons from oxygen.

(C)Iron has a less positive reduction potential than those metals, making it more
likely to donate electrons to oxygen.

(D)Iron has a less positive reduction potential than those metals, making it more
likely to accept electrons from oxygen.

37. Which of the following compounds is LEAST likely to be found in the salt bridge of
a galvanic cell?

38. Which of the following statements could be true about a NaCd cell, based on the
information below?

(A) It is a galvanic cell, and sodium is the cathode.

(B) It is an electrolytic cell, and cadmium is the anode.
(C) It is a galvanic cell, with Ecell = 3.11 V.
(D) It is an electrolytic cell, with Ecell = -3.11 V.

39. Ionization energy contributes to an atoms chemical reactivity. Which of the

following shows an accurate ranking of ionization energies from lowest to
highest?

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(A) first ionization energy of Be < second ionization energy of Be < first
ionization energy of Li
(B) first ionization energy of Be < first ionization energy of Li < second
ionization energy of Be
(C) first ionization energy of Li < first ionization energy of Be < second
ionization energy of Be
(D) first ionization energy of Li < second ionization energy of Be < first
ionization energy of Be

40. At sea level and 25C, the solubility of oxygen gas in water is 1.25 10-3 M. In
Tagaytay City that lies high above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is 0.800
atm. What is the solubility of oxygen in water in Tagaytay City?

41. How many total electrons are in a 133Cs cation?

(A) 54
(B) 55
(C) 78
(D) 133

42. Carbon and silicon are the basis of biological life and synthetic computing,
respectively. While these elements share many chemical properties, which of the
following best describes a difference between the two elements?

(A) Carbon has a smaller atomic radius than silicon.

(B) Silicon has a smaller atomic radius than carbon.
(C) Carbon has fewer valence electrons than silicon.
(D) Silicon has fewer valence electrons than carbon.

43. Why do halogens often form ionic bonds with alkaline earth metals?

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(A) The alkaline earth metals have much higher electron affinities than the
halogens.
(B) By sharing electrons equally, the alkaline earth metals and halogens both
form full octets.
(C) Within the same row, the halogens have smaller atomic radii than the alkaline
earth
metals.
(D) The halogens have much higher electron affinities than the alkaline earth
metals.

44. Which of the following is the best explanation of the phenomenon of hydrogen
bonding?
(A) Hydrogen has a strong affinity for holding onto valence electrons.
(B) Hydrogen can only hold two valence electrons.
(C) Electronegative atoms disproportionately carry shared electron pairs when bonded
to hydrogen.
(D) Hydrogen bonds have ionic character

45. Which of the following best describes the number and character of the bonds in an
ammonium cation?

(A) Three polar covalent bonds

(B) Four polar covalent bonds, of which none are coordinate covalent bonds
(C) Four polar covalent bonds, of which one is a coordinate covalent bond
(D) Four polar covalent bonds, of which two are coordinate covalent bonds

46. Which of the following best describes an important property of bond energy?
(A) Bond energy increases with increasing bond length.
(B) The more shared electron pairs comprising a bond, the higher the energy of
that bond.
(C) Single bonds are more difficult to break than double bonds.
(D) Bond energy and bond length are unrelated.

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47. Which of the following explanations best describes the mechanism by which
solute particles affect the melting point of ice?

(A) Melting point is elevated because the kinetic energy of the substance
increases.
(B) Melting point is elevated because the kinetic energy of the substance
decreases.
(C) Melting point is depressed because solute particles interfere with lattice
formation.
(D) Melting point is depressed because solute particles enhance lattice
formation.

48. The process of formation of a liquid solution can be better understood by breaking
the process into three steps:
1. Breaking the solute into its individual components
2. Making room for the solute in the solvent by overcoming intermolecular forces
in the solvent
3. Allowing solutesolvent interactions to occur to form the solution

Which of the following correctly lists the enthalpy changes for these three steps,
respectively?
(A) Endothermic, exothermic, endothermic
(B) Exothermic, endothermic, endothermic
(C) Exothermic, exothermic, endothermic
(D) Endothermic, endothermic, exothermic
49. The plots of two gases at STP are shown below. One of the gases is 1.0 L of
helium, and the other is 1.0 L of bromine. Which plot corresponds to each gas
and why?

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(A) Curve A is helium and curve B is bromine because helium has a smaller
molar mass than bromine.

(B) Curve A is helium and curve B is bromine because the average kinetic energy
of
bromine is greater than the average kinetic energy of helium.

(C) Curve A is bromine and curve B is helium because helium has a smaller
molar mass than
bromine.

(D) Curve A is bromine and curve B is helium because the average kinetic energy
of
bromine is greater than the average kinetic energy of helium.

50. Experimenters notice that the molar concentration of dissolved oxygen in an

enclosed water tank has decreased to one-half its original value. In an attempt to
counter this decrease, they
quadruple the partial pressure of oxygen in the container. What is the final
concentration of the gas?

(A) Half the original concentration

(B) The same as the original concentration
(C) Double the original concentration
(D) Quadruple the original concentration

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