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640-507

These are some study questions. May the force be with you! Could you email me some questions
and answers or submit them! K_ATO@HOTMAIL.com

1. What will happen to traffic flowing into E0, given the following standard access-list? access-list
1 deny 1.1.1.1 access-list 1 deny 2.2.2.2 int e0 ip access-group 1 in All IP packets will be stopped.

2. What command displays all SHOW parameters? Show ?

3. What Cisco command line matches the Ethernet_II encapsulation method? Arpa

4. What command will load the file ‘VERN’ from the Network File server at 1.2.3.4 during the next
boot? boot system tftp VERN 1.2.3.4

5. What command displays IOS version? show version

6. What command is used to set the Secret password? enable secret [passwordname]

7. Within enable mode you type ‘R’ and hit enter. There are several commands beginning with ‘R.’
What message is returned? “Ambiguous Command.”

8. What is provided by the User Datagram Protocol? Connectionless datagram service.

9. What command views IPX RIP routing updates? debug ipx routing activity

10. What ISDN term refers to a native ISDN modem? TA.

11. What switching type reads only the address portion of frames before immediately forwarding
them? Cut-Through.

12. What command displays the IPX SAP table? show ipx servers

13. What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN telephone? TE1.

14. What command begins a User mode session? Just press .

15. What user device connects to a DCE? DTE.

16. What layer manages access to the Network layer? Datalink – LLC Sublayer.

17. What command enables CHAP on a serial interface using PPP? ppp authentication chap

18. How does a router contact a device when its IP address, but not its MAC address is known? It
uses ARP.

19. What command shows all Ethernet interfaces configured for IPX? Show ipx interface.

20. What command will view the ARP cache? show arp
21. What command allows you to see all access-lists on Serial1 for telnet? show ip int s1

22. Which of the following are examples of the Session layer? Netbios Names* SQL* NFS* X-
Windows* TCP

23. Which of the following are examples of the Physical Layer? FDDI* Token Ring* Ethernet* ARP
LLC

24. Which of the following are classful routing protocols? EIGRP RIP* OSPF IP TCP IGRP*

25. What Channel is provided by ISDN and BRI? 2B + 1D Channel.

26. What are the five steps of data encapsulation? a. User information is converted into data b.
Data is converted into segments c. Segments are converted into datagrams and packets d.
Packets are put into logical frame e. Frames are put into bits

27. Of the devices available to segment a network running SNA and NetBIOS, what should never
be used? A router.

28. What PPP feature binds multiple channels to form a single logical channel? multi-link ppp.

29. What switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain? VLAN.

30. What command within global configuration mode will change the console password? enable
password [password]

31. Which of the following operate within the Datalink Layer? IPX MAC* LLC* SQL TCP

32. Which of the following operate within the Network Layer? RARP* DDP* LLC Token Ring SPX

33. How many K are ISDN BRI D and B channels? 16K and 64K, respectively.

34. What command displays the IPX network and node address on Serial 2 interface? show ipx int
serial 2

35. What ranges are assigned to Class addresses A, B, and C? Class A: 1-126 Class B: 128-191
Class C: 192-223

36. What command Displays RIP routing updates? Debug IP Rip

37. You want to enable RIP on your router for interface E0. What command must be entered first?
router rip

38. What command determines the number of seconds a dialup connection will wait without traffic
until hanging up? dialer idle-timeout

39. What OSI layer integrates logical addressing? Network.

40. In what OSI layer do bridges operate? Datalink.

41. What solutions are available for Distance-Vector routing problems? a. Defining a Maximum b.
Triggered Updates c. Split Horizon.
42. What command moves the cursor to the beginning of the line in CLI mode? Ctrl-A.

43. What advantage is offered by LAN segmentation? Decreased broadcasts.

44. What OSI layer supports optional reliability? Transport.

45. You want the text, ‘You are connected’ to display when the command ‘show interface serial 0’
is entered. What command will enable this? description You are connected

46. Which command enables a display message when someone tries to log on to the router?
banner motd

47. What is the most effective solution to the distance-vector ‘count to infinity’ problem? Defining a
Maximum.

48. Image files like GIF, PICT, and JPEG are contained in what OSI layer? Presentation.

49. What protocols are included in the OSI Network layer? a. IP b. IPX c. AppleTalk d. DECnet

50. What command displays the current time on a router? show clock

51. What command enables NetWare frame type Ethernet_802.2? sap

52. What command displays Cisco Discovery Protocol adjacencies? show cdp neighbors

53. What TCP/IP address class is used for multicast? D.

54. What command-line keywords are valid when choosing Frame-Relay LMI types? a. q933a b.
cisco c. ansi

55. What command encrypts the enable password with strong encryption? enable secret
[password]

56. What technologies prevent network loops in a switched environment? Spanning Tree Protocol
and IEEE 802.ld.

57. How does flow control work? A station that is being overloaded with data tells the transmitting
station to stop until its buffer is clear.

58. At what point between the customer’s site and the phone carrier is responsibility transferred?
Demarc.

59. What command displays the encapsulation type of interface serial 0? show interface s0

60. What OSI layer controls end-to-end communication? Transport.

61. What are the five steps of data encapsulation? a. User information is converted into data b.
The data is converted into segments c. The segments are converted into datagrams and packets
d. The packers are put into logical frame e. The frames are put into bits

62. What protocol is the address ‘2b.0012.0c83.3879’ originated from? IPX.


63. What command would enable full duplex on the first port of the card in slot 3 on a Cisco
Catalyst 5000? set port duplex 3/1 full

64. What process uses LMI to resolve an IP address from a DLCI number? Inverse ARP.

65. Which of the following WAN components are not owned by the customer? LAN CO* T1 line*
DTE

66. What command will display Ethernet 0’s IP address? show ip interface e0

67. Which of the following are contained in the OSI Application layer? Internet Browser* Video
Game* TCP LLC

68. What methods provide login access to a router? a. Aux b. Console c. Telnet d. HTTP

69. Given the IPX address 4adecn3n.0000.9a33.2643, what is the network portion of the
address? 4adecn3n.

70. What command will permit SMTP mail to only host 1.2.3.4? access-list 102 permit tcp any
host 1.2.3.4 eq smtp

71. Packets are a concept tied to which OSI layer? Network.

72. What acronym is assigned to equipment located on the customer’s site? CPE (Customer
Premise Equipment).

73. What OSI layer allows Ethernet devices to identify one another at the Datalink layer? Datalink
– MAC Sublayer.

74. What command displays the IPX routing table? show ipx route

75. What global configuration command grants access to a serial interface on a 7500? int s 1/0/0

76. What features are common to ISDN BRI? a. Multiprotocol support b. SNMP MIB support c.
Call waiting d. Compression

77. What Ethernet operation type allows only one device to transmit at a time? Half-duplex.

78. What command line option determines what traffic is interesting enough for a dialup
connection? dialer-list

79. What global command loads an IOS file from FLASH memory on the next boot? boot system
flash [iosfilename]

80. What function is served by Autosense? It allows the router to determine which LMI type a
frame relay switch is using.

81. Which of the following operate in the OSI Physical layer? FDDI* Token Ring* SQL TCP FDDI*

82. When entering a command longer than one line, what character is used for delimiting? ‘#’

83. What command assigns and enables IPX on an interface? ipx network 4a
84. What command copies router configuration from NVRAM to a file server? copy startup-config
tftp

85. How does TCP provide flow control and error checking? Acknowledgements and windowing.

86. Using Cisco IOS, what PPP data compression methods can be used? Stacker and Predictor.

87. What command can verify Application layer connectivity? Telnet.

88. What command switches from User to Privileged mode? enable

89. What command will deny all telnet traffic from subnet 2.1.3.0? deny all telnet traffic from
2.1.3.0

90. Which of the following exist at the Transport Layer? LLC IP SQL UDP* ARP

91. What command line keyword matches Ethernet_SNAP? snap

92. Among the five classes of TCP/IP addresses, how many are available to the public? 3.

93. After entering the command ‘router igrp 50,’ what command enables IGRP on the router for
interace E1, with an address of 155.88.3.5 and a mask of 255.255.255.0? network 157.89.0.0

94. In what OSI layer do EBCDIC and ASCII exist? Presentation.

95. What command sets the clock rate to 64K on interface serial 2 while in interface configuration
mode? clock rate 64000

96. Describe the concept of Split Horizon. It is never useful to send the same routing update
packet back out the same interface that it was learned.

97. Given the command ‘ip route 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255.0 1.2.1.2 12,’ what number accounts for
the administrative distance? 12.

98. Which of the following are complications of Distance-Vector routing? Routing loops*
Complexity of configuration Counting to infinity* Slow convergence* Periodic updates slow
convergence*

99. For less CPU strain, how should Cisco routers be configured for logging? Syslog server
routing.

100. What protocol uses connection-oriented updates? BGP uses TCP for reliable delivery.

101. Which of the following are Transport layer protocols? NBP* IP TCP* UDP* SPX*

102. When would the following day banner be displayed? ‘banner motd #’ ‘Howdy #’ Before login.

103. What command views router CPU utilization? show processes cpu

104. From a Windows 95 computer, what command will backup the IOS to the local drive using
tftp (provided you have a connection between the router and tftp-server)? copy flash tftp
105. What command format is used for configuring a port on a 7xxx Cisco router with a VIP card?
slot/port-adapter/port.

106. What command enables debugging of IPX RIP updates? debug ipx routing activity

107. What command enables frame relay on a router’s interface? encapsulation frame-relay

108. What range of IP numbers are available for extended TCP/IP access-lists? 100-199.

109. What command verifies Network layer connectivity between two hosts? Ping

110. What does the parameter ‘log’ do on IPX access lists? It logs IPX access violations when
packets match particular access list entries.

111. What OSI layer controls conversation between applications? Session.

112. What function is served by the Datalink-LLC layer? It establishes media independence,
provides SAP’s, and provides flow control.

113. Bits are a concept essential to which OSI layer? Physical.

114. In what OSI layer does IP operate? Network.

115. Which TCP/IP class allows for the fewest valid Internet hosts? Class C.

116. What command sets encapsulation type to PPP? encapsulation ppp

117. What command starts a Cisco IOS file image upgrade? copy tftp flash

118. What command changes the CDP default interval? cdp timer 111

119. Which of the following are displayed by the command ‘show cdp neighbor detail’? Hostname*
Hardware type* Subnet mask Flash memory available Incoming/outgoing port*

120. What OSI model provides services to the Application layer via a Session layer connection?
Presentation.

121. What command loads the IOS from Read Only memory? boot system rom

122. How does Poison Reverse alert the network of an unavailable connected network? It sends a
special routing update packet which informs all connected routers that the distance to the dead
network is infinity.

123. Given the AppleTalk address ‘202.95’ what part it the node portion of the address? 95.

124. What PPP authentication types are supported by the Cisco IOS? PAP and CHAP.

125. What switching type varies latency through a switch? Store and Forward.

126. What ISDN specification implements Setup and Teardown? Q-Series.

127. What command will deny the source address 1.2.1.2? access list 9 deny 1.2.1.2 0.0.0.0
128. What LAN segmentation rule is specified by Cisco? 70% local, 30% over the router.

129. Which of the following operate in the OSI Session layer? Netbios* SQL* NFS* X Windows*
RPC* TCP

130. What command restarts a router? Reload

131. Which of the following are valid Cisco commands? down restart system exit shutdown
system snap*

132. What command displays Data Link Connection Identifiers? show frame-relay pvc

133. What command enables round-robin style load balancing? IPX Maximum-paths

134. What affect do Store and Forward switches have on latency? They increase latency.

135. What encapsulation type should be used when configuring a frame-relay network between a
Cisco router and a non-Cisco router? IETF.

136. What is the default Cisco Encapsulation on an Ethernet interface for IPX? novell-ether

137. Which of the following are true of SMTP? It sends email* It uses TCP* It uses port 25* It
manages IP devices It receives mail

138. What commands display previous commands? a. Up arrow b. show history c. CTRL-P.

139. What device provides line clocking? DCE.

140. What OSI layer is FRAME-RELAY mapped to? Datalink.

141. What command should be used for turning off enhanced editing? terminal no editing

142. In what portion of an IP address is the network portion represented? Segment.

143. What command will configure Interface E0 with an IP address of 12.23.7.6 using a Subnet
mask of 255.255.255.0? ip address 12.23.7.6 255.255.255.0

144. What command is used to set a router’s network name? hostname [router_name]

145. Which of the following operate at the OSI Network layer? SPX LLC Token Ring SQL IPX*

146. What command enables load balancing over multiples paths on IPX? ipx maximum-paths 2

147. What command changes to global configuration mode from within interface configuration
mode? Exit

148. At what telco office do customers’ local loops terminate? CO (Central Office).

149. At what OSI layer do MIDI and MPEG operate? Presentation.

150. Before changing your Telnet password, what command must first be executed from global
configuration mode? line vty 0 4
151. What command will save a configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM? copy running-config
startup-config

152. What term is given to the division of responsibility where the CPE ends and the local loop
begins? Demarcation.

153. Which of the following are true of HDLC? Supports Stacker compression Supports point-to-
point and multipoint* Default serial encapsulation* Open standard

154. What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection? 1.544 Mbps (T1).

155. Which of the following are IP applications? SMTP* ARP AURP Telnet* DNS*

156. What is the length of an IPX address? 80 bits: 32 bit network, 48 bit node.

157. Which of the following are IPX access-list functions? Block IPX traffic* Limit the number of
Novell servers on a network Limit the number of workstations on a network Control SAP traffic*

158. What command will configure IP address 10.120.15.1 255.255.255.0? Router(config-if)# ip


address 10.120.15.1 255.255.255.0

159. Which OSI layer performs end to end communication, segmentation, and re-assembly?
Transport.

160. What command will connect access-list 101 inbound to interface e0? Router(config-if)# ip
access-group 101 in

161. Where is the backup configuration file stored? In NVRAM.

162. Which of the following is performed by ICMP? Transporting routing updates Sending error
and control messages* Avoiding routing loops Collision detection

163. What command will display all configured IP routing protocols? show ip protocols

164. Which of the following are required for two routers using IGRP to communicate their routes?
Ethernet connection Configured for PPP Identical autonomous system number* Composite metric

165. What encapsulation type should be selected when configuring a Cisco router to connect to a
non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay network? IETF.

166. What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation? Novell-Ether.

167. What command will display the SAP table? show ipx servers

168. What command displays all valid commands in the present mode? ?

169. Which of the following two items do TCP and UDP share in common? They operate at the
Network layer They both use port numbers to identify upper level* Both are reliable Both are
Transport protocols*

170. What is the maximum legal number of bits that can be borrowed from a Class C network? 6.
171. What command reloads a router? Router# reload

172. Which of the following are not LAN technologies? 802.5 HDLC* SDLC* FDDI HSSI* Frame
Relay*

173. Which of the following is true of full duplex? It allows for transmission and reception of data
simultaneously* It only works in a multipoint configuration It allows for transmission and reception
of data but not simultaneously It does not affect bandwidth

174. Which of the following are key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol? Verify connectivity*
Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured* Open standard Disabled by default Will
allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers*

175. What command will configure all default VTY ports? Router(config)# line vty 0 4

176. What command displays the IP routing table? show ip route

177. What is the access-list range for an extended IP access-list? 100-199.

178. What OSI layer supports the communication component of applications? Application.

179. Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC? Data Link.

180. What command shows ethernet0/1 interface status? show interface ethernet0/1

181. Which of the following are characteristics of IPX RIP? Distance vector* Does not support
multiple paths Default encapsulation is SAP Uses ticks and hop count as a metric* 60 second
updates*

182. Which of the following methods will prevent routing loops? Split horizon* Holddown timers*
Poison reverse* SPF algorithm LSPs

183. What is the X.25 addressing standard? X.121.

184. What command will configure a router to boot from an IOS located on a TFTP server? boot
system tftp IOS.exe 172.16.5.1

185. Which of the following is a layer 2 device? Hub Repeater Switch* Router

186. Which of the following are characteristics of IP RIP? Distance vector* 60 second updates
Administrative distance of 120* Load balancing* Uses composite metric

187. What IP command tests the entire IP stack? Telnet.

188. Which of the following is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode? They are
identical They both require the enable password The ‘?’ only works in priveleged exec mode User
exec is a subset of priveleged exec mode* 189. What 2 hardware components are used to
manage and/or configure a router? Console port and auxiliary port.

190. What command will display the IP host table? show hosts
191. In a wildcard mask consisting of 0’s and 1’s, what is indicated by the 0 and 1 setting? 1 = no
match, 0 = match.

192. What keystroke terminates setup mode? Ctrl-C.

193. Which of the following are key features of IGRP? Flash updates* 60 periodic updates Poison
reverse* New horizon Composite metric*

194. What switching method receives an entire frame before dispatching it? Store and forward.

195. What purpose is served by DLCI? It identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network.

196. What is the default serial encapsulation? HDLC.

197. Which of the following are enabled by default in IGRP’s composite metric? Bandwidth* Load
Delay* MTU Reliability

198. What command configures the configuration-register? Router(config)# config-register 0x2102

199. What command will configure the clock rate for 56000 on a serial 0 interface? Router(config-
if)#clock rate 56000

200. What switching method examines the destination MAC address as the frame is being
received and then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame? Cut-through.
Knock Out

640-507

89%

Guy's, hats off to Reba, you are a saint. Thanks for your dilegence and hard work. I've been
paying attention to previous comments. Here's how I feel. It is much appreciated to all others who
share there resouces and anything they can give, questions or whatever. The test will trully test
your knowledge. I have taken it. It is important that we all study and know our material indeptly,
dump questions can take you over the edge when you are on the border passing. Remember,
only job experience and hands on will give you the true 1000. By doing some patch work here is
some material I have found from other dumps. Resources I used were Tom Lammle Book, Troy
Systems study guide, brain buzz cramsession study guide, Certify Express sample questions.
These are actual questions that are on the test below. Good Luck!!

Passed 89% A few new questions from what I've seen here. Sorry I don't have a good memory for
exact wording. These might be the ones I missed. Good luck.

Required: Backup data for a company. Optional: Protect against vandalism and theft Optional:
Protect against fire. Proposed Solution: Use a tape backup and verify it. Store the tapes onsite.

a. meets all b. meets none c. meets required and first optional d. meets required and second
optional e. only meets the required*

What are the commonly used 802.X standards for PC based networking? Choose three a. 802.3*
b. 802.4 c. 802.5* d. 802.2* I guessed 3, 5, and ...4 and I was wrong.

When setting up a workstation, what do you need to access a DNS server? Choose three a.
domain* b. NT Domain Server IP address c. host* d. DNS server IP* e. enable IP forwarding

Which security model is easier to implement? a. user level b. share level*

Identify the best documentation to consult when installing something. a. homepage of


manufacturer b. cd that came with item c. readme file d. tech support line e. ??? I chose the CD
and got this wrong. I don't know what is best, maybe website?

What character do you start a HOSTS file with? a. ! b. # * c. & d. $

Which is a valid IP address for a class C network? a. 199.4.4.4* b. 224.4.4.4 c. 128.4.4.4 d.


191.4.4.4

What is RIP associated with? a. static routing* b. dynamic routing c. OSPF d. ???? 1. What are
the valid Host ID's for 222.37.2.50 /24 ? A.) 222.37.2.48 - 222.37.2.66 B.) 222.37.2.49 -
222.37.2.62 C.) 222.37.2.0 - 222.37.2.255 D.) 222.37.0.0 - 222.37.255.254 E.) 222.37.2.1 -
222.37.2.254

2. Which commands listed below will move you from interface configuration mode back to global
configuration mode? A.) CTL+Z B.) CTL+F C.) exit D.) global E.) config t
C CTRL-Z and CTRL-C will abort you back to the root. Exit goes back one level.

3. You have a Unix server running the TFTP Daemon. What is the command to load a
configuration file from the TFTP server into the routers RAM? A.) copy tftp ram B.) copy tftp
running-config C.) read tftp D.) copy tftp startup-config E.) copy tftp nvram

B Remember RAM = RUNNING-CONFIG. All changes to RAM are immediate!

4. Given the following static route command, ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 4.4.4.4 125, which
portion represents the next hop TCP/IP address? A.) 125 B.) 3.3.3.0 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) route
E.) 4.4.4.4

E Router(config)#ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 ? A.B.C.D Forwarding router's address

5. In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control? A.) E B.) Q C.) D D.) I
E.) B

C B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each). D is for Control (16kb).

6. Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence? A.) Inverse ARP. B.)
Poison Reverse. C.) Triggered Updates. D.) Split Horizon. E.) Hold Down timers.

C Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing
protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor routers. Hold down
timers, Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops.

7. What command would show the current configuration register settings? A.) show running-config
B.) show startup-config C.) show nvram D.) show ram E.) show version F.) show ios

E For most routers the configuration register settings are: 0x2102 normal operation (parse
NVRAM at startup), or 0x2142 password recovery (ignore NVRAM during startup).

8. What would the following command do?: 'Show Frame-Relay PVC' A.) Display LMI Info. B.) The
command is incomplete, and would be ignored. C.) Display all configured DLCI's. D.) Debug a
Frame-Relay Problem. E.) Show Virtual Links.

C The Permament Virtual Circuit (PVC) info is displayed along with the Data Link Connection
Identifiers (DLCI)'s.

9. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer? (3 answers) A.) SQL B.) NFS C.) IP
D.) TCP E.) Netbios Names F.) Token Ring

A B E Controls mechanisms such as checkpoints, terminations, and restarts to establish,


maintain, and synchronize communications between applications. Examples: SQL, RFC, RPC, X-
Windows, NetBIOS Names Layer 5 of the OSI reference model.

10. When editing a line in the CLI mode, what does 'CTRL-P' do? A.) Moves you to the next word.
B.) Moves you to the next command. C.) Moves you to the end of the line. D.) Moves you to the
beginning of the line. E.) Moves you to the previous command.

E
11. The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model? A.)
Physical B.) Session C.) Datalink D.) Network E.) Presentation F.) Transport

D ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3. Ping and traceroute are examples of
ICMP. Network LayerProvides path determination using a hierarchal logical address defined with
a network portion and node portion, net.node.Examples: IP, IPX.

12. Which command listed below enables load balancing over two multiple paths for IPX on a
Cisco router? A.) ipx routing 2 B.) ipx round-robin 2 C.) ipx maximum-paths 2 D.) ipx rip 2 E.) ipx
sap 2 F.) ipx gns 2

C The default IPX routing protocol is IPX-RIP. By default, RIP selects the best path, and keeps
only one route in its routing table. The 'IPX maximum-paths' command allows RIP to load balance
over up to 6 paths.

13. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer? A.) IP B.) LLC C.) SQL D.) DDP
E.) Ethernet

14. What class address is 193.1.3.4 ? A.) C B.) B C.) multi-cast D.) broadcast E.) A F.) D

15. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_802.3. What is the matching
Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method? A.) arpa B.) snap C.) novell-ether
D.) sap E.) dix F.) gns

C Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare
proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')

16. What would be the first command from global configuration mode to perform the following: 1.
Enable IGRP on the router for interface E0 2. Tell IGRP to use an address of 157.89.4.4
255.255.255.0 3. Tell IGRP to provide routing updates for AS number 200? A.) router igrp
157.89.4.4 B.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.1 C.) router igrp int e1 D.) router igrp 157.89.0.0
E.) network 157.89.4.0 F.) router igrp 200

F. You have to specify which routing protocol first. For IGRP you must also specify the
autonomous system number. Router(config)#router igrp ? <1-65535> Autonomous system
number

17. From global configuration mode, which command will create subinterface #1 for serial 0? A.)
int sub serial 0 B.) int serial 0 subinterface 1 C.) int ss 0 D.) int s0.1 point-to-point E.) int serial 0
subinterface 0 F.) int s0

D. Command syntax for creating sub-interfaces:

18. The command 'ip host Dallas 157.89.8.64' maps the host name Dallas with its IP address.
What command would display all such mappings? A.) show dns B.) show dns entry dallas C.)
show neighbors D.) show hosts E.) show ip table F.) show dns cache
D Router#show hosts Host Flags Age Type Address(es) www.eku.edu (temp, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.2
dallas (perm, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.64 Perm - permament static entries Temp - temporary usually
resolved via DNS

19. The command 'show running-config' displays the configuration script in RAM, but what other
command could you use to show information about objects stored in RAM? A.) show startup-
config B.) show all C.) show config D.) debug ram E.) show buffers F.) show start

E Packets are stored in memory locations called buffers during periods when the router becomes
over-loaded with other requests.

20. Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer? (2 answers) A.) SQL B.) IP C.)
MAC D.) TCP E.) LLC

C E MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer.

21. Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it? A.) Fast Forward B.)
Tabling C.) Cut-Through D.) Store-and-Forward E.) Inverse ARP F.) Routing

D Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding. This can
actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines.

22. What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone? A.) ET B.) LE C.) TE2 D.)
TE1 E.) TA C Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN. The analog
device will require an external analog to digital converter.

23. Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information
between 2 different OS's? For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC. A.) Transport B.) Physical
C.) Application D.) Network E.) Session F.) Presentation

F. Presentation Layer Accepts data from application layer and negotiates data representation,
syntax, compression and encryption. Examples: ASCII, EBCDIC, JPEG, GIF, PICT, MIDI, MPEG

24. How do you view all debugging that is currently enabled? A.) show running-config B.) show
startup-config C.) show debug D.) debug update E.) show flash F.) show version

C.

25. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer? A.) SQL B.) LLC C.) TCP D.) IP
E.) Token Ring

D Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP.
TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4.DDP is for Appletalk

26. Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?' A.) Inverted B.) Layer 4 C.) Cut-
Through D.) Multiplexed E.) Layer 3 F.) Store and Forward

27. On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is the rate of this
channel? A.) 1.544 Mbps B.) 2.048 Mbps C.) 128 Kbps D.) 16 Kbps E.) 64 Kbps
D

28 Which commands are valid to turn off all debugging? ( 2 answers) A.) clear logging B.) no
debug C.) no logging D.) clear debug E.) undebug all F.) no debug all

EF

29. Which of the following are valid Host ID's for 157.89.9.50 /28 (12 bits of subnetting)? A.)
157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.64 B.) 157.89.0.0 - 157.89.255.255 C.) 157.89.9.0 - 157.89.9.255 D.)
157.89.9.32 - 157.89.9.63 E.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.62

E Below is a very easy to use shortcut that requires no binary math: Figure out the mask: /28 =
255.255.255.240 Figure out the subnet multiple: 256-240=16 Subnets are 16,32,48,64,80, etc
This is subnet 48, next subnet is 64, so the broadcast address is 63! Everything between the
subnet (48) and broadcast (63) are the valid hosts. In this example, based on the given mask, the
valid host ranges are 49-62.

30. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches? A.) They decrease latency. B.) They
forward the frame before it is completely read. C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching.
D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding. E.) They work at wire speed.

31. Given the following address: 157.89.8.64 255.255.0.0 which part represents the host portion
of the address? A.) 0.89.8.64 B.) 0.0.8.64 C.) 157.89.0.0 D.) 157.0.0.0 E.) 0.0.0.64

B Using the subnet mask 255.255.0.0, the first 16 bits represent the network, the last 16 bits
represent the host.

32. Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology? A.) F-Series B.) I-
Series C.) World Series D.) 911-Series E.) Q-Series F.) J-Series

B The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q - Call setup and teardown. I - Concepts
and terminology.

33. Which command would change the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) update to 90 second
intervals? A.) cdp router 90 B.) router cdp 90 C.) cdp timer 1.5 D.) set timer cdp=1.5 E.) cdp timer
90 F.) timer cdp 1.5

34. Which command will copy the routers configuration script from RAM to NVRAM? A.) copy
running-config startup-config B.) NVRAM is read-only, so this is not possible. C.) save ram nvram
D.) save ram E.) copy all

35. Which command listed below sets the banner message when someone connects to the
router? A.) description # B.) login banner # C.) banner # D.) login description # E.) message # F.)
banner motd #

F
36 What should be the first command to create an access-list that prevents all users on
subnetwork 10.10.128.0, using subnet mask 255.255.192.0, from being able to telnet anywhere?
A.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.0.0 any eq telnet B.) access-list 101 deny tcp
10.10.128.0 0.0.192.255 any eq telnet C.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.128.255 any
eq telnet D.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.63.255 any eq telnet E.) access-list 101
deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.192.0 any eq telnet F.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0
0.0.127.255 any eq telnet

D Wildcard masks for an entire subnet are easy to figure out (shortcut): Local Broadcast - Subnet
Mask = Inverted Wildcard Masks 255.255.255.255 -255.255.192. 0 ----------------- 0. 0. 63.255

37. What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay? A.) IETF B.)
ARPA C.) SAP D.) Cisco E.) Gandalf5 F.) Q933A

D Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A.

38. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination? A.) Network B.) Physical
C.) Transport D.) Session E.) Datalink

A The Network layer is where routing occurs. (If you don't get this question right, there's always a
job at McDonalds!!)

39. Your Ethernet interface currently has the IP address of 1.1.1.1/24. You would like it to have a
second IP address of 2.2.2.2/24. Which command will do that? A.) ip address 2.2.2.2
255.255.255.0 B.) ip address 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 C.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0
secondary D.) This cannot be done, you can only have 1 IP address per physical interface. E.) ip
address 2.2.2.2 /24

40. MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model? A.) Session B.)
Transport C.) Presentation D.) Network E.) Application F.) Datalink

C The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG. Encryption
can also occur at this layer.

41. Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS from ROM at next
boot? A.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used. B.) boot system flash
IOS_filename C.) config-register 0x2102 D.) boot system rom E.) boot system tftp IOS_filename
tftp_address

42. What is the default subnet mask for a TCP/IP Class B address? (2 answers) A.) 255.255.0.0
B.) /8 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) /24 E.) /16 F.) 255.0.0.0

AE

43. Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route back
out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an example of which routing
technology? A.) Split Horizon B.) LMI C.) SYN, ACK D.) DLCI E.) Poison Reverse F.) Triggered
Updates
A The golden rule of Split Horizon: Do not send any update packet back out the same interface
that it was received or learned from. Poison Reverse is typically used on larger networks, where a
more aggressive routing loop solution is required.

44. You want to set the telnet password to Boston. What would be the first command you need to
execute from global configuration mode? A.) enable password boston B.) login boston C.) login
password boston D.) set password=boston E.) password boston F.) line vty 0 4

45. Which command will start the process for creating a Cisco IOS file image backup to a network
file server? A.) copy ios tftp B.) copy ios network C.) copy tftp flash D.) copy flash tftp E.) copy ios
flash

D The IOS is stored in flash. The command format is: copy [source] [destination]

46. How do you determine which standard IP access lists are applied to interface E0 ? A.) show ip
access-list B.) show access-lists C.) show ip interface e0 D.) show interface e0 E.) show access-
list e0

C To see which specific protocol access-lists are bound to the interface, Show ip int e0 or Show
ipx int e0 The command 'show access-lists' will display all access lists that exist, not just the ones
bound to a certian interface.

47. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) uses advertisements and discoveries. How does it send
this information? A.) Over a SNAP-capable link. B.) Layer 3 broadcast. C.) CDP does not use
advertisements. D.) Layer 2 multicast. E.) Layer 4 TCP. F.) SAP.

A D The Cisco proprietary protocol uses multicast, so that only other Cisco devices will listen to
these packets. CDP requires a SNAP-capable link to transmit.

48. In the TCP/IP protocol stack, there are five classes of addresses. Which class is used for
testing? A.) B B.) A C.) D D.) C E.) E

E A,B,C are valid for use on the internet D is multicast E is for research

49. Which subnet is the host 200.1.1.67 /26 on? A.) 200.1.1.32 B.) 200.1.1.128 C.) 200.1.1.0 D.)
200.1.1.16 E.) 200.1.1.64 E Shorthand notation /26 = 2 bits in the last octet = decimal
255.255.255.192 Shortcut: 256 - 192 = 64. Valid subnets are multiples of 64. (64, 128, 192, 256).
The closest value to 67 is between 64 (the network) and 127 (the broadcast).

50. The Datalink layer works with which of the following: A.) Bits B.) Packets C.) Frames D.)
Globules E.) Segments
Kevin

640-507

1. What are the valid Host ID's for 222.37.2.50 /24 ? A.) 222.37.2.48 - 222.37.2.66 B.) 222.37.2.49
- 222.37.2.62 C.) 222.37.2.0 - 222.37.2.255 D.) 222.37.0.0 - 222.37.255.254 E.) 222.37.2.1 -
222.37.2.254

2. Which commands listed below will move you from interface configuration mode back to global
configuration mode? A.) CTL+Z B.) CTL+F C.) exit D.) global E.) config t

C CTRL-Z and CTRL-C will abort you back to the root. Exit goes back one level.

3. You have a Unix server running the TFTP Daemon. What is the command to load a
configuration file from the TFTP server into the routers RAM? A.) copy tftp ram B.) copy tftp
running-config C.) read tftp D.) copy tftp startup-config E.) copy tftp nvram

B Remember RAM = RUNNING-CONFIG. All changes to RAM are immediate!

4. Given the following static route command, ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 4.4.4.4 125, which
portion represents the next hop TCP/IP address? A.) 125 B.) 3.3.3.0 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) route
E.) 4.4.4.4

E Router(config)#ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 ? A.B.C.D Forwarding router's address

5. In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control? A.) E B.) Q C.) D D.) I
E.) B

C B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each). D is for Control (16kb).

6. Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence? A.) Inverse ARP. B.)
Poison Reverse. C.) Triggered Updates. D.) Split Horizon. E.) Hold Down timers.

C Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing
protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor routers. Hold down timers,
Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops.

7. What command would show the current configuration register settings? A.) show running-config
B.) show startup-config C.) show nvram D.) show ram E.) show version F.) show ios

E For most routers the configuration register settings are: 0x2102 normal operation (parse NVRAM
at startup), or 0x2142 password recovery (ignore NVRAM during startup).

8. What would the following command do?: 'Show Frame-Relay PVC' A.) Display LMI Info. B.) The
command is incomplete, and would be ignored. C.) Display all configured DLCI's. D.) Debug a
Frame-Relay Problem. E.) Show Virtual Links.

C The Permament Virtual Circuit (PVC) info is displayed along with the Data Link Connection
Identifiers (DLCI)'s.

9. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer? (3 answers) A.) SQL B.) NFS C.) IP
D.) TCP E.) Netbios Names F.) Token Ring

A B E Controls mechanisms such as checkpoints, terminations, and restarts to establish, maintain,


and synchronize communications between applications. Examples: SQL, RFC, RPC, X-Windows,
NetBIOS Names Layer 5 of the OSI reference model.

10. When editing a line in the CLI mode, what does 'CTRL-P' do? A.) Moves you to the next word.
B.) Moves you to the next command. C.) Moves you to the end of the line. D.) Moves you to the
beginning of the line. E.) Moves you to the previous command.

11. The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model? A.)
Physical B.) Session C.) Datalink D.) Network E.) Presentation F.) Transport

D ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3. Ping and traceroute are examples of
ICMP. Network LayerProvides path determination using a hierarchal logical address defined with a
network portion and node portion, net.node.Examples: IP, IPX.

12. Which command listed below enables load balancing over two multiple paths for IPX on a
Cisco router? A.) ipx routing 2 B.) ipx round-robin 2 C.) ipx maximum-paths 2 D.) ipx rip 2 E.) ipx
sap 2 F.) ipx gns 2

C The default IPX routing protocol is IPX-RIP. By default, RIP selects the best path, and keeps
only one route in its routing table. The 'IPX maximum-paths' command allows RIP to load balance
over up to 6 paths.

13. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer? A.) IP B.) LLC C.) SQL D.) DDP
E.) Ethernet

14. What class address is 193.1.3.4 ? A.) C B.) B C.) multi-cast D.) broadcast E.) A F.) D

15. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_802.3. What is the matching Cisco
command line keyword for this encapsulation method? A.) arpa B.) snap C.) novell-ether D.) sap
E.) dix F.) gns

C Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare
proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')

16. What would be the first command from global configuration mode to perform the following: 1.
Enable IGRP on the router for interface E0 2. Tell IGRP to use an address of 157.89.4.4
255.255.255.0 3. Tell IGRP to provide routing updates for AS number 200? A.) router igrp
157.89.4.4 B.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.1 C.) router igrp int e1 D.) router igrp 157.89.0.0
E.) network 157.89.4.0 F.) router igrp 200

F. You have to specify which routing protocol first. For IGRP you must also specify the
autonomous system number. Router(config)#router igrp ? <1-65535> Autonomous system number

17. From global configuration mode, which command will create subinterface #1 for serial 0? A.)
int sub serial 0 B.) int serial 0 subinterface 1 C.) int ss 0 D.) int s0.1 point-to-point E.) int serial 0
subinterface 0 F.) int s0

D. Command syntax for creating sub-interfaces:

18. The command 'ip host Dallas 157.89.8.64' maps the host name Dallas with its IP address.
What command would display all such mappings? A.) show dns B.) show dns entry dallas C.)
show neighbors D.) show hosts E.) show ip table F.) show dns cache

D Router#show hosts Host Flags Age Type Address(es) www.eku.edu (temp, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.2
dallas (perm, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.64 Perm - permament static entries Temp - temporary usually
resolved via DNS

19. The command 'show running-config' displays the configuration script in RAM, but what other
command could you use to show information about objects stored in RAM? A.) show startup-config
B.) show all C.) show config D.) debug ram E.) show buffers F.) show start

E Packets are stored in memory locations called buffers during periods when the router becomes
over-loaded with other requests.

20. Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer? (2 answers) A.) SQL B.) IP C.)
MAC D.) TCP E.) LLC

C E MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer.

21. Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it? A.) Fast Forward B.)
Tabling C.) Cut-Through D.) Store-and-Forward E.) Inverse ARP F.) Routing

D Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding. This can
actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines.

22. What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone? A.) ET B.) LE C.) TE2 D.)
TE1 E.) TA C Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN. The analog
device will require an external analog to digital converter.

23. Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information
between 2 different OS's? For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC. A.) Transport B.) Physical
C.) Application D.) Network E.) Session F.) Presentation

F. Presentation Layer Accepts data from application layer and negotiates data representation,
syntax, compression and encryption. Examples: ASCII, EBCDIC, JPEG, GIF, PICT, MIDI, MPEG

24. How do you view all debugging that is currently enabled? A.) show running-config B.) show
startup-config C.) show debug D.) debug update E.) show flash F.) show version
C.

25. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer? A.) SQL B.) LLC C.) TCP D.) IP E.)
Token Ring

D Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP.
TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4.DDP is for Appletalk

26. Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?' A.) Inverted B.) Layer 4 C.) Cut-
Through D.) Multiplexed E.) Layer 3 F.) Store and Forward

27. On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is the rate of this
channel? A.) 1.544 Mbps B.) 2.048 Mbps C.) 128 Kbps D.) 16 Kbps E.) 64 Kbps

28 Which commands are valid to turn off all debugging? ( 2 answers) A.) clear logging B.) no
debug C.) no logging D.) clear debug E.) undebug all F.) no debug all

EF

29. Which of the following are valid Host ID's for 157.89.9.50 /28 (12 bits of subnetting)? A.)
157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.64 B.) 157.89.0.0 - 157.89.255.255 C.) 157.89.9.0 - 157.89.9.255 D.)
157.89.9.32 - 157.89.9.63 E.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.62

E Below is a very easy to use shortcut that requires no binary math: Figure out the mask: /28 =
255.255.255.240 Figure out the subnet multiple: 256-240=16 Subnets are 16,32,48,64,80, etc This
is subnet 48, next subnet is 64, so the broadcast address is 63! Everything between the subnet
(48) and broadcast (63) are the valid hosts. In this example, based on the given mask, the valid
host ranges are 49-62.

30. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches? A.) They decrease latency. B.) They
forward the frame before it is completely read. C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching. D.)
They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding. E.) They work at wire speed.

31. Given the following address: 157.89.8.64 255.255.0.0 which part represents the host portion of
the address? A.) 0.89.8.64 B.) 0.0.8.64 C.) 157.89.0.0 D.) 157.0.0.0 E.) 0.0.0.64

B Using the subnet mask 255.255.0.0, the first 16 bits represent the network, the last 16 bits
represent the host.

32. Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology? A.) F-Series B.) I-
Series C.) World Series D.) 911-Series E.) Q-Series F.) J-Series

B The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q - Call setup and teardown. I - Concepts
and terminology.
33. Which command would change the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) update to 90 second
intervals? A.) cdp router 90 B.) router cdp 90 C.) cdp timer 1.5 D.) set timer cdp=1.5 E.) cdp timer
90 F.) timer cdp 1.5

34. Which command will copy the routers configuration script from RAM to NVRAM? A.) copy
running-config startup-config B.) NVRAM is read-only, so this is not possible. C.) save ram nvram
D.) save ram E.) copy all

35. Which command listed below sets the banner message when someone connects to the router?
A.) description # B.) login banner # C.) banner # D.) login description # E.) message # F.) banner
motd #

36 What should be the first command to create an access-list that prevents all users on
subnetwork 10.10.128.0, using subnet mask 255.255.192.0, from being able to telnet anywhere?
A.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.0.0 any eq telnet B.) access-list 101 deny tcp
10.10.128.0 0.0.192.255 any eq telnet C.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.128.255 any
eq telnet D.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.63.255 any eq telnet E.) access-list 101
deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.192.0 any eq telnet F.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0
0.0.127.255 any eq telnet

D Wildcard masks for an entire subnet are easy to figure out (shortcut): Local Broadcast - Subnet
Mask = Inverted Wildcard Masks 255.255.255.255 -255.255.192. 0 ----------------- 0. 0. 63.255

37. What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay? A.) IETF B.) ARPA
C.) SAP D.) Cisco E.) Gandalf5 F.) Q933A

D Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A.

38. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination? A.) Network B.) Physical
C.) Transport D.) Session E.) Datalink

A The Network layer is where routing occurs. (If you don't get this question right, there's always a
job at McDonalds!!)

39. Your Ethernet interface currently has the IP address of 1.1.1.1/24. You would like it to have a
second IP address of 2.2.2.2/24. Which command will do that? A.) ip address 2.2.2.2
255.255.255.0 B.) ip address 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 C.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0
secondary D.) This cannot be done, you can only have 1 IP address per physical interface. E.) ip
address 2.2.2.2 /24

40. MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model? A.) Session B.)
Transport C.) Presentation D.) Network E.) Application F.) Datalink
C The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG. Encryption
can also occur at this layer.

41. Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS from ROM at next
boot? A.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used. B.) boot system flash
IOS_filename C.) config-register 0x2102 D.) boot system rom E.) boot system tftp IOS_filename
tftp_address

42. What is the default subnet mask for a TCP/IP Class B address? (2 answers) A.) 255.255.0.0
B.) /8 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) /24 E.) /16 F.) 255.0.0.0

AE

43. Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route back
out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an example of which routing
technology? A.) Split Horizon B.) LMI C.) SYN, ACK D.) DLCI E.) Poison Reverse F.) Triggered
Updates

A The golden rule of Split Horizon: Do not send any update packet back out the same interface
that it was received or learned from. Poison Reverse is typically used on larger networks, where a
more aggressive routing loop solution is required.

44. You want to set the telnet password to Boston. What would be the first command you need to
execute from global configuration mode? A.) enable password boston B.) login boston C.) login
password boston D.) set password=boston E.) password boston F.) line vty 0 4

45. Which command will start the process for creating a Cisco IOS file image backup to a network
file server? A.) copy ios tftp B.) copy ios network C.) copy tftp flash D.) copy flash tftp E.) copy ios
flash

D The IOS is stored in flash. The command format is: copy [source] [destination]

46. How do you determine which standard IP access lists are applied to interface E0 ? A.) show ip
access-list B.) show access-lists C.) show ip interface e0 D.) show interface e0 E.) show access-
list e0

C To see which specific protocol access-lists are bound to the interface, Show ip int e0 or Show
ipx int e0 The command 'show access-lists' will display all access lists that exist, not just the ones
bound to a certian interface.

47. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) uses advertisements and discoveries. How does it send
this information? A.) Over a SNAP-capable link. B.) Layer 3 broadcast. C.) CDP does not use
advertisements. D.) Layer 2 multicast. E.) Layer 4 TCP. F.) SAP.

A D The Cisco proprietary protocol uses multicast, so that only other Cisco devices will listen to
these packets. CDP requires a SNAP-capable link to transmit.
48. In the TCP/IP protocol stack, there are five classes of addresses. Which class is used for
testing? A.) B B.) A C.) D D.) C E.) E

E A,B,C are valid for use on the internet D is multicast E is for research

49. Which subnet is the host 200.1.1.67 /26 on? A.) 200.1.1.32 B.) 200.1.1.128 C.) 200.1.1.0 D.)
200.1.1.16 E.) 200.1.1.64 E Shorthand notation /26 = 2 bits in the last octet = decimal
255.255.255.192 Shortcut: 256 - 192 = 64. Valid subnets are multiples of 64. (64, 128, 192, 256).
The closest value to 67 is between 64 (the network) and 127 (the broadcast).

50. The Datalink layer works with which of the following: A.) Bits B.) Packets C.) Frames D.)
Globules E.) Segments

C Physical - bits Datalink - frames Network - packe


Kevin again

640-507

The CCNA 2.0 contains 65 question for 105 mintues.I face only one typing question. such like

~Configure RIP~ Ans : router rip

The other is selectivity.

I found the microsoft's MCSE test was 90% the same with this braindumps, but CCNA's test did
not.Only the basic question about 20% was the same in test. Anyway, rfb's dumps worked. This is
dumps which copy from another site. I wish you can understand all questions and take the CCNA
2.0 Licence. 1.What is the correct order for the OSI model? P=Presentation, S=Session,
D=Datalink, Ph=Physical, T=Transport, A= Application, N=Network

A. P S A PH D N T B. A P S T N D PH C. PH D N T A S P D. P S A T N D PH

Answer B. It is crucial you not only memorize this and know what each layer does.

2. What is encapsulation?

A. Putting the header on an incoming frame B. Putting a header on an incoming segment C.


Putting a header on an outgoing frame D. Putting a header on an outgoing bit

Answer C. This also includes trailers and can be put on segments, packets, and frames.

3. Which layer is most concerned with user applications?

A. Application B. Presentation C. Network D. Physical

Answer A.

4. Which of the following is de-encapsulation?

A. Stripping the header from a frame B. Putting a header on a segment C. Putting a header on a
frame D. Stripping a frame from a link

Answer A. This also includes trailers as in question 2.

5. What layer converts data into segments?

A. Application B. Presentation C. Transport D. Physical

Answer C.

6. What layer converts data into Packets?

A. Network B. Application C. Physical D. Data Link

Answer A.
7. What layer converts data into Frames?

A. Application B. Physical C. Data Link D. Transport

Answer C.

8. What layer converts data into bits?

A. Application B. Session C. Data Link D. Physical

Answer D. All of the layers need to convert data into something that they can pass down to the
next level, with the exception of the Application layer which hands data to the Presentation layer.
The Presentation layer encrypts, and compresses before sending it to the Session layer for it's first
conversion.

9. Which layer is most concerned with getting data from the beginning to the final destination?

A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport

Answer D. The transport layer is most concerned with reliable transportation from one end to the
other.

10. Which of the following is not a part of the Session layer?

A. Establishing a session B. Ensuring error free segments C. Ending a session D. Keeping the
sender and receiver from sending a message at the same time

Answer B. That is the job of the Transport layer.

11. Which of the following is not a job for the presentation layer? Choose 2

A. Data representation B. Compression C. Dialog management D. Transmission E. Encryption

Answer C D. C is handled by the session layer, and D is handled by the Transport layer

12. What does Peer to Peer communication involve?

A. Each layer communication with the layer below it B. Each layer communication with layer above
it C. Each layer communicating with adjacent layer in another system D. Each layer
communication with it's corresponding layer in another system

Answer D. Answer C sounds correct also, but adjacent and corresponding are two different things.
The session layer can only communicate with the session layer in another system for example.

13. Why does the industry use a layered model? Choose all correct

A. When you enhance one layer it doesn't affect the other layers B. Design and development can
be made in a modular fashion C. Network operations can be simplified D. Troubleshooting can be
simplified.
Answer A B C D.

14. Which two of the following are not from the physical layer?

A. SDLC B. V.35 C. HSSI D. ISDN E. RS-232

Answer A D. SDLC and ISDN are WAN protocols that function at the data link layer

15. Which two answers are functions of the OSI model"s network layer?

A. Sequencing of frames B. Path determination C. Packet switching D. Packet sequencing

Answer B C. Sequencing is done at the data link layer. D is fictional.

16. What is an example of a MAC address?

A. Az32:6362:2434 B. Sj:2817:8288 C. GGG:354:665 D. A625:cbdf:6525

Answer D. The address is a 48 bit address which requires 12 Hex digits. A hex digit can't be past
the letter F. Hex stands for 16. 1-9 and A-F make up numbers that are valid.

17. Which of the following is not part of the data link layer?

A. Transports data across the physical link B. Performs physical addressing C. Performs flow
control D. Determines network topology E. Terminates a session

Answer E. This is part of the session layer

18. Which of the following are data link protocols?

A. HDLC B. FTP C. SQL D. ISDN E. Token Ring

Answer A D E. FTP is an application and SQL is a session layer protocol.

19. Of the following address AA77:3827:EF54, which of the following is the vendor portion?

A. AA7738 B. 27EF54 C. AA77 D. EF54

Answer A. The vendor code is how you can tell who made the card. The last 6 digits are the
physical address.

20. Which of the following are examples of layer 3 addressing?

A. 165.33.4.34 B. AA77:3827:EF54 C. HHHH:hg:7654 D. 76

Answer A B. The first is a TCPIP address and the second is an IPX address

21. What is considered Layer 3 addressing?

A. Data Link Layer B. Network Layer C. Application Layer D. None of these


Answer B. Physical is Layer 1, then data link, and then Network. This is the same layer that routers
are on.

22. What layer are Bridges on?

A. Data Link B. Physical C. Application D. Transport

Answer A. Bridges segment networks but are not able to determine addresses like the network
layer does.

23. Repeaters are on what layer?

A. Transport B. Session C. Physical D. Application

Answer C. All repeaters can do is boost a signal. An active hub is a good example of a repeater. A
switching hub is a good example of layer 3 addressing, since switches go by network addresses
and IPX addresses rather than just boost signals. Bridges can only read mac addresses, and not
the full IPX or TCPIP addresses.

24. Which of the following are considered routing protocols?

A. OSPF B. IP C. IPX D. EIGRP E. Token Ring

Answer A D. Answers B and C are routed protocols, whereas A and D are the protocols that do the
routing. This is easily confused. You can remember it by thinking that the routing protocols that
haul the routed protocols are like a tug ship pulling a barge. The barge is full of data.

25. Which two of the following are considered connection oriented communication?

A. Setup and maintenance procedures are performed to ensure message delievery B. A physical
circuit exists between two communicating devices C. It is a best effort type of communication D. A
virtual connection exists between the two

Answer A D. B is not a necessity, and C is not accurate. TCP is connection oriented and UDP is
not.

26. Which of the following are not WAN protocols? Choose 2

A. Frame Relay B. ATM C. Ethernet D. FDDI E. ISDN

Answer C D. Ethernet and FDDI are LAN protocols.

27. Which of the following will allow you to view NVRAM's contents?

A. show configuration B. show protocols C. show version D. show running-config E. show startup-
config

Answer A E. These show the backup configuration stored in NVRAM. The other anwsers allow
youto view RAM.
28. Which of the following contains the OS image?

A. Flash B. NVRAM C. RAM D. Interfaces

Answer A. ROM will be used if Flash is unavailable. NVRAM is the backup configuration, and RAM
is the active configuration

29. Which of the following indicates the router is in privilege mode?

A. Router# B. Router> C. Router- D. Router*

Answer A. Answer B shows the router in user mode.

30. What does "show cdp neighbors" not show? Neighbors_________

A. device id B. hardware platform C. ios version D. port type and number

Answer C.

31. Which of the following will show you the clock?

A. cl? B. Cl ? C. Clock? D. Clock ?

Answer D. By typing this the router will finish the command and show the clock.

32. CDP operates at which layer?

A. Transport B. Network C. Data link D. Physical

Answer C. CDP allows a network device to exchange frames with other directly connected
networked devices.

33. Which command does not show two devices are not routing packets between them
successfully?

A. ping B. show interface C. trace D. telnet

Answer A C D. With these commands you can tell whether or not you have communication. Show
interface just verifies there is a connection

34. What keystrokes shows the possible commands in privilege mode?

A. help B. h C. ctrl+h D. ?

Answer D. Answers A and B will give a brief description when typed, and C is not valid.

35. Which two items contain versions of the router's configuration file?

A. flash B. nvram C. ram D. rom


Answer B C. A and D contain the OS.

36. Which of the following commands will allow youto review the contents of RAM?

A. show configuration B. show protocol C. show version D. show running-config E. show startup-
config

Answer B C D. A and E allow you to see NVRAM.

37. Which of the following will allow you to add, modify, or delete commands in the startup
configuration file?

A. show startup-config B. show running-config C. configure terminal D. configure memory

Answer D. Answer C allows you to change items in the running configuration file

38. Which command would be used to restore a configuration file to RAM? ________TFTP
running-config

A. router#copy B. router>copy C. router*copy D. router^copy

Answer A. You must be in privilege mode when executing this, which is why you see the # sign.

39. Which of the following commands will display the running configuration file to a terminal?

A. show running-config B. show router-config C. router#show flash D. router>show version

Answer A. It can only be shown in privilege mode.

40. If you need to copy the currently executing configuration file into NVRAM, which command
would you use?

A. router#copy startup-config running-config B. router#copy startup-config TFTP C. router#copy


running-config startup-config D. router>copy startup-config running-config

Answer C. Answers ABC show that the router is in privilege mode which is necessary to complete
this action, but only C shows the correct syntax.

41 Which of the following commands would not set a password on a Cisco router?

A. router(config)#enable secret B. router(config-line)#password test C. router(config)#service


encryption password D. router(config)#enable password

Answer C. This command is used to encrypt passwords in configuration files.

42. Which of the following would cause a router to boot into the initial configuration dialog after
powering has cycled?

A. Someone had copied the startup configuration file in a TFTP server B. The running
configuration file was copied to the startup configuration file C. It is the first time router has ever
been turned on D. The write erase command was executed immediately before powering down the
router.

Answer C and D. These two scenarios describe what will happen when the router needs to use
NVRAM to boot if it cannot find the configuration file.

43. What would cause a router to boot from ROM?

A. 0x3202 B. 0x2302 C. 0x2101 D. 0x2103

Answer C. A configuration register of 1 or 0 will cause the router to boot from ROM.

44. Where does the running config file exist?

A. NVRAM B. ROM C. RAM D. Flash

Answer C. This file is erased if the router is reloaded or rebooted.

45. How do you back up a router?

A. router#copy running-config startup-configuration B. router(config)#copy TFTP flash C.


router#copy flash TFTP D. router#copy flash NVRAM

Answer C. You can copy the file to a TFTP server or other storage device.

46. Which of the following is not valid?

A. router>show version B. router#show running-config C. router#show startup-config D.


router#show RAM

Answer D.

47. Which of the following are basic router functions?

A. Packet switching B. Packet filtering C. Path determination D. Rapid convergence

Answer A and C. Packets get switched once they are determined by the router where to go.

48. Which of the following is not an interior routing protocol?

A. RIP B. IGRP C. OSPF D. BGP

Answer D. BGP is an exterior routing protocol designed to communicate between autonomous


systems.

49. Which of the following routing protocols communicate router information by sending the state
of it's links to all routers in it's domain?

A. BGP B. RIP C. IGRP D. OSPF

Answer D. This is a "link state" routing protocol. RIP and IGRP are distance vector, and BGP
communicates reachability between domains.

50. What is a problem caused by distance vector routing protocols?

A. Split horizon B. Route Poison C. Counting to infinity D. Max hop count E. Hold down timers

Answer C. Answers ABDE are counter measures to the counting to infinity problem caused by
distance vector protocols.

51. What router command will display the routing protocol settings configured on a router?

A. show protocol B. Show routing protocol C. Show ip protocol D. Show running-config

Answer C. This also displays timers, neighbors, and next update info.

52. What helps mitigate the problems with link state protocols? Choose 2

A. Minimize router resource usage. B. Coordinate updates C. Minimum hop counts D. Distance
vectoring

Answer A B.

53. Which router commands will enable RIP for 176.18.0.0? Choose 2

A. router rip B. network 176.18.0.0 C. network rip D. network rip 176.18.0.0

Answer A B. Router rip enables rip. Answer B enable the router to advertise to other routers that it
is available. You must be in the global configuration prompt.

54. Which of the following is a disadvantage with the link state protocol? Choose 3

A. hold down counters B. unsynchronized updates C. high network bandwidth usage D. high router
resource usage

Answer B C D. As link state packets flood the network, high network bandwidth can be a problem.

55. Which of the following exist at the application layer of the TCPIP model? Choose 3

A. SMTP B. FTP C. ICMP D. RIP E. IGRP

Answer A B C. Answers D and E and routing protocols.

56. Which of the following translate Fully Qualified Domain Names into IP addresses?

A. Wins B. DNS C. SNMP D. TCP

Answer B.

57. Which of the following translate netbios names?


A. Wins B. DNS C. SNMP D. TCP

Answer A. Netbios names are the names of the computers specified in the identification tab in the
network neighborhood properties.

58. Which of the following is not done by TCP?

A. Subnetting B. Error checking C. Sequencing D. Flow control

Answer A.

59. What does UDP and TCP have in common? Choose 2

A. flow control B. error checking C. checksum D. provide destination and source port numbers

Answer C D. UDP doesn't check for errors.

60. Which of the following does the network layer do? Choose 2

A. Packet switching B. Translating C. Path determination D. Convert signals to bits

Answer A C.

61. Which of the following about ARP is true? Choose 2

A. It is in the application layer B. It is in the network layer C. It maps mac addresses to ip


addresses D. It maps ip addresses to mac addresses

Answer B D. At the same layer are RARP, ICMP, and IP. RARP does what is in answer C.

62. What protocol in the transport layer does not guarantee packet delivery?

A. TCP B. IP C. IPX D. UDP

Answer D. It does a best effort delivery, but is faster than TCP.

63. Which of the following is a class A ip address?

A. 10.14.16.12 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212

Answer A.

64. Which of the following is a class B address?

A. 10.14.16.12 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212

Answer C.

65. Which of the following is a loop back address?


A. 10.14.16.12 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212

Answer B. This is used to test to see if IP is configured and working properly on your pc,

66. Which of the following is a non routable ip address? Choose 2

A. 10.10.0.0 B. 192.168.0.1 C. 10.14.12.12 D. 209.32.242

Answer A B. These are good ip addresses to use behind a fire wall because they will never be
addresses that will be used on the internet.

67. Which of the following binary numbers represent 10.12.16.6

A. 00001010.00001100.00010000.00000110 B. 00011110.01010000.11001100.00110101 C.
01101010.11001010.01000101.01010011 D. 10001001.11010101.11111111.00000000

Answer A. D cannot be used at all because you can't have all 1's or 0's

68. What does the process of AND in do?

A. It determines the value of an ip address B. It determines the port that TCP will use C. It
determines if two ip addresses are on the same network D. It decides the ip address subnet

Answer C. You do this by writing out all the ip addresses in binary and match them against their
subnets. After you match up the 1's and 0's you can decide if they are on the same network by
seeing if all the numbers match. Check the test info page for an example.

69. Which of the following is a class C address?

A. 124.12.13.44 B. 210.24.56.76 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 10.14.12.16

Answer B. An address above 191 for the first octet shows a class C address.

70. Of the following address address 11000000.11000000.11110000.10000001, what is true?


Choose 2

A. It is a class C address B. It has a host id of 192.224.128 C. It has a host id 128 D. It is a class B


address.

Answer A B

71. Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application,
session establishment, and tear-down of virtual circuits?

A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport

Answer D.

72. Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems?


A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Physical

Answer C.

73. Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax?

A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport

Answer B.

74. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?

A. Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame. B. Switches forward
packets based only on the IP address in the packet. C. Switches forward packets based on the IP
address in the frame D. Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame

Answer D. Switches are network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the
destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.
Switches use layer 2 addresses to filter the network

75. How does the cut-through switching technique work?

A. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination
address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface B. The switch waits only for
the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the
packets C. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses D. By using a Class II repeater in a
collision domain

Answer B. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge
of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A
device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the
destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly
packet switching.

76. How do switches use store and forward?

A. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and
starts forwarding the packets B. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then
looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface C.
By using a class II repeater in a collision domain D. By using broadcast addresses as source
addresses

Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being
forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the
destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such
as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Contrast with cut-through packet
switching.

77. Choose all of the following that are needed to support full-duplex Ethernet.

A. Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link B. Full-duplex NIC cards C. Loopback and
collision detection disabled D. Automatic detection of full-duplex operation by all connected
stations

Answer B C. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a
receiving station.

78. What two types of technology does 100BaseT use?

A. Switching with 53-byte cells B. CSMA/CD C. IEEE 802.5 D. 802.3u

Answer B D. 100-Mbps baseband Fast Ethernet specification using UTP wiring. Like the 10BaseT
technology on which it is based, 100BaseT sends link pulses over the network segment when no
traffic is present. However, these link pulses contain more information than those used in
10BaseT. Based on the IEEE 802.3 standard.

79. Choose all of the following that are advantages to segmenting with routers.

A. Manageability B. Flow control C. Explicit packet lifetime control D. Multiple active paths

Answers A, B, C, D. All of the above is correct. A router is a Network layer device that uses one or
more metrics to determine the optimal path along which network traffic should be forwarded.
Routers forward packets from one network to another based on network layer information

80. Some advantages to segmenting with Bridges are_____

A. Datagram filtering B. Manageability C. Reliability D. Scalability

Answers B, C, D. Bridges do not do datagram (packet) filtering. A device that connects and passes
packets between two network segments that use the same communications protocol. Bridges
operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI reference model. In general, a bridge will filter,
forward, or flood an incoming frame based on the MAC address of that frame

81. Which two of the following describe frame tagging?

A. Examines particular info about each frame B. A unique ID placed in the header of each frame
as it traverses the switch fabric C. A user-assigned ID defined to each frame D. The building of
filter tables

Answer B, C. Frame tagging is used within VLANs to uniquely identify each frame.

82. Which of the following describes a full-duplex transmission?

A. Uses a single cable B. Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting
station to the receiver of the receiving station C. Data transmission in both directions, but only one
way at a time D. Data transmission in only one direction

Answer B. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a
receiving station.

83. If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the
frame is forwarded, what type of switching method are you using?

A. Cut-through B. Store-and-forward C. Store-and-cut D. FragmentFree

Answer A. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge
of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A
device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the
destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly
packet switching

84. Which of the following switching types is the default for Cisco 5505s?

A. Cut-through B. Store-and-forward C. Store-and-cut D. Fragment Free

Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being
forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the
destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such
as an unused link) are available to forward the message.

85. What does the Spanning-Tree Algorithm (STA) do?

A. STA is implemented by STP to prevent loops B. Forward packets through a switch C. Restores
lost frames D. Prevents API duplication in bridged networks

Answer A. Algorithm used by the Spanning-Tree Protocol to create a spanning tree. Sometimes
abbreviated STA.

86. Which can be true regarding VLANs? (Choose all that apply)

A. They are created by location B. They are created by function C. They are created by group D.
They are created by department

Answer A, B, C, D. Virtual LANs are a group of devices on one or more LANs that are configured
(using management software) so that they can communicate as if they were attached to the same
wire, when in fact they are located on a number of different LAN segments. Because VLANs are
based on logical instead of physical connections, they are extremely flexible.

87. What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree?

A. 802.2u B. 802.3q C. 802.1d D. 802.6

Answer C. SPT is a bridge protocol that utilizes the spanning-tree algorithm, enabling a learning
bridge to dynamically work around loops in a network topology by creating a spanning tree.
Bridges exchange BPDU messages with other bridges to detect loops, and then remove the loops
by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. Refers to both the IEEE 802.1d Spanning-Tree
Protocol standard and the earlier Digital Equipment Corporation Spanning-Tree Protocol upon
which it is based. The IEEE version supports bridge domains and allows the bridge to construct a
loop-free topology across an extended LAN. The IEEE version is generally preferred over the
Digital version. Sometimes abbreviated STP
88. Of the three switching types, which one has the lowest latency?

A. Cut-through B. FragmentFree C. Store-and-forward D. None

Answer A. Cut-through packet switching streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of
a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A
device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the
destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly
packet switching. Since no error checking takes place, it has the lowest latency.

89. Of the three switching types, which one has the highest latency?

A. Cut-through B. FragmentFree C. Store-and-forward D. None

Answer C. Store-and-forward packet-switching technique in which frames are completely


processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating
the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until
network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Since frame
size can very in length, latency will then vary.

90. What is the port number for TCP?

A. 6 B. 11 C. 17 D. 45

Answer A. The Network layer uses port 6h for identifying TCP as the upper layer protocol and port
17h to identify UDP as the upper layer protocol

91. User Datagram Protocol works at which layer of the DOD model?

A. Transport B. Internet C. Host-to-Host D. Data Link

Answer C. User Datagram Protocol. Connectionless Host-to-host layer protocol in the TCP/IP
protocol stack. UDP is a simple protocol that exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments or
guaranteed delivery, requiring that error processing and retransmission be handled by other
protocols. UDP is defined in RFC 768.

92. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions?

A. TCP B. UDP C. IP D. ARP

Answer C. IP works at the Internet layer. It looks at the destination network address in the packet
and forwards the packet, based on routing tables and what it determines to be the best route to the
destination

93. Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs?

A. IP B. ARP C. ICMP D. TCP

Answer C. Internet Control Message Protocol alerts routers if a network outage or congestion
occurs so they can make different routing decision based on that information.
94. Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts?

A. 1-255 B. 256-1022 C. 1023 and above D. 6 and 10 respectively

Answer C. In IP terminology, an upper-layer process that receives information from lower layers.
Ports are numbered, and each numbered port is associated with a specific process. For example,
SMTP is associated with port 25. A port number is also known as a well-known address.

95. Which of the following is true?

A. TCP is connection-orientated; UDP uses acknowledgements only B. Both TCP and UDP are
connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing C. TCP is connection-oriented, but UDP is
connectionless D. TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless

Answer C. TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol that uses sequencing and


acknowledgments to make sure packets are delivered properly. UDP is connectionless, unreliable,
and doesn't use sequencing or acknowledgements

96. Which protocol is used to manage and monitor the network?

A. FTP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. IP

Answer C. Simple Network Management Protocol is a network management protocol used almost
exclusively in TCP/IP networks. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices,
and to manage configurations, statistics collection, performance, and security

97. Which frame type use DSAPs and SSAPs to identify the upper-layer protocol?

A. 802.3 B. 802.5 C. 802.2 D. Ethernet_II

Answer C. 802.2 frame type is really an 802.3 frame type with LLC header information

98. Ping uses which Internet layer protocol (besides IP)?

A. ARP B. RARP C. DCMP D. ICMP

Answer D. packet internet groper. ICMP echo message and its reply. Often used in IP networks to
test the reachability of a network device

99. Which protocol sends redirects back to an originating router?

A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP D. BootP

Answer C. Internet Control Message Protocol. Network layer Internet protocol that reports errors
and provides other information relevant to IP packet processing. Documented in RFC 792

100. You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple subnets. You
need 600 host IDs for each subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign that will allow for
growth?
A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0

Answer D.

101. You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 with eight subnets. You need to allow for the largest
possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?

A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0

Answer B. 224.0: 11100000.00000000: 224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 8190
hosts.240.0: 11110000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 4094
hosts.248.0: 11111000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with 2046
hosts.252.0: 11111100.00000000: 252 gives us six bits, or 62 subnets, each with 1022 hosts.By
using only eight subnets, we can use 240.0 as a mask, giving us 14 subnets, each with 4094
hosts.

102. You have a Class A network address with 60 subnets. You need to add 40 new subnets in
the next two years, but still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which
subnet mask should you assign?

A. 255.240.0.0 B. 255.248.0.0 C. 255.252.0.0 D. 255.254.0.0

Answer D. 240.0.0: 11110000.00000000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each


with 1,048,574 hosts.248.0.0: 11111000.00000000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30
subnets, each with 524,286 hosts.252.0.0: 11111100.00000000.00000000: 252 gives us six bits,
or 62 subnets, each with 262,142 hosts.254.0.0: 11111110.00000000.00000000: 254 gives us
seven bits, or 126 subnets, each with 131,070 hosts. Only mask 254.0.0 gives us the amount of
subnets we need to allow for maximum growth.

103. You have a Class C network address of 192.168.19.0 with four subnets. You need the largest
possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?

A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248

Answer B. 192: 11000000: 192 gives us 2 bits, or 2 subnets, each with 62 hosts.224: 11100000:
224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 30 hosts.240: 11110000: 240 gives us four bits,
or 14 subnets, each with 14 hosts.248: 11111000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with
six hosts.Only mask 224 gives us more than four subnets with the largest amount of hosts

104. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many
network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?

A. One for each subnet B. One for each host ID C. One for each router interface D. One for each
WAN connection

Answer A D. Each host on the network must have a unique IP address. However, you are required
to have only one network ID per network. Each set of hosts must share a common network ID, as
well as connections between networks, which are the WAN connections.

105. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors
must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?

A. The number of subnets on the network B. The number of host IDs on each subnet C. The
volume of network traffic on each subnet D. The location of DNS servers E. The location of default
gateways

Answer A, B. When deciding on an IP scheme, you need to understand the amount of subnets and
the amount of hosts per subnet.

106. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many host
IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?

A. One for each subnet B. One for each router interface C. One for each WAN connection D. One
for each network adapter installed on each host

Answer B D. Host ID are not just PC's, MAC's and Unix stations. Anything that has an interface is
host or network device.

107. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your
class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?

A. Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. B. Class B, Subnet


172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255 C. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address
172.16.255.255 D. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127

Answer D. Class B, Subnet 13, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. The valid range for hosts is
172.16.13.1 to 172.16.13.126.

108. If you have a 22-bit subnet mask, how many subnets and how many hosts do you have?

A. 8190 subnets, 4096 hosts B. 4,194,302 subnets, 2 hosts C. 2,096,138 subnets 6 hosts D.
16,384 subnets, 2046 hosts

Answer B. A 22-bit subnet mask would be 255.255.255.252. On the Cisco test, they do not count
the default mask. The only class of address that could take a 22-bit mask is a class A. Start with
255 and add 22 bits. This gives you two bits for the hosts, or 2 hosts per subnet.

P.S You know this is not the only dump site so if you would take the time to look around instead of
bitching that there is no dumps on SASA's site.

Enjoy Kevin
BC

640-507

870

Greetings all, I passed this test earlier this week and had mixed feelings. Around the 10th
question, I was thinking... "damn, I'm gonna fail." But as I continued with the test I noticed that
most of the questions were based on pretty general networking theory and common practices. For
instance one question asked: "What is the maximum distance for a 100baseTx segment?". And I
had the ever so famous router question: "What device provides the greatest security between two
segments?"

Then there were the OSI and Subnetting questions. No, you CANT use a calculator. Folks, I hate
to sound cruel but you should know how to do this by heart. And you should know the OSI layers
just as well.

Finally there are the actual Cisco related questions.... CLI questions, Access lists, RIP, IGRP,
CDP, etc.... which is essentially the other half of the test.

I studied about 1 month for this test. I used the Cisco Prep Library for the 507, I had telnet access
to my buddies 3 router lab, and I also had all 3 Boson tests (for the 507), Troytec, and Sybex
Lammele. You can forget about Sybex, IMO, the Cisco books were far better. Troytec is an
excellent point to point summary to use for last minute cramming. Boson was good for drilling
questions... all 3 tests you can have about 600-700 questions... though many are duplicates.
PLEASE DO NOT EMAIL ME ASKING FOR BOSON OR TROYTEC. I paid for these out of my
pocket... please respect that decision.

Now that brings me to another point. If you are taking Cisco exams, you should realize that it is a
career move toward a more elite arena of the IT world. What I mean is.... If you are going to
submit a dump. then that's fine. DUMP. But respect other people's decision to NOT DUMP. I'm
sick and tired of people whinning that they failed because they used a braindump or book that
someone else swore would be all they needed to pass.

Dont get me wrong though, I USED to be a BIG fan of braindumps. Till I realized that I am only
cheating myself. Case in Point: Through braindumps, I am a MCDBA. But do I feel I have the
adequate knowledge to be an actual DBA? Nope.

I refuse to do the same with Cisco Products and Certification. I'm all for "self study" and saving
money on certification material.... but for arguments sake, would rather learn this material from
Cisco Press books and actual labs/routerism from here on.
Reba

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773

Before I submit my 3 page dump, I have to ask why people bother submitting their comments
without any dumps? I thougt that this was what this site was for? Your comments on how hard it
was does not really help anybody now does it? Anyway here is my dump. I had a lot of these
questions here so enjoy.

CCNA 2.0 BRAINDUMP

(1) Purpose of Spanning tree? Maintain loop free network, IEEE 802.1d, enabled by default (2)
How frames are transmitted? Store and forward, cut through, fragment-free (3) How does full-
duplex improve network performance? Using point to point Ethernet and fast Ethernet
connections. In full, the collision detect is disabled. Nodes attached to hubs or nodes sharing their
connection with a switch port must operate in half to detect collisions. (4) What are the appropriate
numbers for a sub-interface? (5) How to configure an IP address on a switch? Router (config)# ip
address address mask (6) Output of show ip? Verifies IP address, etc for the switch (7) Output of
Show Version? Displays switch hardware and IOS information. (8) Copy configuration files to
TFTP server (what command)? Copy nvram tftp://host/dst_file (9) What is a VLAN? A logical
broadcast domain that can span multiple physical LAN segments. Can be segmented by
functions, project teams or application. VLAN'S enable switches to create multiple broadcast
domains within a switched network. (10) What are the 2 types of routes? Static and dynamic (11)
What is ISL Tagging? A Cisco proprietary used to interconnect multiple switches and to maintain
VLAN information as traffic goes between switches. Each device must be ISL capable. ISL
functions at layer 2 of the OSI. (12) What modes does VTP operate at? Server (default), client and
transparent. A man of 64 VLAN'S can be active on most desktops. (13) How to display Spanning-
tree configuration? Switch# show spantree 1 (14) Purpose of 3-way handshake? Error control (15)
Flow control for tcp/udp? Uses window size (flow control mechanism) to determine how many
bytes the receiver can accept (16) TCP/IP internet layer protocols? IP, ICMP, ARP, RARP
(determines source network ip addresses when source data link layer address are known. ICMP
is implemented by all TCP/IP hosts. Most common form included pings, echo request and echo
replies. ARP resolves ip addresses to MAC address. (17) What are the reserved address?
10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 (18) What is
the value of IPX? 800-899 (19) How is broadcast address formed? Using all 1's within the IP
address. Cisco supports 3 kinds which are: flooding, directed broadcast and all subnet
broadcasts. Flooded broadcasts (255.255.255.255) are not propagated because they are
considered local. To broadcast a message within a single subnet the host portion of the address
contains all 1's. Broadcasts directed into a specific network are allowed and forwarded by the
router. These contain all 1's in the host portion of the IP address. To broadcast messages to all
hosts on all subnets within a single network, the host and subnet portions of the address all
contain 1's (pg 232 in ICND book). (20) Subnet planning questions (page 235 ICND) book (21)
How to assign a router interface logical network address? Router (config-if)# ip address (22) How
do you get rid of hold-down timers? Router receives a better metric from neighbor, when the
network become available (23) Drag and drop - data encapsulation process - tcp header added to
upper layer data (segment) ip header added at network layer (packet) packet packaged into layer
2 header (frame) frame converted to bits. (24) What does "Base" stand for in 10Base? Signaling
rate (25) What does CIR do? Rate at which provider agrees to send data (26) What is a MAC
address? 48 bit address expresses as 12 hexadecimal digits, the first 6 are the vendor code (27)
Bridges are? Layer 2 devices (28) Purpose of OSI? Interoperability (29) An IP address is? 32 bit
address divided into (4) 8 bit octets. 1's represent network and O's represent hosts (30) Tcp is?
Connection-oriented, reliable while UDP is unreliable and connectionless (31) What is the max
length of? 10baset - 100m, 100basetx - 100m (32) If no IOS is detected upon boot, what mode do
you enter? Setup (33) How do you get from privileged mode form user mode? Enable (type
disable to return) (34) You receive message "%incomplete command" how do you get help? Re-
enter command followed by ? (no space between) (35) How to display a previously entered
command? Press up arrow key or crtl-p or ctrl-n (36) What is the output of "show Version"
command? System hardware, names & sources of config files, boot images, uptime, current
router config register value (37) What is the output of show Interface command? Displays
command stats for all interface configurations on the router, config changes (38) What does []
mean? Default answers for all following questions (39) How to config router initially? Enter host
name, enable secret password (40) How to display command history buffer for routers?
Router>Show history (max 256) (41) Typing exit brings you back one level, ctrl-z or end takes you
out of configuration mode back to privileged exec (42) How to config Banner? Router(config)#
banner motd use delaminating character of choice (43) How to configure bandwidth on interface?
Router(config-if)# bandwidth 64 (44) How to config clock rate? Router(config-if)# clock rate 64000
(45) Display config file in NVRAM? Show startup-config (46) Cdp - runs at data-link layer (47) How
do you prevent cdp devices from getting information? Routera(config)# no cdp run n/a on switches
use no cdp enable (48) What is the output of "show cdp neighbors? Neighbor device id, local
interface, holdtime value, neighbor device capability code, hardware platform, neighbor remote
port id (49) How to verify & display active telnet sessions? Router a# sh sessions (50) How to
suspend a telnet session? Ctrl-shift-6-x, type resume to resume (51) Ping- operates at layer 3,
telnet layer 7 (52) 4 areas of ROM microcode? Bootstrap code, POST code, ROM monitor, partial
IOS (53) When field is in 0x1 - system boots form ROM, 0x2 or 0xf, boots from NVRAM (54) Show
Flash? Amount of memory on router, amount of memory available, name and size of Image file
(55) Switches - Segment network into multiple collision domains. Have 3 functions - address
learning - packet forwarding/filtering - loop avoidance. Operates as a transparent bridge (uses
MAC address to locate device locations connected to switch. (56) What are valid numbers for a
sub-interface? RTR1(config)# interface serial2 (57) enabling RIP on a router? Router (config)#
router rip (58) What are 2 ways to tell the router where to forward packets that are not directly
connected? Static and dynamic routes. An example of a static route router (config) #ip route
172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1 (next hop router in path to the destination) (59) What are the
two types of routing protocols? IGP (exchanges information within the autonomous system RIP,
IGRP) and BGP (outside the system - ex/ bgp) (60) Routing protocol classes are? Distance -
determines the direction and distance to any link in the internetwork (RIP and IGRP) link-state -
recreates exact topology of the entire internetwork (OSPF and NLSP) Balanced hybrid - combines
both (EIRGP). (61) How to prevent routing loops? Split horizon, route poisoning, holddown timers
(62) What is the use of the Network Command? Allows router to advertise to other routers and
allows the routing process to determine which interfaces will participate in sending and receiving
of routing updates (63) What does "show IP Protocols" do? Displays routing timer values, filters
and router network information (64) What does "show IP route" do? Displays IP routing table
contents (65) What command is used to stop all debugging? No debug all or undebug all (66) how
to place a router in line configuration mode to telnet? Router (config)# line vty Use access-list
command to link existing access list (67) Use show IP interface to view access list status (68)
How to view access lists? Router# show access-lists (69) IPX is? Similar to UDP, layer 3 protocol.
A novell IPX address is 80 bits, 32 for network number and 48 for node. Expressed as
hexadecimal (70) IPX RIP uses ticks and hops to make routing decisions. (71) How do you enable
IPX routing and SAP? Router (config)# ipx routing (node). The IPX network command enables
IPX on a particular interface. See page 342 in ICND book (72) How can you test DDR? Send an
interesting packet through to see if it dials (73) How often does an IPX server send out SAP
updates? 60 seconds (74) Can PPP work with IPX? Yes (75) HDLC is often used for leased line
link between routers. It is an ISO standard bit-roeinted data-link protocol that encapsulates data
over synchronous serial data links and by default is used. (76) PPP is often used to connect
dissimilar vendor devices. It uses NCP to encapsulate and LCP to setup and control options over
the WAN link. A PPP session has 3 phases such as Link establishment, Authentication (optional)
and Network layer (77) How to configure PPP? First verify that the router has a hostname to it,
define the username and password to expect from the remote router, then use router (config-if)#
ppp authentication. The command show interface will verify this as well as LCP and NCP (78)
How do you set password for CHAP and PAP? With the username password command (79) What
are the ISDN protocols? E-series- telephone network and ISDN, I-series - ISDN concepts, aspects
and interfaces, Q-series - switching and signaling (80) What are the 3 steps to configure DDR?
define static routes, specify interesting traffic, configure the dialer information. (81) How to verify
frame-relay? Router# show interface s1 (82) What is Inverse ARP? Method of dynamically
associating a network layer address with a DLCI. (83) What is a DLCI? A number that identifies
the logical circuit between the router and frame relay switch (84) What is the purpose of LMI? A
signaling standard between the router and frame relay switch that is responsible for managing the
connection and maintaining status between the devices.. (85) What are the 3 types of LMI? Cisco,
ansi, q933a

I had 4 subnetting questions also. The test is poorly worded. Good luck everyone!!!!!
small dump

640-507

698

For those of you who have been looking for dumps: Forget it! They don't seem to exist or people
are reluctant to create them. Troy technologies is not a good study guide, save yourselves the 39
bucks. Out of the 300 questions the give you only ten or fifteen of them we on the exam. It's a
waste of time. Study something else. For a router simulator go to routeru.com. They also have a
study guide (Adobe) that isn't too shaby. Everyone seems to love Lammie's book. Perhaps, I
should have purchased that one, bit I bought the big, oversized Odom CISCO CCNA guide. It's
not really that great.

I've found that the old Transcender test (407) has a lot of questions word for word. The Boson
tests? Never tried them but have heard good things. I'm going to take the test again on Friday and
if I don't pass it that time, then forget it. I really don't work with CISCO products directly at all. It
was just something to put on my resume'. I've already put way too much time in studying this stuff.
Here's some general testing strategy and a dump. Yes actually a dump on this webpage of 30
posts and no dump. It's short, but sweet. But after 30 posts I haven't seen one dump, so here's
some stuff it's probably the best post on the board so far. What does [] mean? How do you show
the parameters of a command? ans: command (space) ? What do bridges do? forward
broadcasts How do you enable RIP? The exam will not give you multiple choice, but rather a
space to type in the answer. How do you enable IPX routing? " " " " " How do you enable IP
routing? " " " " " What is the max. distance of 10baseT? 100 METERS What is the max. distance
of 100baseT? same What is frame tagging? What is frame relay? There's a few questions on it.
Know it. What does BOOT SYSTEM ROM do? directs the Cisco router to boot the IOS from ROM.
How do you continue your connection while opening up another screen? ctrl+alt+X How a ping
command should look? #ping ip address How do you upgrade IOS? How to enable access lists?
A question able area hierachies? How does a succesful ping look?

These questions may be paraphrased, but this if what I remember from the test. These are on it
and they are worth verifying them and familiarizing yourself with them.

Test Strategy:

1)Forget IP subnetting stuff. It usually takes a long time to learn. Troy Technologies suggested
memorizing the entire subnet table in one of their study guides. It took an hour and a half to
memorize and I never used it on the exam. It took 20 minutes to recreate it during the test and it
was a waste of time. There's only 3 questions on subnetting. Knowing the default subnets for the
different classes is essential and worthwhile. Know how to differentiate the node from the network.

2) Know IOS commands inside and out. Someone posted that the test is over 50 percent
commands. That is not far from the truth.

3) Know switches and LAN. Much of the study material out there doesn't emphasis this enough.
Bridges and switches really play a part.

4) You need a general hands-on networking knowledge. As I have stated previously there are a
void of braindumps. This causes the certificate much harder to obtain. As it is Cisco test are much
harder than Microsoft's 4.0 track so you may really want to consider whether you want to go
ahead and study this stuff and if it's necessary to your job role.

5) CRAM, CRAM, CRAM...all these IT certification test are short term memory stuff. I'm an MCSE
and I only remember maybe %50 of the questions that I was tested on. It's like taking Spanish in
high school. I can remeber only the stuff that I currently use. Since it is all short term place
everything in that little head of yours and take Lecithin for the week before your exam. Lecithin is
a dietary supplement that increases your memory by enhancing your neurotransmitters. Some opt
for taking some caffeine before the test. Know thyself...if caffeine only gives you the jitters, don't
take it, but if it increases your awareness, then do it.