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Projek Jawab Untuk Jaya 2010

SCIENCE MODULE FOR SPM 2010

Contents

No Items pages

01 Format of an instrument for the evaluation of Science SPM 2


(Actual examination format)

02 Analysis of SPM science Paper 2005 -2009 4

03 Examination tips 5

04 Answering Strategy 7

05 Sets of questions 12

06 Scheme 227

07 Set of Practice Bestari Questions 256 - 290

08 Practise Bestari Scheme 291 - 307

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FORMAT OF INSTRUMENT FOR THE EVALUATION OF SCIENCE BEGINNING


SPM 2003

NO ITEM PAPER 1(1511/1) PAPER 2 (1511/2)

01 Type of instrument Objective test Subjective test

02 Type of item Objective item with Subjective item


Multiple Choice Section A:
Multiple combination Structured item
Each item has four option, Section B:
A,B, C and D Response item
Section C:
Essay
Open response item
Limited response item

03 Number of Question 50 (answer all) Section A


4 (answer all questions)
20 marks

Section B
5 (answer all questions)
30 marks

Section C
Answer question 10
And
Either question 11 or 12

04 Total marks 50 70

05 Method to responses Mark on OMR sheet Write in the spaces


provided on question
paper.

06 Duration of test 1 hour 15 minutes 2 hour and 30 minutes

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07 Construct requirement Knowledge : 25 Knowledge :20


Understanding :15 Understanding :14
Application :10 Scientific skills :30
Application :6

08 Example of item base on Refer LPM question Refer LPM question


construct

09 Marking Scheme (1 or 0 mark) Analytical

10 Coverage responses Evaluate the constructs on Evaluate the constructs on


all context all context

11 Level of difficulty L: M: H= 5:3:2 L:M:H= 5:3:2


Low :L
Moderate :M
High :H Overall
L:M:H=5:3:2

12 Extra instrument Calculator

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ANALYSIS OF THE SPM SCIENCE PAPER ( 2005 - 2009 )

QUESTION
CHAPTER 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C O A B C
1 Scientific Investigation
2 Body Coordination 3 1 3 1 5 3 1 4 1
3 Heredity and Variation 4 1 5 3 1 3 4 1
4 Matter and Substance 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 4 1
5 Energy and Chemical Changes 3 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 1
6 Nuclear energy 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 4
7 Light, Colour and Sight 5 1 3 1 5 1 3 1 3 1
8 Chemicals in Industry 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1
Number of Form 4 Questions 23 2 3 2 24 2 3 1 24 2 2 1 21 2 2 1 24 1 3 2
9 Microorganisms and Their 4 1 5 1 3 1 5 1 4 1
Effect on Living Things
10 Nutrition and Food Production 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 4
11 Preservation and Concervation 5 2 2 1 6 1 2 1 1
of the Environment
12 Carbon Compounds 4 1 4 1 5 1 3 1 3 1
13 Motion 4 1 5 1 5 1 5 1 5 1
14 Food Thecnology and
Production 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 3
15 Synthetic Materials in industry 2 2 2 1 2 1 2
16 Electronics and Information
2 1
and 2 1 3 1 3 3 1
Communication Technology
Number of Form 5 Questions 27 2 2 1 26 2 2 2 26 2 3 2 29 2 3 2 26 3 2 1
TOTAL 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3 50 4 5 3

O = Objective question T = Theory question


P = Practical Question E = Essay question

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EXAMINATIONS TIPS

ERRORS IN LANGUAGE

1. Wrong spelling.
2. Repeat answer using different sentence structure.
3. Use of active voice when writing a report .

SUGGESTION TO CANDIDATES

1. Master the basic concepts and facts


2. For practical, ensure that you have mastered all the skills regarding the process in
science.
3. Use the right / accurate terminologies
4. Elaborate in sequence and avoid repetition of facts.
5. Do more exercises
6. Avoid mixing languages in the answer.
7. Ensure there is detailed observation on the stimulus given.

SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

1. Each step in a scientific investigation should be carried out to ensure a good grasp of
skills pertaining to basic science processes.
2. Ensure all the students are well versed in all topics.
3. Ensure students master the skills of science processes.
4. Use a variety of teaching and learning method.
5. Prepare worksheets which include a lot of stimulus.
6. Expose student to the exam formatted questions from form 1.
7. Increase the number of exercises.

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 1

STRATEGIES

1.Student must find/prepare / collect sets of topical objective question from revision
book.
2.Do test and retest until get 85% correct for each topical sets.
3.Practise answering each objective question in 1 minutes 30 seconds.
4.Practise answering high level question using Eliminate method

TEST AND RETEST METHOD

1.Get topical objective question from dependable source.


2.Do topical exercise.
3.If the mark gain less than 85% (set of 50 question 43 must correct), Redo the

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exercise on the same topic until you get 85 % or more.


4.Preparation activities for redo exercise include ( reading textbook, notes, mind
map, discussion and ask teacher)
5.If you are already achieve 85% , do the same for another topic.
6.If you are already done all 15 topics until November, it means you are 85% confidence
to be in examination hall.

ELIMINATE METHOD

EXAMPLE 1

1.What is the similarity between meiosis and mitosis ?

a. Number of daughter cells produced


b. Duplication of the chromosomes
c. Number of chromosomes in the daughter cell
d. Both are important in the growth of an organism

EXAMPLE 2

2.What happens to a person if his thyroid gland secretes excessive hormone into the
blood?

A The blood pressure increases


B The glucose level in the blood decreases
C The metabolic rate increases
D The salt level in the blood decreases

Notes:

1. To answer this question find the incorrect answer first.


2 . Reject that answer ( 3 distracters left)
3. Reject one more incorrect answer ( 2 distracters left)
4. Try to reject one more incorrect answer (One distracter only left) that is the answer.

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR PAPER 2

SECTION A ( Alternative test to practical, 20 marks )


In this section the students must answer 4 questions which carry 20 marks. All the items in
this section will deal with Science Process Skills. In order for the students to get the answers,
they need to acquire the skills listed below. The students can get the answer from the question
and the stimulus implicitly and explicitly.

Science Process Skills (list and definition)

Science Process Skills enable students to formulate their questions and find out the answer
systematically.

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Descriptions of science process skills are as follows:

Observing
Using the sense of hearing, touch, smell, taste and sight to collect information about an object
or a phenomenon.

Classifying
Using observation to group objects or events according to similarities or differences

Measuring and Using Numbers


Making quantitative observations using numbers and tools with standardised units. Measuring
makes observation more accurate.

Inferring
Using past experiences or previously collected data to draw conclusions and make
explanations of events.

Predicting
Stating the outcome of a future event based on prior knowledge gained through experiences of
collecting data

Communicating
Using words or graphic symbols such as tables, graphs, figures or models to describe an
action, object or event.

Interpreting Data
Giving rational explanations about an object, event or pattern derived from collected data.

Defining Operationally
Defining concepts by describing what must be done and what should be observed

Controlling Variables
Identifying the fixed variable, manipulated variable and responding variable in an
investigation. The manipulated variable is changed to observe its relationship with the
responding variable. At the same time, the fixed variable is kept constant

Hypothesising
Making a general statement about the relationship between a manipulated variable and a
responding variable in order to explain an event or observation. This statement can be tested
to determine its validity.

Experimenting
Planning and conducting activities to test a certain hypothesis. These activities include
collecting, analysing and interpreting data and making conclusions.

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Guide to answering question in Section A

1. Each question in section A is an alternative question to the real practical exam


2. Hence data are usually given and the candidate is asked to make an inference or
conclusion, or experiment results are given and the candidate is required to give an answer
about the process in conducting an investigation.
3. Among the matters raised in the question are :
a) Making qualitative and quantitative observations from the diagrams or through the
measurements
b) Drawing diagram, graphs, tables or charts according to data or information given.
c) Making predictions, hypotheses, inferences and conclusions based on the candidates
scientific knowledge
d) Identifying a variable that is kept constant, that is manipulated and responds
4. Your answer should be brief but accurate based on information given or obtained from
your framework

ANSWERING STRATEGIES FOR SCIENCE PROCESS SKILL QUESTIONS

A) Controlled Variable

Ways to find variables

1. From the sentence, find out the variables

Examples:

Steps:

a) Underline variables in the sentence


b) The underlined variables refer to manipulated variable and responding variable
c) Find out which variable that the change is fixed. This is the manipulated variable
d) The other one is responding variable.

2. From the table

Example 1:

Time/minute 0 2 4 6 8 10
Temperature/C 28 48 68 88 102 102

Steps:

a) Manipulated and responding variable given from the title of table are time and
temperature.
b) Time is manipulated variable because time are increase or changes.
c) Temperature is responding variable because changes of temperature

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Section B(Structured questions 30 marks)

1. This section covers five structured questions which are compulsory .


2. Most of these questions test the candidates command of knowledge and
understanding of facts, procedure of an experiment, concepts,principles, theories and
laws
3. Sometimes answers can be obtained from symbols,diagrams,tables and graphps
through interpretation and graphic extrapolation.
4. You must read the instruction at the beginning carefully so that you understand the
matter tested and obtain ideas to answer the questions.
5. A small part of the question generally relates to a subsequent part.

Guide to answering questions in section B

1.Usually, you need to use your knowledge of scientific facts ,principles and theories to
answer the questions.
2.Your answers should be brief and accurate.

Section C ( Essay questions, 20 marks)

1. This section contains three questions. Question 1 is compulsory and you may choose
either question 2 or 3.
2. Question 1 test the candidates command of scientific skills in experimenting as well
as the ability to make reports.
3. This question begins with a general statement, e.g. Acidic substances have a sour
test. The candidate is required to give a hypothesis based on the statement. Then, the
candidate is required to described the experiment based on the following to test the
hypothesis.
a)Aim of experiment
b)Identification of variables
c)List of apparatus and materials
d)Procedure
e)Tabulation of data
f)Conclusion
4. Questions 2 and 3, are usually short but the candidate is required to use his or
her knowledge and understanding of scientific concepts and theories to answer.
5. In this context, the candidate has to answer the question by drawing and writing a
Short essay following the instruction of the question.
6. All answers must be written in the space provided below each question.

Guide to answer the essay questions in section C

1. The format of question 1 is fixed and the candidate is required to answer it in the
same way as writing a report after an experiment.
2. For question 2 and 3, choose one you are confident in and answer it properly to obtain
maximum marks.
3. To answer this question, identify the key words which usually appear at the
beginning of the question.
4. Key words and the type of answer required are listed below:

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No Key words Type of answer

1 State Give facts without explanation

2 Define The answer must be specific statements of a concepts or


principle usually found in

3 Describe Explain in detail and systematically procedures,events or


natural phenomena

4 Explain Give reasons to explain the occurrence of a concept or a


principle.

5 Compare List the similarities and differences between two different


matters.

6 Discuss Give analytical and critical explanation.

7 Suggest Give views and opinions based on knowledge, scientific


concepts and theories.

8 What i)Give facts of information.


ii)Give explanation.

9 Why Give explanation and reasons

10 How i)List or describe steps in a process or a procedure in


carrying out an operation.
ii)Explain an event or phenomenon according to scientific
concepts and theories.

5.Apart from written answer, some questions require the candidate to draw and label
diagrams. In this contex, the diagrams should be clear, clean and of suitable size.
6.Wherever necessary, the workout of the calculation must be clearly shown in the space

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provided.
7.For an essay question which requires a long answer, plan your answer step-by-step and
write in short paragraphs
8.In an essay answer, each sentence should cover only one point in order to get one mark
which is usually allotted.

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CHAPTER 1: SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION


1. The diagram below shows the statement 5. Which of the following steps have been
that represents the steps that involved in carried out before planning the
the method of scientific investigation. investigation?

P Forming a hypothesis. I Collecting data


Q Planning the investigation. II Making observation
R Identifying the problem. III Forming a hypothesis
S Carrying out the investigation. IV Identifying the problem
T Making conclusion.
A I, II and III only
U Analysing and interpreting
B I, II and IV only
data.
C I, III and IV only
V Identifying the variables.
D II, III and IV only
2. Which of the following are correct steps 6. Why the method of scientific investigation
that involved in the method of scientific important?
investigation?
I Can be more observant and more
A P, V, Q, S, U, T, R analytical.
B R, V, P, Q, S, U, T
II Think creatively and critically.
C T, R, P, V, Q, S, U
III Avoid misconceptions and
D R, P, V, Q, S, U, T misinterpretations.
IV Effective in gaining, organizing, and
3 The following statement are the variables applying new knowledge.
that should be identified. Which of the
following is not true? I, II and III only
A
B I, II and IV only
A Fixed variable is the variable that is C II, III and IV only
kept constant or unchanged. I, II, III and IV
D
B Manipulated variable is the variable
that is change to see its effect. 7. A complete experiment report should
C Responding variable is the variable that contain the following, except
changes in response to the fixed
variable. Operational definition.
A
D Responding variable is the variable that B Material and apparatus.
changes in response to the manipulated The aim of the experiment.
C
variable. The size of the container influences the
D
rate of cooling.
4 Hypothesis is a simple statement of what
one thinks will happen as a result of an 8. Which of the following not the parts of the
experiment. It usually shows the step analysing and interpreting data?
relationship between
A Plot a graph.
A the fixed variable and the responding B Organizing the data.
variable.
C Find the relationships between the
B the fixed variable and the manipulated variables.
variable.
D Check and confirm whether or not the
C the responding variable and the hypothesis is accepted.
manipulated variable.
D the responding variable and the 12
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9. Which of the following should be done 14. A student takes three petri dishes of
before forming a hypothesis? different sizes. Each petri dish is filled
3
with 30 cm boiling water. After some
I Collecting data time, he found that the volume of the
II Making observation boiling water left in each three petri dishes
III Identifying the problem is different.
IV Planning the investigation

A II and III only


B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only The inference of this experiment are
D I, II, III and IV only
A the surface area expose to air.
10. Which of the following statements shows B the larger the surface, the higher the
an inference? rate of evaporation.
C the surface area of the petri dish
A The surface area exposed to air. influences the rate of evaporation.
B The size of the container influences the D the experiment shows that the rate of
rate of cooling. evaporation is influenced by the
C To investigate how surface area affects surface area of the liquid exposed to
the rate of cooling. the air.
D The larger the surface area, the higher
the rate of cooling. 15. Why need to practice scientific attitudes
and noble values in learning science?
11. Which of the following variables that we
can find and record when doing an A Become rational thinker.
experiment? B Become responsibility and cooperative.
C Become effective decision-makers and
A Fixed variable problem-solvers.
B Responding variable D Appreciating the contribution of
C Manipulated variable science and technology.
D Independent variable
16 The diagram below shows the graph that
12. An experiment is carried out to represents the relationship between the
solubility of salt M with temperature.
A test the problem
B test the hypothesis
C making a hypothesis
D prove the observation

13 Which of the following are the attitudes


and values that important to the learning of
science?
I Emotional
II Daring to try
III Confident and independent What is the manipulated variable in this
IV Diligence and perseverance experiment?

A I, II and III only A Solubility


B I, II and IV only B Temperature
C II, III and IV only 13 C Type of salt M
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17 The diagram below shows object P and Q 19 "The shorter the pendulum, the more
are placed in a measuring cylinder that oscillations it makes in a given time." This
containing three different liquids. statement is

A a conclusion
B a hypothesis
C an observation
D aim of the investigation

20 The diagram below shows an experiment


that represents the relationship between the
densities and the ability to float in the
Which of the following is the inference for water.
this experiment?

A Chloroform will float on the oil.


B Oil is less dense than chloroform.
C Mercury will float on the chloroform.
D Mercury is less dense than chloroform.

18 The diagram below shows the steps of the


method of scientific investigation.
What is the manipulated variable in this
experiment?

A Type of liquid
B Type of objects
C Size of the objects
D Temperature of water

21. Which of the following are considered as


science process skills?

I Drawing
II Predicting
III Controlling variable
IV Identifying problem

A I, II and III only


Which of the following is the step P and B I, II and IV only
Q? C I, III and IV only
D II, III and IV only
P Q
A Forming a Collecting data
hypothesis
B Making Carrying out the
observation investigation
C Forming a Carrying out the
hypothesis investigation
D Carrying out the Forming a
investigation hypothesis
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22. Which of the following is the most 26. "It is the amount of organic fertilizer that a
important when recording the data? farmer used will affect the growth of the
plant?" Identifying the variables for this
A Fair problem.
B Honest
C Curiosity X = The amount of organic fertilizer
D Confident Y = Plant growth
Z = Amount of sunlight
23 The following are the positive attitudes
and values that required in the learning of Fixed Responding Manipulated
science, except A X Y Z
B Z Y X
A ego C Y Z X
B systematic D Z X Y
C flexible and open-minded
D diligence and perseverance I Control the variables.
II Determine the procedure.
24 The following are the steps of scientific III Determine the apparatus and material.
investigation, except IV Determine the method of data
collection and data analysis.
A Observing phenomenon
B Controlling the variables 27 All of the following above are the part of
C Planning the investigation the step of
D Carrying out the investigation
A Collecting data
The table below shows the relationship B Forming a hypothesis
between the amount of salt and the C Identifying the variable
temperature of boiling. D Planning the investigation

Temperature of Amount of salt 28 If a student is a people that willing to


water boiling added to accept other's critical and opinions, what
water(grams) kinds of the attitudes and values that this
1000 None student have?
1020 10
1040 20 A Being objective
1060 30 B Being fair and just
C Being flexible and open minded
25. What is the suitable hypothesis for this D Being responsible and cooperative
experiment?

A The more salt is added, the lower the


temperature for boiling.
B The more salt added, the higher the
temperature for boiling.
C The type of the salt used will be
affected the temperature of boiling.
D The amount of salt added to water will
not be affected the temperature of
boiling.

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CHAPTER 2: BODY COORDINATION


1. The body systems that control and regulate 5. The diagram below shows the human
coordination consist of nervous system.

A muscular system and nervous system.


B central system and peripheral system.
C nervous system and endocrine system.
D endocrine system and circulatory
system.

2. Which of the following are the activities


regulated and coordinated by the nervous
system?

I Sense
II Speech
III Growth
IV Memory and thinking

A I, II and III only What are the labels P and Q represented?


B I, II and IV only
C I, III and IV only P Q
D II, III and IV only
A Central nervous Peripheral nervous
system system
3. What are the two body systems that control
B Peripheral nervous Central nervous
and regulate coordination?
system system
C Voluntary nervous Involuntary
I Nervous system
system nervous system
II Endocrine system
D Involuntary Voluntary nervous
III Circulatory system
nervous system system
IV Respiratory system
6. Which of the following are consists of the
A I and II only
peripheral nervous system?
B I and III only
C I, II and III only
I Brain
D II, III and IV only
II Spinal cord
III Spinal nerves
4 Which of the following are consists of the
IV Cranial nerves
central nervous system?
A I and II only
I Brain
B I and III only
II Spinal cord
III Spinal nerves C II and IV only
IV Cranial nerves D III and IV only

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D III and IV only
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7. The diagram below shows a neurone. 10 The diagram below shows the three main
groups of neurones.

Label X and Y are

X Y
A Dendron Myelin sheath Which of the following represents P, Q and
B Myelin sheath Dendron R?
C Dendrite Myelin sheath
D Myelin sheath Dendrite P Q R
A Relay Motor Sensory
8. Neurones can be classified into three main neurone neurone neurone
groups. Which of the following are the B Sensory Relay Motor
main groups of neurones? neurone neurone neurone
C Sensory Motor Relay
I Axon neurone neurone neurone
II Relay D Motor Sensory Relay
III Motor neurone neurone neurone
IV Sensory
11 The diagram below shows a neurone.
A I, II and III only
B I, II and IV only
C I, III and IV only
D II, III and IV only

9. What is the function of a nucleus which is


containing in cell body?

A A protected.
B Receive nerve impulses and transmit
them.
C Controls all the activities in the
neurone.
D Speeds up the transmission of impulses What is the function of this neurone?
and provide nutrients to axon and A Transmits impulses from the central
dendron. nervous system to effectors.
B Transmits impulses from receptors to
the central nervous system.
C Transmits impulses from effectors to
the central nervous system.
D Processes impulses received from the
sensory neurones and transmits them to
17 the motor neurones.
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12. The diagram below shows a neurone. 17. The diagram below shows the pathway of
impulses in the nervous coordination.

This neurone is called

A Axon What are X and Y represented?


B Relay
C Motor X Y
D Sensory A Receptors Effectors
B Effectors Receptors
13. Which of the following is the basic unit in C Sensory Motor
the nervous system? D Motor Sensory

A Neurone 18. Which of the following are the examples of


B Dendron reflex action?
C cell body
D Myelin sheath I Knee-jerk reflex.
II Narrowing of eye when the intensity
14. What is the similar of the sensory neurone, of light is too great.
motor neurone and relay neurone? III Withdrawal of hand when touching a
hot object accidentally.
A The function IV Blinking of eyes when an object is
B All are nerve cells moving towards our eyes.
C The length of axon
D The length of dendron A I, II and III only
B I, II and IV only
15 The sensory cells found in our sensory C II, III and IV only
organs is called D I, II, III and IV

A stimuli 19. Which of the following are true about


B effectors reflex action?
C receptors
D responses I Help us to avoid injuries.
II detect stimuli in the environment.
16 What is effector? III Knee-jerk is an example of reflex
action.
A Detect stimuli in the environment. IV Rapid and automatic response to a
B Rapid and automatic response to a stimulus.
stimulus.
C Processes the information and then A I, II and III only
sends out impulses. B I, III and IV only
D Respond to the instructions received C II, III and IV only
from the central nervous system. D I, II, III and IV
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20. Which of the following consists in a 23. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in
reflex? a human knee-jerk.

I Receptors and effectors


II Sensory neurones
III Motor neurones
IV Relay neurones

A I, II and IV only
B I, III and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

21 The diagram below shows the reflex arc in


a human knee-jerk. Which of the following shows the path of
the nerve impulse?

A Receptor
spinal cord effector
B Effector
spinal cord receptor
C
Receptor spinal nerves effector
D
Effector spinal nerves receptor

24. The diagram below shows the human


endocrine system.
How many neurones involves in this reflex
action?

A One
B Two
C Three
D Four

22 The diagram below shows the main parts of


the human brain.

Which of the following labelled as A, B, C


or D is the adrenal glands?

What are P, Q and R represent? 25. The following are true of the hormone,
P Q R except
A Cerebrum Cerebellum Medulla
oblongata A have a few target organs
B Cerebellu Cerebrum Medulla B produce in larger amount
m oblongata C produce by ductless gland
C Cerebellu Medulla Cerebrum D secrete directly into the bloodstream
m oblongata
D Medulla Cerebrum Cerebellum
oblongata 19
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26. The following are true of the pituitary 29 Why the pituitary gland is called the
gland, except master gland of the endocrine system?

A located at the base of the cerebrum. A It produces growth hormone.


B often called the master gland of the B It located at the base of the cerebrum.
endocrine system. C It controls the rate of growth of a
C produce growth hormone which human.
stimulates growth. D It produces hormones which stimulate
D produce adrenaline to prepare the body other endocrine glands.
for action during emergency.

30 Which of the following are the health


27. The diagram below shows a part the problem causes by drug abuse?
human endocrine system.
I Mental problem.
II High blood problem.
III Slow down nerve impulses.
IV Weakened of immune system.

A I and II only
B II and III only
What is the function of the label M? C I, II and III only
D I, II and IV only
A Controls the rate of metabolism.
B Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
C Develop of secondary sexual
characteristics.
D Prepares the body for actions during
emergencies.

28. The diagram below shows the part of the


human endocrine system.

What is this endocrine system?

A Pancreas
B Adrenal glands
C Thyroid gland
D Pituitary gland

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CHAPTER 3:HEREDITY AND VARIATION


1. The characteristics of individuals that are
controlled by genes include 5. Mitosis is a process whereby a cell
division into how many daughter cells?
I Color of hair
II Color of eyes A One
III Types of ear lobes B Two
IV Right handed or left handed C Three
D Four
A I, II and III only
B I, III and IV only
6 The diagram below shows the structure of
C II, III and IV only
a chromosome.
D I, II, III and IV

2. Which of the following are true about


genes?

I Units of inheritance.
II Determine the characteristics.
III Thousand of genes in a DNA What is the label P represented?
molecule.
IV Consists of dominant genes and A DNA
recessive genes. B Gene
C Nucleus
A I, II and III only D Chromosome
B I, III and IV only
C II, III and IV only 7. Which of the following are the similarities
D I, II, III and IV between mitosis and meiosis?

3. There are two type of cell division namely I Important for inheritance.
II Each chromosome only double one.
A Gene and mutation. III Same number of times nucleus
B Mitosis and meiosis. divides.
C Dominant and recessive. IV Parent cells divide to produce
D Chromosome and autosome. daughter cells.

4. Which of the following controlled the A I, II and III only


characteristics of individual? B I, II and IV only
C II, III and IV only
A Gene
D I, II, III and IV
B Mutation
C Cell division
D Chromosome

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8. Which of the following process will 12 Which of the following shows the
produce the gametes? importance of meiosis?

A Mitosis I Reproduce sexually.


B Meiosis II Replacing dead cells.
C Mutation III To produce variation.
D Cytoplasm
A II only
9. Which of the following are true of the B I and III only
process mitosis? C II and III only
D I, II and III
I Genetic information varied.
II Divide parents cells to two daughter 13 A cell in a plant contains 30 chromosomes.
cells. How many chromosomes does each of its
III The number of times nucleus divides female gamete have?
is same with the number of times
cytoplasm divides. A 5
B 10
A I only C 15
B I and II only D 20
C II and III only
D I, II and III 14 The following are true about the dominant
gene, except
10. What is the probability that a couple can
get a girl baby? A determined dominant traits.
B control the characteristic are present.
A 0.25 C shows it character in the presence of
B 0.30 recessive gene.
C 0.40 D shows it character in the absence of
D 0.50 recessive gene.

11 The diagram below shows a phase in 15. Which of the following is a recessive
process meiosis. traits?

A Curly hair
B Black hair
C Left handed
D Free ear lobes

16 A person with two different genes is said


to be
This process is known as
A genotype
A mutation
B phenotype
B fertilization
C homozygous
C reproductive
D heterozygous
D crossing-over

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17. A parents with alleles shown as Cc x cc are 21 The diagram below shows the
crossed. chromosomes in a male and female.

Cc - Curly hair
cc - Straight hair

1
What are the phenotype ratios of the F
generation?

A 1 Cc : 3 cc
B 2 Cc : 2 cc
C 3 Cc : 1 cc
D 4 Cc : 0 cc

18 The figure below shows a monohybrid


cross between two plants

TT tt What are labels X and Y represented?


T : Tall (dominant)
t : Dwarf (recessive) X Y
A 22 + X 22 + Y
2 B 22 + Y 22 + X
What is the genotype ratio of the F C 44 + X 44 + Y
generation? D 44 + Y 44 + X

A 1 tall : 3 dwarf 22. Which of the following are true about the
B 2 tall : 2 dwarf identical twins?
C 3 tall : 1 dwarf
D 4 tall : 0 dwarf I Sex is same.
II One sperm is involved.
III Two foetuses share the same placenta.
19 If the 22 + X sperm fertilizes an ovum. IV Two foetuses develop in the mother's
What is the sex of the baby? uterus.
A Boy A I, II and III only
B Girl I, III and IV only
B
C Identical twins
C II, III and IV only
D Non-identical twins
D I, II, III and IV
20 If two ova are fertilized by two sperms.
What is the sex of baby? 23 Which of the following disorder is caused
by gene mutation?
A Boy
B Girl A Haemophilia
C Twins that have same sex. B Down's syndrome
D Twins that have same or different sex. C Turner's syndrome
D Klinefelter's syndrome

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24 The down's syndrome disorder caused by 28 If a female who has only one X
the possession of chromosome, she is suffering from

A less one chromosome. A Albinism


B extra one chromosome. B Haemophilia
C less one sex chromosome. C Turner's syndrome
D extra one sex chromosome. D Klinefelter's syndrome

25. Which of the following are the causes of 29 Diabetic patients need to be treated by
mutation? using

I Toxic chemicals A Insulin


II Ultraviolet light B Potatoes
III Radioactive gamma rays C Sheep's milk
D Gene therapy
A I and II only
B I and III only 30 Which of the following is the dominant
C II and III only traits?
D I, II and III
A Blonde hair
26 The following are the example of B Color blind
continuous variation, except C Straight hair
D Free ear lobes
A Weight
B Skin color
C Intelligence
D Blood group

27 Which of the following are the importances


of variation?

I Differentiate individuals.
II Improve product quality.
III Allows selective breeding to be
carried out.
IV For survival when environment
conditions change.

A I, II and III only


B I, III and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

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CHAPTER 4:MATTER AND SUBSTANCES


1. Which of the following represents a 4 Gas can easily be compressed because
process condensation? particles in gas

A are moving randomly.


B have high kinetic energy.
C have weak attractive forces.
D are not arranged and far apart.

5 Which of the following process involved a


2. Which of the following processes involved release of heat?
absorb of heat?
A boiling
I Boiling B melting
II Melting C freezing
III Freezing D evaporation
IV Condensation
6 Which of the following are true for pure
A I and II only substances?
B I and III only
C II and IV only I Do not contain any impurities.
D III and IV only II Has fixed melting and boiling point.
III Not mixed with any other substance.
3 Which of the following represents the IV Crystals is an example of pure
boiling? substance.

A A I, II and III only


B I, III and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
B
7 Which of the following is the property of
non metals?

A Shiny
C B High density
C Dull and brittle
D High tensile strength

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8 The process of separating substances in a 13 The table below shows the information
mixture to obtain a pure substance is about elements W, X, Y and Z. Which of
the following elements are negatively
A filtration charged?
B distillation
C purification Element Number of Number of
D crystallization proton electron
W 18 19
9 What is the boiling point of water if added X 11 9
a bit of salt in the water? Y 13 10
Z 16 17
A 90 0C
B 99 0C
A W and X
C 100 0C
B W and Z
D 105 0C
C X and Y
D Y and Z
10 The table below shows some information
regarding an atom. 14 Isotopes have the
Nucleon number 28 A same chemical and physical properties.
Proton number 15 B different chemical and physical
properties.
How many neutrons does this atom have? C same chemical properties but different
physical properties.
A 13 D different chemical properties but same
B 15 physical properties.
C 28
D 43 15 The nucleus contains

11 Atom X has 15 neutrons and 11 protons. A protons only


The number of electrons in Atom X is B neutrons only
C protons and neutrons
A 4 D protons and electrons
B 11
C 15 16 In the distillation process, what is used to
D 26 condensation the stream into pure water?

12 The table below shows information about A Impurities


elements R, S, T and U. Which of the B Rubber stopper
following elements are isotopes? C Distillation flask
Element Proton Nucleon D Liebig condenser
number number
R 5 13 17 The method that use to remove ethanol
S 6 13 from a mixture of ethanol and water which
T 7 15 have different boiling points is
U 7 17
A distillation
A R and S B purification
B R and U C crystallization
C S and T D fractional distillation
D T and U
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18 Which of the following require 22 The following are true of molecules,


crystallization process? except

A Mixture of salt and sand. A have low melting and boiling point.
B Mixture of ethanol and water. B may appear in solid, liquid and gas
C To obtain pure water from a salt state.
solution. C insoluble in water but soluble in
D To obtain petroleum fractions from organic solvents.
crude oil. D conduct electricity only when melted
or dissolved in water.
19 Which of the following elements are non-
metals? 23 Why metals have high melting and boiling
points?
A Gold
B Copper A Are good conductors of electricity.
C Bromine B Atoms are held strongly to each other.
D Magnesium C Weak Van der Waals' forces holding
the atom together.
20 Substance P has the following D Oppositely charged are attracted to
characteristic: each other by strong.
Corrosion resistant 24 The proton number enables us to predict
Have low densities
Good heat conductor I the number of protons an element
has.
Which of the following substance could be II the number of electrons an element
P? has.
III the location of an element in the
A Iron Periodic Table.
B Copper
C Sodium A I and II only
D Aluminium B II and III only
C I and III only
21 Which of the following is true? D I, II and III

Molecules of Molecules of 25 The diagram below shows the Periodic


elements compounds Table
Same type of Two or more
A atoms different types of
atoms
B Two or more Same type of
different types of atoms
atoms
C Same type of Two or more
The element X is a
molecules different types of
molecules
A Metal
D Two or more Same type of
B Non-metal
different types of molecules
C Semiconductor
molecules
D Transition element
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26 Which of the following is true about the 29 Which of the following elements are not
Elements in Group 1? from group 18?

A Are non-metals A Neon


B Very unreactive B Xenon
C Have high melting points C Boron
D Have a relatively low density D Helium

27 Which of the following is true about the 30 The diagram below shows the location of
elements in Group 18? element P in the Periodic Table.

A Gases
B Very reactive
C Called as halogens
D Have high melting points

28 The diagram below shows the experiment


of electrical conductivity.
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5

Which of the metals can be used as


electrode T?

A Sulfur
B Carbon
C Copper
D Magnesium

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CHAPTER 5:ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES


1 Comparison between physical change and 4 An endothermic reaction
chemical change has shown at the table
below. Which of the following is true? A heat change negative.
B release heat into surrounding.
Physical Change Chemical Change C absorbs heat from surroundings.
Reversible and Irreversible and D increase surrounding temperature.
A temporary permanent
5 Diagram below shows the energy level for
B No change in Change in
a chemical reaction.
chemical property chemical property
C Require a lot of Little or none
energy energy is required
D No new substances New substances
produced produced

2 Which is a chemical change among the


following?

A Ice melting
B Petrol burning
C Heating iodine crystals The following statement is true about the
D Sugar dissolve in water above reaction, except

3. Reaction X and Y that occurred have A Reaction above release heat.


shown is represented by the following B The value of heat energy is positive.
information. C Temperature of surrounding increase.
D Reaction above is exothermic reaction.

Reaction X : Iron + water + Oxygen
Rust 6 Releasing heat into surrounding occurred
when
Reaction Y : Ice Water Steam
I Burning magnesium ribbon in air.
Which is true that describes reaction X and
II Ammonium chloride solution
Y by the following information?
dissolves in water.
III Calcium carbonate decomposes into
Reaction X Reaction Y calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
A Temporary Permanent
B Chemical content Chemical content A I only
remains change B I and II only
C Produce new No new substances C II and III only
substances formed D I, II and III
D Require plenty of Little heat required
heat

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7 The information below shows an equation. 11 The reaction of calcium carbonate
represented by the equation below.
Hydrogen + Nitrogen
Ammonia
Calcium carbonate
Calcium oxide +
Which of the following statement is true Carbon dioxide
regarding the equation?
Which type of chemical reaction can
I The reaction is endothermic. describe equation above?
II The reaction is reversible.
III Releasing heat. A Dissolving
IV It is part of Haber Process. B Combination
C Displacement
A I only D Decomposition
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only 12 The information below shows a statement
D I, II, III and IV. about sodium hydroxide and dilute
hydrochloric acid solution.
8. What ratio is require when producing
ammonia from the reaction between Temperature increase when sodium
hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas in the hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid
Haber process? solution undergo neutralization.

A 1:3 Based on this statement, what conclusion


B 2:1 can you make on it?
C 2:3
D 3:1 A The reaction is exothermic.
B The reaction is endothermic.
9 The following statement is true about C Too much sodium neutralize.
Haber process, except D All sodium hydroxide will make the
temperature fall.
A Reaction is reversible.
B The suitable temperature is 450 - 500 13 The information below shows the
0
C. characteristics about metal X.
C Releasing heat in the backward
reaction. Metal X does not produce hydrogen
D The optimum pressure is 200 gas when acid is added into.
atmospheres.
Metal X is
10 Which of the following differences
between endothermic reaction and A Zinc
exothermic reaction is true? B Silver
Endothermic Exothermic C Calcium
Break bonds Form bonds D Aluminium
A
B Negative H Positive H
C Increase Decrease
surrounding surrounding
temperature temperature
D Energy product Energy reactant
lower than energy lower than energy
reactant product 30
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14 The diagram below shows the reaction of 16 The diagram below shows a reaction of
three pellets of metal Y added to the water. magnesium with dilute hydrochloric acid.

What observation can be derived from the Bubbles formed and gas X is released from
diagram above if the metal Y is Sodium? the experiment above. Gas X is

I Very fast with water. A Oxygen


II A loud pop sound is release by gas B Hydrogen
when tested with glowing splint. C Carbon dioxide
III Turns the red litmus paper into blue D Nitrogen dioxide
color.
IV Pellets burned with brick-red flame. 17 What is the function of potassium (VII)
manganate in the experiment for reactivity
A I only of metals with oxygen?
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only A For decoration.
D I, II, III and IV B Heated to release oxygen.
C Heated to release nitrogen.
15 Information below shows the reactivity of D Stimulate the metal to heat until it
Metal X, Y and Z. glows.

X No reaction either hot or cold 18 Carbon have the ability to displace oxygen
water. from the oxides of the following metals
Y No reaction with cold water but except
with hot water.
Z Reacts very fast with water. A Iron oxide
B Zinc oxide
Which of the following arrangement in C Copper oxide
ascending order for their reactivities is D Magnesium oxide
true?
19 Which of the following method is to
A Z, Y, X extracting the metal?
B Y, Z, X
C X, Y, Z I Filtration and evaporation.
D X, Z, Y II Using carbon to reduce the metal.
III Electrolysis of molten ore of metals.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

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20 Why is the magnesium not using the 23 The diagram below shows the arrangement
carbon reduction method to extract? of apparatus set up study of the process of
electrolysis. After a few minute, there is
A Because the extraction process is low. any result change to be made.
B Because the magnesium obtained is
pure.
C Because magnesium is more reactive
than carbon.
D Because the extraction process requires
a very high temperature and pressure.

21 Metal in natural conditions exist in the


Earth's crust as metal ore consist of

I Metal oxides
II Metal chlorides
What kind of error can be derived from the
III Metal sulphides
Metal carbonates diagram above that make no changes of it?
IV
A Current are too little.
A I only
B Terminals were reversed.
B I, II, and III only
C Using powdered lead iodide.
C II, III and IV only
D The carbon rods are not function.
D I, II, III and IV
24 Diagram below shows how an iron nails
22 Diagram below shows the study of
can be electroplated.
electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate solution
with two carbon electrodes.

Which of the following solution will


The following result is true for the diagram enable the iron nails to be plated with
above, except copper?
A The anode becomes thinner. A Silver nitrate
B Anode produce gas bubbles. B Copper nitrate
C Anode deposite the copper metal. C Copper sulphate
D Color of the solution gradually D Aluminium nitrate
becomes pale.

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25 Which is a primary cell among the 28 Which of the following is good habit when
following? using and disposing equipment that use
chemical reaction as energy sources?
I Dry cell
II Alkaline battery I Take good care of the equipment.
III Silver oxide battery II Disposing the equipment by sending
IV Cadmium battery back to recycling centre.
III Follow the instruction of the
A I only manufacturer of the equipment.
B I, II and III only IV Throwing them together with the
C II, III and IV only household waste.
D I, II, III and IV
A I only
26 An alkaline battery is made up by which of B I, II and III only
the following parts? C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV.
I Metal rod
II Zinc powder 29 The following is the new sources of energy
III Sodium hydroxide solution for equipment, except
IV Mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and
carbon I Wind mill
II Fuel cells
A I only III Bio-diesel fuel
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only A I only
D I, II, III and IV B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
27 A chemical reaction in green plants has
been represented at the equation below. 30 Among the following, which are the ways
to overcome the worst effect due to
chemical reaction?

I Throwing batteries to river.


II Using rechargeable batteries.
III Sending relevant equipment to recycle
The M and N in the equation above is center.
IV Discarding nickel cadmium batteries
M N to recycling bin.
A Hydrogen Acid Nitrate
B Mineral salt Carbon dioxide A I only
C Glucose Carbon dioxide B I, II and III only
D Carbon dioxide Glucose C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

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CHAPTER 6:NUCLEAR ENERGY

1 What is radioactive substance? 5 Why gamma radiation is the most


dangerous in the three types of radioactive
A A reactive substance that reacts with radiation?
oxygen.
B An element that is stable and can be A because it has the highest penetration
describe as inert. power.
C An element with the nucleus of atoms B because it has the highest electrical
is stable and not active. charge.
D An element where the nucleus of the C because it has the highest magnetic
atoms is not stable and decay power.
spontaneously. D because it has consists of
electromagnetic wave.
2 Which of the following are dangerous
radioactive radiations are emitted during 6 X emits radioactive radiation. Which of the
nucleus decay? following is X?

I Delta radiation A Lead-210


II Beta radiation B Cobalt-80
III Alpha radiation C Carbon-12
IV Gamma radiation D Sodium-23

A I only 7 The diagram below shows three radiations


B I, II and III only in an electric field.
C II,III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

3 All isotopes with a proton number bigger


than X are radioactive. Value X is

A 25
B 53
C 75
D 83 Which of the following is X, Y and Z?

4 Uranium-235 is radioactive because X Y Z


A Alpha Beta Gamma
A it atom has a big nucleus. B Alpha Gamma Beta
B it atom has many protons. C Beta Alpha Gamma
C it atom has many electrons. D Gamma Alpha Beta
D it atom has an unstable nucleus.
8 Among the following, which radioisotopes
used as a tracer to test the rate of fertilizer
absorption for plants?

A Cobalt-60
B Iodine-131
C Carbon-14
D Phosphorus-32
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9 Which of the following radioisotope is 13 The diagram below shows radioactive
injected into a patient's body to detect ,
damage to the thyroid gland? radiation and penetrating through
materials X, Y and Z.
A Iodin-131
B Cobalt-60
C Sodium-24
D Plutonium-238

10 Which of the following radioactive


radiation is negatively charged?

A X-rays
B Beta radiation
C Alpha radiation Which of the following represents X, Y
D Gamma radiation and Z?

11 The table below shows a characteristic of X Y Z


radiation X. A Lead Paper Aluminium
B Lead Aluminium Paper
Neutral charged. C Paper Aluminium Lead
Highest penetration of power. D Paper Lead Aluminium
Velocity is same as speed of light.
Very week ionization power.
14 Which of the following radioisotopes has
Which of the following is radiation X? dedicated its function in heart peacemakers
to help stabilize the heartbeat of heart
X- rays patients?
A
B Beta radiation
Alpha radiation A Cobalt-60
C
Gamma radiation B Carbon-14
D
C Uranium-238
12 The table below shows the penetrating D Plutonium-238
power of radiation P, Q and R.
15 Which of the following radioisotopes
playing an important role in archaeology
Element Penetration power
field?
Block of Piece Piece of
lead of aluminium
A Cobalt-60
paper
B Carbon-14
No Yes Yes
C Uranium-235
No No No
D Phosphorus-32
No No No

Which of the following represents P, Q and


R?

P Q R
A Alpha Beta Gamma
B Beta Alpha Gamma
C Gamma Beta Alpha
D Beta Gamma Alpha
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16 Which of the following statement is the 19 The diagram below shows the process of
usage of radioactive substance? nuclear fission.

I To preserve food.
II Detect brain tumours.
III To detect underground pipe leakages.
IV Diagnose damage to the thyroid gland.

A I only
B I, II and III only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

17 The information below shows about the


characteristics of X.

The function of X is used to sterilize


surgical instruments in hospital. X will
kill and destroy all the bacteria and According to the diagram above, the
fungus in surgical instruments. process is producing

Which of the following radioactive A electrons


substance can represents X? B neutrons
C nuclear energy
A -radiation D a smaller uranium atom
B
-radiation 20 Among the following below, which energy
C
-radiation source(s) is/are non-renewable?
D Uranium-235
I Fossil fuel
18 In a nuclear fission, a large amount of II Sea waves
energy is released to III Solar energy

I propel submarines. A I only


II generate electrical energy. B I and II only
III melt iron ores in the steel industry. C II and III only
D I, II, and III
A I only
B I and II only 21 Natural fossil resources used to produce
C II and III only energy are finish soon. However, people
D I, II, and III are still against the idea of producing
nuclear energy. Why?

A Low cost in building a nuclear reactor.


B Plenty of other alternative energy
resources.
C Requires expertise and knowledge on
nuclear technology.
D Possibility of an accident involving the
leakage of radioactive substance.
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22 The radioactive substance used in nuclear 26 The diagram below shows the nuclear
reactors are fission of Uranium-235.

A Sodium rods
B Radium rods
C Uranium rods
D Polonium rods

23 Which of the following is/are the


advantages of nuclear energy production?

I No air pollution occurs.


II Produce a small amount of waste.
III Require only a small amount of
radioactive substance. Which of the following is represented X
IV Cost of generating electricity is lower and Y?
compared to the cost of generating X Y
electrical energy from fossil fuels. A Barium-141 Krypton-92
B Kryton-92 Barium-141
A I only C Radium-226 Kryton-92
B I, II, and III only D Barium-141 Radium-226
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV 27 The box to keep radioactive substances is
made from
24 How is the nuclear energy produced in
nuclear reactors changed into electrical A clay
energy? B lead
C glass
A Nuclear energy is used to heat metals D plastic
which can produce electrical energy.
B Nuclear energy is used to charge 28 Among the following, which symbol is
batteries which can produce electrical warns the public about the radioactive
energy. radiation?
C Nuclear energy is used to activate A
chemicals which can produce electrical
energy.
D Nuclear energy is used to boil water to
produce steam which then rotates the
turbine and dynamo to produce B
electrical energy.

25 Among the following is the effect from


exposure to radioactive radiation, except C

A Cancer growth.
B Fever and cold.
C Destruction of body cell.
D Damage of foetus in a pregnant mother D
body.

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29 Among the following, which is used to 30 The following is a correct way to avoid the
detect a radioactive radiation? negative effect that caused by radioactive
substance, except
I Cloud chamber
II Geiger-Muller tube A Eat and drink around area containing
III Photographic paper radioactive substances.
B Avoid from exposing ourselves to
A I only radioactive substances.
B I and II only C Wear docimeter when handling
C II and III only radioactive substances.
D I, II and III D Stored radioactive substances in a
special containers made of thick lead
or concrete.
CHAPTER 7: LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT
1 The diagram below shows boy P and boy 3 The diagram below shows an object placed
A standing in front of a plane mirror. at a distance less than F.

Among the following, which of the


following are the characteristic for the
image formed?

What is the distance between boy P and I Virtual


image of boy Y? II Upright
III Diminished
A 5 cm
B 7 cm A I only
C 9 cm B I and II only
D 12 cm C II and III only
D I, II and III
2 Which of the following is the characteristic
of an image formed by a plane mirror? 4 Among the following, which will produce
a virtual image?
I Virtual
I Convex lens
II Upright
II Plane mirror
III Same size
III Concave lens
IV Laterally inverted
A I only
A I only
B I and II only
B I, II and III only
C II and III only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II and III
D I, II, III and IV

38
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5 The diagram below shows ray diagram for 8 Which of the following ray diagram is
a convex lens. correct?

Which of the following is the focal length? B

A Between X and O
B Between O and Y
C Between O and Z
D Between X and Y
C
6 The diagram below shows a ray diagram
for a convex lens.

Among the following instruments, which


is applying the principle shown in the
diagram above?
9 The table below shows the characteristic of
A Camera
an image formed by a concave lens.
B Projector
C Telescope
D Photostat machine Real
Inverted
7 The following is a characteristic of an Bigger than the object
image. Positioned at a distance more than 2f in

front of the lens


Real
Inverted Which of the following instruments
Smaller than object produce image that have characteristic
above?
Which of the following produced image
that have characteristic above? A Camera
B Projector
A Glass prism C Telescope
B Convex lens D Photostat machine
C Plane mirror
D Concave lens

39
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10 The diagram below shows an object placed 12 The diagram below shows a spectrum
in front of a pin-hole camera which being produced when a ray of white light
consists of three holes. passed through a glass prism.

Among the following, which is the correct


image that will produce on the screen?
Why the spectrum is formed?
A
I White light is a mixture of seven
colours.
II Coloured lights travel at different
speeds in a glass prism.
B III Coloured lights refract at different
angles in a glass prism.

A I only
B I and II only
C C II and III only
D I, II and III

13 Among the following, which phenomenon


is/are caused by scattering of light?
D
I The blue sky.
II The red sunset.
III The secondary rainbow.

A I only
11 Which of the following is true about the B I and II only
camera? C II and III only
D I, II and III
I Diaphragm controls the size of the
aperture. 14 Which of the following will happens if the
II Image formed on the film is real, atmosphere of earth is filled with haze
inverted and smaller than the object. particles, dust and gases from exhaust?
III Amount of light that enters the camera
is also controlled by the length of time A The Sun looks red.
the shutter is opened. B The sky looks blue.
C The Sun looks dim.
A I only D The sky looks grey.
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

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15 Which of the following is/are primary 18 Among the following, which is involving
colours? the subtraction of colours?

I Red I Colour printing.


II Blue II Formation of rainbows.
III Green III Formation of white light spectrums by
IV Yellow glass prisms.

A I only A I only
B I, II and III only B I and II only
C II, III and IV only C II and III only
D I, II, III and IV D I, II and III

16 The diagram below shows white light 19 The diagram below shows a observer the
passing through a cyan filter. colour of the white object after the filter of
X and Y.

Which of the following colour will form


on the screen?
Which of the following colour represents X
A Blue and Y that will cause the white object
B Green appear black?
C Red and green
D Cyan, green and blue I Red and blue respectively.
II Red and green respectively.
17 The diagram below shows three spotlight III Red and magenta respectively.
of red, blue and green light.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

20 Why is black object seen black when other


coloured shine on them?

Which of the following colour can A Because the black object refracts all
represents K and L? the colours of the lights shining on it.
B Because the black object scatters all
K L the colours of the lights shining on it.
A Cyan White C Because the black object absorbs all
B White Cyan the colours of the lights shining on it.
C Magenta White D Because the black object reflects all the
D White Magenta colours of the light shining on it.

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21 The diagram below shows the ray box of 24 Alex is wearing a blue shirt enters a room
yellow and cyan shine on a white screen. that illuminated by yellow light. Which of
the following colour will Alex's shirt
appear in the room?

A Red
B Blue
C White
D Black

25 Why colour plays an important rule to


animal?

Which of the following can represents P, Q I To give warning to enemy


and R? II To attract partners attention
III To camouflage themselves
P Q R
A Cyan Red Yellow A I only
B Red Cyan Yellow B I and II only
C Yellow Cyan Green C II and III only
D Yellow Green Cyan D I, II and III

22 Paper A appears red and Paper B appears 26 Which of the following is the importance
green when it is illuminated by yellow for colour to humans?
light. Which of the following colour is
Paper A and Paper B when illuminated by I Photocopy
red light? II Traffic lights
III Colour printing
Paper A Paper B IV Electrical wiring
Red Red
A A I only
B I, II and III only
B Red Blue
C II, III and IV only
C Red Black I, II, III and IV
D
D Black Red

23 Which of the following colour will 27 Since human eyes cannot see small
observed when pigment red mix with microorganisms. What instrument is
pigment yellow? designed to help us overcome this
problem?
A Red
B Green A Periscope
C Orange B Telescope
D Magenta C Magnifying glass
D Electron microscope

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28 Which of the following is/are function of 29 Which of the following instrument allow a
colours? person observe objects at the surface of the
water in a submarine?
I Give warnings
II Beautify surrounding areas A Telescope
III Present certain information B Periscope
C Plane mirror
A I only D Magnifying lens
B I and II only
C II and III only 30 Which of the following instruments allow
D I, II, and III human to observe object in outer space?

A Periscope
B Electronic microscope
C Astronomical telescope
D Spectacles with convex lenses

CHAPTER 8: CHEMICAL IN INDUSTRY

1 Which of the following is correct in 4 Which of the following atomic structure is


describing an alloy? represents alloys?

A A metallic compound. A
B A mixture of two elements.
C A mixture of two or more non-metals.
D A mixture of a metal and another
metal.
B
2 Which of the following is an alloy?

I Brass
II Bronze
III Pewter C
IV Copper nickel

A I only
B I, II and III only
D
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

3 Which of the following is not an alloy?

A Brass 5 Which of the following mixture is to


B Bronze produce a bronze?
C Copper
D Pewter A Tin and nickel
B Tin and copper
C Copper and iron
43 D Copper and zinc
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6 Which of the following is not an alloy 10 Which substance is added to carbon steel
metal property? to avoid corrosion?

A Durable A Tin
B Stronger B Iron
C Rust-proof C Chromium
D More easily shaped D Aluminium

7 The diagram below shows the arrangement 11 Which of the following statement is true
of different atoms found in a substance P. for a superconductor?

A Substance which is a good conductor


of heat.
B Substance which allows current to flow
efficiently.
C Substance with zero resistance at a
Which of the following is substance P? high temperature.
D Substance with an electrical resistance
A Iron that is directly proportional to
B Steel temperature.
C Copper
D Calcium 12 Mary discovers that her gold necklace goes
out of shape too easily. How can she
8 Which of the following is a special overcome this problem?
property of an alloy which is suitable for
making aircraft body? A Add more gold in it.
B Hammer it repeatedly.
A Hard and heavy C Melt the gold and add in other
B Light and strong elements.
C Shiny and strong D Melt and remould the gold repeatedly
D Low in density and shiny until she gets the shape that she wants.

9 The information below is describing an 13 Which of the following is true about the
alloy X. alloy making process?

Won't rust I Chemical change occurs.


Durable and hard II Physical change occurs.
Contains 75 % copper and 25 % nickel III New substance formed which is better
than the original substance.
Which of the following is made by alloy
X? A I only
B I and II only
A Cars C II and III only
B Coins D I, II and III
C Bridges
D Aeroplanes

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CHAPTER 9: MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING


THINGS

1 The following diseases cannot be treated 5 The graph below illustrates the level of
using antibiotics except... antibodies in the blood of a patient for
immunity of a disease.
A AIDS
B Cholera
C Hepatitis B
D Dengue fever

2 What type of microorganisms cause


diseases?

A Vectors
B Antigens
C Pathogens
D Antibodies

3 What acts as a host for the virus that


Which of the following statements refer to
causes dengue fever?
the type of immunity shown in this graph?
A Rats
I It is permanent.
B Humans
II Antiserum is injected into the patient's
C Houseflies
body.
D Mosquitoes
III White blood cells are not stimulated to
produce antibodies.
4 The graph below shows the level of
antibodies in blood.
A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

6 Bacteria are used to produce items such


as...

I alcohol
II cheese
III yoghurt

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
State the level of immunity that is achieved D I, II, and III
as shown by this graph.

A Active natural immunity


B Passive natural immunity
C Active acquired immunity
D Passive acquired immunity
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7 What do vaccines contain? 12 The diagram below shows four penicillin
discs of different concentrations placed in
A Antigens a petri dish containing nutrient agar and
B Antibodies bacteria.
C Active live pathogens
D Dead or weakened pathogens

8 What type of microorganism causes


syphilis?

A Fungi
B Viruses
C Bacteria
D Protozoa Which penicillin disc is most effective in
preventing the growth of the bacteria
9. Vaccination can be given to a person for culture?
the prevention of the following infections
except... A P
B Q
I malaria C R
II cholera D S
III hepatitis B
13 The table below shows the different
A I only conditions in test tubes Q, R, S, and T that
B I and II only are used to study the factors that affect
C II and III only bacterial activity.
D I, II, and III
Test pH Nutrie Tempe Moist
10 It is caused by protozoon. tube value nts rature ure
It can cause anaemia. Q 5 Present 4C Present
It causes fever. R 7 Present 37C Absent
S 7 Present 37C Present
The statements listed above describes the
T 7 Present 37C Present
disease called...

A tinea After two days, which test tube showed


B cholera vigorous bacterial growth?
C malaria
D hepatitis B A Q
B R
11 Algae are classified as autotrophs because C S
they... D T

A feed on dead organisms. 14 What is the most effective way to sterilize


B feed on other living organisms. petri dishes used in an experiment to
C carry out anaerobic respiration. culture bacteria?
D can manufacture their own food.
A Washing it with soap.
B Freezing it in a freezer.
C Washing it with boiling water.
D Steaming it under high pressure.

46
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15 The diagram below shows an experiment 18 Bacterial activity is affected by the
to study the factors that affect the growth following conditions:
of bacteria.
I light intensity
II the pH value of the medium
III oxygen concentration

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

19 Mosquitoes are vectors for disease(s) such


Which of the factors below is being as...
studied?
I dengue fever
A pH II malaria
B Light III cholera
C Nutrient
D Temperature A I only
B I and II only
16 The diagram below illustrates the correct C II and III only
way to keep a petri dish in an experiment D I, II and III
to culture bacteria.
20 The dough rises when yeast is added in.
Why does this happen?

A The carbon dioxide gas is released.


B There is an increase in temperature.
C There is an increase in the amount of
The petri dish is inverted so that... dough.
D There is an increase in the number of
A bacteria can grow and multiply yeast cells.
quickly.
B the growth of bacteria can be easily 21 The ideal temperature for bacterial activity
observed. is...
C bacteria from the surroundings cannot
enter the petri dish. A 0C
D water droplets from condensation do
B 15C
not affect the experiment.
C 37C
17 Name the process that occurs when yeast is D 50C
added to grape juice and left for one week.
22 Cellulose found in plants can be digested
A Oxidation by herbivores due to the presence of
B Distillation certain bacteria that secrete...
C Fermentation
D Decomposition A lipase
B amylase
C protease
D cellulase
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23 Which of the statements below describe the 27 Microorganisms are grouped based on
characteristics of a virus? their...

I It has a nucleus. I colour


II It reproduces only in living cells. II shape
III It contains either DNA or RNA. III size
IV habitat
A I only
B I and III only A I only
C II and III only B I and II only
D I, II, and III C II and III only
D II, III and IV only
24 The diagram below shows the reproduction
of a microorganism. 28 The diagram below shows three
microorganisms.

Which combination below correctly


describes the method of reproduction?

Microorganism Methods of Microorganisms X, Y, and Z are...


reproduction
A Fungi Budding X Y Z
B Algae Conjugation A Alga Bacterium Virus
C Viruses Binary fission B Virus Protozoon Fungus
D Fungi Spore formation C Fungus Alga Bacterium
D Virus Fungus Protozoon
25 37C
In damp conditions at , bacteria
reproduce easily through... 29 What is the smallest microorganism?

A budding. A Algae
B conjugation. B Viruses
C binary fission. C Bacteria
D spore formation. D Protozoa

26 Which of the statements below correctly 30 Biotechnology uses microorganisms for...


describes bacteriophage?
I the production of bioplastic.
A It is a bacterium that kills viruses. II the production of hormones.
B It is a type of virus that attacks III gene therapy.
bacteria.
C It is a bacterium that causes diseases in A II only
plants. B I and III only
D It can multiply inside both living and C II and III only
non-living cells. 48 D I, II, and III
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CHAPTER 10: NUTRITION

1 Which statements below can be examples 5 Excessive cholesterol in arteriosclerosis...


of healthy eating habits?
A thickens the walls of arteries.
I Eating junk food which is tasty. B narrows the lumen of arteries.
II Drinking 2 to 3 litres of water C enlarges the lumen of arteries.
everyday. D makes the walls of the arteries thin.
III Eating sufficient quantities of fibres
from fruits and vegetables. 6 The diagram below illustrates part of a
nitrogen cycle.
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

2 The purpose of eating a wide variety of


nutritious food is to...
State the process of denitrification.
A avoid indigestion.
B prevent constipation. A P Q
C enjoy life to the fullest.
B R Q
D meet the body's nutrient requirements.
C QR
3 Why is the nitrogen cycle important?
D QS
I It maintains the concentration of
nitrogen in the air. 7 A lack of chlorophyll causes chlorosis in
II It ensures a continuous source of plants. This is due to the insufficient level
protein. of...
III It increases water pollution.
A boron
A I only B manganese
B I and II only C magnesium
C I and III only D molybedenum
D II and III only
8 What type of bacteria acts on dead plants
4 What classes of microorganisms have an and animals?
important role to play in the nitrogen
cycle? A Decaying bacteria
B Nitrifying bacteria
I Bacteria C Denitrifying bacteria
II Algae D Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
III Fungi
9 What can be done to increase the
A I only concentration of nitrates in the soil?
B I and III only
C II and III only A Nitrification
D I, II, and III B Denitrification
C Decomposition
49 D Nitrogen fixation
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10 In what area(s) of a plant that the nitrogen- 14 Plants require carbon, hydrogen, and
fixing bacteria can be found? oxygen for the synthesis of proteins. What
macronutrients are needed for this process
I The soil as well?
II Root nodules
III Leaves I Boron
II Nitrogen
A I only III Calcium
B I and II only
C II and III only A I only
D I, II, and III B III only
C I and II only
11 The diagram below shows the root system D II and III only
of a plant.
15 The leaves on a tree turned yellow. The
soil is lacking in...

I magnesium
II nitrogen
III ferum

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

16 Name the gases that combine when


lightning is formed.
Name the plant that has this root system.
I Oxygen
A Maize plant II Hydrogen
B Balsam plant III Nitrogen
C Hibiscus plant
D Groundnut plant A I and II only
B I and III only
12 What micronutrient is required by plants? C II and III only
D I, II, and III
A Calcium
B Potassium 17 The function of a bomb caloriemeter is...
C Manganese
D Magnesium A to determine the nutrition found in
food.
3 What happens when a plant shows signs of B to measure the quantity of mineral salts
chlorosis? present in food.
C to measure the quantity of
A Its growth is stunted. carbohydrates present in food.
B Its leaves are turning yellow. D to measure the energy content present
C Its leaves are dropping prematurely. in a sample of food.
D Its leaves have black and brown spots.

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18 Which of the food below has the lowest 22 What are the factors that determine the fact
calorific value per unit gram? that men needs more energy than women?

A Eggs I Men are bigger and heavier than


B Bread women.
C Tomatoes II The metabolic rate of men is higher
D Margarine than that of women.
III Men are braver than women.
19 The table below shows the calorific values
for three classes of food. A I only
B I and II only
Classes of food Calorific value C II and III only
D I, II, and III
(kJg-1)
Fats 37.6 23 Which of the people listed below requires
Proteins 22.2 the least calories?
Carbohydrates 16.7
A A lactating mother.
For a bun that weighs 300 grams which B A child who is already active.
contains 3.3g of fats, 30g proteins, and C A labourer who is chopping firewood.
150g carbohydrates; calculate its total D A grandmother that spends most of her
energy. time resting.

A 3 295.08 kJ 24 What health problems are caused by an


B 3 130.08 kJ excessive intake of salt?
C 3 2950.8 kJ
D 4 0950.8 kJ I Stroke
II Obesity
20 What are the factors that influence the III Hypertension
calorific value requirement of a person?
A I only
I Age B I and II only
II Sex C I and III only
III State of health D I, II and III

A I only 25 Which of the statements listed below is


B I and II only related to aneroxia?
C II and III only
D I, II and III A It causes death.
B It makes a person thinner.
21 A major part of an Eskimo's diet consists C It is a disease due only to malnutrition.
of meat and fatty food. Why is it so? D It causes female sufferers to experience
irregular menstruation.
A His culture favours more meaty food.
B The above food source is found
abundantly where he lives.
C To enable him to obtain more energy to
conduct heavy activities.
D To replace heat lost to the surroundings
so that body temperature can be
37C
maintained at .
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26 The calorific value of a particular food can 30 The diagram below illustrates the apparatus
be defined as... used in the study of the importance of
macronutrients for plant growth.
A the energy value per calorie of the
food.
B the total amount of water that is found
in one gram of food.
C the total energy that is released when
one gram of food is burned completely.
D the total energy that is absorbed when
one gram of food is burned completely.

27 A shortage of iodine in daily diet causes...

A goitre
B scurvy
C anaemia Why is the bottle wrapped in black paper?
D beri-beri
I To keep the solution warm.
28 What is cholesterol? II To prevent sunlight from reaching the
solution.
A Fat III To prevent the growth of algae in the
B Vitamin solution.
C Mineral salt
D Carbohydrate A I only
B I and II only
29 The information below are the results from C II and III only
an experiment to study the importance of D I, II, and III
plant nutrients.

Spots of dead cells on leaves.


Stunted root growth.
Leaves drop easily.

What nutrients are lacking in the plant


from the experiment that was carried out?

I Phosphorus
II Sulphur
III Potassium

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

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CHAPTER 11: PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE


ENVIRONMENT

1 Which of the statements listed below are 5 Which of the statements listed below are
correct measures of preserving and true about conservation and preservation?
conserving the environment?
I Protecting the ecosystem from
I Putting rubbish into recycling bins. destruction.
II Refrain from buying ornaments made II Preventing the depletion of natural
from animal parts. resources.
III Burning fallen dried leaves and III Maintaining the population of
branches of plants. endangered plant and animal species.

A I only A I only
B I and II only B I and II only
C II and III only C II and III only
D I, II, and III D I, II, and III

2 How is environmental pollution 6 Which statements below refer to human


controlled? activities that may cause the extinction of
species?
A By burning tree stumps openly.
B By spraying insecticides and I Using animal parts as traditional
pesticides. medicine.
C By treating factory wastes before II Encouraging game hunting as a sport.
disposing them. III Using animal parts as decorative
D By disposing hot water from power ornaments.
stations into the sea.
A I only
3 Name the phenomenon that happens when B I and II only
heat is reflected from the Earth's surface C II and III only
and gets trapped in the atmosphere. D I, II, and III

A Global warming 7 Which statements below refer to human


B Ozone depletion activities that may cause the extinction of
C Thermal pollution species?
D The greenhouse effect
I Using animal parts as traditional
4 What happens when there is leaching of medicine.
chemical fertilizers into rivers and ponds? II Encouraging game hunting as a sport.
III Using animal parts as decorative
A There is air pollution. ornaments.
B There is a rapid growth of algae.
C There is an increase in the number of A I only
aquatic organisms. B I and II only
D There is an increase in the oxygen C II and III only
concentration of the water. D I, II, and III

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8 What gas is derived from oil palm fruit 13 What do humans suffer as the effect of the
stalks that are processed in a biogas thinning of the ozone layer in the
digester? stratosphere?
A Butane I Cataracts
B Methane II Cancer
C Nitrogen III Diabetes
D Hydrogen
A I only
9 Identify the materials listed below that can B I and II only
be recycled. C II and III only
D I, II, and III
I Old newspapers
II Aluminium tin cans 14 What happens when there is uncotrolled
III Plastic pails deforestation?
A I only I The destruction of habitats
B I and II only II Landslides
C I and III only III Flooding
D I, II, and III
A I only
10 Why is deforestation carried out? B I and II only
C II and III only
A To produce oil D I, II, and III
B To make furniture
C To produce plastic 15 The molecule of ozone consists of...
D To produce methane gas
A three carbon atoms.
11 Mining activities are carried out by humans B three oxygen atoms.
to obtain... C one carbon atom and two oxygen
atoms.
I coal D one oxygen atom and two hydrogen
II petroleum atoms.
III tin ore
16 How can the pollution from burning fossil
A I only fuels be reduced?
B I and II only
C II and III only I By using an incinerator.
D I, II, and III II By using renewable energy.
III By fixing catalytic converters in
12 Humus is the byproduct of compost from vehicles.
the decomposition of...
A I only
A mineral salts B I and III only
B toxic wastes C II and III only
C domestic wastes D I, II, and III
D chemical substances

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17 The diagram below shows a food web. 21 Which of the fuels listed below is fossil
fuel?

I Tar
II Coal
III Petroleum

A I only
B I and II only
Identify the statements below that are true. C II and III only
D I, II, and III
I Eagles are tertiary consumers.
II Eagles are secondary consumers. 22 What system in the human body is affected
III Paddy is a producer. by too much exposure to the ultraviolet
rays?
A I and II only
B I and III only A Skeletal system
C II and III only B Immune system
D I, II, and III C Nervous system
D Digestive system
18 Which of the cycles below help maintain
the balance in nature? 23 The ozone layer is important due to the
fact that it...
I The water cycle
II The nitrogen cycle A increases the temperature of the earth.
III Food webs B is used by living organisms for
respiration.
A I only C reflects the heat from the earth back
B I and II only into the atmosphere.
C II and III only D reduces the amount of ultraviolet rays
D I, II, and III reaching the earth.

19 What is the gas that is aasociated with the 24 Identify the the effects of global warming
greenhouse effect? from the statements listed below.

A Oxygen I An increase in the sea level.


B Carbon dioxide II The melting of ice at mountain peaks.
C Sulphur dioxide III A decrease in food production by
D Nitrogen dioxide plants.

20 How would carbon particles and smoke A I only


from factories affect plants? B I and II only
C II and III only
A Increase the rate of respiration in D I, II, and III
plants.
B Decrease the rate of photosynthesis in
plants.
C Decrease the rate of transpiration in
plants.
D Increase the absorption of carbon
dioxide by plants.
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CHAPTER 12:CARBON COMPOUNDS

1 The elements that are found present in the 5 Excessive saturated fats in a diet needs to
fats molecule are... be avoided because...
I hydrogen A saturated fats are toxic.
II magnesium B saturated fats have a high calorific
III carbon value.
C saturated fats are difficult to digest by
A I and II only enzymes.
B I and III only D saturated fats lead to the deposition of
C II and III only low density cholesterol.
D I, II, and III
6 What process is used to change
2 Palm oil can be used... unsaturated fats to saturated fats?
I as cooking oil A Oxidation
II for manufacturing margarine B Reduction
III for making explosives C Nitrification
D Hydrogenation
A I and II only
B I and III only 7 The harmful effects of low density
C II and III only cholesterol are...
D I, II and III
I they accumulate in the bile duct to
3 The diagram below shows the cross- form bile stones.
section of an oil palm fruit. II they accumulate in the walls of blood
vessels and slow down blood flow.
III they lower blood pressure.

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

8 The diagram below shows the structure of


What part of the oil palm fruit that palm oil vulcanized rubber.
is derived from?

A X only
B X and Y
C X and Z
D X, Y, and Z Name the atom that is marked with the
letter Q.
4 Why oil palm fruits are exposed to very
hot steam during the extraction process? Carbon
A
B Sulphur
A To heat the oil palm fruit. C Nitrogen
B To cook the oil palm fruit. D Phosphorus
C To sterilize the oil palm fruit. 56
D To break down the oil palm fruit.
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9 Addiction to alcohol causes social 13 What are the characteristics of natural
problems such as... rubber?

I tension in the family I Soft and sticky when heated.


II road accidents II Elastic and bouncy.
III conflicts between families III Hard and brittle when cooled.

A I only A I only
B I and II only B I and II only
C II and III only C II and III only
D I, II, and III D I, II, and III

10 Vulcanized rubber in comparison to natural 14 What is the function of concentrated


rubber is... alkaline catalyst in the production of soap?

I more heat resistant A To oxidize palm oil.


II softer B To hydrolyse palm oil.
III harder C To hydrogenise palm oil.
D To fuse palm oil molecules.
A I only
B I and II only 15 A type of natural polymer is...
C I and III only
D I, II, and III A silk
B nylon
11 What is the difference between saturated C polythene
fats and unsaturated fats? D polystyrene

Saturated fats Unsaturated fats


Have longer Have shorter 16 What is the term used for the reaction to
A hydrocarbons hydrocarbon combine a few small molecules to form a
chains. chains. single big molecule chain?
B Contain hydrogen. Do not contain
hydrogen. A Splitting
C Are more reactive. Are less reactive. B Polymerization
D Have the Have less C Depolymerization
maximum number hydrogen atoms in D Fractional distillation
of hydrogen atoms their molecules.
in their molecules. 17 Which statements listed below is true
about soap?
12 Identify from the list below products that
contain carbon. A Soap is suitable to be used in hard
water.
I Plastic bags B Soap increases the surface tension of
II Marble tiles water.
III Spectacles C The tail molecule of soap is soluble in
water.
A I only D Soap is produced from vegetable oil
B I and II only and alkali.
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

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18 During a washing action, soap molecules 21 Alcohol causes damage to...
act to...
A ears
I increase the surface tension of water. B bone
II attack dirt or grease with its tail. C liver
III remove dirt from clothes. D lungs

A I and II only 22 Latex that is left in a beaker will coagulate


B I and III only after a day because of...
C II and III only
D I, II and III A the latex reacting with oxygen in the
air.
19 Which statements below describe alcohol? B the action of bacteria on the latex
which produces acid.
I It forms an alkane through C the alkali that is produced when the
hydrogenation. latex is exposed to air.
II It reacts with organic acid to form an D the water content in the latex that has
ester. completely evaporated.
III It dissolves in water.
23 What is the effect of excessive drinking?
A I and II only
B I and III only A Cirrhosis of the liver.
C II and III only B Nervous breakdowns.
D I, II, and III C Lower cholesterol level.
D Contraction of the arteries.
20 The diagram below shows the preparation
of soap in the laboratory. 24 Which substances listed below contain
carbon?

A Cotton
B Ammonia
C Common salt
D Hydrochloric acid

25 Which substances listed below are non-


organic carbon compounds?

I calcium carbonate
Why is common salt added to the mixture
II carbon dioxide
of palm oil and sodium hydroxide
III hydrocarbons
solution?
A I and II only
A To provide salty taste to soap.
B I and III only
B To neutralise the alkali in the mixture.
C I and III only
C To increase the washing ability of
D I, II, and III
soap.
D To lower the solubility of soap in water
and precipitate it out.

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26 The difference between organic carbon 29 The diagram below shows the apparatus
compounds and non-organic carbon used in making ethanol using the
compounds is... fermentation process.

A organic carbon compounds are more


reactive than non-organic carbon
compounds.
B organic carbon compound molecules
are very big compared to non-organic
carbon compounds.
C organic carbon compounds originate
from living things while non-organic What is used in this fermentation process?
carbon compounds originate from non-
living things. I Rice + yeast
D the structure of organic carbon II Wheat + yeast
compounds are complex while the III Common salt + yeast
structure of non-organic carbon
compounds are simple. A I only
B I and II only
27 Which substances listed below are C II and III only
hydrocarbons? D I, II, and III
I Coal 30 Soap is unsuitable to be used in hard water
II Petroleum due to the fact that...
III Natural gas
I hard water decomposes soap
A I only molecules.
B I and II only II the magnesium and calcium ions in
C II and III only hard water form salt with soap ions.
D I, II, and III III a large number of soap molecules is
wasted due to its deposition as
28 Identify the hydrocarbons listed below that magnesium or calcium salt.
can decolourize acidified potassium
permanganate. A I only
B I and II only
I Hexane C II and III only
II Heptene D I, II, and III
III Pentene

A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

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CHAPTER 13: MOTION

1 The picture below shows a lorry 4 The diagram below shows an operational
overloaded with goods. stage in a four-stroke petrol engine.

It is important for the government to


enforce the law to compound overloaded
vehicles because...

A goods might fall from the lorries.


B overloaded lorries are more difficult to What is the operational stage?
stop.
C overloaded lorries will damage the A Power stroke
roads. B Exhaust stroke
D overloaded lorries might overturn on a C Induction stroke
bend as they are less stable. D Compression stroke

2 What should be increased in order to 5 What safety features are used in vehicles to
obtain an increase of inertia of a moving reduce the negative effects of inertia?
car?
I Safety seat belts
A Speed of the car. II Automatic airbags
B Power of the engine. III Absorber bumpers
C Distance travelled by the car.
D Number of passengers in the car. A I and II only
B I and III only
3 An object will move in a straight line with C II and III only
constant speed unless it is acted upon by D I, II, and III
external forces. What causes this
phenomenon to happen? 6 The bumper of the car is made of a
material that is easily dented in an
A Energy accident. Why this is done?
B Inertia
C Pressure A To prolong the time of accident.
D Momentum B To reduce the velocity of the car.
C To increase the momentum of the car.
D To conserve the momentum of the car.

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7 The diagram below illustrates a piece of


chalk placed vertically on a trolley. 9 The diagram below shows the internal
combustion of engines X and Y.

What type of engine are X and Y?


The trolley is pushed so that it accelerates. X Y
In which direction that the chalk would A Four stroke petrol Four stroke diesel
fall? engine engine
B Four stroke diesel Four stroke petrol
A W engine engine
B X C Four stroke petrol Two stroke petrol
C Y engine engine
D Z D Four stroke diesel Two stroke petrol
engine engine
8 The diagram below shows a coin placed on
a card. 10 When is the momentum of an object
increased?

A When its mass and velocity are


increased.
B When its mass and velocity are
decreased.
C When its mass is increased but its
velocity is decreased.
D When its mass is decreased but its
velocity is increased.
When the card is flicked away, the coin
drops neatly into the cup. The factors that
11 In an experiment to investigate the
cause this are...
relationship between the momentum of an
object and its mass, what is the fixed
I gravity
variable?
II inertia of the coin
III weight
A The density of the object.
B The weight of the object.
A I and II only
C The volume of the object.
B I and III only
D The velocity of the object.
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

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12 What is an example of motion that is based 16 The diagram below illustrates the
on the Principle of Conservation of arrangement of four cylinders in the engine
Momentum? of a car.

A The upward motion of a rocket.


B The upward motion of an airship.
C The upward motion of a helicopter.
D The upward motion of an aeroplane.

13 Inertia measures...

A mass
B force
C weight
D momentum What does this arrangement do?

14 The diagram below shows 4 identical tins A Increase the power of the car.
filled with different amounts of sand. The B Produce smoother output of power.
tins are hung from a rod with string. The C Reduce the usage of combustion fuel.
length of the strings are equal. D Complete the combustion of fuel
within the four stroke cycle.

17 What causes the combustion of fuel in a


four stroke diesel engine?

A Sparks from the spark plug.


B Expansion of the combustion fuel.
C Compression of the combustion fuel.
D Heat from the friction between the
pistons and the wall of the cylinder.

The tins are oscillated simultaneously with 18 The description below occurs during stroke
equal force. Which tin takes the longest X in a four stroke diesel engine.
time to stop oscillating?
Both the inlet valve and the exhaust valve
A W are closed.
B X The piston is moving downward.
C Y
D Z What is X?

15 The acceleration of a car is 5 ms-2. This A Power stroke


means that in every second,... B Exhaust stroke
C Induction stroke
A the displacement of the car is 5 m. D Compression stroke
B the velocity of the car increases by 5
ms-1.
C the velocity of the car decreases by 5
ms-1.
D the momentum of the car increases by
5 kg ms-1.
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19 The diagram below shows a section of a 23 Below are the parts of a four stroke engine.
ticker tape obtained from a moving object.
W - Power stroke
X - Compression stroke
Y - Induction stroke
Z - Exhaust stroke

The sequence of the four stroke engine


What is the average speed of the object if cycle is...
the ticker timer makes 50 dots per second?
A Y, X, Z, W
A 10 cms-1 B W, X, Z, Y
B 25 cms-1 C Y, X, W, Z
C 41 cms-1 D X, Y, W, Z
D 50 cms-1
The diagram below shows a simple
20 A car starts from rest and moves at a hydraulic system.
constant acceleration of 2 ms-2. What is the
velocity of the car after 1 minute? 24
A 2 ms-1
B 12 ms-1
C 30 ms-1
D 120 ms-1

21 The diagram below shows the intermesh of The forces acting on pistons P and Q are F1
two gear wheels. and F2 respectively.Identify the statements
below that are true.

I The pressure that acts on piston P is


equal to pressure that acts on piston Q.
II The liquid is compressed.
III F2 is larger than F1.

A I and II only
B I and III only
When is this position of gear used? C II and III only
D I, II, and III
A When a vehicle is starting from rest.
B When a vehicle is moving up a slope. 25 What is the principle operation of a
C When a vehicle is going down a slope. hydraulic jack based on?
D When a vehicle is travelling at high
speed on a flat road. A Pascal's principle
B Bernoulli's principle
22 What is the shape of vehicles used in C Archimedes' principle
water? D The Principle of Conservation of
Momentum
A Aerofoil
B Cylindrical
C Rectangular
D Streamlined
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26 A boy wearing a pair of sport shoes stands 29 The diagram below shows the hydraulic
on a weighing machine. The reading on the brake of a car.
weighing machine is 500 N and the size of
his shoes is 0.025 m2. What is the pressure
exerted on the weighing machine by the
boy?

A 25 N m-2
B 12.5 N m-2
C 10 000 N m-2
D 20 000 N m-2

27 The diagram below shows a simple


hydraulic system.

What happens when the brake pedal is


released?

I The brake fluid flows back to the


master cylinder.
The cross-sectional area of piston X and Y II The spring separates the brake shoe
is 25 cm2 and 100 cm2 respectively. A from the drum brake in the rear wheel.
force of 10 N acts on piston X. What is the III The bake pad is separated from the
load supported by piston Y? brake disc in the front wheel.

A 2.5 N A I and II only


B 40.0 N B I and III only
C 2 500 N C II and III only
D 25 000 N D I, II, and III

28 When is the Principle of Momentum 30 A car is moving at a uniform velocity of 10


applied? ms-1. Then it accelerates to a velocity of 40
ms-1 in 5 seconds. Calculate the
I When firing a shotgun. acceleration of the car.
II When driving piles into the ground
using a pile driver. A 2 ms-2
III When hammering a nail into wood. B 6 ms-2
C 8 ms-2
A I and II only D 10 ms-2
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III

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CHAPTER 14 :FOOD TECNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION


1 A farmer bought a two week supply of 5 The picture below shows the label on a
meat. What method of preservation can be drink container for grape juice.
used to maintain the freshness of the
meat?

A Drying
B Cooling
C Deep freezing
D Vacuum packing

2 Food technology is used in food production


so that food...

I would be more attractive.


II is ready to eat.
III is easier to digest. Based on the Food Regulations 1985, the
missing informtion on this food label is...
A I only
B I and II only A the net weight.
C I and III only B the expiry date.
D I, II, and III C the main ingredients.
D the name and address of the
3 The imbalance between population manufacturer.
increase and technological development in
food production can lead to... 6 Consumer rights include...

I starvation I seeking compensation


II malnutrition II getting information on food products
III social disturbances III selecting products with reasonable
prices.
A I only
B I and II only A I and II only
C I and III only B I and III only
D I, II, and III C II and III only
D I, II, and III
4 What information is contained in a food
label? 7 What individuals can do to practise their
consumer rights?
I Ingredients in the food.
II The expiry date of the food. I Right to return goods bought.
III The calorific value of the food. II Right to buy fresh food.
III Right to report to the statutory
A I only authority.
B I and II only
C I and III only A I only
D I, II, and III B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
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8 What are the advantages of genetically 11 The picture below shows a drink product.
modified food?

I It increases the quality and quantity of


food.
II It helps to overcome the world
shortage of food and prevent famines.
III Crops that produce insecticide
themselves do not need to be sprayed
with insecticide.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
What is the most suitable way to process
D I, II, and III
and preserve this drink?
9 Which of the methods listed below can
increase the quality and quantity of food A Cooling
B Dehydration
production?
C Deep freezing
D Pasteurization
I Using modern technology.
II Using quality breeds.
12 Ah Seng wants to export prawns to Japan.
III Educating the farmers.
What method of preservation should be
used to maintain the freshness of the
A I only
prawns?
B I and II only
C I and III only
A Canning
D I, II, and III
B Deep freezing
C Pasteurization
10 The information below are ingredients for
D Vacuum packaging
making biscuits.
13 What method of food preservation listed
Wheat flour
below can help to maintain vitamin
Sugar
contents of food?
Margarine
Ascorbic acid
A Canning
Baking powder
B Dehydration
Salt
C Deep freezing
Vanilla essence
D Vacuum packaging
Which ingredient helps the biscuits to last 14 Which of the chemicals listed below is a
longer? preservative?
I Sulphur Dioxide
A Margarine
II Nitrite
B Ascorbic acid
III Lechitin
C Baking powder
D Vanilla essence I only
A
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III
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15 The process of dehydration is... 21 What method of food processing uses
gamma rays?
A adding water to food.
B boiling food at 100C . A Freezing
B Canning
C removing air from food.
C Irradiation
D removing water from food.
D Vacuum packaging
16 Which of the following chemicals is
22 Why is lecithin added to ice cream?
matched correctly to its function?
A To sweeten it.
Chemical Function
B To slow oxidation.
Saccharin Emulsifier
C To remove unwanted colours.
A D To emulsify two substances that
B Monosodium Flavouring generally do not mix.
glutamate
C Boric acid Sweetener 23 What are the effects of consuming too
D Gelatin Preservative much chemical found in food?

17 What is monosodium glutamate (MSG)? I Damaged kidneys.


II Excessive hair loss.
A Colouring III An increased risk of diabetes.
B Emulsifier
C Flavouring A I only
D Preservative B I and II only
C II and III only
18 Which food processing technology does D I, II, and III
not kill bacteria spores?
24 The picture below shows a processed
A Cooling drink.
B Freezing
C Pasteurization
D Vacuum packaging

19 Salt is added to fish and dried in the sun.


What type of food processing is this
called?

A Canning
B Dehydration
C Freeze drying The most suitable way to process this drink
D Pasteurization is by...
20 The increase in food production through
the use of quality breeds... A cooling
B freezing
A do not require irrigation. C freeze drying
B is to carry out photosynthesis at night. D pasteurization
C can increase the lifespan of crops by 10
years.
D can produce higher yields in a shorter
period of time.
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25 The government agency that is 28 What can be done to reduce soil erosion?
responsible for the research to increase the
quantity and quality of palm oil is... I Terracing
II Contour planting
A MPOB III Planting cover crops
B LKIM
C MARDI A I only
D FELDA B I and II only
C II and III only
26 What is the purpose of machinery in the D I, II, and III
agriculture industry?
29 What is the purpose of efficient land
I To increase the quantity of crop yield. management?
II To get the job done faster.
III To reduce the dependency on human I To prevent starvation.
and animal labour. II To prevent soil erosion.
III To avoid the loss of soil nutrients.
A I and II only
B I and III only A I only
C II and III only B I and II only
D I, II, and III C II and III only
D I, II, and III
27 What measures can be taken to maintain
soil fertility? 30 Which of the methods listed below
describes pasteurization?
I By adding fertilizers.
II By cover rotation. I 63C
Heating food at for 30 minutes
III By planting quality breeds. and cooling it quickly.
II Heating food in a pressure cooker at
A I only
120C for 15 minutes.
B I and II only
C II and III only III Heating food at 72C and cooling it
D I, II, and III quickly.

A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II, and III

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CHAPTER 15:SYNTHETHIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1 The uncontrolled disposal of synthetic 5 The figure below shows a chemical


polymers can pollute the environment. change.
This is due to the fact that this substance
is...

A cheaper and softer.


B cheaper and stronger.
C more expensive and softer.
The processes of X and Y are...
D more expensive and durable.
X Y
2 The burning of synthetic polymers such as
A Polymerization Depolymerization
plastic is prohibited because they can
B Polymerization Combustion
cause pollution to the environment by
C Depolymerization Polymerization
releasing ...
D Depolymerization Combustion
A water vapour and haze.
smoke and toxic gases. 6 To produce tyres that are harder and more
B
water vapour and smoke. heat resistant, natural rubber should be...
C
D smoke and carbon dioxide.
A headed with sulphur.
3 What are the effects of the disposal of B added with iron wire.
synthetic polymers to the environment? C added with ethanoic acid.
D added with ammonia solution.
I The flow of water in drains is blocked.
7 Which of the pairs listed below is NOT
II They remain in the environment for a
long time. correct about plastic and its uses?
III The accumulation of rain water in
used containers become breeding Type of plastic Uses
places for mosquitoes. PVC Water pipe
A
A I only B Polystyrene Food container
B I and II only C Perspex Aeroplane
C II and III only window-pane
D I, II, and III D Bakelite Plastic bag

4 What is the monomer of isoprene?

A Starch
B Polythene
C Polystyrene
D Natural rubber

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12 What type of synthetic materials is used to


8 Which of the substance listed below is an make food packaging boxes?
example of synthetic rubber?
A Perspex
A Perspex B Neoprene
B Melamine C Polystyrene
C Polyvinyl chloride D Polyvinyl chloride
D Styrene-butadiene rubber
13 What happens when perspex is heated?

9 Which of the substance listed below is a I A liquid is formed.


type of thermosetts plastic? II The melting point of the monomer
becomes higher.
A Terylene III Long chained molecules become short
B Polythene chains.
C Epoxyl glue
D Polyvinyl chloride A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
10 Which of the gases listed below are D I, II, and III
released when plastic is burned?
14 What example of products listed below are
I Carbon monoxide made from neoprene?
II Carbon dioxide
III Nitrogen A Tyres and shoe soles.
B Petrol rubber tubes and tyres.
A I only C Shoe soles and electric wire casings.
B II only D Petrol rubber tubes and electric wire
C I and II only casings.
D I, II, and III
15 What is the correct comparison between
11 The diagram below shows the change in synthetic rubber and natural rubber?
the molecular structure of natural rubber
when it is stretched and release. Synthetic rubber Natural rubber
More elastic Less elastic
A
B Does not react Reacts with acid
with acid
C Easily vulcanized Cannot be
vulcanized
The characteristic of natural rubber shown
D Cannot withstand Able to withstand
is...
heat heat
A soft
B sticky
C elastic
D easily snapped

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16 Which of the listed pairs below represent 20 What are the differences between
the correct pairing of polymers and thermoplastic and thermosetts?
monomers?
Thermoplastic Thermosetts
Polymers Monomers I Soft Hard
Nylon Chloroethene II Able to withstand Cannot withstand
A heat heat
B Perspex Methyl III No cross linkages Cross linkages
metacrylate present
C Polythene Chloroprene
A I only
D Thiokol rubber Propene
B I and II only
C I and III only
17 Which substances listed below is a
D I, II, and III
synthetic polymer?
21 What is true about thermoplastic?
I Protein
II Neoprene
A They can withstand heat.
III Polythene
B They are not good insulators.
C They can be easily moulded into any
A I only
shape many times.
B I and II only
D They consist of long polymer chains
C II and III only
with cross linkages.
D I, II, and III
22 Synthetic rubber is...
18 How do we avoid pollution from used
plastic bags?
I easily oxidize
II able to withstand heat
A Use biodegradable plastic bags.
III good electric insulator
B Bury the plastic bags in the soil.
C Throw the plastic bags into the river.
A I only
D Burn the plastic bags in a rubbish
B I and II only
dump.
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
19 Why thermosetts can only be melted and
moulded once only?
23 Products that are made of a combination of
synthetic rubber and natural rubber
I Because they can withstand heat.
include...
II Because they have long chains in their
polymer molecules.
I bus tryes
III Because they have cross linkages
II shoe soles
between long polymer plastics to
III cushions
prevent sliding.
A I only
A I only
B I and II only
B I and II only
C II and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
D I, II, and III

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CHAPTER 16:ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND


COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
1 Fibre optics is a better choice of cable lines 4. Fibre optics is a better choice for cable
compared to traditional copper for lines compared to traditional copper for
telecommunication because... telecommunications because...

I they are able to transmit more I they are able to transmit more
information. information.
II they can carry electrical signals more II they can carry electrical signals more
effectively. effectively.
III they face less interference during III they face less interference during
transmission. transmission.

A I and II only A I and II only


B I and III only B I and III only
C II and III only C II and III only
D I, II, and III D I, II, and III

2 What instruments listed below functions 5 Wave frequency is the...


by using telephone cables?
A highest point of the wave.
A Radio B distance between two successive peaks.
B Television C number of complete oscillations in one
C Fax machine second.
D Cellular phone D distance between the rest position and
its peak.
3 Why is telegram less popular nowadays?
6 A source produces a sound with a
I Because it does not send pictures. frequency of 200 Hz and a wave length of
II Because it sends a large amount of 1.5 m. The velocity of the wave is...
information.
III Because it is slow in transmitting A 13.3 ms-1
information. B 30.0 ms-1
C 133.3 ms-1
A I and II only D 300.0 ms-1
B I and III only
C II and III only 7 The electronic component that is used to
D I, II, and III store charges and electrical energy is a(n)...

A diode
B resistor
C inductor
D capacitor

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8 The diagram below shows a satellite 11 The information below is about component
communication system. X of a radio wave.

Designated as short waves in radio


communication.
Reflected by the ionosphere.

What is X?

A High frequency
B Very high frequency
C Ultra high frequency
D Super high frequency
The communication is transmitted through
X. X is... 12 The table below shows the components of
an electromagnetic spectrum.
A long waves
B short waves W Microwave X Visible light
C microwaves Y Infrared Z X-ray
D medium waves
Which of the waves listed is radio waves?
9 The diagram below shows a block diagram
for a radio transmission system. A W
B X
C Y
D Z

13 The diagram below shows process P in a


radio transmission system.

Referring to the table below, what is true


about X, Y, and Z?

X Y Z P is...
A Modulator Amplifier Oscillator
Modulator Oscillator Amplifier A oscillator
B
B demodulator
C Oscillator Modulator Amplifier
C amplitude modulation
D Oscillator Amplifier Modulator
D frequency modulation
10 Which of the statement below is true about
microwaves?

A They pass through the ionosphere.


B They are used in AM broadcasting.
C They cannot pass through a vacuum.
D They are reflected by the ionosphere.

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14 The diagram below shows the block 18 The diagram below shows an audio signal
diagram for a radio receiver system. in an oscilloscope.

What is true about X, Y, and Z?

X Y Z What is the frequency of the audio signal


A Amplifier Tuner circuit Detector shown above?
B Detector Tuner circuit Amplifier
C Tuner Detector Amplifier A 1.0 Hz
circuit B 1.25 Hz
D Tuner Amplifier Detector C 2.5 Hz
circuit D 5.0 Hz

15 The shortest wavelength has... 19 The diagram below shows an


electromagnetic wave on the screen of an
A low frequency waves oscilloscope.
B high frequency waves
C very high frequency waves
D ultra high frequency waves

16 A radio wave travels at a velocity of 3


108 ms-1. The frequency of the radio at the
wavelength of 0.6 m is...

A 1.8 108 Hz
B 2.0 108 Hz
C 3.6 108 Hz
D 5.0 108 Hz
What is the amplitude of the
17 What contains in the demodulator of a electromagnetic wave?
radio receiver system?
A 2 cm
A A diode and a fixed capacitor. B 3 cm
B A diode and a variable capacitor. C 4 cm
C An inductor and a fixed capacitor. D 6 cm
D An inductor and a variable capacitor.

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20 The diagram below shows sound waves 23 The advantages of using satellites for
produced from a source. communication are...

I more information can be transmitted


compared to using cables.
II live telecasts can be broadcasted
simultaneously around the world.
III the communication is not affected by
weather.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
Which is the wavelength? D I, II, and III

A JL 24 The satellite communication provides


B JM services such as...
C KM
D KN I relaying telephone conversations
II facsimile transmission
21 The diagram below shows the energy III the Internet
changes in devices X and Y.
A I and II only
B I and III only
Sound energy electrical energy
X
C II and III only
D I, II, and III
Electrical energy

Y
sound energy 25 Where does a communication satellite gets
its power supply from?
What is true about devices X and Y?
I Solar cells
X Y II Hydrogen cells
A Microphone Microphone III A nuclear reactor
B Microphone Loudspeaker
C Loudspeaker Microphone A I and II only
D Loudspeaker Loudspeaker B I and III only
C II and III only
22 The uses of satellites include... D I, II, and III

I forecasting the weather. 26 The information below is about component


II studying the structure of the earth's P of a radio transmitter.
surface.
III locating the position of ships. Inductor and capacitor.
Generates radio waves.
A I and II only
B I and III only P is a (n)...
C II and III only
D I, II, and III A amplifier
B oscillator
C modulator
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27 The diagram below shows part of a radio 29 What contains in the demodulator of a
receiver system. radio receiver system?

A A diode and a fixed capacitor.


B A diode and a variable capacitor.
C An inductor and a fixed capacitor.
D An inductor and a variable capacitor.

30 The diagram below shows the block


diagram for a radio receiver system.
The function of the circuit shown is...

A to amplify sound signals.


B to separate sound signals from radio
waves.
C to superimpose sound signals with
radio waves. The necessary component that enables
D to select a frequency that resonates sound to be heard on a radio receiver
with the carrier frequency. system is the....
28 The information below is about component A aerial
P in a radio receiver system. B detector
C amplifier
Decides the programmes to be received. D tuner circuit
Electrons oscillate inside it.

P is a(n)...

A oscillator
B modulator
C tuner circuit
D demodulator

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PAPER 2

CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the freezing
point of the pure water.

The table below shows the result of the experiment.


Substances
Freezing point / C
Pure water 0
Pure water +
common salt

(a) What is the freezing point for the pure water that is added common salt?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down one observation based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]

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2. The diagram below shows an experiment to determine the mass, volume and the density of
the iron and the cork.

(a) Calculate the densities of the cork and the iron.


3
(i) Density of cork =_______ g cm
3
(ii) Density of iron =_______ g cm
[2 marks ]

(b) 3
If the cork and the iron are placed in a liquid with a density of 0.56g cm . What will
happen to the cork and iron?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State one hypothesis for this experiment based on the relationship between the density of
an object and its ability to float on a liquid.

[ 1 mark ]

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3. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the sprout of seeds.

(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Predict the seeds in test tube B.

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Give explanation for your answer in (c)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

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4. The table below shows the weight of students in class 5B is divided into 5 groups.

Weight (kg) Number of


students
40-44 2
45-49 6
50-54 12
55-59 9
60-64 3

(a) Draw a graph based on information the table that given.


[ 2 marks ]

(b) There are how many students in class 5B?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the highest weight of the students in class 5B?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the percentage of the students weighting 55 kg and above?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the length of pendulum on the
time for 10 oscillations.

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(a) Based on the experiment above, complete the table below.


Length of Time for 10
pendulum (cm) oscillations (s)
10
20
30

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

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6. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of fixed amount of water heater
and the temperature of the water record in every 3 minutes.

(a) Write down one observation for this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the observation (a).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variable should be fixed in this experiment and explain how it is fixed.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Predict the temperature if more water is used.

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the weight of the load on the
extension of a spring.

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The table below shows the different weight and the extension of spring.

Weight of load Extension of


(F/N) spring (x/cm)
1.5 3.0
2.0 6.0
2.5 9.0
3.0 12.0
3.5 15.0

(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Responding variable:

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Manipulated variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) For this part of question, use the graph paper.
Based on the table above plot a graph of load of weight (F) versus extension of spring
(x).

[ 1 mark ]

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(ii) State the relationship between F and x.

[ 1 mark ]

8. The diagram below shows an experiment to estimate the size of a water particle. 200 drops of
water are released from the burette to a container.

(a) Write down the initial reading and final reading of the burette.
(i) The initial reading of burette

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) The final reading of burette

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Calculate the volume of one drop of water.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If one drop of water can produce 100 droplets of water, what is the volume of one droplet
of water?

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[ 2 marks ]

9. The diagram below shows a measuring cylinder that containing water.

(a) What is the volume of water in the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) 3
When a stone is placed into the water and the level of water become 58 cm . What is the
volume of the stone?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If the mass of the stone given that is 50 g, calculate the density of the stone.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) 3
A cork with a density of 0.26 cm placed into the cylinder. If given the water with a
mass of 20 g. The cork will sink in the water or float on the water?

[ 2 marks ]

10. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the impurities on the boiling
point of pure water.

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The table below shows the result of the experiment.


Substances Boiling point C

Pure water 100


Pure water + salt

(a) What is the boiling point for the pure water after added the salt.
[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Responding variable:

[1 mark ]

(ii) Manipulated variable:

[1 mark ]

11. The table below shows the gas pressure and the gas volume.

Pressure Volume
10 50
15 40
20 30
25 20

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(a) What is the relationship between the pressure and the volume of gas? Explain.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

12. A student doing an experiment to confirm his observation of the sugar will dissolve faster in
boiling water.

(a) Write down one inference based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

13. The diagram below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.

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(a) Based on the diagram above, complete the blank of step (i) ,(ii) and (iii).

[ 3 marks ]

(b) State two the important of scientific investigation method.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State two attitudes and values are needed in a scientific investigation.

[ 2 marks ]

14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the lead shots of the test tube.

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(a) State the variables in this experiment.


(i)Fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii)Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii)Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the aim of experiment based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

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15. The flow chart below shows the steps that involved in a method of scientific investigation.


Identifying the problem Forming a
hypothesis
X Carrying out the
investigation
Collecting data

Conclusion

(a) Based on the diagram above, name the step X and explain this step.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) List two the part that involves in the step of planning the investigation.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two things that should contain in a complete experimental report.
1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]

(a) What is inference? It is same with the conclusion?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is hypothesis?

[1 mark ]

(c) List the entire variable that important in a scientific investigation and explain it.

[3 marks ]

(d) State two of the forms of presenting data.


1.
2.
[2 marks ]

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16 The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the temperature of different
size of container

(a) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark]

(ii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark]

(iii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark]

(c) State two positive attitudes and values.


1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]

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17. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of the density on the ability of an
object float or sink in the water.

Substances Observation
Ice
Iron
Cork

(a) Based on the above experiment, complete the table.


[ 2 marks ]

(b) Write down one hypothesis based on the results of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the variables in this experiment.


(i) Fixed variable

[ 1 mark]

(ii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark]

(iii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark]

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18. The diagram below shows the density of a stone.

(a) What is the mass of the stone which shows in the diagram (a)?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the initial reading of the cylinder?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What the final reading of the cylinder is after placed the stone in the water?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the density of the stone?

[2 marks ]

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CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION

1. The table below shows the reaction time for 10 students from class 5B by measuring the time
taken for each student to buttoning the shirts.

Student number Reaction time (ms)


1 30
2 90
3 110
4 60
5 120
6 40
7 160
8 130
9 50
10 100

(a) Complete the table below based on the reaction time of the students and placed into 4
groups.
Reaction time Number of
(ms) students in
group

[2 marks ]

(b) Based on the table in (a) draw a bar chart.


[1 mark ]

(c) What receptors are involved in this type of activity?

[1 mark ]

(d) Based on the receptors that found in (b), what is the function for the receptors?

[ 1 mark ]

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2. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in a human knee-jerk.

(a) How many neurone involves in this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the neuron that involved in this reflex action.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write the summary of the path taken by an impulse.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the outcome for this reflex action?

[ 1 mark ]

3. The diagram below shows a type of neurone.

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(a) Name the type of this neurone.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the function of this type of neurone.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the label P?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) State the function of label P.

[ 2 marks ]

4. The table below shows the reactions of sensory organs to various stimuli.

Stimuli Reaction Sensory organ involved


Ice cubes Feel cold
Vinegar Sharp smell of sour
Sugar cane Sweet taste
Television Movie is see
Radio Music is hear

(a) State the suitable sensory organ that involved in the various stimuli.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Write the pathway of impulses in the nervous coordination

[ 2 marks ]

5. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.

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(a) What is the function for cerebellum?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Which parts of the human brain are controlled the involuntary actions?

[1 mark ]

(c) Explain the voluntary actions and give an example.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the effect of injuries to the cerebrum?

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows the main parts of the human brain.

(a) Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]

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(b) What is the function of R?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Name two activities controlled by the P.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below shows the cross section of the spinal cord and the nerves connected to it.

(a) Name the neurones that involved in this reflex action.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Name the label P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the function of P?

[ 1 mark ]

8. The diagram below shows the human endocrine system.

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(a) What are endocrine glands?

[ 1 mark ]
(b) Name the P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the function for P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

9. The diagram below shows the human muscle.

(a) Label the structure X.

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[ 1 mark ]

(b) Explain the function of structure X.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Where can structure X be found?

[ 3 marks ]

10. The diagram below shows the human nervous system.

(a) Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Explain the function of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

[2 marks ]

(c) What is the human nervous system?

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[1 mark ]

11. The diagram below shows a neurone.

(a) Label the X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Name the neurone that shows in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]
(c) Shows the direction of the impulse at the diagram.
[ 2 marks ]

12. The diagram below shows a main part of human brain.

(a) Name the part of human brain that shows at the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Label P, Q, R and S.

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[ 4 marks ]

13. The flow chart below shows nervous coordination in human.


Stimulus Organ P
Sensory neurone Motor neurone Central nervous
system
Motor neurone Effector Responds

(a) State two examples of organ P.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What type of the action that shows in the flow chart?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two examples of such action.

[ 2 marks ]

14. The statement below shows the examples of voluntary action.

Eating
Reading
Dancing
Writing

(a) What is the voluntary action?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give two examples of involuntary actions.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two differences between voluntary actions and involuntary actions.

[ 2 marks ]

15. The diagram below shows the human endocrine gland.

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(a) What is the hormone secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of the hormone that secretes by X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two effects of oversecretion of hormone that secretes by X.

[ 2 marks ]

16. The diagram below shows the reflex arc in the withdrawal of hand from a hot object.

(a) Label P, Q and R.

[ 3 marks ]

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(b) Write the path taken by an impulse in the withdrawal reflex.

[ 2 marks ]

17. The diagram below shows a motor neurone.

(a) Label X.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two differences between the sensory motor and relay motor.

[ 2 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows an impulse pathway when a student accidentally touches a hot pot.

(a) Label the X, Y and Z.

[ 3 marks ]

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(b) Why the reflex actions are important?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If the motor neurone is damaged, what will happen?

[ 1 mark ]

19. The diagram below shows three people that have different height. The Individual P who has a
normal height.

(a) Name the disease that faced by individual Q and R.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Name the hormone that controls this disease.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the function of this hormone?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the endocrine gland involved in (b).

[ 1 mark ]

20. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located at the base of cerebrum.

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(a) What is the name of this endocrine gland?

[1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of this endocrine gland?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Name the hormone that secreted by this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List down the effect of under secretion and over secretion.

[ 2 marks ]

21. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located in front of the trachea.

(a) Name this endocrine gland.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the hormone produced by this gland.

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[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the function of this hormone?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two effects of the under secretion of this hormone.

[ 2 marks ]

22. The diagram below shows a human endocrine gland which located on top of the kidneys.

(a) Label P.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the hormone secreted by glands P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the function of this hormone?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two effects of over secretion of this hormone

[ 2 marks ]

23. The diagram below shows the ovaries in a female body.

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(a) Where the ovaries are located?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List down the two hormones produced by ovaries.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List down the function of both hormones.

[ 2 marks ]

24. The diagram below shows a pair of testes in male body.

(a) Label X.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function of X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the main hormone produced by testes?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the function of this hormone?

25. The statement below shows three main groups of drugs.

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Stimulant
Depressant
Hallucinogens

(a) Define the drugs.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List two drugs for group stimulant.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two effects of drug abuse on nervous system and body coordination for group
hallucinogens.

[ 2 marks ]

CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1. The table below shows the height of the students in class 5B.

Height (cm) Number of students

146 and below 1


146 -150 5
151 - 155 13
156 - 160 12
161 - 165 6
165 and above 5

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(a) Draw a histogram based on the table above.


[ 2 marks ]

(b) What type of the variation that show in (b)?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Give two characteristic of this type of variation .


1.
2.
[ 2 marks ]

2. The graph below shows the ability to roll the tongue of the students in class 5A.

(a) What type of variation that shows at the graph?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give two examples of this type variation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List the factors that cause variation.

[ 2 marks ]

3. The diagram below shows the formation of twins.

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(a) What type of twins is formed?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the process P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List the characteristics of this type of twins.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What is the sex of the twins?

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows phases that happens in a cell division.

(a) What process are involved this phases?

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[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name this phases.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Describe this phases.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Is the mitosis process occurrence of crossing over?

5. The diagram below shows how two types of twins are formed.

(a) Name the types of twins P and twins Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the similarity for the twins P and twins Q.

[1 mark ]

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(c) State the differences between the twins P and twins Q.

[ 3 marks ]

6. The diagram below shows the selective breeding of two different types of oil palm.

(a) Defines what selective breeding is.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List two examples products produce by selective breeding.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two advantages of selective breeding.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of a patient that suffers of genetic disease.

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(a) Name the disease that suffers by the patient down's syndrome.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What cause the patient suffers the disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which chromosome pair causes the disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two possible distinctive physical characteristic of the patient that suffers this disease.

[ 2 marks ]

8. The diagram below shows the cell is undergoing cell division.

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(a) Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Where is this process take places in human body?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List down the two characteristic of this type of cell division.

[ 2 marks ]

9. The diagram below shows the inheritance of tallness and dwarfness in plant.

(a) Write down each child's pair of genes in the boxes provides in the diagram.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Based on the diagram above, what type of plant is dominant.

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[ 1 mark ]

(c) Give two example of recessive trait.

[ 2 marks ]

10 The diagram below shows the sex determination in human being.

(a) Name process X and process Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What is the sex of the zygote F?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Explain how to determine the sex of zygote G.

[ 2 marks ]

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11 The diagram below shows the monohybrid cross between plants. R is gene for red flowers
,and r is gene for white flowers.

(a) Complete the diagram above.


[ 2 marks ]

(b) 1
What is the phenotype ratio of the red flowers to white flowers in the F generation?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which type of flower is dominant?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Define what homozygous is.

[ 1 mark ]

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12 The diagram below shows the chromosome mutations which involve changes in structure of
chromosomes.

(a) Label W, X, Y and Z.

[ 4 marks ]

(b) Define what chromosome mutation is.

[ 1 mark ]

13 The diagram below shows the relationship among gene, DNA and chromosome.

(a) What are X, Y and Z represent?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Defines what genes are.

[ 1 mark ]

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(c) If the plant has 4 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosome in its
epidermal cell?

[ 1 mark ]

14 The following passage describes a type of mutation.

Gene mutation occurs when part of the DNA on single chromosome is


changed. As a result, a defective protein may be produced or no protein
may be produced at all. This can lead to a considerable change in
certain characteristic.

(a) What type of mutation is show at the passage above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give two examples for this type of mutation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Define what mutation is.

[ 2 marks ]

15 The diagram below shows the phase of cell division in an animal cell.

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(a) Name a type of cell division.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the two characteristic of this type of cell division.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Explain process at P.

[ 2 marks ]

16. The diagram below shows process meiosis.

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(a) What is the purpose of this process?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List down the differences between mitosis and meiosis in term of occurrence of crossing
over and number of times nucleus divides.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Why is the process crossing over and random distribution of chromosomes occurring
during meiosis?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Explain the process crossing over.

[ 1 mark ]

17. The statement below shows the disease of mutation.

Down's syndrome
Colour blindness
Haemophilia
Klinefelter's syndrome

(a) Which of the disease of mutation that shows at the statement above are under gene
mutation?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Give three advantages of mutation.

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[ 3 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows a disease cause by chromosome mutation.

(a) Name the disease.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the characteristics of this disease.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Who will suffer from this disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the difference between this disease and Klinefelter's syndrome?

[ 1 mark ]

19. The diagram below shows the inheritance of the type of hair.

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(a) Label P, Q, R and S.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Which type of hair is recessive?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) 1
What is the phenotype ratio of curly hair to straight hair in F generation?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What type of variation is this?

[ 1 mark ]

20 The diagram below shows the two types of twins.

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(a) List two differences between these two types of twins.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Define what Siamese twins are.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State two characteristics that are same for the identical twins.

[2 marks ]

21. The diagram below shows the chromosome map of Klinefelter's syndrome.

(a) This disease is cause by chromosome mutation or gene mutation?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Who will be affecting by this disease?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Define what Klinefelter's syndrome is.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Give two examples of mutagens.

[ 2 marks ]
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22. The diagram below shows the four groups of thumb prints for the students in class 5E.

(a) Construct a histogram of the number of students against the groups of thumb prints.

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[ 2 marks ]

(b) What type of variation that shows in (a)?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List two differences between continuous variation and discontinuous variation.

[ 2 marks ]

23. The diagram below shows the inheritance of colour blindness.

(a) Complete the diagram above.

[ 4 marks ]

(b) What is the probability of the parents get a colour blindness son?

[ 1 marks ]

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24 The diagram below shows the variation among Vinson family member.

(a) What type of the diagram is used?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What type of variation is shows on the diagram?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Give a conclusion that get from the diagram.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) List two important of variation.

[ 2 marks ]

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CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE

1. The table below shows the subatomic particles of some element.

Element P Q R
Proton number 6 7 8

Nucleon number 14

Number of
electrons

Number of 7 10
neutrons

(a) Complete the table above.


[ 3 marks ]

(b) Which of the elements is an isotope?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Define what isotopes are?

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows the arrangement and movement of the particles in the three states of
matter.

(a) Name the three states of matter that represented by X, Y and Z.

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[ 3 marks ]

(b) List two property of the matter X.

[ 2 marks ]

3. The diagram below shows the part of the Periodic Table.

(a) Name an element which is in


(i) Group 17
(ii) Period 4

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Which element is a


(i) metal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) non-metal

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) semimetal

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which two elements have similar chemical properties?

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[ 1 mark ]

4. The table below shows the properties of subatomic particles.

Subatomic X Y Z
particles
Charge +1 Neutral -1
Relative atomic 1 1 1/840
mass
Location In the nucleus In the nucleus In the electron
shells around
the nucleus

(a) Name the X, Y and Z

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Why the nucleus of an atom is has a positive change.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Which of this subatomic particles move in circular orbits around the nucleus?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows interconversion of the three states of matter.

(a) Name the process A, B, C and D.

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[ 4 marks ]

(b) Name of the process involve absorption of heat?

[ 2 marks ]
6. The diagram below shows the interconversion of the states of matter.

(a) Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Describe the process P.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) The process P or Q involve releases of heat.

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows an incomplete Periodic Table.

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(a) What is the specific name of group 17?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the element B represented?

[ 3 marks ]

(c) Describe the element in group 1.

[ 1 mark ]

8. The diagram below shows a distillation process.

(a) Label the flow of water at the top and bottom of the condenser.
[ 1 mark ]

(b) Define what distillation is.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What the purpose is of used the liebig condenser?

[ 1 mark ]

9. The table below shows the substances and their boiling point.

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Substance Boiling point ( C)


Pure water 100


Pure water + common salt 105

(a) What is the inference for this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the variables for this experiment.


(i) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the operational definition of pure water?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is pure substance?

[ 2 marks ]

10. The flow chart below shows purifying salt from a saturated solution of common salt.


Dissolving Process P Process Q Filtration Crystals

(a) Name the process P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What is the method is using for this purifying?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Defines what purification is.

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[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the other purification method.

[ 1 mark ]

11. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.

(a) What is the specific name for group 18?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name element P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) List three characteristic of element Q.

[ 3 marks ]

12. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.

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(a) Name the elements P and Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Give two characteristic of element T.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Which element is a semimetal?

[ 1 marks ]

13. The table below shows a physical property of atom and ions.

Physical property Atomic substance Ionic substance

Physical state at room Solid( for all metals except Solid


temperature mercury)
Gas(for all noble gases)
Electrical conductivity All metals are good Conduct electricity only
conductors of electricity when melted or dissolved in
water

(a) Physical properties of substances depend on what?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) What are the physical properties of atoms and ions in term of melting point and solubility?

[ 2 marks ]

14. The graph below shows a boiling curve of a pure substance.

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(a) State the physical states at


(i) RS

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) ST

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the process where the substance changes state at


(i) BC

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) DE

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the boiling point for the substance?

[ 1 mark ]

15. The diagram below shows an activity to studying the physical properties of metals.

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(a) What are the physical properties of metal can observe from the activity?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Give another two physical properties of metal.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) List two examples of metals.

[ 2 marks ]

16. The statement below shows the elements of metals and non-metals.

Copper
Sulphur
Sodium
Iodine
Chlorine

(a) Which of the above elements are


(i) metals?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) non-metals?

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[ 1 mark ]

(b) Show three differences between metals and non-metals.

[ 3 marks ]

17. The table below shows the number of protons, electrons and neutron.

Element Number Number Number


of of of
protons neutrons electrons
P 4 4 4
Q 5 1 1
R 13 10 9
S 19 15 19

(a) Which element is a


(i) neutral?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positively charged?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) negatively charged?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the nucleon number and proton number of element Q?

[ 2 marks ]

18. The diagram below shows two different liquid.

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(a) Which of the following liquid is not a pure substance? Explain your answer.

[2 marks ]

(b) Predict the boiling point and freezing point for the liquid X if liquid X is pure water.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Name two methods use to purifying the impurities on the liquid Y.

[ 2 marks ]

19. The diagram below shows a difference of properties between metals and non-metals.

In term of Metals Non-metals


State Solids solids,
liquids or
gases
Luminosity Shiny Dull surface
surface
Hardness Strong Brittle and
not strong

(a) Give an example for metals and non-metals.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) List another three differences between metals and non-metals in term of malleability,
ductility and density.

[ 3 marks ]

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20. The diagram below shows atomic structure of an atom P.

(a) Name the subatomic particles contained in the nucleus of atom P.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Which group of the Periodic Table does P belong?

[1 mark ]

(c) State two used of this group.

[ 2 marks ]

21. The diagram below shows a Periodic Table.

(a) How are the elements arranged in the Periodic Table?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Using the letters P - S, name


(i) noble gas

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[ 1 mark]

(ii) an alkali metal

[ 1 mark]

(iii) an alkaline earth metal

[ 1 mark]

(iv) halogen

[ 1 mark]

CHAPTER 5 : ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1. The diagram below shows an apparatus to study in electroplating an iron spoon.

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(a) Name the parts for P and Q.


P:
Q:
[ 2 marks ]

(b) The experiment above is held for 30 minutes.


(i)What happens to the mass of the iron spoon?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii)What is K made of?

[ 1 mark ]

(iii)What observation can been make for substance K?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write down the reason for why is the concentration of copper(II) sulphate solution is
unchanged for the experiment.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Give one condition that copper is able to electroplate nicely on the iron spoon.

[ 1 marks ]

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2. The diagram below shows a study of the reactivity of three types of metal, X, Y, and Z reacting
with oxygen.

The table below shows the result that derived from experiment above.
Metal Result
X Burns very brightly.
Y Glows brightly and vigorously.
Z Glow with a little dim flame.

(a) State a hypothesis that can be derived from the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Determine the following variable for the experiment above.


(i) Fixed variable:

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the word equation for reaction between metal and oxygen.
(i) X

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Y

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[ 1 mark ]

(iii) Z

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Based on the table above arrange the reactivity of metals in descending order.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Copper, Magnesium, Aluminium


Use the substance above identify X, Y, and Z from the result of their reactivity as shown
by the experiment above.
X:
Y:
Z:
[ 3 marks ]

3 Diagram below shows a blast furnace used to produce a certain metal.

(a) Coke, substance X and substance Y are poured into the furnace.
Name the Substance X and Y.
Substance X:
Substance Y:
[ 2 marks ]

(b) What gas is it that blasted into the lower part of furnace?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What are the products P and Q which are extracted from the base of the furnace?

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Product P:
Product Q:
[ 2 marks ]
(d) Write an equation that related to the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows an experiment which is carried out in the laboratory.

(a) Name the process of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Determine which electrode is the anode and cathode.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the function of copper wires at the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Predict the observation which occurs at the anode and cathode.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) What changes will occurs to the concentration of the copper(II) sulphate solution at the end
of the process?

[ 1 mark ]

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5. The diagram below shows the extraction of tin in a blast furnace.

(a) What is the common name for tin ore?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the purpose for adding limestone into the blast furnace when extracting the tin
from its ore?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Write an equation for the reduction reaction that produces molten tin.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Why aluminium cannot be extracted using carbon in the reduction process?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Why is carbon usually be used when extraction of metals in the industrial?

[ 2 marks ]

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6. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to purify a piece of metal. After 15
minutes it doesn't show any result.

(a) State the error that causes no any observation can be making by the diagram above. Draw
the correct arrangement of apparatus that should be set up for experiment above in the
space below.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Which of the substance act as


(i) anode

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write the observation at the


(i) anode

(ii) cathode

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[ 2 marks ]

(d) At the end of experiment, what changes will take place at silver nitrate solution?

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows a graph of the volume of hydrogen gas produced against time for an
experiment to compare the reactivity of metals X and Y with dilute sulphuric acid.

(a) State one hypothesis for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) According to the experiment above, identify the


(i) manipulated variable

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) fixed variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) At 6th minute, which metal produces more hydrogen gas?

[ 1 mark ]
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(d) Based on your opinion, what is the volume of hydrogen gas produced by the metal Y at the
20th minute?

[ 1 mark ]

8. Diagram (a) and (b) shows an experiment to compare the reactivity of metals P and Q with
dilute hydrochloric acid.

(a) Predict the observation for the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

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(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the observation above.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State one controlled variable in this experiment

[1 mark ]

The graph below shows the result of the experiment above.

(d) (i)State the relationship between the volume of gas and the reaction time in the first two
minute.

(ii) Guess the volume of gas collected by the seventh minute of metal Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) What substance of metal Q might be?

[ 1 mark ]

9. Diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus to study the production of electrical energy
by a simple cell.

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(a) State which the plates act as the positive and negative terminals.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Determine the changes can be observed at the


(i) negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positive terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Write the chemical reaction that occurs at the


(i) negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) positive terminal:

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Explain how the galvanometer and the bulb function.

[ 2 marks ]

10. The diagram below shows an arrangement of apparatus of an experiment to study the
production of electricity from chemicals.

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Experiment is repeated by replacing the lead with other metal samples.


Readings of the voltmeter are observe in the experiment above and shows in table below.

Pair of metals Voltmeter reading


(V)
Zinc and nickel 0.2
Zinc and copper 1.4

(a) State the voltmeter reading for the lead and copper that shown in diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the function for dilute hydrochloric acid in this experiment?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Determine the responding variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Guess the readings of the voltmeter when a pair of copper metals is used in the experiment
above.

[ 1 mark ]

11. The diagram below shows the parts of a dry cell.

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(a) Determine the part that acts as


(i) the positive terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) the negative terminal

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the parts of the following below according the diagram above.
K:
L:
M:
N:
[4 marks ]

(c) State two disadvantage of this cell.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State two example of chemical cell that is same type of the cell above.

[ 2 marks ]

12. The diagram below shows the arrangement of apparatus of an experiment for the process of
electrolysis.

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(a) Write down the observation that will occur at


(i) anode

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Based on the answer of (a), explain how can this occur?
(i) anode

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) cathode

[ 1 mark ]

(c) How can you identify the answer of (c) in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the intensity change for the color of the copper chloride solution while the
experiment proceeds?

[ 1 mark ]

13. The diagram below shows a process which uses electric energy to split up lead bromide.

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(a) What is the process shown in the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) X and Y are two electrodes made of a certain material.


(i) What is the material?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Which is the negative electrode?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Why solid lead bromide cannot conduct electricity?

[ 1 mark]

(ii) What changes have to make on solid lead bromide in order to conduct electricity?

[ 1 mark]

(d) When the electricity is passed through, what are the ions that present in the molten lead
bromide?

[ 2 marks ]

(e) (i) Electrode P will release a gas. What gas is that?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Determine the properties of the gas released.

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[ 1 mark ]

(f) A product formed at electrode L is

[ 1 mark ]

14. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the reactivity of metals with oxygen.

(a) State the hypothesis about the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Based on the experiment, identify the


(i) fixed variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(ii) responding variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(iii) manipulated variable:

[ 1 marks ]

(c) What is the function of potasium permanganate?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) (i) What is the observation if the metal P is Magnesium?

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[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (d) (i).

[ 1 mark ]

(e) (i) What is the observation if the metal P is Copper?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) Explain the answer that you given in (e)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

15. The diagram below shows an experiment to study the effect of light on photographic paper.

(a) Draw the result of the photographic paper at the space below and labelled at the specific
part.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Based on the experiment above, identify


(i) fixed variable

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[ 1 mark ]

(ii) responding variable

[ 1 mark ]

(iii) manipulating variable

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Explain the result that you observe in (a).

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Write an equation of the experiment above.

[ 1 mark ]

16 The diagram below shows a process that related with light and chemical reaction.

Based on the diagram above, answer the following question.

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(a) What type of process can u describes based on the diagram above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Based on the answer you given in (a), explain the meaning of process.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Name the two stages that will involve in the process above.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Write an equation for the reaction above.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Explain one of the stages based on your given answer in (c).

[ 2 marks ]

CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY

1. The diagram below shows two detectors, P and Q which are used to locate the position of
water leakage in an underground pipe by adding some radioactive substance R, to the water.

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(a) Label parts P and Q in the diagram above.


[2 marks]

(b) Name radioactive substance R.

[1 mark]

(c) Explain how can Q enable us to detect the position of the leakage in the underground
pipe?

[1 mark]

(d) Why radioactive substance emitting gamma radiation is not added to the water?

[1 mark]

2. The diagram below shows the deflection of the radiations when passed through an electric
field. Radioactive substance placed in container P emits radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.

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(a) Name radioactive radiation X, Y and Z.


(i) X:
(ii) Y:
(iii) Z:
[3 marks]

(b) (i) What will happen to radiation Y?

[1 mark]

(ii) Give one reason for your answer in (b)(i).

[1 mark]

(c) Radiation X is deflected more than radiation Z. Why?

[1 mark]

(d) Radioactive substance is kept inside container P.


(i) What is substance is used to made container P?

[1 mark]

(ii) Explain your answer in (d)(i).

[1 mark]

3. The equation below shows the process of nuclear reaction between hydrogen isotopes.

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1
2
1 H 3
1 H 0n
+ +X

(a) Name the process represented by the above equation.

[1 mark]

(b) What is X?

[1 mark]

(c) What is the production of the above process?

[1 mark]

(d) State a place where the above process is happening most of the time.

[1 mark]

4. The diagram below shows the decay of a nucleus.

(a) The above process shows the decay of the radioactive atom. Why?

[1 mark]

(b) List three types of radioactive radiations that are emitted during the process of
radioactive decay.
1.
2.
3.
[1 mark]

(c) Which radiation will be deflected, if the above radioactive are radiated through an
electric field?

[1 mark]

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(d) Which radiation can go through it, if the above radioactive radiations are blocked by
a sheet if aluminium?

[1 mark]

(e) Name two characteristics of atom X and Y compared to the original radioactive atom.
1.
2.
[1 mark]

5. The diagram below shows one use of radioactive radiation.

(a) (i) What type of radioactive radiation used in the diagram above?

[1 mark]

(ii) Name the characteristics of the above radioactive radiation.

[1 mark]

(iii) State the use of the radioactive radiation as shown in the diagram above?

[1 mark]

(b) (i) What is equipment P?

[1 mark]

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(ii) State the function of equipment P.

[1 mark]

(c) Name the radioactive substance is used for detecting the effectiveness of fertilizers in the
field of agriculture.

[ 1 mark]

6. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminums factory.

(a) What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]

(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminums will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?

[1 mark]

(ii) is more than 600?

[1 mark]

(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.

[1 mark]

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(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?

[1 mark]

(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?

[1 mark]

7. The diagram below shows the use of radioactive substance to check the thickness of
aluminium produced in an aluminium factory.

(a) What radioactive radiation is emitted by the radioactive substance?

[1 mark]

(b) If the reading of the counter is within the range of 500 to 600, the thickness of the
aluminium will be accepted. State the inference can you make if the reading of the
counter
(i) is less than 500?

[1 mark]

(ii) is more than 600?

[1 mark]

(c) The radioactive substance stored in a lead container. Give one reason.

[1 mark]

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(d) (i) The worker handling the radioactive substance is required to wear badge X for safety
precaution. What is X?

[1 mark]

(ii) How do identify whether that a worker been exposed to radioactive radiation?

[1 mark]

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CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1. The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a convex lens.

(a) Complete the above diagram to show how an image is produced.


[1 mark]

(b) What are the characteristics of the image produced?

[1 mark]

(c) Name an instrument that uses the above diagram principle.

[1 mark]

(d) Draw a complete ray diagram to show how the image is produced, if the convex lens is
replaced with a concave lens of the same focal length,

[2 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows a convex lens and F is its focus point. An object X is placed
between F and 2F of the lens.

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(a) Describe the focus point of a convex lens.

[1 mark]

(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image.

[2 marks ]

(c) What is the measurement size of the image?

[1 mark]

(d) If object X is moved slightly further away from the lens, what will happen to the size of
the image?

[1 mark]

3. The diagram below shows a ray of white light projected onto a coloured screen through a
coloured filter.

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(a) Complete the table below to show the colours that appear on the screen.
Filter Screen The colour of
colours colours light that
appears on the
screen
Green Blue
Blue Magenta
Red Yellow
[3 marks ]

(b) Write down one inference that can be made from the above observation.

[2 marks ]

4. The diagram below shows the overlapping of lights from torches K, L and M on a white
manila card. Torches K, L and M will produce red, blue and green light respectively when
switched on.

(a) What colour of the light that appears on spot P?

[1 mark]

(b) Name the light that is formed on spot P when any two of the lights from torches K, L and
M are switched on.

[1 mark]

(c) (i) Which torches that need to switch on if spot P appear cyan?

[1 mark]

(ii) What is the complementary colour for cyan?

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[1 mark]

(d) (i) What colour will spot P appear if only torch L is switched on and the white manila
card is replaced by a yellow manila card?

[1 mark]

(ii) Give a reason for your answer to d(i).

[1 mark]

5. The diagram below shows the structure of the eye.

(a) Name the parts labelled as P, Q and R in the above diagram.


[3 marks ]

(b) What is the function of the part labelled as P?

[1 mark]

(c) Steven leaves a cinema hall after watching a movie film and the iris adjusts to the
situation when Steven steps out of the hall into the open bright daylight. Explain.

[1 mark]

(d) Make a comparison on how the eye and the camera focus on an object to produce a sharp
image.

[2 marks]

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CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY

1. The below diagram X and Y show the structures of an alloy and a pure metal.

(a) Which diagram shows the structure of


(i) a pure metal?

[1 mark]

(ii) an alloy?

[1 mark]

(b) Alloys are harder and stronger than pure metals. Explain.

[1 mark]

(c) (i) Name an alloy that can be formed from copper, antimony and tin.

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[1 mark]

(ii) What are the compositions of the alloy?

[1 mark]

(iii) State two uses of the alloy.

[1 mark]

2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the formation of rust by pure
iron and an alloy of iron.

(a) Predict the observation of both types of iron nails after three days.

[ 1 mark]

(b) Write down one inference can be made based on your answer in (a)?

[1 mark]

(c) State the variables of the experiment.


(i) Manipulated variable:

[1 mark]

(ii) Responding variable:

[1 mark]

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(iii) Constant variable:

[1 mark]

(d) What inference can be made from the experiment?

[1 mark]

3. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to compare the hardness of an alloy with
a pure metal.

The table below shows the result of the experiment obtained.


Depth of dent (cm)
Block 1 2 3 Average
Copper 1.6 1.4 1.5

Bronze 1.1 1.2 1.0

(a) Complete the above table.


[2 marks ]

(b) State the relationship between the depth of dent and the hardness of the material tested.

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[1 mark]

(c) Based on the experiment results, which block is harder?

[1 mark]

(d) State the composition of bronze.

[1 mark]

(e) Draw pattern formed by the constituent atoms for copper and bronze.

Copper Bronze
[1 mark]

4. The diagram below shows the pollution of a certain area.

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(a) Based on the above diagram, what is the main gas pollution?

[1 mark]

(b) State the effect if the gas is excess.

[1 mark]

(c) Describe the greenhouse effect.

[1 mark]

(d) Suggest one way to reduce the pollution of the area in the above diagram.

[1 mark]
CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMS AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS

1. The table shows results from the experiment to study the effects of pH level on bacterial
growth.

pH value Size of the bacteria


colony after 24 hours
(mm)
2 0
3 1
4 1.5
5 4
7 15
8 12
10 4
14 0

(a) State one hypothesis based on the observation from the table above.

[ 1 mark ]

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(b) Draw a graph to illustrate the relationship between the size of the bacteria colony and
the pH value based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Based on the graph from part (b) state the optimum pH value for bacterial growth.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Predict the size of the bacteria colony at pH value 6.

[ 1 mark ]

2. The diagram below shows an experiment carried out to study the effect of penicillin on
bacterial growth.

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Three penicillin discs X1, X2, and X3, with different concentrations are placed on the
37C
nutrient agar surface. The petri dish is incubated upside down at . After two days, a
clear area is formed around each disc. The diameter of the clear area is measured and
recorded in the table below:

Penicillin disc X1 X2 X3
Diameter of the 1.5 2.4 2.0
clear area/cm

(a) Based on the table above, state the disc that has the highest concentration of penicillin.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the hypothesis of this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the method to fix the controlled variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Penicillin is an antibiotic. Based on this experiment, give the operational definition of
antibiotic.

[ 1 mark ]

3. The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the effects of temperature on
bacterial growth.

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Temperature/ Size of bacteria colony


C after 24 hours/mm
0 2
15 5
25 10
35 15
60 3

(a) What is the hypothesis that can be stated from the table above?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) Illustrate a graph to show the relationship between the size of bacterial colony and
temperature for the table above.

(ii) What is the optimum temperature for bacterial growth?

(ii) What is the size of the bacterial colony that can be predicted at
80C ?

[ 4 marks ]

4. The graph below shows the change in the amount of antibodies in the body of a person
injected with a vaccine twice.

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(a) State the definition of vaccine.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State a disease that can be prevented through vaccination.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the process that happens in the body after vaccination.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Why is it necessary for the person to be vaccinated twice?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Name the type of immunity obtained from the graph above.

[ 1 mark ]
5. The table below shows an immunization programme of an infant.

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Age Immunization
After birth BCG
Hepatitis B (first dose)
1 month Hepatitis B (second dose)
3 months Poliomyelitis (first dose)
Triple Antigen (first dose)
4 months Poliomyelitis (second dose)
Triple Antigen (second dose)
5 months Poliomyelitis (third dose)
Triple Antigen (third dose)
Hepatitis B (third dose)
9 months Measles
18 months Triple Antigen (booster)

(a) What is immunization?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What type of immunity is obtained from the immunization programme shown in the
table above?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) How many times of injection the immunization for Hepatitis B is given?

(ii) Why is it necessary for the immunization in 2(c)(i) be given more than once?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Which of the immunization in the table above is given to prevent the infection of TB?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State the diseases that can be prevented through the Triple Antigen immunization.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) Why are there more than one immunization given to the infant?

[ 1 mark ]
6. The diagram below shows part of nitrogen cycle.

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(a) Complete the nitrogen cycle by stating the substances labelled P, Q, and R in the
diagram.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) In what form the nitrate must take to be absorbed by the plants?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the processes W and X.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What bacteria are involved in the processes labelled Y and Z?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) The microorganism that carries out process X is found in certain plants. State the part
of the plant that contains this microorganism.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) What is an example of a chemical fertilizer that is used by farmers to increase the
nitrate content of soil?

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows four different microorganisms.

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(a) Name the category of the microorganisms by completing the table below.
Microorganisms Categories
W
X
Y
Z
[ 4 marks ]

(b) What microorganism can cause diseases? State the diseases.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What are the two differences between W and X?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) Name the microorganism that can produce its own food. Why?

[ 2 marks ]

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8. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the study of the effect of antibiotics on
bacterial growth.

Three penicillin discs P, Q, and R of different concentrations and a tetracycline disc S were
placed on the surface of the nutrient agar containing bacteria culture. The petri dish was
37C
kept at a temperature of . After five days, a clear area was observed around each disc
and the diameter of each area was measured and recorded as shown in the table below.

Discs P Q R S
Diameter of 1.6 2.5 2.0 0.8
clear area (cm)

(a) Which disc has the highest concentration of penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Which antibiotic is more effective in preventing bacteria growth?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What microorganism is used to produce penicillin?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the fixed variable in this experiment and how to make it constant.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) State the effect of antibiotics on bacterial activity.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) What is the percaution that should be taken when carrying out this experiment?

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[ 1 mark ]

9. The diagram below shows the activity of decomposing bacteria at different temperatures in
food P.

(a) What is the range of temperature where bacteria grow and reproduce fast in food P.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State a range of temperature that is suitable to keep food P for long and in good
condition.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) 4C
The temperature in most refrigerators is .Why is meat unsuitable to be kept at this
temperature for more than 5 days?

[1 mark ]

(d) In what way bacteria reproduce at a temperature of:


20C
(i)

35C
(ii)

[2 marks ]

(e) Calculate the number of bacteria produced from one bacterium after 5 hours, if the
bacterium reproduces every 30 minutes.

[2 marks ]

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10. The diagram below show the life cycle of a mosquito.

(a) In the life cycle of a mosquito, what is stage P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Name the place that a female mosquito lays her eggs.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Define the term vector.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) In what way mosquitoes can be controlled at


(i) the adult stage and

(ii) at stage P? State one way for each stage.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) What is the microorganism carried by mosquitoes and the disease it causes?

[ 2 marks ]

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(f) Elaborate the way this disease is spread.

[ 2 marks ]
CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION

1. The graph below shows the average consumption of calories by people from countries P and Q.

(a) Which country's population would have lower risk of suffering from arteriosclerosis?
Why?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State two classes of food that are supplied by cereals.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the consumption of sugar (g) by the population from country Q? (Calorific value
of carbohydrates: 16.7 kJ)

[ 2 marks ]

(d) What are the reasons that the population from country Q is more likely to suffer from
dental caries?

[ 2 marks ]

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2 The table below shows the energy content of five common types of daily food. The columns P.
Q, R, and S show the percentage of four classes of food in each type of food.

Food Ener P Q R S
s gy (%) (%) (%) (%)
(kJ/1
00 g)
Beef 1 400 23.0 55.0 - 20.0
Butte 3 200 0.6 17.0 - 83.0
r
Milk 290 3.1 90.0 4.7 3.5
Potat 370 2.0 82.0 16.0 -
oes
Tuna 700 18.0 70.0 - 12.0

(a) What is the food that has


(i) the lowest energy content?

(ii) the highest energy content?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Study the table above carefully and identify the letters that represents fats and
carbohydrates. Provide a reason for each choice.
Fats -
Reason:

Carbohydrates -
Reason:

[ 4 marks ]

(c) State the two types of food that is suitable for an adult doing heavy work.

[ 2 marks ]

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3. The diagram below shows the instrument used to measure the energy content in food.

(a) State the name of this instrument.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Label the place where food is placed inside the instrument with the letter 'F'.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What is the gas that passes through tube P and its purpose?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State the changes of the water inside the instrument.

[ 1 mark ]

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4. The diagram below shows apparatus used in the experiment to study the nutrients required for
plant growth.

(a) State the following:


(i) Manipulated variables

(ii) Responding variables

(iii) Fixed variables

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Why do the boiling tubes need to be aerated every day?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State two observations that can be noted on boiling tube Y after 5 days.

[ 2 marks ]

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(d) Why is boiling tube Z prepared?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows a simple apparatus used in the laboratory to calculate the calorific
value of food.

(a) What is the definition of the term 'calorific value of food'?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What are the fixed and responding variables for the calorific values of different types of
food using the same appartus?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Calculate the calorific value of groundnuts if the mass of groundnuts used is 10 g, mass
30C
of water used is 10 g, and temperature at the beginning of the experiment is at the
end of experiment is
85C .

[ 2 marks ]

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6. Table 1 below shows the types of food consumed by a student for breakfast. Table 2 that
follows shows the calorific values for three different types of food groups.

Table 1
Types of Quantity (g) Quantity of food groups (g)
food
1 glass of 100 g 29.0 g protein
milk 41.2 g carbohydrates
29.8 g fat
2 pieces of 200 g 200 g carbohydrates
bread
1 tablespoon 30 g 30 g carbohydrates
of jam

Table 2
Food group Calorific value (kcal)
1 gramme carbohydrates 4
1 gramme fat 9
1 gramme protein 4

(a) Based on the table above, calculate the total calorific value of the food consumed by the
student.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Is the food eaten for breakfast a balance diet? Give reasons for your answer.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What diseases are caused a diet lacked in


(i) protein?

(ii) vitamin A?

[ 2 marks ]

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(d) What happens when an individual consumes an excessive amount of carbohydrates over
a long period of time? Give reasons for your explanation.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The information below is a report from an agriculture officer after his investigation regarding
complaints from a group of dairy farmers.

There is an increase in the number of a certain type of insect which


feeds on clover plants in the fields.
The decrease in clover plants resulted in a drop in milk production and
subsequently loss of weight among cows.
Alternative methods using chemical substances can be carried out to
increase the fertility of soil.

(a) State the cycle involved from the information above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the importance of the clover plants.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the compound that is present in the body of the cows?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name the compound that is lacking in the fields.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Name an example of the chemical substance suggested by the officer.

[ 1 mark ]

8. The table below shows the calorific values of a few types of food.

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Types of food Calorific value (kJ/100 g)

White bread 1 134


Tea with milk 50
Fried potatoes 2 390
Fried chicken 1 630
Butter cake 3 000

(a) Based on the table shown above, calculate the total calories consumed by a student
according to the amount of food consumed by completing the table below.
Types of Quantity Calculation of calorific values (kJ)
food consumed (g)
White 150
bread
Tea with 100
milk
Fried 75
potatoes
Fried 150
chicken
Butter cake 120
Total
[ 5 marks ]

(b) Name the type of food that gives the most amount of energy.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Identify if the student is consuming a balaced diet. Give explanation for your answer.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) A nutritionist suggested that the student should include vegetables and fruits in his diet.
What are the two classes of food that is found in vegetables and fruits.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) If the student continues to consume this type of food for 15 years, what are the two types
of diseases he is most likely to suffer from.

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[ 2 marks ]

CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONVERSION OF THE ENVIRONMENT

1. The diagram below shows a habitat in the ecosystem of a pond.

(a) Complete the diagram above using the words provided below:
Producer Primary consumer
Secondary consumer
[ 3 marks ]

(b) State the role played by the organisms labelled (ii).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Illustrate a food chain found in the pond shown above.

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[ 2 marks ]

(d) Describe what happens when water rich in minerals flows into the pond.

[ 2 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows layer X in the stratosphere.

(a) What is layer X?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the distance of Z from the Earth's surface?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Name the chemical substance that causes layer X to become thinner?

(ii) Identify one item that used daily by humans that contains this ubstance.

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[ 2 marks ]

(d) (i) Name the space that is marked Y.

(ii) Name the ray from the sun that can pass through layer X.

[ 2 marks ]

(e) List two effects on humans when layer X becomes thinner.

[ 2 marks ]

3. The diagrams below show three daily activities carried out by humans.

(a) What are the three activities shown in the diagrams above?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Name the type of pollution that is caused by activities shown in (i) and (ii).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Name two gases released by the activity done in (i) and state their effects on aquatic
organisms.

[ 3 marks ]

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(d) State a reason for carrying out activity (iii).

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows apparatus used to study the interaction between organisms.

(a) (i) Which airtight jar containing the grasshopper would die first?

(ii) Explain your answer in (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State one precaution that should be taken into consideration when conducting this
experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

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(c) What is the role of the plant in airtight jar Q to maintain a balanced ecosystem?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) (i) Would the same results be obtained if this experiment is conducted in a dark room?

(ii) Explain your answer in part (d)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

5. The diagram below shows part of an industrial area.

(a) What are the five sources of pollution shown in the diagram above?

[ 5 marks ]

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(b) List the three pollutants that are released from the chemical factory.

[ 3 marks ]

(c) How are the pollutants harmful to humans and plants?

[ 2 marks ]

6. The diagram below shows that the balance in nature can be maintained by various natural
cycle.

(a) Name the cycle shown in the diagram above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What are the processes labeled P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

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(c) Why is this natural cycle important to living organisms?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the simplest carbon compound that is released from the factory?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State the effects on the environment when there is no control of process R.

[ 2 marks ]

7. The diagram below illustrates a nitrogen cycle.

(a) Name the substances labeled X and Y.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What is process Q that changes plant protein to substance X?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) What type of bacteria is P?

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(ii) Explain the role of bacteria P.

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State two natural processes that can increase the level of nitrates in the soil.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State one human activity that causes nitrogen levels in the soil to decrease.

[ 1 mark ]

(f) A farmer uses urea to fertilize his farm excessively. What is the effect of this activity on
the balance of nature?

[ 1 mark ]

8. The table below shows the number of patients suffering from three types of diseases in area P
in 1990 and 1993. During this period, the number of people living in this area doubled.

Types of Number of Number of


disease patients patients
(1990) (1993)
Bronchitis 30 100
Asthma 15 70
Cholera 10 40

(a) (i) What are two human activities that might cause the migration of people to this area?

(ii) Give a harmful effect for each of this activity.

(iii) State one method each to overcome the problems stated in part (a)(ii).

[ 6 marks ]

(b) What are the two pollutants found in the air in area P?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the type of pollution and its source that causes a rise in cholera cases in area P?

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[ 2 marks ]

CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUNDS

1. The diagram below shows the interchangibility between polymers and monomers.

(a) What are two examples of natural polymers and identify the monomer that forms them?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What are processes X and Y shown in the diagram above?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State a word equation for an example of process X.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Synthetic rubber is a useful synthetic polymer.


(i) What is the property of synthetic rubber that makes it suitable for use as oil tank liners
or oil hoses?

(ii) What synthetic rubber that is similar to natural rubber and can be vulcanized?

[ 2 marks ]
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2. The diagram below shows the process involved in the production of vulcanized rubber and latex
paste.

(a) What is substance W that is added to latex to speed up the process of coagulation?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) If substance W is not added to latex, the latex still coagulates after one day. Explain your
observation.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Name substance Y that is added to latex to prevent the coagulation process so that the latex
can be concentrated into latex paste.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is substance X that is used in the production of vulcanized rubber?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Name one product Z that is made from vulcanized rubber. What are two characteristics of
vulcanized rubber that is suitable for producing product Z?

[ 2 marks ]

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3. The diagram below shows the apparatus used to prepare alcohol in the laboratory.

(a) Name substance P that is added to the glucose solution.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What is the enzyme that is produced by P? State its function in the fermentation process.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the type of alcohol that is produced.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) In what way alcohol is separated from the fermentation mixture?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) What are the two characteristics that the flame produced if alcohol is burned?

[ 2 marks ]

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4. The diagram below shows the apparatus used in the laboratory during the preparation of soap.

(a) What vegetable oil and alkali that can be used in the preparation of soap?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the role of concentrated alkali in the process of producing soap.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) What is the purpose of adding common salt to the mixture in this process?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) In what way can we test the filtrate collected is soap?

[ 1 mark ]

(e) Illustrate a structure of the soap molecule and identify the part that is soluble in:
(i) water

(ii) grease

[ 2 marks ]

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5. The diagram below shows a laboratory process of extracting a type of oil.

(a) What is step P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the function of step P.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) In the large scale preparation of the oil, identify the step after the filtration step.

[ 1 marks ]

(d) (i) What is filtrate L?

(ii) Name the vitamins that are found in L.

[ 3 marks ]

(e) The diagram below shows the structure of an oil palm fruit.

(i) Identify the three parts of the fruit in the diagram above.

[ 3 marks ]
(ii) What part of the fruit produces a lot of liquid L?

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[ 1 mark ]

CHAPTER 13 : MOTION

1. The diagram below shows a load, WN placed on the piston of syringe P. Load FN is placed on
the piston of syringe Q to balance the motion. The value of load F is recorded and the cross-
sectional area of syringe Q is measured. The experiment is repeated by using syringe Q with
different cross-sectional areas.

The table below shows the data obtained from the experiment.
Cross-sectional area 0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10
2
of syringe Q/m
Load F/N 11 23 32 44 55

(a) State the characteristic of liquid X that enables it to be used in the experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) Draw a graph of load F against the cross-sectional area of syringe Q based on the table
shown above.

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(ii) Determine the pressure transmitted through the liquid from the graph in part (c)(i).

[ 3 marks ]

2. The diagram P below shows an experiment to study the effect of force produced by a wooden
block when it is dropped from different heights where identical wooden blocks X, Y, and Z are
dropped onto the rods placed on the surface of the plasticine.
The diagram Q below shows the depth of the rods entering the plasticine caused by wooden
blocks X, Y, and Z.

(a) State the fixed variable in this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) In what way force is measured in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]

(c) Based on the observation in the experiment, give one inference that can be derived from
this experiment.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Identify the wooden block that will produce the largest momentum just before colliding
with the plasticine.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) State a device that operates using this same principle.

[ 1 mark ]

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3. The diagram below shows a ticker tape that has been obtained from the movement of a trolley
on a tilted platform. The trolley took 6 seconds to go from the top of the platform to the bottom.

The table below shows data about the ticker tape above.

Section of the 1 2 3 4
ticker tape
Length of
section/cm 2.0 _____ 4.0 5.0

(a) Determine the length of Section 2 of the ticker tape and record it in the table above.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) Draw a bar chart based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) Based on the graph in part (b), identify the type of movement made by the trolley.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Section 5 of the ticker tape follows section 4 also represents a 1 second interval. State

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your prediction for the length of Section 5 in cm, based on the diagram above.

[ 1 marks ]

4. The diagram below shows the arrangement of an apparatus to study the motion of a trolley
down a runway.

The ticker timer is connected to a 50 Hz alternating current power pack. The diagram below
shows the ticker tape obtained from the experiment.

(a) A student observed the dots made on the ticker tape. He made a conclusion that the trolley
moved at uniform velocity. State a reason for his conclusion.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) The ticker tape shows 5 ticks when the trolley moved from X to Y.
(i) State the definition of 'tick'.

(ii) What is the uniform velocity of the trolley?

[ 3 marks ]

(c) The trolley moves down the runway with uniform acceleration. Mark the dots shown on
the ticker tape in the diagram below.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) The tape chart below shows the motion of a trolley down a runway. What is the motion of
the trolley?

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[ 1 mark ]
5. The diagram below shows a ship floating in water that sails without sinking.

(a) (i) What is the upward force that acts on the ship?

(ii) What is the principle that describes the action of the upward force?

[ 2 marks ]

The diagram below shows the level of the ship in fresh water.

(b) (i) On the diagram above, indicate the level of the ship if it sails in sea water.

(ii) State your reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State why a ship can float in the sea.

[ 1 mark ]

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(d) The body of a ship is marked with horizontal lines to indicate the maximum permissible
load in a ship when it sails in different regions and seasons. Give the name of this
horizontal line.

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows an object placed on top of a car that travels at uniform velocity.

(a) The driver pressed the break pedal when a man was crossing the road.
(i) What is the effect on the object on top of the car?

(ii) State a reason for the answer given in part (a)(i).

[ 2 marks ]

(b) What are the two safety features that can be used in a car to reduce the negative effects of
inertia during an accident?

[ 2 marks ]

(c) The shape of a car is designed to reduce air resistance. In what way a car is shaped?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) A car does not use spark plugs. State the type of engine used in this car.

[ 1 mark ]

7. The diagram below shows a steady flow of water through a tube.

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(a) Indicate the level of water in tubes P, Q, and R in the diagram above.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) Make a comparison of the pressure of water on points X and Z.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) (i) State the reason for the water to rise in tubes A, B, and C.

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Indicate the level of water in tubes A, B, and C.

[ 2 marks ]

8. The diagram below shows a stroke of a four stroke diesel engine.

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(a) (i) State the stroke in the diagram above.

(ii) How the air is affected inside the cylinder?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) (i) State P.

(ii) The structure of a four stroke petrol engine is similar to that of a four stroke diesel
engine expect that it contains Q instead of P. Name Q.

[ 2 marks ]

(c) State the number of revolutions that is made by the crankshaft in a complete stroke cycle.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Why does the car engine normally consists of four cylinders?

[ 1 mark ]

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CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1. The table below shows three types of processed food.

Types of food Chicken meat Groundnuts Potatoes

Name of food X Y Z

Method of food
processing

(a) What is the method of food processing for foods X, Y, and Z?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) Describe the method of processing food X.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) State the difference between the methods used in processing foods Y and Z.

2. Complete the table below:

Chemical used in food Examples Used in Functions


processing
Boric acid Prevents food from spoiling
Flavouring Soups
and
sauces
Palm sugar Cakes
Emulsifier Ice
cream
Tocopherol Butter
(vitamin E) and
biscuits

[ 5 marks ]

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3. The diagram below shows the food label for Tijace tomato sauce.

(a) State the two information that should be on this food label to fulfil all the conditions of the
Food Regulations 1985.

[ 2 marks ]

(b) State the action that can be taken by consumers if the information on a food label is not
complete.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) What are the chemicals present in Tijace tomato sauce?

[ 2 marks ]

(d) State the functions of the chemicals listed in part (c).

[ 2 marks ]

4. The table below shows types of food that is processed using a particular method of food
processing.

Types of food Method of food


processing
Beef W
Cabbage X
Anchovies Y
Fresh cow's milk Z

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(a) What is the purpose of food processing?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) What method of food processing is used for W, X, Y, and Z?

[ 4 marks ]

(c) State the method of food processing used in W.

[ 1 mark ]

(d) Name one benefit of the method of food processing used in X.

[ 1 mark ]

(e) (i) How is the method of food processing done in Z?

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the benefit of method Z?

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below shows four ways of increasing the quality and quantity of food
production.

(a) Modern technology such as genetic engineering increases the quality of food produce. In

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what way is genetic engineering carried out?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) List three characteristics of quality breeds.

[ 3 marks ]

(c) (i) What are two government agencies that are involved in agricultural research?

(ii) Give an example of crops produced by these agencies.

[ 4 marks ]

(d) What type of education and guidance can the Ministry of Agriculture provide for
farmers?

[ 1 mark ]

6. The diagram below shows a bread wrapper with incomplete information

(a) Based on the Food Act 1983 and Food Regulations 1985, list all of the missing
information from the food label shown above.

[ 3 marks ]

(b) (i) What is the most important data needed in part (a) when buying this bread?

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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Give one reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) If this bread is consumed in excess for 2 years, state the effect of it on consumer's health.

[ 1 mark ]

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CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1. Complete the table below:

Names of Types of Monomers One use of plastic


plastic plastic
Perspex Methyl
metacrylate
Thermosetts Making glue and electric insulator
Polypropene Thermoplastic
Styrene Making food packaging containers

[ 8 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows a flow chart for synthetic polymers.

(a) What are synthetic polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(b) What is the monomer for polymers P, Q, and R?

[ 3 marks ]

(c) Give one use for polymers P, Q, and R.

[ 3 marks ]

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CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION


TECHNOLOHY (ICT)

1. The diagram below shows part of the set-up of an experiment to study the relationship
between the wavelength and frequency of radio waves. Radio waves produced by an
oscillator circuit is connected to an oscilloscope.

The diagram below illustrates the wavelength of the radio wave on the screen of the
oscilloscope when its frequency is 1.5 x 108 Hz.

(a) In what way are the radio waves produced by the circuit shown in diagram P?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) State the length of the radio wave shown in diagram Q.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) The experiment is repeated by varying the variable capacitor. The table below shows the
results of this experiment.

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Frequency / 30.0 10.0 7.5 6.0 5.0


x 107 Hz
Wavelength 1 3 4 5 6
/m

(i) What is the responding variable in this experiment?

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) Illustrate the graph of the wave length against frequency based on the table above.

[ 2 marks ]

2. The diagram below shows the block diagram for a radio transmission system.

(a) (i) What is P?

(ii) What is the wave that is produced by P?

[ 2 marks ]

(b) The radio transmits amplitude modulated frequency waves. Illustrate the wave that is
transmitted by the aerial.

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[ 2 marks ]

(c) The modulated frequency wave is amplified by an amplifier. What is an essential


electronic component in the amplifier?

[ 1 mark ]

(d) What is the difference between the waves transmitted through the aerial in comparison to
the waves that enter the microphone?

[ 1 mark ]

3. The diagram below shows a simple radio receiver circuit used to receive frequency modulated
radio broadcasting.

(a) Illustrate the waves received by the aerial.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) State the function of diode.

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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) In what way the waves changes when passed through the capacitor?

[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Illustrate the waves that pass through X.

[ 1 mark ]

(c) An electronic component is connected to box Y.


[ 1 mark ]
(i) Illustrate the symbol for the electronic component in box Y.

[ 1 mark ]
(ii) What is the function of the electronic component in box Y?

[ 1 mark ]

4. The diagram below shows two earth satellite stations and a communication satellite.

(a) State the function of the communication satellite.

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) What type of electromagnetic wave that is transmitted from the earth satellite station?

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[ 1 mark ]
(ii) State a reason for your answer in part (b)(i).

[ 1 mark ]

(c) The communication satellite is called a geostationary satellite.


(i) What is the reason that a communication satellite is called geostationary satellite?

[ 1 mark ]

(ii) What is the minimum number of satellites to enable communication around the
world?

[ 1 mark ]
(iii) Illustrate the arrangement of satellites that allows communication around the world.

[ 1 mark ]

5. The diagram below show the location of X in an electromagnetic spectrum.

X Infrared ray Visible ray Ultraviolet X-ray Gamma ray


ray

(a) What component of the electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength?

[ 1 mark ]

(b) (i) What is X?

(ii) Calculate the wavelength when the frequency of X is 1.5 x 109 Hz. (The velocity of
the electromagnetic wave is 3 x 108 ms-1)

[ 3 marks ]

(c) X is used in a radio transmission system.


(i) State the name of X in the radio transmission system.

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(ii) Audio signals are combined with X and Y before they are transmitted. Name Y.

[ 2 marks ]

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SCHEME

CHAPTER 1
1B 2C 3C 4A 5D 6D 7D 8D 9A 10 B
11 B 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 B
21 D 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 D 28 C 29 30

CHAPTER 2
1C 2B 3A 4D 5A 6A 7C 8D 9C 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 D 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D

CHAPTER 3
1D 2D 3B 4A 5B 6D 7 B 8B 9B 10 D
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 A
21 D 22 D 23 A 24 B 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C 29 A 30 D

CHAPTER 4
1A 2A 3A 4D 5C 6D 7C 8C 9D 10 A
11 B 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 C

CHAPTER 5
1C 2B 3C 4C 5B 6A 7C 8D 9C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 C
21 D 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 C

CHAPTER 6
1C 2C 3D 4D 5A 6A 7B 8D 9A 10 B
11 D 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 B
21 D 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 B 30

CHAPTER 7
1B 2D 3B 4C 5B 6A 7B 8B 9B 10 C
11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 D 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 C

CHAPTER 8
1D 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 C 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

CHAPTER 9
1B 2C 3B 4C 5C 6C 7D 8C 9A 10 C
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11 D 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 A
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 D

CHAPTER 10
1C 2D 3B 4B 5A 6D 7C 8A 9B 10 B
11 D 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 A 20 D
21 D 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 D 26 C 27 A 28 A 29 D 30 C

CHAPTER 11
1B 2C 3D 4B 5D 6D 7C 8B 9D 10 B
11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 26 27 28 29 30

CHAPTER 12
1B 2A 3C 4C 5D 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 C
11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 C

CHAPTER 13
1B 2D 3B 4D 5A 6A 7A 8D 9C 10 A
11 D 12 A 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 D 29 D 30 B

CHAPTER 14
1C 2D 3B 4B 5B 6D 7C 8D 9B 10 B
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 D
21 C 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 D 28 D 29 C 30 C

CHAPTER 15
1B 2B 3D 4D 5A 6A 7D 8D 9C 10 C
11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 C 23 B 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

CHAPTER 16
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 D 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 C
11 A 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 A 20 D
21 B 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 B

SCHEME PAPER 2
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CHAPTER 1 : SCIENTIFIC INVESTIGATION

1.
a) -3C
b) The added of the salt will affect the freezing point of the pure water
c) The freezing point of water that added salt is -3C
d) (i) Quantity of the salt added
(ii) Freezing point of the pure water

2.
0 .5
a) (i) = 0.25 gcm-3
2
6
(ii) = 2.0 g cm-3
3
b) The cork float on the liquid / the iron sink in the liquid
c) An object which is less denser than a liquid will float on the surface liquid

3.
a) The seeds will sprout if have oxygen, water and the suitable temperature
b) (i) type and size of the seeds used
(ii) Sprout of the seeds
(iii) Different factor given (presence or absence water oxygen and temperature.
c) (i) the seeds in test tube B will not sprout
(ii) Because the layer of oil isolation the seeds with the oxygen

4.
a) Build a histogram
b) 32
c) 50-54
12
d) x100 37.5%
32

5.
a) 9.90s, 15.65s, 19.50s
b) The shorter the length of pendulum, the more time used for 10 oscillation
c) (i) The angle of the oscillation
(ii)The time used for 10 oscillations
(iii)The length of pendulum

6.
a) The temperature increase based on the increase in the time
b) The temperature increase if the amount of heater supply increase
c) The mass or volume of water.
d) The temperature of every 3 minutes will decrease

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7.
a) The extension of the weight load increase will cause the extension of the spring
increase
b) (i) Extension of spring
(ii)weight of load
c) (i) a graph weight vs extension
(ii) There are positive or direct relationship between the weight of load and the
extension of spring

8.
a) (i) 3.8 cm3
(ii) 4.8 cm3
b) 200 drops = 1cm3
1 drop = 0.005cm3
c) 5 x 10-5 or 0.00005

9.
a) 50 cm3
b) 8cm3
c) 6.25gcm-3
d) The cork will float on the water because the water with a density of 4.0

10.
a) 102C
b) The added of the salt will affect the boiling point of the pure water
c) (i) Boiling point of the pure water
(ii) Quantity of salt added

11.
a) There are a negative relationship between the pressure of gas and the volume of gas.
The higher the pressure of gas the lower the volume of gas
b) (i) Amount of gas
(ii)volume of gas
(iii)pressure of gas

12.
a) Time used to dissolves the sugar depend on the temperature of the water
b) The higher temperature of water, the less time is used to dissolves the sugar
c) (i) volume of water and amount of sugar
(ii)temperature of water
(iii)time is used to dissolves

13.
a) (i) identifying the variables
(ii) planning the investigation
(iii) collecting data
b) Avoid misconception and misinterpretations, think critically and creatively
c) Being fair and just, being objective

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14.
a) (i) volume of water, the size of the test tube
(ii)number of lead shots
(iii)the depth of test tube sink in water
b) To study how the depth of water in which the test tubes sink in the water is depends on
the number of lead shots
c) The more of number of lead shots the depther the test tube will sink in the water.

15.
a) Planning this investigation is a scientific process used to examine the effect of
changing one variable on another variables
b) Control variables, determine the procedure
c) The aim of the experiment, operational definition.

CHAPTER 2 : BODY COORDINATION

1.
a) Reaction time number of student in group
10 - 49 2
50 - 99 3
100 - 149 4
150 - 199 1

b) Histogram number of student vs reaction time


c) Proprioceptors
d) Coordinate the movement and maintain balance

2.
a) Two neurons
b) Motor neuron, sensory neuron
c) Receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector
d) The leg is straighted automatically

3.
a) motor neuron
b) transmits impulses from the central nervous system to effectors
c) myelin sheath
d) speeds up the transmission of impulses, and a fatty structure which protects axon.

4.
a) Reaction sensory organ involved
Feel cold skin
Sharp smell of sour nose
Sweet taste tongue
Movie is see eyes

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Music is hear ears

b) Stimuli receptors central nervous system effectors responses

5.
a) Plays role in controlling movement, maintaining balance and keeping posture.
b) Cerebellum
c) Voluntary action is an action which is controlled under conscious control. Example of
voluntary action is writing
d) Injuries to cerebrum can cause a loss os memory and senses.

6.
a) P : medulla oblongata Q : cerebellum R : cerebrum
b) Controls voluntary actions, reasoning, learning, memory and intelligence
c) Heartbeat, peristalsis

7.
a) Motor neuron, relay neuron, sensory neuron
b) Synapse
c) To allow the impulse to flow in one direction only

8.
a) Endocrine glands are ductless glands which secrete hormones directly into the
bloodstream
b) Thyroid gland and pancreas
c) P : stimulate many other endocrine glands and stimulates growth
Q : conversion of glucose into glycogen

9.
a) Proprioceptor
b) Coordinates the movement and maintain balance
c) Muscles, tendons, ligaments

10.
a) X : spinal cord Y : spinal nerves
b) Central nervous system : control of the nervous system
Peripheral nervous system : consist of nerves that enter and leave the brain and spinal
cord
c) Coordinates the body activities by sending message in the form of impulse in response
to stimuli

11.
a) X : dendrite Y : spinal nerves
b) Name the neuron that shows at the diagram
c) Diagram of impulse from left to right

12.
a) Cerebrum
b) P : thought and reasoning Q : movement of limbs

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R : sight S : hearing

13.
a) Ears, skin
b) Voluntary action
c) Reading and writing

14.
a) Voluntary action is an action which is under conscious control
b) Breathing, sneezing
c) Voluntary action involuntary action
Controlled by cerebrum controlled by medulla oblongata
Action under conscious control action not under conscious control

15.
a) Pancreas
b) Insulin
c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver
d) Low blood glucose level and weakness

16.
a) P : Effector Q : motor neuron R : sensory neuron
b) Receptor --- sensory neuron --- relay neuron --- motor neuron --- effector

17.
a) X : cell body
b) The nucleus controls all the activities in the neuron
c) Relay neuron sensory neuron
The length of dendron long
The length of axon short

18.
a) X : Relay neuron Y : effector Z : receptor
b) Help us to avoid serious injuries
c) The people will not be able withdrawal he fingers immediately

19.
a) Q : Gigantism R : dwarfism
b) Growth hormone
c) Stimulates growth
d) Pituitary gland

20.
a) Pituitary gland
b) Produces hormones which stimulate many other endocrine gland
c) Growth hormone
d) Under secretion : dwarfism : over secretion

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21.
a) Thyroxin gland
b) Thyroxin
c) Control the rate of metabolism
d) Sensitivity to cold, simple goiter

22.
a) Adrenal glands
b) Adrenaline
c) Prepares the body for actions during emergencies
d) Chromic fatigue, cushings syndrome

23.
a) Located at each side of the uterus
b) Estrogen, progesterone
c) Estrogen : development of female secondary sexual
Progesterone : regulate the menstrual cycle and play an important role in preparing
the body for pregnancy

24.
a) Scrotums
b) Protect the testes
c) Testosterone
d) Development of male secondary sexual charactreristics
e) Underdevelopment of secondary sexual aharacteristics.

25.
a) Drugs are chemical substances which can affect our nervous system
b) Nicotine, cocaine
c) Impair muscular coordination, distort perceptions.

CHAPTER 3 : HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1.
a) Draw a histogram
b) Continuous variation
c) There is a complete range of measurements from one extreme to another
Has a normal distribution

2.
a) Discontinuous variation
b) Type of hair and blood group
c) Genetic and environmental

3.
a) Identical twins

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b) Fertilization
c) Contain exactly the same genetic information / have the identical sex and other similar
characteristics
d) Identical sex, boy or girl

4.
a) Meiosis
b) Crossing over
c) Crossing over is a process occurring during meiosis in which a pair of homologous
chromosomes exchange genetic material
d) No
e) Two

5.
a) Twins P : identical twins Twins Q : non-identical twins
b) Two fetuses develop in mothers uterus at the same time
c) In terms of identical twins non-identical twins
Number of ovum involved one two
Sex of twin same might be same or fifty
Genetic information same different

6.
a) Selective breeding is the crossing of two parents each with some good traits so as
produce offspring that process the good traits of both parents
b) Paddy or papaya
c) Improve the nutritional values / lower import and higher will help to boost the
economy of the country

7.
a) Downs syndrome
b) Chromosome mutation
c) 21
d) Short necks / flat cheeks

8.
a) Meiosis
b) Ovaries and testes
c) Divides into four daughter cells, only half the chromosome number of parents cell.

9.
a) Bb , Bb, Bb, Bb
b) Tallness
c) Left-handed, straight hair

10.
a) Process X is meiosis
Process Y is fertilisation
b) Boy

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c) The 22 + X sperm fertilizes an 22 + X ovum, the zygote formes will be 44 + XX


and the zygote G will be a girl

11.
a) RR, Rr, Rr, rr
b) 3:1
c) Red flowers
d) A person who has two identical genes for a characteristics

12.
a) W : deletion X : duplication Y : inversion
Z : attachment to a different chromosome
b) Chromosome mutations refer to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes
and the such changes occur as a result of errors in cell division.

13.
a) X : gene Y : DNA Z : chromosome
b) Genes are units of inheritance that determine the characteristics of an individual.
c) 8

14.
a) Gene mutations
b) Colour-blindness / albinism
c) Mutation is a change which occurs spontaneously on genes or chromosomes. There
are two types of mutations, namely chromosome mutation and gene mutation

15.
a) Mitosis
b) Divides into two identical cells exactly the same number and kind of chromosomes as
parent cell
c) Centromere splits, each chromatid is now a chromosome. The chromosome are pulled
to the apposite poles at the cell. This is called polarization.

16.
a) Parent cell divide to produce daughter cells
Important for inheritance
Each chromosome only double once

b) In term of mitosis meiosis


Number of chromosome same as the parent cell half of the number
chromosomes in the
parent cell
number of time one two
cytoplasm divides

17.
a) Color blindness and hemophilia
b) Produce an individual with characteristics that are different form the rest

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Enable more resistant to disease


Able to adopt better to changes in the environment
Ensure the survival of a species

18.
a) Turners syndrome
b) Fails to develop normal secondary sexual characteristic and sterile
c) Female
d) Tuners syndrome has only one sex chromosome and klinefelters syndrome have three
sex chromosome

19.

a) P : Cc Q : Cc R : Cc S : Cc
b) Straight hair
c) 4 : 0
d) Discontinuous variation

20.
a) Identical twins non-identical twins
Number of zygote formed one two
Genetic information same different

b) Siamese twins are joined of some parts of their bodies


Siamese twins contain exactly the same genetic information
c) Iris color / blood group

21.
a) Chromosome mutation
b) Males
c) Klineefelters syndrome is caused by the presence of three sex chromosomes
d) Radioactive gamma lays and toxic chemicals

22.
a) Histogram for number of students vs group of thumb prints
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Continuous variation discontinuous variation
Quantitative characters qualitative characters
Influenced by genetic factors influenced by genetic factors
Environmental factors
23.
a) Gametes : X baby : XY phenotype : boy
With normal color vision, color blindness boy
b) 25 %

24.
a) Family tree
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Certain characteristics can be passed down from one generation to another

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d) Enables us to different individuals of the same species allow selective breeding to be


carried out

CHAPTER 4 : MATTER AND SUBSTANCE

CHAPTER 5 ENERGY AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

1.
a) P : Anode
Q : Cathode
b) (i) Increase
(ii) Copper
(iii) Become thinner
c) This is because the copper at the anode dissolves to form copper ions, but copper ions
are also deposited at the anode.
d) Rotating the spoon at the uniform rate

2.
a) Metals with different reactivitys show different reactivitys show different reaction
with oxygen.
b) (i) Oxygen gas
(ii) Activity of the reaction
(iii) type of metal
c) (i) X + oxygen ------ oxide of X
(ii) Y + oxygen ------- oxide of Y
(iii) Z + oxygen ------ oxide of Z
d) Y, X , Z
e) X : Aluminium Y : Magnesium Z : Copper

3.
a) X : Tin ore / cassiterite
Y : Limestone
b) Hot air
c) Product P : Molten slag
Product Q : Molten tin
d) Calcium carbonate ------- calcium oxide + carbon dioxide

4.
a) Electroplating
b) The copper piece is the anode and the iron nails is the cathode
c) To transfer electric current from copper piece to the iron nail.
d) At the anode, copper piece dissolve in the copper sulphate solution and become copper
ions.

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At the cathode, copper ion in the copper sulphate solution are discharge and become
copper atoms which are attached on the iron nail
e) The concentration of the blue copper sulphate solution will remains unchanged.

5.
a) Cassiterite
b) Limestone is used to absorb and removes the impurities in the ore
c) Tin oxide + carbon ------ tin + carbon dioxide
d) Because aluminium is more reactive than carbon
e) Carbon is cheap and able to get it easily.
6.
a) Ampere
b) (i) Impure silver
(ii) pure silver
c) (i) Silver piece will become thinner
(ii) Silver piece will become thicker
d) No changes

7.
a) Metal X reacts faster with dilute sulphuric acid than metal Y.
b) (i) Type of metal
(ii) Reactivity
(iii) Concentration and volume of dilute sulphuric acid
c) Metal X
d) 25 cm3.

8.
a) Displacement reaction
b) Aluminium sulphate and hydrogen gas
c) Aluminium + Dilute sulphuric acid ----- Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
d) Can test by a glowing splint. The hydrogen gas that release from the test tube will
make a pop sound.

9.
a) Positive terminal : Copper plate
Negative terminal : zinc plate
b) The zinc plate become thinner
Produce gas bubble at positive terminal
c) Terminal negative : Zinc atoms - electron ---- zinc ions
Positive terminal : Hydrogen ions + electrons ---- hydrogen atoms
d) The flow of electron through the outside circuit from the cathode to the anode
produces electric current.

10.
a) 1.2 V
b) Used as an electrolyte
c) Voltmeter reading
d) 0V

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11.
a) ( i ) K
(ii) N

b) K : Carbon rod
L : mixture of manganese (IV) oxide and carbon
M : Ammonium chloride paste
N : Zinc container
c) None rechargeable
Corrosion of the zinc casing results in leaked of the electrolyte
d) Nickel-cadmium cell
Lead- acid accumulator

12.
a) (i) Gas bubbles are produced
(ii) A reddish brown metal is deposited at the cathode
b) (i) Chlorine gas is produced
(ii) The brown metal deposit is copper
c) Tested with litmus paper, it bleaches litmus paper
d) The density changes for color of the solution gradually decrease.

13.
a) Electrolysis
b) (i) Carbon
(ii) P
c) (i) this because the ions in the solid lead bromide are strongly attracted to each other
by their electrostatic charges.
(ii) Heat the solid so that it melts into liquid
d) Lead ions and bromide ions
e) (i) Bromine
(ii)Brown pungent gas
f) Lead

CHAPTER 6 : NUCLEAR ENERGY

1.
a) P - The Geiger Muller tube
Q - The scaler / rate meter / loud speaker
b) Substance R = Na-24
c) It will show a higher reading. It will be louder than normal
d) Gamma radiation will penetrate through the pipe

2.
a) (i) X : Beta particle
(ii) Y : Gamma radiation
(iii) Z : Alpha particle
b) (i) Radiation Y is not depleted

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(ii) It is neutral
c) X is lighter than Z
d) (i) Lead
(ii) Radioactive radiation cannot penetrate the lead container

3.
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear energy
c) Hydrogen bomb
d) The sun

4.
a) Radioactive atoms contain unstable nuclei
b) Alpha radiation, beta radiation, and gamma radiation
c) Alpha and beta radiation
d) Gamma radiation
e) Smaller and more stable

5.
a) (i) Gamma radiation
(ii) the radioactive radiation has high penetrating power
(iii) the radioactive radiation is used to detect to content level in the bottle
b) (i) it is the Geiger Muller counter
(ii) To record the rate of radioactive
c) Phosphorus-32

6.
a) Beta
b) (i) The aluminium is thicker than the acceptable thickness
c) To prevent radioactive radiation from being radiated in all directions
d) (i) a docimeter
(ii) The photographic film on the docimeter turns black

CHAPTER 7 : LIGHT, COLOUR AND SIGHT

1.
a) Draw a light ray with image are real, inverted and diminished
b) Real, inverted and diminished
c) Camera
d) Draw a light ray with image are virtual, not inverted and diminished

2.
a) The point on the principle axis where parallel rays of light will converge after passing
through the lens
b) Image are real, inverted and more than object ( draw a light ray )
c) 1.6 cm
d) Decrease

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3.
a) Filter color screen color the color of light on the screen
Green blue black
Blue magenta blue
Red yellow red

b) The color that appears on the screen is the result of the subtraction of light by the
coloured filter and coloured screen.

4.
a) White
b) Secondary color
c) (i) K and L
(ii) Red
d) (i) Black
(ii) Blue light is absorbed by the yellow card

5.
a) P : Cornea Q : Irish R : Retina
b) P : Help to focus light onto the retina by refracting light rays that pass through it.
c) Irish muscle will contract to reduce the size of the pupil so that the amount of light
entering the eye is reduced
d) The eyes focuses by changing the thickness of the lens while the camera focuses by
moving the lens nearer or further from the film.

CHAPTER 8 : CHEMICALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
a) (i) Diagram Y
(ii) Diagram X
b) The atom of the second metal prevents the layers of sliding atoms in the first metal
from sliding over each other easily
c) (i) Pewter
(ii) 96% tin, 3% copper and 1% antimony
(iii) For making drinking mugs and vases, to make ornaments.

2.
a) The iron nails become brown in color while there was no change to the steel nail.
b) The iron nail turned rusty whole the steel nail did not
c) (i) Type of nail
(ii) Condition of the nails after the three days
(iii) Sodium chloride solution/test tube
d) Alloys can prevent corrosion or rusting

3.
a) Copper : 1.5 cm Bronze : 1.1 cm

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b) The softer the tested material, the deeper the dent is


c) Bronze
d) Copper and tin

4.
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Global warning / green house effect
c) When carbon dioxide increase with atmosphere, carbon dioxide gas absorbs heat from
the radiation of sunlight and heat is reflected back to earth. The trapping of this heat
causes the increase of the earth temperature.
d) Fixing a catalytic converter in the exhaust pipes of vehicles / using lead free petrol.

CHAPTER 9 : MICROORGANISMA AND THEIR EFFECTS ON LIVING THINGS

1.
a) The most bacteria colony is observed at the pH value = 7

b)

c) pH = 7
d) pH = 6 : 8

2.
a) X2

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b) Penicillin kills bacteria. The higher the concentration of the penicillin, more bacteria
are killed
c) The size of penicillin disc / number of days
d) Antibiotic is a chemical that consists of fungi or bacteria that kills specific
microorganisms

3.
a) There is bigger and more bacterial colony when the temperature is increased after 24
hours.
b) (i) the graph size of bacteria colony vs temperature

(ii) 35C
(iii) 3

4.
a) A suspension containing weakened or dead pathogens of a particular disease
b) Cholera / hepatitis / TB
c) The white blood cells (lymphocytes) are stimulated to produce antibodies
d) To increase the number of antibodies to exceed the immunity level
e) Active acquired immunity

5.
a) Immunization is a process where a person is given vaccination to help him acquire
immunity from a particular disease
b) Acquired immunity
c) (i) 3 times
(ii) The first dose is given to stimulate the body to produce antibodies immediately
but the level of antibodies produced is insufficient. By giving the second, third and
booster dose, the level of antibodies would increase to exceed the minimum level of
immunity required to fight diseases.
d) BCG
e) Tetanus
f) Each vaccination is given to prevent specific types of disease only

6.
a) P : Plant protein Q : Ammonium compound R : Nitrate
b) Ions
c) W : Denitrification X : Nitrogen fixation
d) Nitrifying bacteria
e) Root nodules
f) Ammonium nitrate

7.
a) W : Viruses X : Bacteria Y : Protozoa Z : Algae
b) W : Influenza X : Cholera Y : Malaria
c) W has no nucleus X has a nucleus
W contain either DNA or RNA where X contain both
W is smaller in sized compare to X.
d) Bacteria because it contains chlorophyll which enables it to carry out photosynthesis

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8.
a) Q
b) Penicillin Q
c) Fungus
d) Temperature : incubate at 37 C.
e) Kills the bacteria / prevents the growth of the bacteria
f) Wash hands before and after the experiment / sterilize the apparatus inside an
autoclave.

9.
a) 20C - 40C
b) -20C - 0C / more than 100C
c) More bacteria are produced making the meat not suitable to be eaten
d) (i) Spore formation
(ii) Binary fission
e) In 1 hour, 22 = 4 bacteria are produced
In 1 hour, 210 = 1024 bacteria are produced

10.
a) Larva
b) In stagnant water
c) An animal that carries pathogens from one organism to another
d) (i) Clear the surrounding areas around and inside the house to prevent mosquitoes
from hiding / spraying insecticide to kill mosquitoes
(ii) Rearing fish in ponds to feed on P / spreading a layer of oil on the surface of
water to prevent P from breathing
e) Protozoa, malaria / virus, dengue fever
f) When a mosquito bites an infected person and then bites a healthy person.

CHAPTER 10 : NUTRITION AND FOOD PRODUCTION

1.
a) P because their diet contains less amount of meat, fats and oil
b) Fibres and proteins
c) 17.6 kJ of energy is released by 1 g of carbohydrate
2200 kJ of energy is released by
2200 17.6 = 125 g of sugar
d) Because their diet contains more sugar and less vegetables.

2.
a) (i) Milk
(ii) Butter
b) Column S - fats
Reason : highest percentage for butter
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Column R - Carbohydrates
Reason : it is found in milk and potatoes but not in beef, tuna and butter
c) Butter and beef

3.
a) Bomb calorimeter
b) Refer diagram of bomb calorimeter
c) Oxygen, to help in the oxidation of the food
d) The temperature of the water increase

4.
a) (i) the nutrient contents of Knops culture solution
(ii) the growth rate of maize seedling such as the length of roots and stem, the
size of the leaves.
(iii) The original size of the maize seedling
b) To provide oxygen to the roots so that they would not rot
c) Stunted growth and the size of the leaves is small and the color of the leaves is yellow
d) To be used as a comparison in the results of the experiment

5.
a) The amount of energy released when 1 gram of food is completely burned
b) Fixed variables : volume of water / mass of food
Responding variables : increase in temperature, amount of energy released
10 (85 35)
c) 4.2 0.23kJg 1
(1000 10)

6.
a) 1469 kilocalories
b) No, because it does not contain fruits and vegetables that provides vitamins
c) (i) kwasyiorkor
(ii)Night blinders
d) Obesity becomes a problems because excessive carbohydrates would be changed into
fat to be stored in the body

7.
a) The nitrogen cycle
b) The root nodules of clover plants contain nitrogen nitrogen fixing bacteria that convert
nitrogen gas into nitrates
c) Proteins
d) Nitrates
e) Ammonium sulphate/ ammonium nitrate

8.
a) Type of food quantity (g) Calorific value
White bread 150 1701.0
Tea with milk 100 50.0
Fried potatoes 75 1792.5
Fried chicken 150 2445.0

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Butter cake 120 3600.0


Total = 9588.5 kJ
b) Butter cake
c) No, because there is lack of fruits and vegetabled
d) Vitamins / minerals / fibres
e) Heart disease / high blood pressure / arteriosclerosis

CHAPTER 11 : PRESERVATION AND CONSERVATION OF THE


ENVIRONMENT

1.
a) (i) secondary consumer
(ii) Producer
(iii) Primary consumer
b) Produces food and oxygen
c) Water plants ----- prawn ----- small fishes
d) It causes eutrophication. Algae that blooms rapidly on water surface prevents sunlight
from reaching the base of the pond. This results in the death of water plants and finally
the death of other aquatic organisms.

2.
a) The ozone layer
b) 15 39 km
c) (i) Chlorofluorocarbon
(ii) Coolants in air conditioners and refrigerators / aerosol
d) (i) ozone hole
(ii)ultraviolet rays
e) Skin cancer, cataracts

3.
a) (i) Burning of fossil fuels
(ii) Open burning of rubbish
(iii) Throwing rubbish into recyling bins
b) Air pollution
c) Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
d) To conserve and preserve environment

4.
a) (i) Jar P
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q gets the oxygen from plant that produces it through
photosynthesis
b) To make sure that both jars P and Q are airtight
c) The plant absorbs carbon dioxide released by the grasshopper to enable it to perform
photosynthesis to supply oxygen to the grasshopper
d) (i) No
(ii) The grasshopper in jar Q would die first because the plant is competing with it to
use the oxygen supply.

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5.
a) Disposal of industrial waste
Disposal of sewage
Spraying of pesticides and herbicides
Exhaust smoke from aero planes
Smoke and heat from chemical factories
b) Ashes, soot and sulphur dioxide
c) Pollutants can damage body tissues and affect vision

6.
(a) Carbon cycle
b) P - photosynthesis Q - respiration R combustion
c) Maintains the level of carbon dioxide in the environment
d) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide
e) Depletion of natural resources and air pollution

7.
a) X : Ammonium compound Y : Nitrates
b) Decomposition
c) (i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(ii) Bacteria P changes nitrogen in the atmosphere to nitrates. Nitrates are directly
used by plants to produced proteins.
d) Nitrification and nitrogen fixation
e) Farming
f) Water pollution causes the death of aquatic organisms.

8.
a) (i) opening up of forest lands for development // industrialisation
(ii)loss of habitat // air pollution
(ii) replanting the same type of trees // using alternative energy sources
b) Carbon dioxide / carbon monoxide / sulphur dioxide / oxides of nitrogen
c) Water pollution through the improper disposal of sewage

9.
a) Driving a car that emits excessive exhaust fumes
Washing with detergents that pollute water sources
Throwing rubbish such as empty cans and boxes indiscriminately
Smoking cigarettes
b) Exhaust fumes contain gases such as carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of
nitrogen, and carbon particles that pollute the air. These gases add to the greenhouse
effect and indirectly cause global warming. They also play a part in the formation of
acid rain.

Oil and detergent flow into the river and pollute the water. These result in the death of
aquatic organism

Rubbish pollutes the surroundings and give off foul smells. They become breeding
grounds for vectors.

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Cigarette smoke pollute the air.

CHAPTER 12 : CARBON COMPOUND

1.
a) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
b) X : polymerization Y : depolymerization

c) n (glucose) starch when n = big number

d) (i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents


(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized

2.
a) W is formic acid
b) The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
c) Y is ammonia solution
d) X is sulphur
e) Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.

3.
a) P is yeast
b) Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
c) Ethanol
d) Distillation
e) Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash

4.
a) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide
b) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
c) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
d) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth

e) (i) the head is soluble in water


(ii) the tail is soluble in grease

5.
a) Sterilization

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b) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.


c) Purification
d) (i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
e) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel

CHAPTER 13 : MOTION

1.
e) Starch is the polymer formed from glucose monomers / proteins is the polymer from
amino acid monomers
f) X : polymerization Y : depolymerization

g) n (glucose) starch when n = big number

h) (i) synthetic rubber is resistant to oil and solvents


(ii) SBR rubber can be vulcanized

2.
f) W is formic acid
g) The action of bacteria on latex produces and acid can coagulate latex
h) Y is ammonia solution
i) X is sulphur
j) Vulcanized rubber is used to make tyres because it is strong and can withstand heat.

3.
f) P is yeast
g) Zymase enzyme is produced by yeast to change glucose to ethanol.
h) Ethanol
i) Distillation
j) Alcohol burms with a blue flame and does not produce any ash

4.
f) Palm oil and sodium hydroxide
g) Alkali acts as a catalyst to speed up the hydrolysis of oil molecules and then fuses with
fatty acids to form soap
h) Common salt lowers the solubility of soap in water and precipitates the soap out
i) The filtrate produces bubbles in water and is smooth

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j) (i) the head is soluble in water


(ii) the tail is soluble in grease

5.
f) Sterilization
g) To destroy microorganisms in oil palm fruit.
h) Purification
i) (i) Raw palm oil
(ii) Vitamin E and A
j) (i) X : mesocarp Y : endocarp Z : kernel
(ii) Mesocarp and kernel

CHAPTER 14 : FOOD TECHNOLOGY AND PRODUCTION

1.
a) X : Freeze drying
Y : vacuum packaging
Z : Irradiation
b) Food is kept in the freezing compartment of the refrigerator at -18C
c) Food Processing method Y Food processing method Z
Air is sucked out from the plastic food is radiated with gamma rays
Aerobic microorganism die microorganism are killed by gamma rays

2.
a)
Chemical used in food Examples Used in Functions
processing
Preservative Boric acid Fish ball Prevents food from spoiling
Flavoring Monosodium Soups Makes food tastier
glutamate and
sauces
Sweetener Palm sugar Cakes Sweetens food
Emulsifier Lecithin Ice emulsifies two substances that
cream cannot be mixed
Antioxidant Tocopherol Butter Prevents the oxidation of food
(vitamin E) and
biscuits

3.
a) Net weight, name and address of manufacturer
b) Report to the District Health Office or consumer association
c) Starch and benzoic acid
d) Function of starch : Prevents the separation of fluid parts of food
Function of benzoic acid : Prevents food from spoiling by impeding the growth and
reproduction of microorganism

4.
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a) To kill microorganisms and parasite, to enables easy food digestion and to enable food
to last longer
b) W : Freezing X : Refrigeration Y : Dehydrationj
Z : Pasteurization
c) At low temperature, the interaction between enzyme and microorganism is not active
d) To maintain freshness and nutrients in the food
e) (i) Heating at 63 C for 30 minutes or at 72 C for 15 second and is immerdiatly
cooled
(ii) To main tain taste and nutrients in the food, especially vitamins

5.
a) The removal of a gene or section of a DNA molecule with the desired characteristics
from the cell of an organism and transferring it into a completely different organism
can produce the desired characteristics
b) Good resistance to diseases or pests, fast ripening of fruits and abundant harvest
c) (i) MARDI, MPOB
(ii) MARDI - Jalomas sweet potatoes
MPOB - Tenera oil palm species

6.
a) Berat bersih, alamat pengeluar, tarikh luput
b) (i) the expiry date
(ii) if the expiry date is over, the bread is then not safe for consumption and cause
diseases
c) Obesity

CHAPTER 15 : SYNTHETIC MATERIALS IN INDUSTRY

1.
Names of Types of Monomers One use of plastic
plastic plastic
Perspex Thermoplastic Methyl Making transparent roof
metacrylate
Epoxyl glue Thermosetts Amide Making glue and electric insulator
Polypropene Thermoplastic
polystyrene Thermoplastic Styrene Making food packaging containers

2.
a) P : Nylon
Q : Neoprene rubber
R : Butyl rubber

b) P : Diamine and dicarboxylic acid


Q : Chloroprene
R : Isobutylene and isoprene

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c) P : Making synthetic textile and string


Q : making water pipes and hand gloves
R : making tyres, shoe soles and hoses.

CHAPTER 16 : ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION COMMUNICATION


` TECHNOLOGY ( ICT )

1.
a) Oscillating electric charges between the variable capacitor and the inductor
b) 1.5 cm
c) (i) wavelength of the radio wave
(ii) graph wavelength vs frequency

2.
a) (i) Oscillator
(ii) Radio waves
b)

c) Transistor
d) Frequency of the wave transmitted is higher

3.
a)

b) (i) Seperates audio signals from radio waves


(ii) Earthed
(iii)

c) (i) transistor diagram


(ii) amplifiers audio signals

4.
a) To receive. Amplify and transmit information
b) (i) Microwave
(ii) It has the highest frequency that enables it to travel far and is not scrattered by the
particles in the atmosphere
c) (i) It appears stationary in the same spot in the sky

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(ii) 3 satellites
(iii)

5.
a) X / Radio wave
b) (i) Radio wave
(ii) 0.2 m
c) (i) carrier wave
(ii) Modulator

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BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ)


NEGERI PAHANG
TAHUN 2010

SCIENCE
KERTAS 1

Satu jam lima belas minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

1. Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam dwibahasa.

2. Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris mendahului soalan yang sepadan dalam


bahasa Melayu.

3. Calon dikehendaki membaca maklumat di halaman belakang kertas soalan ini.

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BESTARI PRACTISE QUESTION

PROJEK JAWAB UNTUK JAYA (JUJ)


NEGERI PAHANG
TAHUN 2010

SCIENCE
KERTAS 2

Dua jam tiga puluh minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

1. Kertas soalan ini adalah dalam


dwibahasa
Bahagian Soalan Markah Markah
2. Soalan dalam bahasa Inggeris Penuh Diperolehi
mendahului soalan yang
sepadan dalam bahasa Melayu 1 5
2 5
3. Calon dibenarkan menjawab A
keseluruhan atau sebahagian 3 5
soalan sama ada dalam bahasa 4 5
Inggeris atau bahasa Melayu 5 6
6 6
4. Calon dikehendaki membaca B 7 6
maklumat di halaman 2 8 6
9 6
10 10
C 11 10
12 10
Jumlah

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INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


MAKLUMAT UNTUK CALON

1. This question paper consists of three sections. Section A, Section B and Section C
Kertas soalan ini mengandungi tiga bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B dan Bahagian
C

2. Answer all questions in Section A and Section B.


Write your answers for Section A and Section B in the spaces provided on the
question paper
Jawab semua soalan dalam Bahagian A dan Bahagian B
Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian A dan Bahagian B dalam ruang yang disediakan pada
kertas soalan

3. For Section C, answer Question 10 and either Question 11 or Question 12.


Write your answers for Section C on the other examination sheets
You may use equations, diagrams, tables, graphs and other suitable methods to
explain your answers
Bagi Bahagian C, jawab Soalan 10 dan mana-mana satu soalan daripada Soalan 11
atau Soalan 12
Tulis jawapan bagi Bahagian C pada helaian jawapan lain
Anda boleh menggunakan persamaan, rajah, jadual, graf dan cara lain yang sesuai
untuk menjelaskan jawapan anda

4. The diagrams in the questions provided are not drawn to scale unless stated
Rajah yang mengiring soalan tidak dilukis mengikut skala kecuali dinyatakan

The marks allocated for each sub-part of a question are shown in bracket
Markah yang diperuntukkan bagi setiap ceraian soalan ditunjukkan dalam kurungan

5. If you wish to change your answer, neatly cross out the answer that you have done.
Then write down the new answer
Sekiranya anda hendak menukar jawapan, batalkan dengan kemas jawapan yang
telah dibuat. Kemudian tulis jawapan yang baru

6. You may use a non-programmable scientific calculator


Anda dibenarkan menggunakan kalkulator saintifik yang tidak boleh diprogramkan

7. The time suggested to answer Section A is 60 minutes, Section B is 50 minutes and


Section C is 40 minutes

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Masa yang dicadangkan untuk menjawab Bahagian A ialah 60 minit, Bahagian B


ialah 50 minit dan Bahagian C ialah 40 minit

8. Hand in this question paper at the end of the examination


Serahkan kertas soalan ini di akhir peperiksaan

Section A
Bahagian A

[ 20 marks/markah ]

Answer all questions.


Jawab semua soalan

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