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Router Questions

http://www.digitaltut.com/router-questions

Question 1

What command can you enter to configure an enable password that uses an encrypted
password from another configuration?

A. enable secret $abc%!e.Cd34$!ao0


B. enable secret 7 Sabc%!e.Cd34$!ao0
C. enable secret 0 Sabc%U*.Cd34$!ao0
D. enable secret 5 $abc%!e.Cd34$!ao0
E. enable secret 15 $abc%ie.Cd34$!ao0
F. enable secret 6 $abc%!e.Cd34$!ao0

Question 2

What is the optimal location from which to execute a debug command that produces an
excessive amount of information?

A. Vty lines
B. SNMP commands
C. A console port
D. An AUX port

Answer: A

Question 3

Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two)

A. a routing loop
B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets
C. high latency
D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network
E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a
transit Router

Answer: D E

Question 4
Where the output will be shown of the command debug condition interface fa0/1?

A. It will show on interface f0/1


B. It will show on interface f0/0
C. Both interfaces will show debugging ouput
D. An interface cannot be used as condition

Answer: A or C

Question 5

Which security feature can you enable to control access to the VTY lines on a router?

A. exec-time out
B. logging
C. username and password
D. transport output

Answer: C

Question 6

Under which circumstance will a branch ISR router contain interface vlan configurations?

A. performing inter-VLAN routing


B. performing 802.1Q trunking
C. performing ISL trunking
D. Ethernet Switch Module installed
E. ADSL WIC installed
F. running Call Manager Express

Answer: D

Access List
http://www.digitaltut.com/access-list

Question 1

What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet
1/0 of the perimeter router, accomplish?
router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log
router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log
router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log
router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any
router (config)#interface FastEthernet 1/0
router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in

A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0 10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0


172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0 192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and
logs any exit to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any
intrusion attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.

Answer: C

Question 2

Refer to the following access list.


access-list 100 permit ip any any log

After applying the access list on a Cisco router, the network engineer notices that the router
CPU utilization has risen to 99 percent. What is the reason for this?

A. A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is Cisco Express Forwarding
switched.
B. A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is fast switched.
C. A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is process switched.
D. A large amount of IP traffic is being permitted on the router.

Answer: C

Question 3

For troubleshooting purposes, which method can you use in combination with the debug ip
packet command to limit the amount of output data?

A. You can disable the IP route cache globally.


B. You can use the KRON scheduler.
C. You can use an extended access list.
D. You can use an IOS parser.
E. You can use the RITE traffic exporter.
Answer: C

Question 4

Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic
except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?

A. ip access-list extended 200


deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 eq 80 any
permit ip any any

B. ip access-list extended 10
deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80
permit ip any any

C. ip access-list extended NO_HTTP


deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80

D. ip access-list extended 100


deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80
permit ip any any

Answer: D

Question 5

A route map uses an ACL, if the required matching is based on which criteria?

A. addressing information
B. route types
C. AS paths
D. metrics

Answer: A

Question 6

ALWAYS block the outbound web traffic on Saturdays and Sunday between 1:00 to 23:59.

A. periodic Saturday Sunday 01:00 to 23:59 and IN


B. periodic Saturday Sunday 01:00 to 23:59 and OUT
C. periodic Saturday Sunday 01:00 to 11:59 and IN
D. Absolute Saturday Sunday 01:00 to 11:59 and IN
Answer: B

Question 7

Allowing website access between certain times

Answer: Filters using Time-Based ACLs

Question 8

IPv6 access list and need to apply it to block traffic INBOUND telnet and interface (Choose
two)

Answer: there are 5 choices 2 inbound 3 outbound so we have to choose 2 inbound choices
only

Question 9

Which access list entry checks for an ACK within a packet header?

A. access-list 49 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack


B. access-list 49 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack
C. access-list 149 permit tcp any any eq 21 established
D. access-list 49 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

Answer: C

Question 10

Which access list used to filter upper layer protocol?

A. extended access-list
B. standard access-list

Answer: A

Question 11

Which type of access list allows granular session filtering for upper-level protocols?

A. content-based access lists


B. context-based access lists
C. reflexive access lists
D. extended access lists
Answer: C

Question 12

What is the command to enable IPv6 access list?

A. ipv6 traffic-filter access-list-name {in | out}


B. ipv6 access-list [access-list-name]
C. access-list ipv6 [access-list-name]
D. ipv6 access-group [access-list-name] {in | out}

Answer: A

Question 13

Which two are characteristics of IP ACLs? (Choose two)

A. Entries are applied to traffic in the order in which they appear


B. They support wildcard masks to limit the address bits to which entries are applies

Answer: A B

Question 14

Which two statements about IP access-lists are true? (Choose two)

A. IP access-lists without at least one deny statement permit all traffic by default.
B. Extended access-lists must include port numbers.
C. They support wildcard masks to limit the address bits to which entries are applies.
D. Entries are applied to traffic in the order in which they appear.
E. They end with an implicit permit.

Answer: C D

Question 15

Which configuration can you apply to a device so that it always blocks the outbound web
traffic on Saturdays and Sunday between the hours of 1:00 AM and 11:59 PM?

A. time-range SATSUN absolute Saturday Sunday 1:00 to 23:59


access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 80 time-range SATSUN
access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 443 time-range SATSUN
interface Vlan 303
ip address 10.9.5.3 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 102 in

B. time-range SATSUN periodic Saturday Sunday 1:00 to 23:59


access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 80 time-range SATSUN
access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 443 time-range SATSUN
interface Vlan 303
ip address 10.9.5.3 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 102 in

C. time-range SATSUN periodic Saturday Sunday 1:00 to 11:59


access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 80 time-range SATSUN
access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 443 time-range SATSUN
interface Vlan 303
ip address 10.9.5.3 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 102 in

D. time-range SATSUN absolute Saturday Sunday 1:00 to 11:59


access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 80 time-range SATSUN
access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq 443 time-range SATSUN
interface Vlan 303
ip address 10.9.5.3 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 102 in

Answer: B

Point-to-Point Protocol
Question 1

Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in cleartext?

A. MS CHAP
B. CDPCP
C. CHAP
D. PAP

Answer: D

Question 2

Which type of handshake does CHAP authentication use to establish a PPP link?
A. one-way
B. two-way
C. three-way
D. four-way

Answer: C

Question 3

Which two authentication protocols does PPP support? (Choose two)

A. WAP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. EAP
E. RADIUS

Answer: B C

Question 4

In which form does PAP authentication send the username and password across the link?

A. Encrypted
B. Password protected
C. Clear text
D. Hashed

Answer: C

Question 5

What are characteristics of PAP and CHAP?

A. PAP provides a challenge to the client


B. CHAP provides a challenge to the client
C. PAP can be used by TACACS+ for with
D. PAP requires a username and optional password
E. CHAP requires a username and optional password

Answer: B C
PPPoE Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/pppoe-questions

Question 1

PPPoE is composed of which two phases?

A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase


B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase

Answer: D

Question 2

Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be
transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be
transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup
is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be
encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be
transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

Answer: D

Question 3

A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP,
even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?

A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B

Question 4

Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be
completed?

A. Disable CDP on the interface.


B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.

Answer: B

Question 5

A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and
authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE,
can be used for authentication in this manner?

A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP

Answer: D

Question 6

Which statement is a restriction for PPPoE configuration?

A. Multiple PPPoE clients can use the same dialer interface.


B. Multiple PPPoE clients can use the same dialer pool.
C. A PPPoE session can be initiated only by the client.
D. A PPPoE session can be initiated only by the access concentrator.

Answer: C

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.


interface Ethernet 0
pppoe-client dial-pool-number 5
pppoe-client ppp-max-payload 1500
interface Dialer 1
ip address negotiated
dialer pool 5
mtu 1492

Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. This configuration is incorrect because the MTU must match the ppp-max-payload that is
defined.
B. This configuration is incorrect because the dialer interface number must be the same as the
dialer pool number.
C. This configuration is missing an IP address on the dialer interface.
D. This configuration represents a complete PPPoE client configuration on an Ethernet
connection.

Answer: D

Question 8

Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing


functionality?

A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. PPPoE enable
C. interface dialer 1
D. encapsulation PPP

Answer: A

Question 9

Which command instruct a PPPoE client to obtain its IP address from the PPPoE server?

A. interface dialer
B. ip address negotiated
C. pppoe enable
D. ip address dhcp
E. ip address dynamic

Answer: B
Question 10

Which two configurations can a PPPoE client support? (Choose two)

A. Eight clients are configured on a single CPE.


B. The client is connected to multiple hosts over DMVPN
C. The client is installed on the same network device as the server.
D. The client is connecting over an ATM PVC
E. The client is installed on a native IPv6 network.

Answer: A B

CEF & Fast Switching


http://www.digitaltut.com/cef-fast-switching

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?

A. There is no default gateway.


B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.

Answer: C
Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for
the incomplete marking?

A. incomplete ARP information


B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion

Answer: A

Question 3

Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show
ip cache?

A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching

Answer: A

Question 4

How does an IOS router process a packet that should be switched by Cisco Express
Forwarding without an FIB entry?

A. by forwarding the packet


B. by dropping the packet
C. by creating a new FIB entry for the packet
D. by looking in the routing table for an alternate FIB entry
Answer: B

Question 5

At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing
information?

A. Layer 4
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 3

Answer: B

Question 6

A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface,
instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding
ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?

A. Low bandwidth usage


B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference

Answer: C

Question 7

Refer to exhibit. What is indicated by the show ip cef command for an address?
A. CEF is unable to get routing information for this route.
B. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and passes it to the next best switching method.
C. A valid entry and is pointed to hardware based forwarding.
D. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and drops it.

Answer: B

Frame Relay Questions


http://www.digitaltut.com/frame-relay-questions

Question 1

Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a
specific connection?

A. Frame Relay inverse ARP


B. static DLCI mapping
C. Frame Relay broadcast queue
D. dynamic DLCI mapping

Answer: A

Question 2

What is the default OSPF hello interval on a Frame Relay point-to-point network?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

Answer: A

Question 3

A company has their headquarters located in a large city with a T3 frame relay link that
connects 30 remote locations that each have T1 frame relay connections. Which technology
must be configured to prevent remote sites from getting overwhelmed with traffic and
prevent packet drops from the headquarters?

A. traffic shaping
B. IPsec VPN
C. GRE VPN
D. MPLS

Answer: A

Question 4

On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two)

A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces

Answer: A D

Question 5

In which two ways can split horizon issues be overcome in a Frame Relay network
environment? (choose two)

A. Configuring one physical serial interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
B. Configure a loopback interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
C. Configuring multiple subinterfaces on a single physical interface to various remote sites.
D. Enabling split horizon.
E. Disabling split horizon.
Answer: C E

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Router 1 cannot ping router 2 via the Frame Relay between them. Which two statements
describe the problems? (Chooses two)

A. Encapsulation is mismatched.
B. Frame Relay map is configured.
C. DLCI is active.
D. DLCI is inactive or deleted.
E. An access list is needed to allow ping.

Answer: A D

Question 7

How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to keep split
horizon issues from preventing routing updates?

A. Configure a separate subinterface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned
to the subinterface.
B. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and
broadcast traffic.
C. Configure many subinterfaces in the same subnet.
D. Configure a single subinterface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote
router interfaces.

Answer: A

GRE Tunnel
http://www.digitaltut.com/gre-tunnel

Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are
connected to each other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers
cannot establish the GRE tunnel to begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason
for this?

A. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol
number 47.
B. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57.
C. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47.
D. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol
number 57.

Answer: A

Question 2

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has
assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface.
Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?

A. tunnel destination address


B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection

Answer: A

Question 3

When the tunnel interface is configured in default mode, which statement about routers and
the tunnel destination address is true?

A. The router must have a route installed towards the tunnel destination
B. The router must have wccp redirects enabled inbound from the tunnel destination
C. The router must have cisco discovery protocol enabled on the tunnel to form a CDP
neighborship with the tunnel destination
D. The router must have redirects enabled outbound towards the tunnel destination
Answer: A

Question 4

A network engineer has configured GRE between two IOS routers. The state of the tunnel
interface is continuously oscillating between up and down. What is the solution to this
problem?

A. Create a more specific static route to define how to reach the remote router.
B. Create a more specific ARP entry to define how to reach the remote router.
C. Save the configuration and reload the router.
D. Check whether the internet service provider link is stable

Answer: A

Question 5

Two scenarios for preventing fragmentation on GRE tunnel (Choose two)

A. TCP MSS
B. DF Bit Clear
C. IP MTU
D. PMTUD

Answer: A D

Question 6

Which two statement about GRE tunnel interface are true?

A. A tunnel can be established when a source the source interface is in the up/down state
B. A tunnel destination must be routable, but it can be unreachable
C. To establish a tunnel the source interface must be a loopback
D. To establish a tunnel the source interface must be up/up state
E. A tunnel destination must be a physical interface that is on up/up state

Answer: B D

Question 7

Which of the following is a GRE Tunnel characteristic?


A. GRE impose more CPU overhead than IPSec on VPN gateways
B. GRE tunnels can run through IPsec tunnels.
C. GRE Tunnel doesnt have support for IPv6
D. GRE consists of two sub-protocols: Encapsulated Security Payload (ESP) and
Authentication Header (AH).

Answer: B

Question 8

Router R1, a branch router, connects to the Internet using DSL. Some traffic flows through a
GRE and IPsec tunnel, over the DSL connection, destined for an Enterprise network. Which
of the following answers best describes the routers logic that tells the router, for a given
packet, to apply GRE encapsulation to the packet?

A. When the packet received on the LAN interface is permitted by the ACL listed on the
tunnel gre acl command under the incoming interface
B. When routing the packet, matching a route whose outgoing interface is the GRE tunnel
interface
C. When routing the packet, matching a route whose outgoing interface is the IPsec tunnel
interface
D. When permitted by an ACL that was referenced in the associated crypto map

Answer: B

Question 9

What is a key benefit of using a GRE tunnel to provide connectivity between branch offices
and headquarters?

A. authentication, integrity checking, and confidentiality


B. less overhead
C. dynamic routing over the tunnel
D. granular QoS support
E. open standard
F. scalability

Answer: C
DMVPN Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/dmvpn-questions

Question 1

Refer to the following output:


Router#show ip nhrp detail
10.1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47
Type: dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used
NBMA address: 10.12.1.2

What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?

A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.


B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten.

Answer: A

Question 2

Which common issue causes intermittent DMVPN tunnel flaps?

A. a routing neighbor reachability issue


B. a suboptimal routing table
C. interface bandwidth congestion
D. that the GRE tunnel to hub router is not encrypted

Answer: A

Question 3

Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol,
NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GETVPN
D. Cisco Easy VPN
Answer: B

Question 4

A company has just opened two remote branch offices that need to be connected to the
corporate network. Which interface configuration output can be applied to the corporate
router to allow communication to the remote sites?

A. interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224
tunnel source Serial0/0
tunnel mode gre multipoint

B. interface fa0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224
tunnel mode gre multipoint

C. interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224
tunnel source 209.165.201.1
tunnel-mode dynamic

D. interface fa 0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224
tunnel source 192.168.161.2
tunnel destination 209.165.201.1
tunnel-mode dynamic

Answer: A

Question 5

Which Cisco VPN technology can use multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel
interface on the hub, to support multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?

A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN

Answer: A
Question 6

A network administrator is troubleshooting a DMVPN setup between the hub and the spoke.
Which action should the administrator take before troubleshooting the IPsec configuration?

A. Verify the GRE tunnels


B. Verify ISAKMP
C. Verify NHRP
D. Verify crypto maps

Answer: A

Question 7

Which protocol is used in a DMVPN network to map physical IP addresses to logical IP


addresses?

A. BGP
B. LLDP
C. EIGRP
D. NHRP

Answer: D

Question 8

A network engineer is troubleshooting a DMVPN setup between the hub and the spoke. The
engineer executes the command show crypto isakmp sa and observes the output that is
displayed. What is the problem?

A. That ISAKMP is not enabled


B. That ISAKMP is using default settings
C. An incompatible IP sec transform set
D. An incompatible ISAKMP policy

Answer: B

Question 9
A network engineer wants to display the statistics of an active tunnel on a DMVPN network.
Which command should the administrator execute to accomplish this task?

A. Router#show crypto ipsec sa


B. Router#show crypto isakmp peers
C. Router#show crypto isakmp sa
D. Router#show crypto ipsec transform-set
E. Router#show crypto engine connections active

Answer: A

Question 10

Which two DMVPN phases allow a spoke to create dynamic tunnels? (Choose two)

A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5

Answer: B C

Question 11

Which two commands configure on a DMVPN hub to enable phase 3? (Choose two)

A. ip nhrp interest
B. ip nhrp redirect
C. ip nhrp shortcut
D. ip network id
E. ip nhrp map
F. ip redirects

Answer: B C

Question 12

Which phase of DMVPN spoke to spoke communications?

A. phase 2
B. phase 4
C. phase 5
D. phase 6
E. phase 1

Answer: A

Question 13

Which protocols support DMVPN?

A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. BGP
E. ISIS

Answer: A C D

TCP UDP Questions


http://www.digitaltut.com/tcp-udp-questions

Question 1

Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?

A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP


B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C. when WRED is enabled
D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic

Answer: A

Question 2

Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose
two)

A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.


B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to enabled on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.

Answer: A B

Question 3

Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose
three)

A. header compression
B. explicit congestion notification
C. keepalive
D. time stamps
E. TCP path discovery
F. MTU window

Answer: B C D

Question 4

A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase
and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?

A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm

Answer: A

Question 5

Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a
network with no QoS? (Choose three)

A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Answer: A C E

Question 6

A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets
on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP
characteristic does this scenario describe?

A. latency
B. starvation
C. connectionless communication
D. nonsequencing unordered packets
E. jitter

Answer: A

Question 7

A network engineer is configuring a routed interface to forward broadcasts of UDP 69, 53,
and 49 to 172.20.14.225. Which command should be applied to the configuration to allow
this?

A. router(config-if)#ip helper-address 172.20.14.225


B. router(config-if)#udp helper-address 172.20.14.225
C. router(config-if)#ip udp helper-address 172.20.14.225
D. router(config-if)#ip helper-address 172.20.14.225 69 53 49

Answer: A

Question 8

Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is
assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?

A. typically is not fragmented


B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic

Answer: A

Question 9

Which two attributes describe UDP within a TCP/IP network? (Choose two)
A. Acknowledgments
B. Unreliable delivery
C. Connectionless communication
D. Connection-oriented communication
E. Increased headers

Answer: B C

Question 10

A network engineer wants to ensure an optimal end-to-end delay bandwidth product. The
delay is less than 64 KB. Which TCP feature ensures steady state throughput?

A. Window scaling
B. Network buffers
C. Round-trip timers
D. TCP acknowledgments

Answer: A

TCP UDP Questions 2


http://www.digitaltut.com/tcp-udp-questions-2

Question 1

Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the
voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of
the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?

A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in
which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into
the correct order.
E. UDP will not acknowledge the datagrams and wait for a retransmission of the datagrams.

Answer: B

Question 2
A network engineer applies the command ip tcp adjust-mss under interface configuration
mode. What is the result?

A. The probability of SYN packet truncation is increased.


B. The UDP session is inversely affected.
C. The probability of dropped or segmented TCP packets is decreased.
D. The optimum MTU value for the interface is set.

Answer: C

Question 3

Which option is one way to mitigate asymmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for
TCP-based connections?

A. performing packet captures


B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymmetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks

Answer: D

Question 4

Which problem can be caused by latency on a UDP stream?

A. The device that sends the stream is forced to hold data in the buffer for a longer period of
time.
B. The overall throughput of the stream is decreased.
C. The device that receives the stream is forced to hold data in the buffer for a longer per iod
of time.
D. The devices at each end of the stream are forced to negotiate a smaller window size.

Answer: C

Question 5

What show command is used here?


TCB Local Address Foreign Address (state)
6523A4FC 10.1.25.3.11000 10.1.25.3.23 ESTAB
65239A84 10.1.25.3.23 10.1.25.3.11000 ESTAB
653FCBBC *.1723 *.* LISTEN
A. show tcp brief
B. show tcp brief all
C. show tcp brief numeric
D. show tcp brief ip

Answer: C

Question 6

Congestion in the network. What is the effect on UDP?

A. Sender will have to buffer more data


B. Receiver will have to buffer more data. Before sending packets to higher layers
C. There will be latency

Answer: C

RIP Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/rip-questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. The network setup is running the RIP routing protocol. Which two
events will occur following link failure between R2 and R3? (Choose two)

A. R2 will advertise
network 192.168.2.0/27 with a hop count of 16 to R1.
B. R2 will not send any advertisements and will remove route 192.168.2.0/27 from its routing
table.
C. R1 will reply to R2 with the advertisement for network 192.168.2.0/27 with a hop count of
16.
D. After communication fails and after the hold-down timer expires, R1 will remove the
192.168.2.0/27 route from its routing table.
E. R3 will not accept any further updates from R2, due to the split-horizon loop prevention
mechanism.

Answer: A C
Question 2

What is the maximum hop count with RIP?

A. 15
B. 255
C. 0
D. 16

Answer: A

Question 3

RIPv2 Question. Cannot receive RIP updates. Why?

A. Firewall Port block UDP 520


B. Firewall Port block TCP 520
C. Firewall Port block UDP 502
D. Firewall Port block TCP 502

Answer: A

Question 4

Engineer has to enable RIP on a link. Where he will issue the command?

A. IPv6
B. Global
C. Router sub command
D. Interface sub command

Answer: C

OSPF Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/ospf-questions

Question 1

The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3, and 7 only. Which type of area is
this router connected to?
A. stub area
B. totally stubby area
C. backbone area
D. not-so-stubby area

Answer: D

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit.

Which option prevents routing updates from being sent to the DHCP router, while still
allowing routing update messages to flow to the Internet router and the distribution switches?

A.
DHCP(config-router)# passive-interface default
DHCP(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi1/0
Internet(config-router)# passive-interface Gi0/1
Internet(config-router)# passive-interface Gi0/2

B.
Core(config-router)# passive-interface Gi0/0
Core(config-router)# passive-interface Gi3/1
Core(config-router)# passive-interface Gi3/2
DHCP(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi1/0

C. Core(config-router)# passive-interface default


Core(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi0/0
Core(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi3/1
Core(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi3/2

D.
Internet(config-router)# passive-interface default
Core(config-router)# passive-interface default
DSW1(config-router)# passive-interface default
DSW2(config-router)# passive-interface default

Answer: C

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Which option prevents routing updates from being sent to the access layer switches?
A.
DWS1(config-router)# passive-interface default
DWS2(config-router)# passive-interface default
B.
ALS1(config-router)# passive-interface default
ALS2(config-router)# passive-interface default
C.
DWS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/1
DWS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/2
DWS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/1
DWS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/2
D.
ALS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/1
ALS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/2
ALS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/1
ALS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/2

Answer: C

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit


Refer to the exhibit showing complete command output. What type of OSPF router is Router
A?

A. internal router
B. ASBR
C. ABR
D. edge router

Answer: C

Question 5

Meaning of priority 0 configured in OSPF router?

A. That router cannot participate in the election of DR (or something like that).
B. That router has the highest priority to become a DR
C. That router will not advertise any OSPF route
D. Priority 0 does not exist
Answer: A

Question 6

Which OSPF network type doesnt require a DR/BDR election? (Choose two)

A. Broadcast
B. Point to point
C. Non-Broadcast
D. Point-to-multipoint

Answer: B D

Questions 7

A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote
sites, but no OSPF adjacencies come up Which two actions are possible solutions for this
issue? (Choose Two)

A. Change the network type to point-to-multipoint under WAN interface


B. Enable virtual links
C. Change the network type to nonbroadcast multipoint access
D. Configure the neighbor command under OSPF process for each remote site
E. Ensure that the OSPF process number matches among all remote sites

Answer: A D

Question 8

Using new backup router in spite of faulty one in OSPF domain but relationship with
neighbor in one interface only not working, what is the reason of this problem? (Choose two)

A. area ID mismatch
B. authentication mismatch
C. process id of OSPF not match
D. OSPF timers not match

Answer: A B D (?)

Question 9

Which OSPF areas prevent LSA type 4, LSA type 5? ( choose two)
A. Not-so-stubby area
B. Total stubby area
C. Stubby area
D. Normal area
E. Backbone area
F. Not-so-stubby totally stub area

Answer: B F

OSPF Questions 2
http://www.digitaltut.com/ospf-questions-2-2

Question 1

When OSPF is forming an adjacency, in which state, the actual exchange of information in
the link?

A. INIT
B. loading
C. exstart
D. exchange

Answer: C

Question 2

OSPF chooses routes in which order, regardless of routes adminstrative distance and metric?

A. Interarea
B. Intra-area
C. NSSA type1
D. NSSA type 2
E. External type1
F. External type2

Answer:

Order: B A E F C D (Intra-Area (O); Inter-Area (O IA); External Type 1 (E1); External Type
2 (E2); NSSA Type 1 (N1); NSSA Type 2 (N2))

Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 ospf database command
and is presented with the output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the
link-state type?

(Exhibit missing)

A. link-local
B. area
C. AS (OSPF domain)
D. reserved

Answer: B

Question 4

area 1 range 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0


summary address 10.1.0.0 255.255.0000

What is the effect of those two commands?

A. area 1 range: command applied to summarize internal OSPF routes (ABR)


B. area 1 range: command applied to summarize external OSPF routes (ASBR)
C. Summary address: command applied to summarize external OSPF routes (ASBR)
D. Summary address: command applied to summarize internal OSPF routes (ABR)

Answer: A C

Question 5

Which LSAs present in OSPF stub area?

A. LSA 1,2,3,4,5
B. LSA 1,2,5
C. LSA 1,2,3
D. LSA 3,5

Answer: C

Question 6

Which OSPF area has type 7 LSA?

A. NSSA
B. Total stubby
C. Stubby area
D. Normal area

Answer: A

Question 7

Which type of address does OSPFv3 use to form neighbor adjacencies and to send LSAs?

A. unicast IPv6 addresses


B. link-local addresses
C. multicast address FF02::5
D. unicast IPv4 addresses

Answer: C

Question 8

Which LSA type can exist only in an OSPF NSSA area?

A. type 7 LSA
B. type 1 LSA
C. type 5 LSA
D. type 3 LSA

Answer: A

Question 9

A route map was configured and it was distributing OSPF external routes.

A. Distributing E1 only
B. Distributing E1 and E2 using prefix list
C. Distributing E1 and E2 using access list
D. Distributing E2 routes

Answer: B

Question 10

You have a router has some interface configured with 10Gbps interface and 1Gbps interface.
Which command you use to optimize higher bandwidth?
A. auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
B. cost 10000
C. reference-bandwidth 10000
D. auto-cost 10000

Answer: A

OSPF Questions 3
http://www.digitaltut.com/ospf-questions-3-2

Question 1

Which are new LSA types in OSPF for IPv6 (OSPFv3)? (Choose two)

A. LSA Type 8
B. LSA Type 9
C. LSA Type 10
D. LSA Type 12

Answer: A B

Question 2

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a
router use for the OSPF Router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface


B. The highest IP address of any physical interface
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface
D. The highest IP address of any logical interface

Answer: B

Question 3

You get a call from a network administrator who tells you that he typed the following into his
router:
Router(config)#router ospf 1
Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
He tells you he still cant see any routes in the routing table. What configuration error did the
administrator make?

A. The wildcard mask is incorrect


B. The OSPF area is wrong
C. The OSPF process ID is incorrect
D. The AS configuration is wrong

Answer: A

Question 4

Which type of OSPF router can be aggregated? (Choose two)

A. the ABR
B. the ASBR
C. Backbone Router
D. Intra Router

Answer: A B

Question 5

Which two OSPF network types can operate without a DR/BDR relationship? (Choose two)

A. Point-to-multipoint
B. Point-to-point
C. nonbroadcast
D. nonbroadcast multi-access
E. broadcast

Answer: A B

EIGRP Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/eigrp-questions

Question 1

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration
should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost
paths.

Answer: D

Question 2

A router receives a routing advertisement for the same prefix and subnet from four different
routing protocols. Which advertisement is installed in the routing table?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. iBGP
D. EIGRP

Answer: D

Question 3

Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for
EIGRP authentication key rollover to work correctly?

A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. Passwords
D. Time

Answer: C

Question 4

What following parameters for the EIGRP authentication need to match in order for EIGRP
neighbors to establish a neighbor relationship?

A. Autonomous System number.


B. K-Values
C. If authentication is used both: the key number, the password, and the date/time.
D. The neighbors must be on common subnet (all IGPs follow this rule).
Answer: C (maybe this question is missing something)

Question 5

EIGRP is implemented in a Frame Relay network but there is no adjacency. Which options
cause the adjacency to come up? (choose two)

A. Disable split horizon


B. Neighbor command to configure it for a point to multipoint on the WAN interface
C. Create an static route pointing to the destination
D. EIGRP is not supported for Frame Relay

Answer: A B

Question 6

In a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay topology, which two methods ensure that all routing
updates are received by all EIGRP routers within the Frame Relay network? (Choose two)

A. Disable split horizon


B. Create separate address ranges
C. Use subinterface
D. Use statically defined EIGRP neighbor on the site
E. Disable EIGRP out summary

Answer: A C

Question 7

What is EIGRP Summary Route Administrative Distance?

A. 90
B. 170
C. 5
D. 110

Answer: C

Question 8

Which authentication methods are EIGRP uses?

A. SHA
B. MD5
Answer: B

Question 9

Which two options are requirements for EIGRP authentication? (Choose two)

A. A crypto map must be configured.


B. The Authentication key must be configured under the interface running EIGRP.
C. The authentication key must be configured within the EIGRP routing configuration.
D. The authentication key IDs must match between two neighbors.
E. A separate key chain must be configured.
F. AN IPsec profile must be configured.

Answer: B D

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes why the EIGRP neighbors of this router are not
learning routes that are received from OSPF?
router eigrp 1
redistribute ospf 100
network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
auto-summary
!
router ospf 100
network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 100
redistribute eigrp 1

A. The subnet defined in OSPF is not part of area 0


B. Default metrics are not configured under EIGRP
C. There is no overlap in the subnets advertised
D. The routing protocols do not have the same AS number

Answer: B

Question 11

What is true about EIGRPs redistributed static routes and summarized routes? (Choose two)

A. summary routes have AD of 5


B. static redistributed routes have AD of 170
Answer: A B

EIGRP Questions 2
http://www.digitaltut.com/eigrp-questions-2-2

Question 1

A router was configured with the eigrp stub command. The router advertises which types
of routes?

A. connected, static, and summary


B. static and summary
C. connected and static
D. connected and summary

Answer: D

Question 2

Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for
EIGRP authentication key role over to work correctly?

A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. Passwords
D. Time

Answer: C

Question 3

An exhibit with three routers with three loopback interfaces. One of them was configured as
EIGRP stub, question was to choose what appears in the other router routing table?

A. Loopback of the stub router advertised


B. Loopback of the stub router was not advertised

Answer: A

Question 4

Command to make SATx EIGRP to be prioritize?


A. SATx(config)# distance (89)

Answer: A

Note: Maybe SATx is the name of a router

Question 5

Which type of message does a device configured with the eigrp stub command send in
response to EIGRP queries?

A. invalid request
B. unavailable
C. stuck in active
D. stub-only
E. reject
F. inaccessible

Answer: F

Question 6

What command would you use to set EIGRP routes to be prioritized?

A. distance 100
B. distance 89
C. distance eigrp 100
D. distance eigrp 89

Answer: D

Question 7

Which of the below mentioned conditions form a neighbor relation in EIGRP?(Choose three)

A. Hello or ACK received


B. AS number match
C. Hello timer match
D. Identical metric (k values)
E. Dead Timer Match
F. Network Time Match
Answer: A B D

Question 8

Which item does EIGRP IPv6 require before it can start running?

A. router ID
B. DHCP server
C. subnet mask
D. default gateway

Answer: A

Question 9

Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

A. In the routing table only


B. In the neighbor table only
C. In the topology table only
D. In the routing table and the topology table
E. In the routing table and the neighbor table

Answer: D

Question 10

You need the IP address of the devices with which the router has established an adjacency.
Also, the retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers need to be checked.
What command will display the required information?

A. show ip eigrp adjacency


B. show ip eigrp topology
C. show ip eigrp interfaces
D. show ip eigrp neighbor

Answer: D

Question 11

What is used in EIGRP metric calculation?

A. maximum delay
B. minimum delay
C. average delay
D. minimum interface bandwidth

Answer: D

Question 12

Which two among the following are used to indicate external type of route in routing table?
(Choose two)

A. D EX
B. IA
C. E2
D. R E2
E. i L2

Answer: A C

Question 13

Which command will display all the EIGRP feasible successor routes known to a router?

A. show ip routes
B. show ip eigrp summary
C. show ip eigrp topology
D. show ip eigrp adjacencies

Answer: C

Distribute List
http://www.digitaltut.com/distribute-list

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.


Which one statement is
true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.


B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement
for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24
network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8
network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.

Answer: E

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit


access-list 1 permit 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
access-list 2 permit 1.2.3.0 0.0.0.255
!
router rip

Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet0/0?

A. distribute list 1 out


B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0

Answer: D

Question 3
Which command prevents routers from sending routing updates through a router interface?

A. default-metric 0
B. distribute-list in
C. passive-interface
D. distribute-list out

Answer: D

Policy Based Routing


http://www.digitaltut.com/policy-based-routing

Question 1

Which statement about local policy routing is true?

A. It is used to policy route packets that are generated by the device.


B. It requires all packets to be packet switched.
C. It is used to policy route packets that pass through the device.
D. It requires all packets to be CEF switched.
E. It supports IPv4 packets only.
F. It requires an ip address or access list as the matching criteria.

Answer: A

Question 2

When policy-based routing (PBR) is being configured, which three criteria can the set
command specify? (Choose three)

A. all interfaces through which the packets can be routed


B. all interfaces in the path toward the destination
C. adjacent next hop router in the path toward the destination
D. all routers in the path toward the destination
E. all networks in the path toward the destination
F. type of service and precedence in the IP packets

Answer: A C F

Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would verify if PBR reacts to packets sourced from
172.16.0.0/16?

A. show ip route
B. show policy-map
C. show access-lists
D. show route-map

Answer: D

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the configuration, you need to understand why the policy
routing match counts are not increasing. Which would be the first logical step to take?

A. Confirm if there are other problematic route-map statements that precede divert.
B. Check the access list for log hits.
C. Check the routing table for 212.50.185.126.
D. Remove any two of the set clauses. (Multiple set clause entries will cause PBR to use the
routing table.)

Answer: B
BGP Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/bgp-questions

Question 1

Which type of BGP AS number is 64591?

A. a private AS number
B. a public AS number
C. a private 4-byte AS number
D. a public 4-byte AS number

Answer: A

Question 2

A network administrator notices that the BGP state drops and logs are generated for missing
BGP hello keepalives. What is the potential problem?

A. Incorrect neighbor options


B. Hello timer mismatch
C. BGP path MTU enabled
D. MTU mismatch

Answer: D

Question 3

What is the administrative distance for EBGP?

A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20

Answer: D

Question 4

Valid range for BGP private ASNs?


A. 64512-65535
B. 1-64000
C. 64512-65534

Answer: A

Question 5

Which two BGP neighbor states are valid? (Choose two)

A. Established
B. Active
C. Stuck in active
D. 2-WAY
E. Unknown
F. DROTHER

Answer: A B

Question 6

Which TCP port for BGP?

A. port 179
B. port 197
C. port 180
D. port 178

Answer: A

Question 7

What are two BGP neighborship states? (Choose two)

A. Connect
B. Open Sent
C. Open
D. Passive

Answer: A B

Question 8
What attribute is used to influence traffic from AS200 and AS300 so that it uses link to reach
AS100?

A. MED
B. AS_path
C. weight
D. local preference

Answer: A

Question 9

To enable BGP tunneling over an IPv4 backbone, the IPv4 address 192.168.30.1 is converted
into a valid IPv6 address. Which three IPv6 addresses are acceptable formats for the IPv4
address? (Choose three)

A. 192.168.30.1:0:0:0:0:0:0
B. 0:0:0:0:0:0:192.168.30.1
C. ::192.168.30.1
D. C0A8:1E01::
E. 192.168.30.1::
F. ::C0A8:1E01

Answer: B C F

Redistribution Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/redistribution-questions

Question 1

What is the function of the command redistribute ospf 1 match internal ?

A. means that just inter and intra will be redistributed


B. means routes that match internal route-map will be redistributed
C. all routes except internal routes will be redistributed

Answer: A

Question 2

Redistributing BGP into OSPF what statement is correct? (there is a graphic of redistributing
BGP into OSPF with a route-map)
route-map deny 10
match ip address 10
route-map permit 20
access-list 10 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255

A. 172.16.0.0/24 will NOT be redistributed into OSPF


B. 172.16.0.0/24 will be redistributed into OSPF
C. Routes permitted by ACL 10 will be redistributed
D. All routes will be filtered

Answer: A

Question 3

Which is an invalid option when redistributing from EIGRP into OSPF?

A. ACL
B. tag
C. metric
D. route map

Answer: A

DHCP & DHCPv6 Questions


http://www.digitaltut.com/dhcp-dhcpv6-questions

Question 1

Which DHCP option provides a TFTP server that Cisco phones can use to download a
configuration?

A. DHCP Option 66
B. DHCP Option 68
C. DHCP Option 82
D. DHCP Option 57

Answer: A

Question 2

Which three options are valid DHCPv6 functions? (Choose three)


A. Server
B. Client
C. Approver
D. Requester
E. Requester
F. ACK
G. Relay

Answer: A B G

Question 3

After testing various dynamic IPv6 address assignment methods, an engineer decides that
more control is needed when distributing addresses to clients. Which two advantages does
DHCPv6 have over EUI-64 (Choose two)

A. DHCPv6 requires less planning and configuration than EUI-64 requires.


B. DHCPv6 allows for additional parameters to be sent to the client, such as the domain name
and DNS server.
C. DHCPv6 providers tighter control over the IPv6 addresses that are distributed to clients.
D. DHCPv6 does not require the configuration of prefix pools.
E. DHCPv6 does not require neighbor and router discovery on the network segment.

Answer: B C

Question 4

Got a diagram and asked how to configure ipv6 dhcp relay

A. DHCPv6 server facing Interface:


ipv6 address autoconfig
ipv6 enable
exit
In clients facing interface
ipv6 address
ipv6 dhcp relay destination

B. DHCPv6 server facing Interface:


ipv6 dhcp relay destination
ipv6 address
exit
In clients facing interface
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address autoconfig
Answer: A

Question 5

Which three configuration parameters can a DHCPv6 pool contain? (Choose three)

A. domain search list


B. router IP
C. default gateway
D. prefix delegation
E. DNS servers
F. subnet mask

Answer: A D E

Question 6

Consider this scenario. TCP traffic is blocked on port 547 between a DHCPv6 relay agent
and a DHCPv6 server that is configured for prefix delegation. Which two outcomes will
result when the relay agent is rebooted? (Choose two)

A. Routers will not obtain DHCPv6 prefixes.


B. DHCPv6 clients will be unreachable.
C. Hosts will not obtain DHCPv6 addresses.
D. The DHCPv6 relay agent will resume distributing addresses.
E. DHCPv6 address conflicts will occur on downstream clients.

Answer: A D

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. Router DHCP is configured to lease IPv4 and IPv6 addresses to clients
on ALS1 and ALS2. Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. Clients on ALS1
receive IPv4 addresses. Which configuration on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive
IPv6 addresses?
DSW1#sh run int f0/0
Building configuration
!
interface FastEhternet0/0
ip address 10.4.10.1 255.255.255.0
ip helper-address 4.4.4.4
duplex auto
speed auto
ipv6 address 2002:A04:A01:A04:A01/120
ipv6 enable
end

A. DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404


B. DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404::404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0
C. DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A01
D. DSW1(config)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2

Answer: D

Question 8

Refer in the exhibit. A packet capture indicates that the router is not forwarding the DHCP
packets that it receives on interface FastEthernet0/0. Which command needs to be entered in
global configuration mode to resolve this issue?

A. ip helper-address
B. ip DHCP relay
C. service DHCP
D. ip forward-protocol

Answer: A

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP
server. Consider the following output:
hostname R2
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the R2 fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP
client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?

A. R2(config-
if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255

Answer: A

Question 10

DHCPv6 can obtain configuration parameters from a server through rapid two-way message
exchange. Which two steps are involved in this process? (Choose two)

A. solicit
B. advertise
C. request
D. auth
E. reply

Answer: A E

EVN & VRF Questions


http://www.digitaltut.com/evn-vrf-questions

Question 1

Which three characteristics are shared by subinterfaces and associated EVNs? (Choose three)

A. IP address
B. routing table
C. forwarding table
D. access control lists
E. NetFlow configuration
Answer: A B (?) C (?)

Question 2

Which encapsulation supports an interface that is configured for an EVN trunk?

A. 802.1Q
B. ISL
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
E. MPLS
F. HDLC

Answer: A

Question 3

What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?

A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.


B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.

Answer: A

Question 4

What is the primary service that is provided when you implement Cisco Easy Virtual
Network?

A. It requires and enhances the use of VRF-Lite.


B. It reduces the need for common services separation.
C. It allows for traffic separation and improved network efficiency.
D. It introduces multi-VRF and label-prone network segmentation.

Answer: C

Question 5

Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and
is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN

Answer: B

Question 6

Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network?
(Choose three)

A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization


B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations

Answer: A B C

Question 7

A network engineer has set up VRF-Lite on two routers where all the interfaces are in the
same VRF. At a later time, a new loopback is added to Router 1, but it cannot ping any of the
existing interfaces. Which two configurations enable the local or remote router to ping the
loopback from any existing interface? (Choose two)

A. adding a static route for the VRF that points to the global route table
B. adding the loopback to the VRF
C. adding dynamic routing between the two routers and advertising the loopback
D. adding the IP address of the loopback to the export route targets for the VRF
E. adding a static route for the VRF that points to the loopback interface
F. adding all interfaces to the global and VRF routing tables

Answer: A B

Question 8

Which two routing protocols are supported by Easy Virtual Network? (Choose two)

A. RIPv2
B. OSPFv2
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS

Answer: B D

Question 9

What is the purpose of the route-target command?

A. It extends the IP address to identify which VRF instance it belongs to.


B. It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol
capabilities.
C. It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances.
D. It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance EGP routing protocol
capabilities.

Answer: C

Question 10

Which easy virtual networking configuration component significantly decreases network


configuration?

A. Easy Trunk
B. dot1e
C. virtual network trunk
D. VNET tags
E. MBGP

Answer: C

EVN & VRF Questions 2


http://www.digitaltut.com/evn-vrf-questions-2

Question 1

Cisco EVN related question, a network engineer implemented Cisco EVN. Which feature
implements shared services support?

A. Edge interfacing
B. Tunnel feedback
C. Route replication
D. Route redistribution

Answer: C

Question 2

What does the show ip route vrf CISCO command display?

A. directly connected routes for VRF CISCO.


B. the routing table for VRF CISCO.
C. the global routing table.
D. all routing tables that start with VRF CISCO.
E. the route distinguisher for VRF CISCO.

Answer: B

Question 3

Which two statements about EVN are true? (Choose two)

A. Virtual network tags are assigned per-VRF.


B. It is supported only on access ports.
C. Virtual network tags are assigned globally.
D. Routing metrics can be manipulated only from directly within the routing-context
configuration.
E. The VLAN ID in the 802.1q frame carries the virtual network tag.
F. The VLAN ID is the ISL frame carries the virtual network tag.

Answer: A E

Question 4

Refer to Exhibit. R1 is unable to ping interface S0/0 of R2. What is the issue the
configuration that is shown here?
A. The route-target configuration command is missing.
B. The interface IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
C. The syntax of the ping command is wrong.
D. The default route configuration is missing.
E. The serial interfaces belong to the global table instead of vrf Yellow.

Answer: E

Question 5

What is the purpose of vnet global?

A. It defines the routing scope for each particular EVN edge interface.
B. It aggregates and carries all dot1q tagged traffic.
C. It refers to the global routing context and corresponds to the default RIB.
D. It safeguards the virtual network that is preconfigured to avoid mismatched routing
instances.

Answer: C

Question 6

What is the output of the following command?

show ip vrf

A. show the vrf present in the route and their associated route distinguisher
B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF
C. Shows routing protocol information associated with a VRF.
D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF.
Answer: A

Question 7

Which two statements about route targets that are configured with VRF-Lite are true?
(Choose two)

A. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table


B. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table
C. Route targets are supported only when BGP is configured
D. When IS-IS is configured, route targets identify the circuit level in which the customer
resides
E. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities
F. Route targets allows customers to be assigned overlapping addresses

Answer: B C

IPv6 Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/ipv6-questions

Question 1

Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a
single connection during the migration process?

A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT

Answer: A

Question 2

Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?

A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.


B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old
protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low -order 32
bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Answer: C

Question 3

A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-
local address assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a
router is present?

A. DHCPv6 request
B. router-advertisement
C. neighbor-solicitation
D. redirect

Answer: B

Question 4

An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6
address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:

mac address C601.420F.0007


subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64

Which IPv6 addresses should the engineer add to the documentation?

A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7

Answer: A

Question 5

For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the
local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor
adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?

A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.


B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work
properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused
the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Answer: C

Question 6

A companys corporate policy has been updated to require that stateless, 1-to-1, and IPv6 to
IPv6 translations at the Internet edge are performed. What is the best solution to ensure
compliance with this new policy?

A. NAT64
B. NAT44
C. NATv6
D. NPTv4
E. NPTv6

Answer: E

Question 7

A network engineer executes the ipv6 flowset command. What is the result?

A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.


B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.

Answer: A

Question 8

IPv6 has just been deployed to all of the hosts within a network, but not to the servers. Which
feature allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 servers?

A. NAT
B. NATng
C. NAT64
D. dual-stack NAT
E. DNS64

Answer: C

Question 9
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several
IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of FFFE inserted into the address. Based
on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing FFFE indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.

Answer: A

Question 10

A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local
host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server
will allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external
path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6
address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature,
which is statically defined by the network administrator.

Answer: B

IPv6 Questions 2
http://www.digitaltut.com/ipv6-questions-2-2

Question 1

Which traffic does the following configuration allow?


ipv6 access-list cisco
permit ipv6 host 2001:DB8:0:4::32 any eq ssh
line vty 0 4
ipv6 access-class cisco in

A. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32


B. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
C. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
D. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
Answer: C

Question 2

Which two functions are completely independent when implementing NAT64 over NAT-PT?
(Choose two)

A. DNS
B. NAT
C. port redirection
D. stateless translation
E. session handling

Answer: A B

Question 3

Which two methods of deployment can you use when implementing NAT64? (Choose two)

A. stateless
B. stateful
C. manual
D. automatic
E. static
F. functional
G. dynamic

Answer: A B

Question 4

Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities
using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router Bs
routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message not a router is found in the
output. Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?

A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.


B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B
interface that is connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Answer: D

Question 5

What is a function of NPTv6?

A. It interferes with encryption of the full IP payload.


B. It maintains a per-node state.
C. It is checksum-neutral.
D. It rewrites transport layer headers.

Answer: C

Question 6

Which statement about dual stack is true?

A. Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.


B. Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C. Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D. Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.

Answer: B

Question 7

Which IPv6 address type is seen as the next-hop address in the output of the show ipv6 rip
RIPng database command?

A. link-local
B. global
C. site-local
D. anycast
E. multicast

Answer: A

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit. The command is executed while configuring a point-to-multipoint Frame
Relay interface. Which type of IPv6 address is portrayed in the exhibit?
frame-relay map ipv6 FE80::102 102
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. multicast

Answer: A

Question 9

The following configuration is applied to a router at a branch site:


ipv6 dhcp pool dhcp-pool
dns-server 2001:DB8:1:B::1
dns-server 2001:DB8:3:307C::42
domain-name example.com
!

If IPv6 is configured with default settings on all interfaces on the router, which two dynamic
IPv6 addressing mechanisms could you use on end hosts to provide end-to-end connectivity?
(Choose two)

A. EUI-64
B. SLAAC
C. DHCPv6
D. BOOTP

Answer: A B

Question 10

Which statement about the NPTv6 protocol is true?

A. It is used to translate IPv4 prefixes to IPv6 prefixes.


B. It is used to translate an IPv6 address prefix to another IPv6 prefix.
C. It is used to translate IPv6 prefixes to IPv4 subnets with appropriate masks.
D. It is used to translate IPv4 addresses to IPv6 link-local addresses.

Answer: B

Question 11

The enterprise network WAN link has been receiving several denial of service attacks from
both IPv4 and IPv6 sources. Which three elements can you use to identify an IPv6 packet via
its header, in order to filter future attacks? (Choose three)
A. Traffic Class
B. Source address
C. Flow Label
D. Hop Limit
E. Destination Address
F. Fragment Offset

Answer: A C D

IPv6 Questions 3
http://www.digitaltut.com/ipv6-questions-3-2

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. When summarizing these routes, which route is the summarized route?

A. OI 2001:DB8::/48 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0


B. OI 2001:DB8::/24 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
C. OI 2001:DB8::/32 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
D. OI 2001:DB8::/64 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0

Answer: A

Question 2

What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?

A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast

Answer: B

Question 3
Considering the IPv6 address independence requirements, which process do you avoid when
you use NPTv6 for translation?

A. rewriting of higher layer information


B. checksum verification
C. ipv6 duplication and conservation
D. IPSEC AH header modification

Answer: A

Question 4

An engineer is using a network sniffer to troubleshoot DHCPv6 between a router and hosts
on the LAN with the following configuration:
interface Ethernet0
ipv6 dhcp server DHCPSERVERPOOL rapid-commit
!
Which two DHCPv6 messages will appear in the sniffer logs?

A. reply
B. request
C. advertise
D. acknowledge
E. solicit
F. accept

Answer: A E

Question 5

Two limitations when use NPTv6 for IPV6 to IPV6 Address translation?

A. stateful address translation


B. a limit of 32 1-to-1 translations
C. lack of overloading functionality
D. identify all interfaceas NAT inside or outside
E. 1-to-1 prefix rewrite
F. mismatched prefix allocations

Answer: C F

Question 6

Technologies used in preparing Service Provider IPv6? (Choose two)


A. 6ND
B. 6RD
C. 6VPE
D. VRF-Lite
E. DS-Lite
F. Dual-stack

Answer: B E

Question 7

An EUI-64 bit address is formed by adding a reserved 16-bit value in which position of the
MAC address?

A. between the vendor OID and the NIC-specific part of the MAC address.
B. after the NIC-specific part of the MAC address.
C. before the vendor OID part of the MAC address.
D. anywhere in the Mac address, because the value that is added is reserved.

Answer: A

Question 8

An EUI-64 bit address is formed by inserting which 16-bit value into the MAC address of a
device?

A. 3FFE
B. FFFE
C. FF02
D. 2001

Answer: B

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to
support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP
addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three)
A ::0A43:0002
B 0A43:0002::
C ::10.67.0.2
D 10.67.0.2::
E 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0

Answer: A C E

Question 10

Which of the following address types are associated with IPv6? (Choose three)

A. Unicast
B. Private
C. Broadcast
D. Public
E. Multicast
F. Anycast

Answer: A E F
IPv6 Questions 4
http://www.digitaltut.com/ipv6-questions-4-2

Question 1

Which statement is true about IPv6?

A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.


B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can auto configure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use any cast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces.

Answer: C

Question 2

What is IPv6 router solicitation?

A. a request made by a node to join a specified multicast group


B. a request made by a node for its IP address
C. a request made by a node for the IP address of the DHCP server
D. a request made by a node for the IP address of the local router

Answer: D

Question 3

Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel
versus an automatic 6to4 tunnel?

A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.


B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6)
routers at the tunnel endpoints.
D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel
endpoints.

Answer: B

Question 4
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network
segment? (Choose two)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration: options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via
DHCP. Host configuration: options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other
devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for
hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router
interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.

Answer: A C

RIPng Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/ripng-questions

Question 1

What are the default timers for RIPng?

A. Update:30 seconds Expire:180 seconds Flush:240 seconds


B. Update:20 seconds Expire:120 seconds Flush:160 seconds
C. Update:10 seconds Expire:60 seconds Flush:80 seconds
D. Update:5 seconds Expire:30 seconds Flush:40 seconds

Answer: A

Question 2

What is the command to only check neighbor router using RIPng?

A. show ipv6 rip one next-hops


B. show ipv6 rip next-hops one
C. show ipv6 next-hops rip
D. show ipv6 next-hops one rip

Answer: A

Question 3

A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues with a directly connected RIPng


neighbor. Which command should show directly connected RIPng neighbor adjacencies
only?
A. router#show ipv6 rip next-hops
B. router#show ip rip neighbors
C. router#show ipv6 routers
D. router#show ipv6 rip database

Answer: A

Question 4

Which IPv6 address type does RIPng use for next-hop addresses?

A. Global
B. Site-local
C. Any Cast
D. Link-local
E. Multicast

Answer: D

Question 5

RIPng Question. Cannot receive RIPng updates. Why?

A. Firewall Port block UDP 520


B. Firewall Port block TCP 520
C. Firewall Port block UDP 521
D. Firewall Port block TCP 521

Answer: C

Question 6

A network engineer is disabling split horizon on a point-to-multipoint interface that is


running RIPng. Under which configuration mode can split horizon be disabled?

A. router(config-riping)#
B. router(config-rtr)#
C. router(config-if)#
D. router(config)#

Answer: B
Question 7

Where do you change the timers for RIPng?

A. router(config)#
B. router(config-if)#
C. router(config-router)#
D. router(config-rtr)#

Answer: D

Security Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/security-questions

Question 1

Which statement is true?

A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.


B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.

Answer: D

Question 2

Which two statements about AAA implementation in a Cisco router are true? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS is more flexible than TACACS+ in router management.


B. RADIUS and TACACS+ allow accounting of commands.
C. RADIUS and TACACS+ encrypt the entire body of the packet.
D. RADIUS and TACACS+ are client/server AAA protocols.
E. Neither RADIUS nor TACACS+ allow for accounting of commands.

Answer: B D

Question 3

Which of the following are characteristics of TACACS+? (Choose two)


A. Uses UDP
B. Encrypts an entire packet
C. Offers robust accounting
D. Cisco-proprietary

Answer: B D

Question 4

What are two protocols used for user with authentication on network device?

A. CHAP
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1x
D. PAP
E. TACACS+

Answer: B E

Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding


http://www.digitaltut.com/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding

Question 1

What are the three modes of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?

A. strict mode, loose mode, and VRF mode


B. strict mode, loose mode, and broadcast mode
C. strict mode, broadcast mode, and VRF mode
D. broadcast mode, loose mode, and VRF mode

Answer: A

Question 2

Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet
against the routing table?

A. source address
B. destination address
C. router interface
D. default gateway
Answer: A

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Which option represents the minimal configuration that allows inbound traffic from the
172.16.1.0/24 network to successfully enter router TUT, while also limiting spoofed
10.0.0.0/8 hosts that could enter router TUT?

A. (config)#ip cef
(config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx allow-default
B. (config)#ip cef
(config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx
C. (config)#no ip cef
(config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx
D. (config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

Answer: A

Question 4

Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?

A. allow self ping to router


B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both

Answer: D

Question 5
Which mode of uRPF causes a router interface to accept a packet, if the network to which the
packets source IP address belongs is found in the routers FIB?

A. Strict mode
B. Loose mode
C. Auto mode
D. Desirable mode

Answer: B

Question 6

Whats uRPF checking first when the packet enters the interface?

A. It checks the ingress access list


B. It checks the egress access list
C. Route available in FIB or it verifies a reverse patch via the FIB to the source
D. It verifies that the source has a valid CEF adjacency

Answer: A

Question 7

Which command sequence can you enter on a router to configure Unicast Reverse Path
Forwarding in loose mode?

A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via all

B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via loose

C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

D. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

Answer: C

Question 8

What option can be used for uRPF in loose mode on the command ip verify unicast source
reachable-via?
A. rx
B. any
C. allow-default

Answer: B

Question 9

Which command sequence can you enter a router to configure Unicast Reverse Path
Forwarding in loose mode?

A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via loose.

B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via all.

C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via any.

D. interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx.

Answer: C

Question 10

When unicast reverse path forwarding is configured on an interface, which action does the
interface take first when it receives a packet?

A. it verifies that the source has a valid VEF adjacency.


B. It checks the egress access lists.
C. it verifies a reverse path via the FIB to the source.
D. It checks the ingress access lists.

Answer: C

IP Services Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/ip-services-questions
Question 1

Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?

A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match

Answer: B

Question 2

A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during


maintenance windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the
network respond accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?

A. Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during
maintenance.
B. Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C. Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D. Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.

Answer: A

Question 3

Refer to the following command:


router(config)# ip http secure-port 4433

Which statement is true?

A. The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTPS traffic.


B. The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTP traffic.
C. The router will never accept any HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
D. The router will listen to HTTP and HTTP traffic on port 4433.

Answer: A

Question 4

A network engineer executes the show crypto ipsec sa command. Which three pieces of
information are displayed in the output? (Choose three)
A. inbound crypto map
B. remaining key lifetime
C. path MTU
D. tagged packets
E. untagged packets
F. invalid identity packets

Answer: A B C

SNMP Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/snmp-questions

Question 1

A network engineer is configuring SNMP on network devices to utilize one-way SNMP


notifications. However, the engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption.
Which command satisfies the requirements of this scenario?

A. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 2c CISCORO


B. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 2c CISCORO
C. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 3 auth CISCORO
D. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 3 auth CISCORO

Answer: A

Question 2

When using SNMPv3 with NoAuthNoPriv, which string is matched for authentication?

A. username
B. password
C. community-string
D. encryption-key

Answer: A

Question 3

To configure SNMPv3 implementation, a network engineer is using the AuthNoPriv security


level. What effect does this action have on the SNMP messages?
A. They become unauthenticated and unencrypted.
B. They become authenticated and unencrypted.
C. They become authenticated and encrypted.
D. They become unauthenticated and encrypted.

Answer: B

Question 4

Which parameter in an SNMPv3 configuration offers authentication and encryption?

A. auth
B. noauth
C. priv
D. secret

Answer: C

Question 5

What is the function of the snmp-server manager command?

A. To enable the device to send and receive SNMP requests and responses
B. To enable the device to send SNMP traps to the SNMP server
C. To disable SNMP messages from getting to the SNMP engine
D. To configure the SNMP server to store log data

Answer: A

Question 6

What is the most security SNMP version?

A. v2c auth
B. v2c
C. v3
D. v1

Answer: C

Question 7
A network engineer is asked to create an SNMP-enabled proactive monitoring solution to
ensure that jitter levels remain between particular boundaries. Which IP SLA option should
the engineer use?

A. threshold
B. frequency
C. verify-data
D. timeout

Answer: A

Question 8

Which SNMP verification command shows the encryption and authentication protocols that
are used in SNMPv3?

A. show snmp group


B. show snmp user
C. show snmp
D. show snmp view

Answer: B

Question 9

What SNMP version provides both encryption and authentication?

A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv4
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv2c

Answer: C

Question 10

What is the reasons of command:

Router(config)#snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 traps version 2c CISCORO

A. For network system to management server


B. allow 192.168.1.3 only
Answer: A

Question 11

Which three statements about SNMP are true? (Choose three)

A. The manager configures and send traps to the agent.


B. The manager sends GET and SET messages.
C. SNMPv3 supports authentication and encryption.
D. The manager polls the agent using UDP port 161
E. The MIB database can be altered only by the SNMP agent.
F. The agent is the monitoring device.

Answer: C D F

Syslog Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/syslog-questions

Question 1

Which alerts will be seen on the console when running the command: logging console
warnings?

A. warnings only
B. warnings, notifications, error, debugging, informational
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts

Answer: C

Question 2

Network engineer wants to configure logging to compile and send information to an external
server. Which type of logging must be configured?

A. Terminal
B. Syslog
C. Buffer
D. Console

Answer: B
Question 3

Which command do you enter to display log messages with a timestamp that includes the
length of time since the device was last rebooted?

A. service timestamps log uptime


B. logging facility 20
C. service timestamps debugging localtime msec
D. logging console errors
E. logging monitor 7
F. service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: A

Question 4

A network engineer enables a trunk port and encounters the following message:
%LINEPROTO-5- UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet 1/1, changed state to
up.

What is the severity level of this message?

A. alert
B. critical
C. notification
D. informational

Answer: C

Question 5

Up/ down interface, what log severity level?

A. level 3
B. level 4
C. level 5
D. level 0

Answer: A

Explanation

Maybe this question wants to mention about this Syslog message:


00:00:47: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1, changed state to up

-> The log secerity level of this warning is 3 errors

Question 6

The network engineer types the follow commands in a router:

logging host 172.16.10.12 logging trap 5

What do these commands do?

A. Export messages of notifications for an external server


B. Show notifications in CLI
C. Sends info to host 172.16.10.12 with notifications less than or equal to 5
D. Sends info to host 172.16.10.12 with notifications greater than or equal to 5

Answer: C

Question 7

A network engineer executes the commands logging host 172.16.200.225 and logging trap
5. Which action results when these two commands are executed together?

A. Logging messages that have a debugging severity level are sent to the remote server
172.16.200.225.
B. Logged information is stored locally, showing the sources as 172.16.200.225
C. Logging messages that have any severity level are sent to the remote server
172.16.200.225
D. Logging messages that have a severity level of notifications and above (numerically
lower) are sent to the remote server 172.16.200.225

Answer: D

Question 8

After a recent DoS attack on a network, senior management asks you to implement better
logging functionality on all IOS-based devices. Which two actions can you take to provide
enhanced logging results? (Choose two)

A. Use the msec option to enable service time stamps.


B. Increase the logging history
C. Set the logging severity level to 1.
D. Specify a logging rate limit.
E. Disable event logging on all noncritical items.
Answer: A B

NTP Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/ntp-questions

Question 1

Refer to the following configuration command.


router (config-line)# ntp master 10

Which statement about this command is true?

A. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock and allows only 10 NTP client connections.
B. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock at stratum 10.
C. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock with a priority number of 10.
D. The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock for 10 minutes only.

Answer: B

Question 2

A network engineer is trying to implement broadcast-based NTP in a network and executes


the ntp broadcast client command. Assuming that an NTP server is already set up, what is
the result of the command?

A. It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on the interface where the command was executed.
B. It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on all interfaces globally.
C. It enables a device to be an NTP peer to another device.
D. It enables a device to receive NTP broadcast and unicast packets.

Answer: A

Question 3

Which two statements indicate a valid association mode for NTP synchronization? (Choose
two)

A. The client polls NTP servers for time


B. The client broadcasts NTP requests
C. The client listens to NTP broadcasts
D. The client creates a VPN tunnel to an NTP server
E. The client multicasts NTP requests

Answer: A C

Question 4

Which two statements about NTP operation are true? (Choose two)

A. If multiple NTP servers are configured, the one with the lowest stratum is preferred
B. By default, NTP communications use UDP port 123.
C. If multiple NTP servers are configured, the one with the highest stratum is preferred.
D. Locally configured time overrides time received from an NTP server.
E. Stratum refers to the number of hops between the NTP client and the NTP server.

Answer: A B

Question 5

Refer to Exhibit:
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.1
access-list 1 deny any
access-list 2 permit 192.168.1.4
access-list 2 deny any
!
ntp access-group peer 2
ntp access-group serve 1
ntp master 4
!

Which three NTP features can be deduced on the router? (Choose three)

A. Only accepts time requests from 192.168.1.1


B. Only handle four requests at a time
C. Only is in stratum 4
D. Only updates its time from 192.168.1.1
E. Only accepts time requests from 192.168.1.4
F. Only updates its time from 192.168.1.4

Answer: A C F

Question 6
A network engineer wants an NTP client to be able to update the local system without
updating or synchronizing with the remote system. Which option for the ntp access-group
command is needed to accomplish this?

A. Serve
B. Serve-only
C. peer
D. Query-only

Answer: A

Question 7

Question about NTP Stratum:

A. stratum 0
B. stratum 1
C. stratum 2
D. stratum 15
E. stratum 16

Answer: depends on the question:

Stratum 0 highest, GPS clock


Stratum 1- primary time servers, connected to stratum 0
The upper limit for Stratum is 15;
Stratum 16 is used to indicate that a device is unsynchronized

Question 8

Refer to exhibit. A network engineer receives a command output from a customer that
indicates an issue with NTP. What are two reasons for the output? (Choose two)
Clock is unsynchronized, stratum 16, no reference clock
nominal freq is 119.2092 Hz, actual freq is 119.2092 Hz, precision is 2**18
reference time is 00000000.00000000 (00:00:00.000 UTC Mon Jan 1 1900)
clock offset is 0.0000 msec, root delay is 0.00 msec
root dispersion is 0.00 msec, peer dispersion is 0.00 msec

A. NTP traffic is blocked.


B. NTP is not configured.
C. The router is the NTP master.
D. ntp update-calendar is missing.
E. There is an NTP authentication failure.
Answer: A E

Question 9

Which three NTP operating modes must the trusted-key command be configured on for
authentication to operate properly? (Choose three)

A. interface
B. client
C. peer
D. server
E. broadcast

Answer: B D E (?)

Question 10

NPTv6 restrictions?

Possible answers:

Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)


NAT64 on the same interface.
Multicast and Firewall is not supported.
Payload address or port translation is not supported.
Syslog is not supported.

Question 11

A network engineer wants to verify the status of a recently configured NTP setup on one of
the routers. The engineer executes the show ntp associations command. What does the
output indicate?

A. the synchronized NTP servers that are configured on the device.


B. the authentication mode that is used with the NTP server.
C. the security key value for the configured NTP server.
D. the facility that is configured for the NTP server.

Answer: A

Question 12

Refer to Exhibit, which statement about the configuration on the Cisco router is true?

Router(config)#ntp source Loopback0


Router(config)#interface eth0/0
Router(config-if)#ntp disable

A. The router sends only NTP traffic, using the loopback interface, and it disables eth0/0
from sending NTP traffic.
B. Eth0/0 sends NTP traffic on behalf of the loopback interface
C. The router sends only NTP traffic, using the eth0/0 interface, and it disables loopback0
from sending NTP traffic.
D. The router never sends NTP traffic, as using the loopback interface for NTP traffic is not
supported on IOS routers.

Answer: A

NAT Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/nat-questions

Question 1

A network engineer is trying to modify an existing active NAT configuration on an IOS


router by using the following command:
(config)# no ip nat pool dynamic-nat-pool 192.1.1.20 192.1.1.254 netmask 255.255.255.0

Upon entering the command on the IOS router, the following message is seen on the console:
%Dynamic Mapping in Use, Cannot remove message or the %Pool outpool in use,
cannot destroy
What is the least impactful method that the engineer can use to modify the existing IP NAT
configuration?

A. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat traffic * command, then replace the
NAT configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation
table due to active NAT traffic.
B. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat translation * command, then replace
the NAT configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the
translation table due to active NAT traffic.
C. Clear the IP NAT translations using the reload command on the router, then replace the
NAT configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation
table due to active NAT traffic.
D. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat table * command, then replace the
NAT configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation
table due to active NAT traffic.

Answer: B
Question 2

Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside
interfaces are correctly identified for NAT?
ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.1.50 80 209.165.201.1 8080 extendable

A. It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B. It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server
at 192.168.1.50.
C. It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D. It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.

Answer: C

Question 3

A network engineer is asked to configure a site-to-site IPsec VPN tunnel. One of the last
things that the engineer does is to configure an access list (access-list 1 permit any) along
with the command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload. Which functions do the two
commands serve in this scenario?

A. The command access-list 1 defines interesting traffic that is allowed through the tunnel.
B. The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload disables many-to-one access
for all devices on a defined segment to share a single IP address upon exiting the external
interface.
C. The command access-list 1 permit any defines only one machine that is allowed through
the tunnel.
D. The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload provides many-to-one
access for all devices on a defined segment to share a single IP address upon exiting the
external interface.

Answer: D

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.


interface FastEthernet0/1
ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.224
ip nat outside
!
interface FastEthernet0/2
ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0
ip nat inside
!
access-list 10 permit 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
!

Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet?

A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload


B. ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload
C. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
D. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload

Answer: A

Question 5

Refer to the following configuration command.

router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80

Which statement about the command is true?

A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of
172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of
172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address
172.16.10.8.
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8
is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.

Answer: B

Question 6

Which two functionalities are specific to stateless NAT64? (Choose two)

A. No requirement exists for the characteristics of Ipv6 address assignment


B. It does not conserve IPv4 addresses
C. It provides 1-to-1 translation.
D. It uses address overloading.
E. State or bindings are created on the translation.

Answer: B C

Question 7
Which NAT command to disable dynamic ARP learning on an interface?

A. R(config-if)# ip nat enable


B. R(config-if)# ip nat inside
C. R(config-if)# ip nat outside
D. R(config)# ip nat service
E. R(config)# ip nat allow-static-host

Answer: E

Question 8

What is the viable successor of NAT-PT?

A. NAT
B. NAT64
C. NPTv6
D. DHCPv6

Answer: B

Question 9

Which option is the first task that a device configured with NAT64 performs when it receives
an incoming IPv6 packet that matches the stateful NAT64 prefix?

A. It translates the IPv6 header into an IPv4 header.


B. It checks the IPv6 packet against the NAT64 stateful prefix.
C. It translates the IPv6 source address to an IPv4 header.
D. It translates theA IPv4 destination address into a new NAT64 state.
E. It performs an IPv6 route lookup.

Answer: A

Question 10

Which command enables NAT-PT on an IPv6 interface?

A. ipv6 nat
B. ipv6 nat enable
C. ipv6 nat-pt
D. ipv6 nat-pt enable
Answer: A

IP SLA Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/ip-sla-questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Which technology can be employed to automatically detect a WAN primary link failure and
failover to the secondary link?

A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. IP SLA
D. multicast

Answer: C

Question 2

A network engineer has configured a tracking object to monitor the reachability of IP SLA 1.
In order to update the next hop for the interesting traffic, which feature must be used in
conjunction with the newly created tracking object to manipulate the traffic flow as required?

A. SNMP
B. PBR
C. IP SLA
D. SAA
E. ACLs
F. IGP

Answer: B
Question 3

A network engineer initiates the ip sla responder tcp-connect command in order to gather
statistics for performance gauging. Which type of statistics does the engineer see?

A. connectionless-oriented
B. service-oriented
C. connection-oriented
D. application-oriented

Answer: C

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the configuration is true?


ip auth-proxy max-nodata-conns 3
ip admission max-nodata-conns 3
ip sla monitor 1
type jitter dest-ipaddr 200.0.10.3 dest-port 65051 num-packets 20
request-data-size 160
tos 128
frequency 30
ip sla monitor shedule 1 start-time after 00:05:00

A. 20 packets are being sent every 30 seconds.


B. The monitor starts at 12:05:00 a.m.
C. Jitter is being tested with TCP packets to port 65051.
D. The packets that are being sent use DSCP EF.

Answer: A

Question 5

Which three items can you track when you use two time stamps with IP SLAs? (Choose
three)

A. delay
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. load
E. throughput
F. path
Answer: A B C

Question 6

Two aspects of an IP SLA operation can be tracked: state and reachability. Which statement
about state tracking is true?

A. When tracking state, an OK return code means that the tracks state is up; any other return
code means that the tracks state is down.
B. When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the tracks state is
up; any other return code means that the tracks state is down.
C. When tracking state, an OK return code means that the tracks state is down; any other
return code means that the tracks state is up.
D. When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the tracks state is
down; any other return code means that the tracks state is up.

Answer: A

Question 7

An engineer is asked to monitor the availability of the next-hop IP address of 172.16.201.25


every 3 seconds using an ICMP echo packet via an ICMP echo probe. Which two commands
accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. router(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.16.201.25 source-interface FastEthernet 0/0


B. router(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 3
C. router(config-ip-sla)#icmp-jitter 172.16.201.25 interval 100
D. router(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 3
E. router(config-ip-sla)#udp-echo 172.16.201.25 source-port 23
F. router(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 3

Answer: A D

Question 8

Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks?
(Choose three)

A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Answer: A B D

Question 9

A network engineer wants to notify a manager in the events that the IP SLA connection loss
threshold reached. Which two feature are need to implements this functionality? (Choose
two)

A. MOS
B. Threshold action
C. Cisco IOS EEM
D. SNMP traps
E. logging local

Answer: B D

Question 10

Which IP SLA operation can be used to measure round-trip delay for the full path and hop-
by-hop round-trip delay on the network?

A. HTTP
B. ICMP path echo
C. TCP connect
D. ICMP echo

Answer: B

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

The IP SLA configuration of R1 is shown below:

R1(config)#ip sla 1
R1(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.20.20.2 source-interface f1/0
R1(config-ip-sla)#frequency 10
R1(config-ip-sla)#threshold 100
R1(config)#ip sla schedule 1 start-time now life forever
R1(config)#track 10 ip sla 1 reachability
R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2

What makes default route not removed when SLA state down or failed?

A. the destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo


B. the threshold value is wrong
C. the default route has wrong next hop IP address.
D. missing of track feature on default static route command

Answer: D

Question 12

Which type of information is displayed when a network engineer executes the show track 1
command on the router?

A. information about tracking list 1.


B. time to next poll for track object 1.
C. information about the IP route track table.
D. tracking information statistics.

Answer: A

IP SLA Questions 2
http://www.digitaltut.com/ip-sla-questions-2

Question 1

Which IP SLA operation requires Cisco endpoints?

A. UDP Jitter for VoIP


B. ICMP Path Echo
C. ICMP Echo
D. UDP Jitter

Answer: A
Question 2

Refer to exhibit. Which two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true? (Choose two)

R1(config)#ip sla 1
R1(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.20.20.2 source-interface FastEthernet0/0
R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 5000
R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 10
R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 500
R1(config)#ip sla schedule 1 start-time now life forever
R1(config)#track 10 ip sla 1 reachability
R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2 track 10
R1(config)#no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2
R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.30.30.2 5

A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly


B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2
D. The default route has wrong next hop IP address
E. The threshold value is wrong

Answer: C E

Question 3

Which option must be configured on a target device to use time stamping to accurately
represent response times using IP SLA?

A. Responder
B. Jitter value
C. TCP Connect
D. ICMP Echo

Question 4
A network engineer executes the show ip sla statistics command. What does the output of
this command show?

A. Operation availability
B. Device CPU utilization
C. Interface packet statistics
D. Packet sequencing

Answer: A

Question 5

Which two types of threshold can you configure for tracking objects? (Choose two)

A. percentage
B. MTU
C. bandwidth
D. weight
E. delay
F. administrative distance

Answer: A D

Question 6

Which option can you use to monitor voice traffic when configuring an IP SLA?

A. UDP-Jitter
B. TCP-Jitter
C. ip sla logging traps
D. ip sla reaction-configuration

Answer: A

Question 7

Which command is used to check IP SLA when an interface is suspected to receive lots of
traffic with options?

A. show track
B. show threshold
C. show timer
D. show delay
Answer: A

Question 8

How to set up IP SLA to monitor bandwidth between the certain limits?

A. Timer
B. Frequency
C. Threshold
D. Queue-limit

Answer: C

Question 9

Which location is traffic from IP SLAs?

A. core edge
B. access edge
C. WAN edge
D. Distribution edge
E. User edge

Answer: C

NetFlow Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/netflow-questions

Question 1

A network engineer executes the show ip flow export command. Which line in the output
indicates that the send queue is full and export packets are not being sent?

A. output drops
B. enqueuing for the RP
C. fragmentation failures
D. adjacency issues

Answer: A
Question 2

An organization decides to implement NetFlow on its network to monitor the fluctuation of


traffic that is disrupting core services. After reviewing the output of NetFlow, the network
engineer is unable to see OUT traffic on the interfaces. What can you determine based on this
information?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding has not been configured globally.


B. NetFlow output has been filtered by default.
C. Flow Export version 9 is in use.
D. The command ip flow-capture fragment-offset has been enabled.

Answer: A

Question 3

A network engineer has left a NetFlow capture enabled over the weekend to gather
information regarding excessive bandwidth utilization. The following command is entered:
switch#show flow exporter Flow_Exporter-1

What is the expected output?

A. configuration of the specified flow exporter


B. current status of the specified flow exporter
C. status and statistics of the specified flow monitor
D. configuration of the specified flow monitor

Answer: B

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.


Sampler: mysampler, id: 1, packets matched: 10, mode random sampling mode
sampling interval is : 100

Which statement about the output of the show flow-sampler command is true?

A. The sampler matched 10 packets, each packet randomly chosen from every group of 100
packets.
B. The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 packets.
C. The sampler matched 10 packets, each one randomly chosen from every 100-second
interval.
D. The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 seconds.
Answer: A

Question 5

What is the result of the command ip flow-export destination 10.10.10.1 5858?

A. It configures the router to export cache flow information to IP 10.10.10.1 on port


UDP/5858.
B. It configures the router to export cache flow information about flows with destination IP
10.10.10.1 and port UDP/5858.
C. It configures the router to receive cache flow information from IP 10.10.10.1 on port
UDP/5858.
D. It configures the router to receive cache flow information about flows with destination IP
10.10.10.1 and port UDP/5858.

Answer: A

Question 6

Which NetFlow component is applied to an interface and collects information about flows?

A. flow monitor
B. flow exporter
C. flow sampler
D. flow collector

Answer: A

Question 7

A network engineer is notified that several employees are experiencing network performance
related issues, and bandwidth-intensive applications are identified as the root cause. In order
to identify which specific type of traffic is causing this slowness, information such as the
source/destination IP and Layer 4 port numbers is required. Which feature should the
engineer use to gather the required information?

A. SNMP
B. Cisco IOS EEM
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. WCCP

Answer: C
Question 8

An engineer executes the ip flow ingress command in interface configuration mode. What is
the result of this action?

A. It enables the collection of IP flow samples arriving to the interface.


B. It enables the collection of IP flow samples leaving the interface.
C. It enables IP flow while disabling IP CEF on the interface.
D. It enables IP flow collection on the physical interface and its subinterfaces.

Answer: A

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?

A. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.


B. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C. The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D. The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.

Answer: A

Question 10

In which two ways can NetFlow data be viewed? (Choose two)


A. CLI
B. NetFlow collector
C. built-in GUI
D. syslog server interface
E. web interface

Answer: A B

Question 11

A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in
order for NDE to begin exporting data?

A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version

Answer: C

Question 12

A network engineer executes the show ip cache flow command. Which two types of
information are displayed in the report that is generated? (Choose two)

A. top talkers
B. flow export statistics
C. flow sample for specific protocols
D. MLS flow traffic
E. IP packet distribution

Answer: C E

Question 13

Where can NetFlow export data for long term storage and analysis?

A. syslog
B. collector
C. another network device
D. flat file
Answer: B

Troubleshooting Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/troubleshooting-questions

Question 1

Which two commands would be used to troubleshoot high memory usage for a process?
(Choose two)

A. router#show memory allocating-process table


B. router#show memory summary
C. router#show memory dead
D. router#show memory events
E. router#show memory processor statistics

Answer: A B

Question 2

A network engineer finds that a core router has crashed without warning. In this situation,
which feature can the engineer use to create a crash collection?

A. secure copy protocol


B. core dumps
C. warm reloads
D. SNMP
E. NetFlow

Answer: B

Question 3

A network engineer is investigating the cause of a service disruption on a network segment


and executes the debug condition interface fastethernet f0/0 command. In which situation
is the debugging output generated?

A. when packets on the interface are received and the interface is operational
B. when packets on the interface are received and logging buffered is enabled
C. when packets on the interface are received and forwarded to a configured syslog server
D. when packets on the interface are received and the interface is shut down
Answer: A

Question 4

Various employees in the same department report to the network engineer about slowness in
the network connectivity to the Internet. They are also having latency issues communicating
to the network drives of various departments. Upon monitoring, the engineer finds traffic
flood in the network. Which option is the problem?

A. network outage
B. network switching loop
C. router configuration issue
D. wrong proxy configured

Answer: B

Miscellaneous Questions
http://www.digitaltut.com/miscellaneous-questions

Question 1

A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this
command clear and rebuild? (Choose two)

A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table

Answer: A B

Question 2

Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le


24?

A. 10.9.1.0/24
B. 10.8.0.0/24
C. 10.8.0.0/16
D. 10.8.0.0/23
Answer: B

Question 3

A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the
user to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions. After
doing this, the user is able to access company shares. Which type of remote access did the
engineer enable?

A. EZVPN
B. IPsec VPN client access
C. VPDN client access
D. SSL VPN client access

Answer: D

Question 4

Which technology was originally developed for routers to handle fragmentation in the path
between end points?

A. PMTUD
B. MSS
C. windowing
D. TCP
E. global synchronization

Answer: A

Question 5

If the total bandwidth is 64 kbps and the RTT is 3 seconds, what is the bandwidth delay
product?

A. 8,000 bytes
B. 16,000 bytes
C. 24,000 bytes
D. 32,000 bytes
E. 62,000 bytes

Answer: C
Question 6

A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The
network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which
option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?

A. traffic over backup redundant links


B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links

Answer: D

Question 7

In which scenario can asymmetric routing occur?

A. active/active firewall setup


B. single path in and out of the network.
C. active/standby firewall setup
D. redundant routers running VRRP

Answer: D

Question 8

How route tags can be set? (Choose two)

A. only with route-maps


B. only with tag lists
C. can be set with route-maps
D. can be set with taglist
E. only used on link state RPs

Answer: C D

Question 9

What are three reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three)

A. to hide certain networks from the rest of organization


B. for easier implementations
C. to control network overhead on the wire
D. for simple security
E. to prevent adjacencies from forming

Answer: A C D

Drag and Drop


http://www.digitaltut.com/drag-and-drop

Question 1

Drag and drop the IPv6 NAT characteristic from the left to the matching IPv6 NAT category
on the right.

Answer:

NAT64:
+ Use Network-specific prefix
+ Modify session during translation

NPTv6:
+ Modify IP header in transit
+ Map one IPv6 address prefix to another IPv6 prefix

Question 2

Drag and drop the BGP states from the left to the matching definitions on the right.
Answer:

+ OpenSent: wait for an OPEN message


+ OpenConfirm: wait for a KEEPALIVE or NOTIFICATION message
+ Established: UPDATE, NOTIFICATION and KEEPALIVE messages are exchanged with
peers
+ Idle: refuse connections
+ Active: listen for and accept connection
+ Connect: wait for the connection to be completed

Question 3

Drag and drop the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency types from the left to the correct type
of processing on the right.
Punt
Packets are discarded
Adjacency
Features that require special handling or features that are not yet supported in
Drop conjunction with CEF switching paths are forwarded to the next switching layer
Adjacency for handling. Features that are not supported are forwarded to the next higher
switching level.
When a router is connected directly to several hosts, the FIB table on the router
Null maintains a prefix for the subnet rather than for the individual host prefixes. The
Adjacency subnet prefix points to a glean adjacency. When packets need to be forwarded
to a specific host, the adjacency database is gleaned for the specific prefix.
Discard
Packets are dropped, but the prefix is checked.
Adjacency
Glean Packets destined for a Null0 interface are dropped. This can be used as an
Adjacency effective form of access filtering.

Answer:

Punt Adjacency: Features that require special handling or features that are not yet supported
in conjunction with CEF switching paths are forwarded to the next switching layer for
handling. Features that are not supported are forwarded to the next higher switching level.
Drop Adjacency: Packets are dropped, but the prefix is checked.
Null Adjacency: Packets destined for a Null0 interface are dropped. This can be used as an
effective form of access filtering.
Discard Adjacency: Packets are discarded.
Glean Adjacency: When a router is connected directly to several hosts, the FIB table on the
router maintains a prefix for the subnet rather than for the individual host prefixes. The
subnet prefix points to a glean adjacency. When packets need to be forwarded to a specific
host, the adjacency database is gleaned for the specific prefix.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/switch/configuration/guide/fswtch_c/xcfcef.ht
ml

Question 4

Drag and drop the challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol steps from the left into the
correct order in which they occur on the right.

Answer:

+ Target 1: When the LCP phase is complete and CHAP is negotiated between both devices,
the authenticator sends a challenge message to the peer
+ Target 2: The peer responds with a value calculated through a one-way hash function
(MD5)
+ Target 3: The authenticator checks the response against its own calculation of the expected
hash value if the values match the authentication is successful. Otherwise, the connection is
terminated

Question 5

Drag the descriptions on the left to the appropriate group on the right.
Answer:

Authentication:
+ supports a local database for device access
+ supports encryption

Authorization:
+ specifies a users specific access privileges
+ enforces time periods during which a user can access the device

Accounting:
+ not supported with local AAA
+ verifies network usage

Question 6

Drag the characteristics on the left to the proper authentication protocols on the right.
Answer:

PAP:
+ Provides minimal security
+ Requires a username and password only

CHAP:
+ Generates a unique string for each transaction
+ Supports mid-session re-authentication

Question 7

Drag the items on the left to the proper locations on the right.

Answer:

Radius
+ Uses UDP port 1812 (for authentication/authorization). It encrypts only the password in the
access-request packet, from the client to the server. The remainder of the packet is
unencrypted.
+ It combines authorization and accounting functions

TACAS+
+ Uses TCP port 49 and encrypts the entire packet
+ It separates authorization and accounting functions

Question 8

Drag the items on the left to the proper locations on the right.

Answer:

+ network-specific stateful NAT64 prefix: IPv6 prefix assigned by an organization


+ NAT64 : supports application layer gateway
+ NPTv6 : translates 2001:1::/64 to 2001:2::/64
+ well-known stateful NAT64 prefix: supports IPv6 prefix 64:FF9B::/96

Question 9

Answer:
+ mGRE: Protocol to connect multiple destinations
+ IPSec: Protocol used to secure connection
+ Keepalive: Used to keep other side if tunnel interface up with local side is up
+ Tunnel Key: Used to authenticate connection
+ MSS: Amount of data that a device can handle as unfragmented piece

Question 10

Drag and drop each frame-relay component on the left to the correct statement on the right.

Answer:

+ SVC: A circuit that provides temporary on-demand connections between DTEs


+ LMI: A signaling mechanism for Frame Relay devices
+ DLCI: A locally significant ID
+ FECN: An indicator of congestion on the network
+ PVC: A logical connection comprising two endpoints and a CIR

Question 11

Answer:
+ DHCPv6 Server:
IPv6 address autoconfig
IPv6 enable

+ Client Interface:
IPv6 address
IPv6 DHCP Relay destination

Question 12

Answer:

RADIUS:
+ combines authentication and authorization functions
+ has no option to authorize router commands

TACAS+:
+ encrypts the entire packet
+ uses TCP port 49

Question 13

Drag and drop the IPv6 NAT characteristic from the left to the matching IPv6 NAT category
on the right.
Answer:

NAT64:
+ Use Network-specific prefix
+ Modify session during translation

NPTv6:
+ Modify IP header in transit
+ Map one IPv6 address prefix to another IPv6 prefix

Question 14

Drag and drop each statement about uRPF on the left to the correct uRPF mode on the right.

Answer:

Strict Modes:
+ Able to drop legitimate traffic
+ Permits only packets that are received on the same interface as the exit interface for the
destination address
Loose Modes:
+ Supports using the default route as a route reference
+ Requires the source address to be routable

Drag and Drop 2


http://www.digitaltut.com/drag-and-drop-2-2

Question 1

Question about CoPP and MPP.

Answer:

CoPP:
+ Deals with protection against DOS attacks
+ Uses QoS
+ Assists with packet forwarding by decreasing the load on the control plane

MPP:
+ Uses one single command
+ Management traffic
+ One interface (or more) can be designated

Question 2

Drag and drop the steps in the NAT process for IPv4-initiated packers from the left into the
correct sequence on the right.
Answer:

Step 1: The packet is routed to an NVI


Step 2: The packet is assigned a dynamic or static binding
Step 3: The IPV4 source address is translated to IPv6
Step 4: The translation information is used to create a session

Question 3

Drag and drop for adverse network conditions.

Answer:

Excessive unicast flooding condition: caused by including a host port in STP


Out-of-order packets: potential result of disabling FIFO
TCP starvation: potential effect of excessive UDP traffic on link
Asymmetric routing: cause of inconsistent traffic patterns
Latency: condition in which packets require an excessive length of time to traverse a switch

Question 4

Drag and drop the statements from the left onto the correct IPv6 router security features on
the right.
Answer:

IPv6 Traffic Filter


+ It filters traffic on the interface level
+ It supports tagged ACLs

IPv6 Access Filter


+ It controls traffic to and from the router
+ It requires the destination address for inbound traffic to be a local address
+ It filters management traffic

Question 5

Drag and drop steps in the TACACS+ authentication process from the left onto the actors that
perform on the right.
Answer:

+ prompts the user for a username and password Router


+ passes logon information to the TACAS+ server Router
+ authenticates the user TACAS+ Server
+ authorizes the user TACAS+ Server
+ provides access credentials User
+ attempts to access the router User

Question 6

A drag and drop question about Access-List types

Answer:

reflexive must be named


standard range 1300-1399
extended telnet
time-based access to device at certain times
dynamic closest to device

Note:

Reflexive ACLs allow IP packets to be filtered based on upper-layer session information.


They are generally used to allow outbound traffic and to limit inbound traffic in response to
sessions that originate inside the router. Reflexive ACLs can be defined only with extended
named IP ACLs. They cannot be defined with numbered or standard named IP ACLs, or with
other protocol ACLs. Reflexive ACLs can be used in conjunction with other standard and
static extended ACLs. Outbound ACL will have the reflect keyword. It is the ACL that
matches the originating traffic. Inbound ACL will have the evaluate keyword. It is the ACL
that matches the returning traffic.

OSPF Evaluation Sim


http://www.digitaltut.com/ospf-evaluation-sim

Question 1

How old is the Type 4 LSA from Router 3 for area 1 on the router R5 based on the output
you have examined?

A. 1858
B. 1601
C. 600
D. 1569

Answer: A

Question 2

Which of the following statements is true about the serial links that terminate in R3?

A. The R1-R3 link needs the neighbor command for the adjacency to stay up
B. The R2-R3 link OSPF timer values are 30, 120, 120
C. The R1-R3 link OSPF timer values should be 10,40,40
D. R3 is responsible for flooding LSUs to all the routers on the network.

Answer: B

Question 3

How many times was SPF algorithm executed on R4 for Area 1?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 9
D. 20
E. 54
F. 224

Answer: C
Question 4

Areas of Router 5 and 6 are not normal areas, inspect their routing tables and determine
which statement is true?

A. R5s Loopback and R6s Loopback are both present in R5s Routing table
B. R5s Loopback and R6s Loopback are both present in R6s Routing table
C. Only R5s loopback is present in R5s Routing table
D. Only R6s loopback is present in R5s Routing table
E. Only R5s loopback is present in R6s Routing table

Answer: A

EIGRP Evaluation Sim


http://www.digitaltut.com/eigrp-evaluation-sim

Question 1

Traffic from R1 to R6 s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3-
R5-R6 paths. What is the ratio of traffic over each path?

A. 1:1
B. 1:5
C. 6:8
D. 19:80

Answer: D

Question 2

What type of route filtering is occurring on R6?

A. Distribute-list using an ACL


B. Distribute-list using a prefix-list
C. Distribute-list using a route-map
D. An ACL using a distance of 255

Answer: A

Question 3

Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A. CISCO
B. EIGRP
C. key
D. MD5

Answer: A

Question 4

What is the advertised distance for the 192.168.46.0 network on R1?

A. 333056
B. 1938688
C. 1810944
D. 307456

Answer: A

Question 5

What percent of R1s interfaces bandwidth is EIGRP allowed to use?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

Answer: B

EIGRP OSPF Redistribution Sim


http://www.digitaltut.com/route-eigrp-ospf-redistribution-sim

Question

You are a network engineer with ROUTE.com, a small IT company. They have recently
merged two organizations and now need to merge their networks as shown in the topology
exhibit. One network is using OSPF as its IGP and the other is using EIGRP as its IGP. R4
has been added to the existing OSPF network to provide the interconnect between the OSPF
and EIGRP networks. Two links have been added that will provide redundancy.

The network requirements state that you must be able to ping and telnet from loopback 101
on R1 to the OPSF domain test address of 172.16.1.100. All traffic must use the shortest path
that provides the greatest bandwidth. The redundant paths from the OSPF network to the
EIGRP network must be available in case of a link failure. No static or default routing is
allowed in either network.

A previous network engineer has started the merger implementation and has successfully
assigned and verified all IP addressing and basic IGP routing. You have been tasked with
completing the implementation and ensuring that the network requirements are met. You may
not remove or change any of the configuration commands currently on any of the routers.
You may add new commands or change default values.

Policy Based Routing Sim


http://www.digitaltut.com/route-policy-based-routing-sim

Question

Company Acan has two links which can take it to the Internet. The company policy demands
that you use web traffic to be forwarded only to Frame Relay link if available and other
traffic can go through any links. No static or default routing is allowed.
IPv6 OSPF Virtual Link Sim
http://www.digitaltut.com/route-ipv6-ospf-virtual-link-sim

Question

Acme is a small export company that has an existing enterprise network that is running IPv6
OSPFv3. Currently OSPF is configured on all routers. However, R4s loopback address
(FEC0:4:4) cannot be seen in R1s IPv6 routing table. You are tasked with identifying the
cause of this fault and implementing the needed corrective actions that uses OSPF features
and does no change the current area assignments. You will know that you have corrected the
fault when R4s loopback address (FEC0:4:4) can be seen in the routing table of R1.
Special Note: To gain the maximum number of points you must remove all incorrect or
unneeded configuration statements related to this issue.

EIGRP Stub Sim


http://www.digitaltut.com/route-eigrp-stub-sim

Question

By increasing the first distant office, JS manufactures has extended their business. They
configured the remote office router (R3) from which they can reach all Corporate subnets. In
order to raise network stableness and lower the memory usage and broadband utilization to
R3, JS manufactures makes use of route summarization together with the EIGRP Stub
Routing feature. Another network engineer is responsible for the implementing of this
solution. However, in the process of configuring EIGRP stub routing connectivity with the
remote network devices off of R3 has been missing.
Presently JS has configured EIGRP on all routers in the network R2, R3, and R4. Your duty
is to find and solve the connectivity failure problem with the remote office router R3. You
should then configure route summarization only to the distant office router R3 to complete
the task after the problem has been solved.

The success of pings from R4 to the R3 LAN interface proves that the fault has been
corrected and the R3 IP routing table only contains two 10.0.0.0 subnets.

OSPF Sim
http://www.digitaltut.com/route-ospf-sim

Question

OSPF is configured on routers Amani and Lynaic. Amanis S0/0 interface and Lynaics S0/1
interface are in Area 0. Lynaics Loopback0 interface is in Area 2.
Your task is to configure the following:

Portlands S0/0 interface in Area 1


Amanis S0/1 interface in Area 1
Use the appropriate mask such that ONLY Portlands S0/0 and Amnanis S0/1 could be
in Area 1.
Area 1 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the default route).

EIGRP Simlet
http://www.digitaltut.com/route-eigrp-simlet

Question

Refer to the exhibit. BigBids Incorporated is a worldwide auction provider. The network uses
EIGRP as its routing protocol throughout the corporation. The network administrator does
not understand the convergence of EIGRP. Using the output of the show ip eigrp topology
all-links command, answer the administrators questions.

Question 1

Which two networks does the Core1 device have feasible successors for? (Choose two)

A 172.17.0.0/30
B 172.17.1.0/24
C 172.17.2.0/24
D 172.17.3.0/25
E 172.17.3.128/25
F 10.140.0.0/24

Answer: A F

Question 2

Which three EIGRP routes will be installed for the 172.17.3.128/25 and 172.17.2.0/24
networks? (Choose three)

A 172.17.3.128.25 [90/28160] via 172.17.1 2, 01:26:35, FastEthernet0/2


B 172.17.3.128/25 [90/30720] via 172.17.3.2, 01:26:35, FastEthemet0/3
C 172.17.3.128/25 [90/30720] via 172.17.10.2, 01:26:35, FastEthernet0/1
D 172.17.2.0/24 [90/30720] via 172.17.10.2, 02:10:11, FastEthernet0/1
E 172.17.2.0/24 [90/28160] via 172.17.10.2, 02:10:11, FastEthernet0/1
F 172.17.2.0/24 [90/33280] via 172.17.3.2, 02:10:11, FastEthernet0/3

Answer: B C D

Question 3

Which three networks is the router at 172.17.10.2 directly connected to? (Choose three)

A 172.17.0.0/30
B 172.17.1.0/24
C 172.17.2.0/24
D 172.17.3.0/25
E 172.17.3.128/25
F 172.17.10.0/24

Answer: C E F