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1.

Cast iron during machining produces


A. continuous chips B. discontinuous chips
C. continuous chips with built-up-edge D. none of these

2. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted on


A. spindle B. arbor
C. column D. knee

3. Twist drills are made of


A. high speed steel B. carbon steel
C. stainless steel D. either A. or B.

4. Trepanning is performed for


A. finishing a drilled hole B. producing a large hole without drilling
C. truing a hole for alignment D. enlarging a drilled hole

5. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawal from the mould is known as
A. machining allowance B. draft allowance
C. shrinkage allowance D. distortion allowance

6. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrodes?


A. TIG welding B. MIG welding
C. Manual arc welding D. Submerged arc welding

7. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
A. lower critical temperature B. upper critical temperature
C. eutectic temperature D. recrystallisation temperature

8. Galvanising is a

A. Zinc diffusion process B. process of coating zinc by hot dipping


C. process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel D. none of the above

9. The increase in hardness due to cold working, is called


A. age-hardening B. work-hardening
C. induction hardening D. flame hardening

10. Stiffness is_____ to the length of the element.


A. Inversely proportional B. Directly proportional
C. Exponential D. Independent

11. Dwell is defined by:


A. G04 B. G03
C. G02 D. G01

12. A helical compression spring is cut into two halves. What is the stiffness of the resulting spring?
A. One-half B. Same
C. Double D. One-fourth

13. Low pressure angle gears results in


A. Pressure angle does not affect strength B. Stronger teeth
C. Weaker teeth D. None of these
14. The critical speed of a shaft is affected by parameters
A. Diameter of the disc B. Span of the shaft
C. Eccentricity D. All of these

15. Screws used for power transmission should have


A. Sow efficiency B. high efficiency
C. very fine threads D. Strong teeth

16. In second type of levers,


A. load is in between the fulcrum and effort B. effort is in between the fulcrum and load
C. fulcrum is in between the load and effort D. none of these

17. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of


A. bolts and nuts B. studs
C. headless taper bolts D. none of these

18. A transmission shaft includes


A. counter shaft B. line shaft
C. over head shaft D. all of these

19. Which of the following is not the unit of power?


A. kw (kilowatt) B. hp (horse power)
C. kcal/sec D. kcal/kg sec.

20. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
A. these forces are equal B. the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
C. the lines of action of these forces are parallel D. B. and C. above
E. none of the above.

21. Angle of friction is the


A. angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion

22. Which one of the following statements is not correct


A. the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
B. the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
C. the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
D. the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction

23. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction will be
A. downwards at its upper end B. upwards at its upper end
C. perpendicular to the wall at its upper end D. zero at its upper end

24. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
A. proportional to normal load between the surfaces
B. dependent on the materials of contact surface
C. proportional to velocity of sliding
D. independent of the area of contact sur-faces
25. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another surface
is called
A. limiting friction B. sliding friction
C. rolling friction D. kinematic friction

26. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
A. non-equilibrium B. partial equilibrium
C. full equilibrium D. unpredictable

27. Bulk modulus of liquid will _________ with pressure.


A. Reduce B. increase C.Uniform D. All of the above

28. Surface tension is defined as _________.


A. Work required creating a unit area of free surface in a liquid/force required to keep unit length of free
surface in equilibrium
B. The pressure over the fluid due to the vapour over a liquid under equilibrium conditions of temperature
C. The pressure over the fluid due to the vapour over a liquid under equilibrium conditions of temperature
D. All of the above

29. In a flow along a varying flow cross section, as the area decreases
A. the energy line will slope up B. the hydraulic gradient line will slope up
C. the hydraulic gradient line will slope down D. the energy line will slope down.

30. Reynolds number signifies the ratio of


A. gravity forces top viscous forces B. inertial forces to viscous forces
C. inertia forces to gravity forces D. buoyant forces to inertia forces.

31. Slip in the case of a centrifugal pump.


A. Reduces the flow rate. B. Reduces the energy transfer.
C. Reduces the speed. D. Increases cavitation.

32. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for _________ pressures


A. High B. low
C. medium D. All of the above

33. Bernoulli equation is applicable for


A. Steady rotational flow B. Steady rotational compressible flow
C. Steady irrotational incompressible flow D. unsteady irrotational incompressible flow

34. The layer thickness which will have the same flow rate as the boundary layer with free stream velocity is
called _______________.
A. Displacement thickness B. Momentum thickness
C. Energy thickness D. All of the above

35. A pitot static tube is used to measure

A. Stagnation pressure B. Static pressure

C. Dynamic pressure D. Difference between the static pressure and dynamic pressure

36. Dimensionless specific speed for pelton turbine is about


A. 0.02

B. 0.2

C. 2

D. 20.

37. A low specific speed Francis turbine is

A. Axial flow turbine

B. tangential flow turbine

C. Mixed flow turbine

D. radial flow turbine.

38. The partial balancing of reciprocating parts in locomotives produces

a) hammer blow

b) swaying couple

c) variation in tractive force along the line of stroke

d) all of the above

39. The pair is known as a higher pair, when the relative motion between the elements of a pair is

a) turning only

b) sliding only

c) rolling only

d) partly turning and partly sliding

40. the four bar mechanism has ------------- instantaneous centres of rotation

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

41. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when the

a) coupler link is fixed

b) longest link is a fixed link

c) slider is a fixed link

d) smallest link is a fixed link


42. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with the line of
stroke is

a) 0 and 90

b) 0 and 180

c) 90 and 180

d) 180 and 360

43. Which of the folloing is a lower pair.

a) Cam and follower

b) Belt and pulley

c) Shft in a bearing

d) Ball and race in bearing

44. Which is closest to the purest form of iron?


a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Grey iron
d) Mild steel
45. Which of the following is not used for producing steel from pig iron?
a) Open hearth
b) Bessemer converter
c) Blast furnace
d) Duplex process
46. Pick up the material with highest ductility.
a) Lead
b) Copper
c) Mild steel
d) Tin
47. Which of the following is desired in materials used for springs?
a) Stiffness
b) Toughness
c) Elasticity
d) Resilience
48. Hardness of the material represents its resistance to
a) Machining
b) Wear
c) Scratching
d) Local penetration
49. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as
A. Carnot cycle B. Stirling cycle
C. Otto cycle D. Diesel cycle

50. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A.low B.very low
C.high D.very high

51. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant
volume, is called
A. specific heat at constant volume B. specific heat at constant pressure
C. kilo Joule D. none of these

52. An adiabatic process is one in which


A. no heat enters or leaves the gas
B. the temperature of the gas changes
C. the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
D. all of the above

53. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are
known as
A. flow processes B. non-flow processes
C. adiabatic processes D. none of these

54. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass


A. Oxygen B. Sulphur
C. Nitrogen D. Carbon

55. Workdone in a free expansion process is


A.zero B.minimum
C.maximum D.positive

56. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules
contained in a unit volume of gas.
A. one-half B. one-third
C. two-third D. three-fourth

57. The compression ratio for petrol engines is


A. 3 to 6 B.5 to 8
C.15 to 20 D.20 to 30

58. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A. cut-off is increased B. cut-off is decreased
C. cut-off is zero D. cut-off is constant

59. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as
A. Carnot cycle B. Stirling cycle
C. Otto cycle D. Diesel cycle
60. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A.low B.very low
C.high D.very high
61. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant
volume, is called
A. specific heat at constant volume B. specific heat at constant pressure
C. kilo Joule D. none of these
62. An adiabatic process is one in which
A. no heat enters or leaves the gas
B. the temperature of the gas changes
C. the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
D. all of the above
63. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are
known as
A. flow processes B. non-flow processes
C. adiabatic processes D. none of these

64. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass


A. Oxygen B. Sulphur
C. Nitrogen D. Carbon
65. Workdone in a free expansion process is
A.zero B.minimum
C.maximum D.positive
66. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules
contained in a unit volume of gas.
A. one-half B. one-third
C. two-third D. three-fourth

67. The compression ratio for petrol engines is


A. 3 to 6 B. 5 to 8
C.15 to 20 D.20 to 30
68. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.
A. remains constant B. decreases
C. increases D. Both A & B

69. Which of the following is correct?


A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
70. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with
A. decrease in cut-off B. increase in cut-off
C.constant cut-off. D. none of these
71. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
A. reversible cycles B. irreversible cycles
C.semireversible process D. quasi-static cycles
72. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is
known as
A. reversible cycle B. irreversible cycle
C.thermodynamic cycle D.none of these
73. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical properties, is
governed by
A. Boyle's law B. Charles' law
C. Gay-Lussac law D. all of these