Vocational Selection Test

Sample Collection
of Questions

1
Sample Collection of Questions
These questions are designed to assist candidates in preparing for the Vocational Selection Test (VST). Use
the sample questions in this booklet to practise your exam technique.
Please note that this is not a complete test but a set of questions for you to work through. A sample answer
sheet is provided so that you can practise recording your answers. Try attempting all questions before
checking your answers in the back of this booklet.
The questions in this booklet have been selected to give you an indication of some of the different types of
questions that you may encounter in the VST. Questions in the actual test may vary in difficulty.
This sample of 44 questions should take you about 1 hour 10 minutes to complete (the actual test has between
80 and 85 questions that need to be answered in 2 hours 10 minutes).

First published 2007

by ACER
Australian Council for Educational Research
19 Prospect Hill Road, Camberwell, VIC, 3124
Copyright 2016 Australian Council for Educational Research
All rights reserved. Except under the conditions described in the Copyright Act
1968 of Australia and subsequent amendments, no part of this publication may
be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any
means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the
written permission of the publishers.

2
Information about the Vocational Selection Test (VST)
The Vocational Selection Test (VST) is used by employers and training providers as part of their
recruitment program or selection process. It is designed to measure general abilities that are developed
over a period of time, such as problem solving, critical thinking and logical reasoning.
The core VST is divided into two parts:

Part I: Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning questions

Verbal reasoning questions measure the ability to understand and interpret text, charts and diagrams.
Quantitative reasoning questions assess general quantitative reasoning, logical reasoning and problem
solving skills, and assumes basic numeracy.

Part II: Abstract Reasoning

These questions assess the ability to recognise patterns and relationships and to solve problems presented
in diagrams.
Candidates are given 2 hours and 10 minutes to complete the test.
All questions are in a multiple-choice format.
The test does not depend on any particular area of knowledge or curriculum; therefore there is little
benefit to be gained from coaching. However, a good starting point in preparing for the VST is to
become familiar with the contents of this booklet.
Like the actual test, this booklet has two parts.
Part I tests quantitative and verbal reasoning skills. It contains 30 questions (actual test about 50 items).
Part II tests abstract reasoning skills. It contains 14 questions (actual test about 30 items).
All questions have four or five alternative answers provided (A, B, C, D, E). The correct answers to the
questions are provided at the end of the booklet.
The answer sheet provided can be used to practise recording your answers. Try to attempt all questions
before checking your answers. Remember that in the real test 44 questions should take about 1 hour 10
minutes to complete (actual test has between 80 and 85 that need to be answered in 130 minutes).

The VST Answer Sheet

Your answer sheet will be scanned and scored by machine. To be sure that your name and scores are
accurately reported, it is very important that you mark the answer ovals in the proper way. Use a 2B, B
or HB pencil to completely shade in the appropriate oval.
Example (Answer B selected)

A C D E

3
An example of a VST answer sheet.

4
Test-taking strategy
Try not to spend too much time on any one question.
Read the stimulus material for a unit carefully before starting the questions.
Read through all the alternative answers to each question, even if you think the first one is correct,
before marking your chosen response.
If you think you know the answer to a question, mark it, even if you are not certain. Go on to the
next question and come back later if you have time. This will prevent you from getting your answers
out of sequence with the actual questions, and will give you a better chance of improving your score
if you run out of time.

Points to note
Answers should be marked directly onto the answer sheet, not in the test booklet.
No marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
If you mark more than one answer to a question it will be considered wrong.

Required items
Photo-bearing identification
Two B, 2B or HB pencils
Eraser
Pencil sharpener

Prohibited items
Bags, briefcases, crash helmets
Audio devices, with or without earphones
Books, papers
Mobile phones or pagers
Pencil cases
Calculators or electronic equipment of any kind

A computer-based Vocational Selection Test may soon be available; however, the principles outlined
here are similar for both computer-based and pen and paper testing.

5
 Verbal Reasoning

UNIT 1

Questions 1 5

The following diagram is a chart for the building of a home.

May June July August Sept. Oct. Nov.

Weeks from start 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Major activity
1. Testing and Plan
permits Actual
2. Excavation Plan
Actual
3. Utilities Plan
Actual
4. Concrete Plan
Actual
5. Framing Plan
Actual
6. Mechanical Plan
Actual
7. Masonry Plan
Actual
8. Finish Plan
Actual

1 Masonry is begun
A in two distinct phases. C after mechanical work is begun.
B during mechanical work. D before mechanical work is begun.

2 Framing started
A later than planned but took less time than expected.
B later than planned and took more time than expected.
C earlier than planned and took less time than expected.
D earlier than planned but took more time than expected.

3 Which one of the following is true?

A Utilities took place in one phase.
B Excavation took place in two phases.
C Excavation took place in four phases.
D Testing and permits took place in three phases.

4 Which of the following statements is supported by the diagram?

A It rained heavily in the first two weeks of May.
B The framing was planned to occur in three distinct phases.
C It was not possible to install some utilities until the Finish of the house had begun.
D The concrete contractors underestimated the time it would take to lay the foundations.

6
5 Which one of the following best describes the accuracy of the planning of the house compared to its
final delivery?
The planning
A could not have been more accurate.
B was initially very good but rapidly slid completely out of control.
C was slightly optimistic but overall delivery was pretty close to that planned.
D was hampered by the continual over-estimation of the time that would be needed to complete
each phase.

UNIT 2

Questions 6 8

The following passage is from a novel. The narrator is an adult recalling his teenage
reflections.

PASSAGE

I think that at this time I got so far into my own head that I became lost. The gap between
fiction, between abstract speculation and so-called reality became blurred for me. I felt
myself lose contact with the outside world. It was as though my self had become concentrated
into a tiny nucleus inside my head, except that I was still fully myself, if you know what
I mean. Instead of walking around outside I was walking around inside. My eyes seemed 5
like windows away from which I turned. I watched them become mere specks of light as I
moved further back into this inner gloom. At first it was totally dark, but as my eyes became
accustomed to their new surroundings I gradually began to perceive vague shapes and
contours, until eventually everything in this imaginary world became as real and tangible
as the world outside. 10

6 The narrator refers to so-called reality (line 2) because he wants to

A suggest that he has never experienced reality.
B alert readers to the uncertain nature of reality.
C consider what name should be given to reality.
D express his confidence in understanding reality.

7 At the end of the passage the narrator could best be described as

A isolated. C depressed.
B ignorant. D doubtful.

8 By the end of the passage the imaginary world had

A disintergrated.
B become more and more confusing.
C helped the narrator to understand reality.
D become as comfortable as the real world.

7
 UNIT 3

Questions 9 12

This map shows the lines of the elevated railway called the Skytrain in Bangkok.

Mo Chit

Saphan Khwai

Sena Ruam
(planned)
Ari
Bangkok BTS Skytrain Map
Sanam Pao
Sukumvit Line
Silom Line
Victory
Monument
Phaya Thai

Ratchathewi
Chit Lom
Phioen Chit
National Central Nana
Stadium Station Ratchadamri Asok
Siam
Phrom Phong

Thong Lo
Sala Daeng
Chong Nonsi Ekkamai
Suksa Witthaya Phra
Saphan Surasak (planned) Khanong
Taksin
On Nut

The following table shows the cost in Thai Baht (Thailand currency) of travelling between the different stations
of the Skytrain.
N8 N7 N6 N5 N4 N3 N2 N1 CN E1 E2 E3 E4 E5 E6 E7 E8 E9 W1 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6
MO CHIT N8 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 35 35 35 40 40 40 40
SAPHAN KHWAI N7 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 40 40 40 30 30 35 35 40 40 40
SENA RUAM N6 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 40 40 30 30 30 35 35 40 40
ARI N5 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 40 25 25 30 30 35 35 40
SANAM PAO N4 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 25 25 25 30 30 35 35
VICTORY MONUMENT N3 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 20 20 25 25 30 30 35
PHAYA THAI N2 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 20 20 20 25 25 30 30
RATCHATHEWI N1 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 15 15 20 20 25 25 30
SIAM CENTRAL STATION 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 10 10 15 20 20 25 25
CHIT LOM E1 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 15 15 20 20 25 25 30
PHIOEN CHIT E2 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 20 20 20 25 25 30 30
NANA E3 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 20 20 25 25 30 30 35
ASOK E4 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 25 25 30 30 35 35
PHROM PHONG E5 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40
THONG LO E6 40 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 20 30 30 30 35 35 40 40
EKKAMAI E7 40 40 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 15 30 30 35 35 40 40 40
PHRA KHANONG E8 40 40 40 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 10 35 35 35 40 40 40 40
ON NUT E9 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 x 35 35 40 40 40 40 40
NTL STADIUM W1 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 x 15 20 20 25 25 30
RATCHADAMRI S1 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 10 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 15 x 10 15 20 20 25
SALA DAENG S2 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 15 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 20 10 x 10 15 20 20
CHONG NONSI S3 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 20 15 10 x 10 15 20
SUKSA WITTHAYA S4 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 25 20 15 10 x 10 15
SURASAK S5 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 40 25 20 20 15 10 x 10
SAPHAN TAKSIN S6 40 40 40 40 35 35 30 30 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 40 40 40 30 25 20 20 15 10 x

8
9 Which of the following is on the Silom Line?
A Chit Lom
B Ratchatewi
C Phioen Chit
D National Stadium

10 On which of the following journeys will it be necessary to change trains?

A Siam Central to Chit Lom
B Ratchathewi to Siam Central
C National Stadium to Chit Lom
D Ratchadamri to National Stadium

11 How much does it cost to go from Ratchathewi to Saphan Kwai?

A 10 Baht
B 15 Baht
C 20 Baht
D 25 Baht

12 Siam Central Station can be reached from all stations for no more than
A 40 Baht.
B 35 Baht.
C 30 Baht.
D 25 Baht.

9
 FRONT FRONT
ELEVATION I ELEVATION III

PLAN PLAN

FRONT
ELEVATION II

W.C. : toilet
W. House : laundry
Ens : ensuite
W.I.R. : walk in robe IV

PLAN

10
 UNIT 4

Questions 13 15

On the opposite page are house plans and front elevations of three houses designed in the 1920s for people
on low to moderate incomes (Designs I, II and III), and one house plan from the 1990s (Design IV).

13 In which room is the chimney shown in the middle of the front elevation of Design I?
A hall
B kitchen
C living room
D breakfast room

14 In Design II, the kitchen sink is located outside of the kitchen room. This is most probably to
A provide extra space for food storage.
B keep the sink close to food preparation areas.
C reduce costs by grouping all plumbing together.
D reduce the distance over which clean and dirty dishes are carried.

15 Compared with I, II and III, families living in Design IV

A have less space for recreation.
B have opportunities for greater privacy.
C are able to wash their clothes at home.
D are forced to spend more time together.

11
 Quantitative Reasoning

UNIT 1

Questions 1 4

In a diving competition, seven judges evaluate each dive and give it a mark between 0 and 10. As well,
each dive is assigned a numerical value, ranging from 1.0 to 4.0, that reflects its degree of difficulty (dd). To
determine the final score for a dive, the following rules are used:

The highest and lowest mark of the seven judges marks are not used.
The sum of the remaining five marks is multiplied by the degree of difficulty for that dive, then by 0.6 .

For example, if a diver performs a dive with dd of 2.0, and receives marks of 8, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 and
6.5, then 8 (highest mark) and 6.5 (lowest mark) are discarded. The sum of the remaining marks (35) is
multiplied by 2.0 (dd) to give 70. This value is multiplied by 0.6, to give 42 points. This is the final score for
the dive.
The table below shows dd values of some dives (higher values mean degree of difficulty is greater).
The symbol ( - ) indicates certain dives that are not possible for competition.

Dive Platform Springboard

10 metre 7.5 metre 5 metre 3 metre 1 metre

Forward Dive 1.6 1.6 1.4 1.6 1.4

Forward Double 2.5 2.4 2.6 2.4 2.6

Back Triple 3.0 2.8 3.2 2.8 3.2

Back Flying 1 1.8 1.8 1.9 2.1 1.8

Reverse Dive 2.0 2.0 1.8 2.0 1.8

Reverse 2 3.3 3.4 3.2 3.0 3.2

Inward Double 2.6 2.6 3.0 2.6 3.0

Inward + 1 Twist 2.0 1.9 2.1 - -

Arm-stand Forward Double + 2 Twists 3.7 3.6 3.8 - -

1 The Reverse 2 is most difficult from the

A 1-metre springboard.
B 5-metre platform.
C 7.5-metre platform.
D 10-metre platform.

12
2 The Back Flying 1 is considered less difficult than the Reverse Dive when performed from
A all positions.
B all platform positions.
C both springboard positions.
D 10-metre and 7.5-metre platforms.

3 Ursulas dive has a dd of 3.0 .

If Ursula obtains a final score of 54, which one of the following could correctly list the judges marks
for her dive?
A 9.0; 7.9; 7.1; 8.6; 8.4; 6.4; 8.0
B 6.6; 7.3; 5.0; 5.4; 6.1; 5.9; 6.0
C 5.7; 5.6; 5.0; 5.3; 5.1; 5.6; 4.4
D 7.2; 4.6; 4.4; 3.7; 4.3; 4.0; 3.5

4 Three of Troangs marks are missing.

Diver Degree of difficulty Judges marks

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th

judge judge judge judge judge judge judge

Troang 2.0 8.9 8.0 9.1 8.0

If Troang obtains a final score of 48 and the four given marks are used, which one of the following
could correctly list the two discarded marks?
A 5.5 and 6.1
B 5.9 and 9.5
C 6.0 and 7.8
D 7.0 and 9.2

13
 UNIT 2

Questions 5 10

Over 400 000 trucks transport goods around Australia. Truck drivers must plan their journeys in order to
manage driver fatigue.
Figure 1 shows the work and rest schedules of several truck drivers for one 24-hour period. Each
driver recorded the times they spent working (driving and non-driving) and resting (at their work place and
away from their work place).

midnight 1am 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 noon 1pm 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 midnight

David

midnight 1am 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 noon 1pm 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 midnight

Jenny

midnight 1am 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 noon 1pm 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 midnight

Bob

midnight 1am 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 noon 1pm 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 midnight

Sue

midnight 1am 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 noon 1pm 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 midnight

John

midnight 1am 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 noon 1pm 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 midnight

Kylie

Driving
Work time Non-driving work
Rest time at work place
Rest time
Rest time away from work place

Figure 1

Unless stated otherwise, questions refer to the 24-hour period shown in Figure 1:

5 Which of the following drivers drove for the longest continuous time without rest?
A Bob
B David
C Sue
D Kylie

6 Which one of the following drivers would have the longest continuous rest away from their work place
if they followed the same schedule for two consecutive days?
A Bob
B John
C Sue
D Kylie

14
Questions 7 10 refer to the following additional information:

National Driving Hours regulations have been developed to help truck drivers manage driver fatigue. These
regulations specify maximum working hours and minimum rest times for all drivers of trucks in Australia.
The regulations state:

I A driver must take a minimum of 30 minutes rest for each five hours of driving, with a maximum
of five hours driving before a rest.
II In any 24-hour period, a driver can work a maximum of 14 hours (maximum of 12 hours driving
and maximum of 2 hours non-driving work) and must have 10 hours rest. One rest break must
be for a continuous period of at least 6 hours.

7 In the 24-hour period (Figure 1), which one of the following drivers worked the maximum hours and
had the rests required by the National Driving Hours regulations?
A David
B Bob
C Sue
D John

8 In a 24-hour period, which one of the following driving schedules could be completed legally by a
driver?
A Two three-hour journeys, a 1-hour journey and two hours of non-driving work.
B Six two-hour journeys with three hours of non-driving work.
C Five three-hour journeys with one hour of non-driving work.
D Eight one-hour journeys spread evenly throughout the 24-hour period.

9 Consider a parcel that arrives at the truck depot at midnight, in time for the beginning of the work
schedules shown in Figure 1, for urgent delivery to a customer seven hours drive away.
Which driver would you employ to deliver the parcel as quickly as possible without breaking the
National Driving Hours regulations up to the time of delivery?
A David
B Kylie
C Sue
D Bob

10 During a 12-hour period, what is the maximum number of hours a driver can drive?
A 10 hours
B 10.5 hours
C 11 hours
D 11.5 hours

15
 UNIT 3

Questions 11 and 12

In summer, houses can become hot when sunlight enters through windows. An effective solution to this
problem is to shade the window with a horizontal overhang above the window. However, overhangs can be
a disadvantage if they block sunlight in winter. Figure 1 illustrates, for a particular place, some features of
such an overhang in relation to a window and the sun.
The higher the sun in the sky, the more heat reaches the ground (i.e. the stronger the sun is said to
shine). The sun rises higher in the sky in summer than in winter.

Summer sun
In Figure 1:
O Winter sun
the sun is shown at its maximum height for this
window in summer and winter;
G is the height of the window glass;
O is the distance from the window glass to the
edge of the overhanging shading device; and
S is the distance from the bottom of the window
G S
glass to the underside of the overhanging shading
device.

Figure 1

Figure 2 gives a guideline to acceptable design with respect to these variables, in particular the ratios
O/S and G/S.

1.50

too little winter sun

too little winter sun
over this line
1.00
too much summer sun
O acceptable design under this line
S
0.50

too much summer sun

0.00
0.10 0.50 G 1.00 1.50
S

Figure 2

16
11 For a particular house design it is predicted that there will be too much summer sunlight through the
window.
This problem could best be fixed by
A increasing O, with G and S constant.
B increasing S, with G and O constant.
C increasing G and S equally, with O constant.
D increasing G, with O and S constant.

12 In a design by a house owner who wants to renovate, G = 1 m, O = 1 m and S = 1 m.

How could this design be made acceptable?
A double G without changing O or S
B halve O without changing G or S
C double S, halve O and G
D It is already acceptable.

17
 UNIT 4

Questions 13 15

Figure 1 is a set of related graphs that can be used for predicting the rate of forward spread of a fire in
pasture grass. Fire spread depends on factors such as air temperature, the relative humidity of the air, dead
fuel moisture content (DFMC), degree of curing (which is the percentage of the grass that is dead), wind
speed and the slope of the land.
The dashed arrows trace an example through the graphs from Graph to Graph .
Dead fuel moisture content depends on relative humidity and temperature. The DFMC scale is given
on the top axis of Graph 2, the value being read off at the point where the dashed line crosses the axis (about
7.5% in the example).

The slope of the land refers to the slope in the direction a fire is moving.
A positive slope refers to a fire moving uphill.
Wind speed is with respect to the direction of forward spread of the fire.

temperature (oC)
40 30 20 10
70
1
relative humidity (%)

60

50

40
45 35 25 15
degree of curing (%)
0 5 10 15 20 25 50 60 70 80 85 90 95 100

dead fuel moisture content (%)

slope (o) 0 5
-5
-10 10
60
wind speed (km/h)

5 4
50
15 40
30
20
20
10

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50

rate of forward spread (km/h)

Figure 1

18
13 Which one of the following is the best estimate of the DFMC when relative humidity is 40% and air
temperature is 25 C?
A 6%
B 7.5%
C 10%
D 12.5%

14 Which one of the following leads to a DFMC closest to 5%?

A relative humidity 40%, temperature 30 C
B relative humidity 40%, temperature 35 C
C relative humidity 50%, temperature 30 C
D relative humidity 50%, temperature 35 C

15 Which one of the following is the best estimate of the rate of forward spread of a fire when relative
humidity is 50%, temperature is 10 C, curing is 95%, wind speed is 60 km/h and slope is 20?
A 5 km/h
B 10 km/h
C 20 km/h
D 30 km/h

19
 Abstract Reasoning
Next in Sequence
Questions 1 5
In these questions there are four shapes forming a sequence going from left to right. You are to choose from
the alternatives at the right (A, B, C and D) the one that would most logically and simply come next in the
sequence.
Example

A C

?
B D

In the sequence above, the dot rotates anticlockwise, and the cross alternates between two positions.
So D is the answer. Alternatively, the whole pattern can be seen rotating 45 anticlockwise, again giving D.
1

A C

?
B D

A C

?
B D

20
3

A C

?
B D

A C

?
B D

A C

?
B D

21
 Complete the Pattern

Questions 6 10
In these questions there is a framework of squares, triangles or other shapes. Symbols are distributed around
the framework according to a pattern.
Part of the pattern, marked with a ?, is missing. You are to choose from the alternatives A, B, C and D, the
one that most logically and simply completes the pattern.

Example

A C

B D

For each row, the shape in the third square is made by combining the shapes in the first two squares.
So B is the answer.

A C

B D

22
7

A C

? B D

A C

B D

23
9

A C

B D

10

A C

B D

24
 Middle of Sequence
Questions 11 14
In each of the following items, five objects or patterns can be rearranged to form a logical sequence. You are
to select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply fits in the middle of the sequence.

Example

A B C D E

In the sequence above, the arrangement will be E, B, D, A, C (or C, A, D, B, E). So D is the answer.

11

A B C D E

12

A B C D E

13

A B C D E

14

A B C D E

25
 Answers

Verbal Reasoning

1 D 6 B 11 D
2 B 7 A 12 B
3 B 8 D 13 B
4 C 9 D 14 C
5 C 10 C 15 B

Quantitative Reasoning

1 C 6 C 11 A
2 D 7 A 12 B
3 B 8 A 13 A
4 B 9 D 14 A
5 A 10 C 15 D

Abstract Reasoning

1 A 6 D 11 A
2 C 7 B 12 A
3 C 8 B 13 C
4 A 9 B 14 A
5 D 10 B

26
ACER thanks rights holders who have kindly granted permission to reproduce the
material cited below. Every effort has been made to trace and acknowledge copyright.
However, should any infringement have occurred, ACER tenders its apology and
invites copyright owners to contact ACER at permissions@acer.edu.au.

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Bangkok BTS, for the Skytrain Map and Fares,

11 May 2004; Cheney, P. and Sullivan, A., for the extract adapted from Grassfires:
fuel, weather and fire behaviour, CSIRO Publishing, 1997; Cuffley, P., for the extract
from Houses of the 20s and 30s, The Five Mile Press, Fitzroy, Vic., 1989; Henshaw,
M., for the extract from Out of the Line of Fire, Penguin, 1988; Hilton, R.W. et al,
for the extract adapted from Cost Management: Strategies for Business Decisions
(2nd Ed.), McGraw-Hill Higher Education, 2003; Parisi, M., for the cartoon from
Off the Mark Cartoons, www.offthemarkcartoons.com/cartoons/2003-03-04.
gif; Sustainable Energy Authority Victoria, for the extract adapted from Window
Protection, Sustainable Energy Information Fact Sheet; van den Nieuwenhof, L.
and News Limited, for material adapted from Wishing you were here, in The
Weekend Australian, 2728 November 2004; Williamson, D., for the extract from
The Removalists, Currency Press, Sydney, 1972.

27
28