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DIAGNOSTIC EXAM IN ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY PART III

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.

2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes
shaded will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box A on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box B if your
test booklet is Set B.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Anatomical position refers to an individual that is

A. Standing erect, upper limbs at their sides and palms facing inward
B. Standing erect, upper limbs at their sides and palms facing anterior.
C. Laying supine, upper limbs at their sides and palms facing inward.
D. Laying supine, upper limbs at their sides and palms facing anterior.

2. A group of cells with similar structure and function plus the extracellular substances located between
them correctly describes:
A. Tissues C. Organ systems
B. Organs D. Organisms

3. The bone that forms the upper jaw and majority of the face:
A. Mandible C. Zygomatic
B. Occiput D. Maxilla

4. Anatomic part under the chin is also known as:

A. Submental C. Paramentesis
B. Supramantal D. Chintesis

5. Separates the body into superior and inferior parts

A. Frontal section C. Longitudinal section
B. Sagittal section D. Transverse section

6. The middle layer of the meninges is

A. Subdural mater C. Dura mater
B. Pia mater D. Arachnoid

7. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the presence of the:
A. Diaphragm C. Liver
B. Mediastinum D. Lungs

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8. A young man is lying supine with his arms at his sides. His right index finger is ______ to his sternum.
A. Lateral C. Superficial
B. Proximal D. Deep

9. Cavity surrounded by the rib cage; bounded inferiorly by the diaphragm

A. Thoracic cavity C. Abdominal cavity
B. Pelvic cavity D. Pericardial cavity

10. Which of the following cell organelles is NOT correctly matched with its function?
A. Nucleus contains genes that determine the structure and function of each cell
B. lysosome contains digestive enzymes
C. Mitochondria site of protein synthesis
D. Golgi apparatus packages proteins in secretory vesicles

11. A tapping with hallow needle in order to remove fluid from the abdomen is
A. Paracentesis C. Nephrectomy
B. Paralysis D. Parapleural

12.____________ membranes are associated with the lungs and thoracic cavity.
A. Peritoneal C. Pleural
B. Pericardial D. Synovial

13. A vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves is also correctly called the
A. Frontal plane C. Transverse plane
B. Midsagittal plane D. Coronal plane

14. In which of these cavities would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found?
A. Thoracic C. Pelvic
B. Pleural D. Abdominal

15. ______________ are located in the walls of the stomach and small intestine.
A. Skeletal muscle cells C. Smooth muscle cells
B. Cardiac muscle cells D. Striated muscle cells

16. The anatomical term to describe a tunnel in bone is:

A. Canal or meatus C. Fossa
B. Fissure D. Foramen

17. The process of bone formation from mesenchymal cells:

A. Mineralization C. Ossification
B. Calcification D. Remodelling

18. Bone where the olecranon process could be found:

A. Tibia C. Femur
B. Humerus D. Ulna

19. Bones that form the soles of foot:

A. Metacarpal C. Carpal
B. Metatarsal D. Tarsal

20. Fibrous membranes that fuse cranial bones of newborns, allows growth of rapidly developing brain:
A. Sutures C. Joint
B. Fontanelles D. Articulation

21. Acute head injury with structural alteration and nervous tissue destruction:
A. Hemorrhage C. Concussion
B. Laceration D. Contusion

22. A sharp type of bone projection is:

A. Spine C. Fossa
B. Crest D. Tubercle

23. The ridge like projection of a bone is:

A. Crest C. Membrane

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 B. Fossa D. Facet
24. In what month of an embryo would the bones begin to develop?
A. First C. Third
B. Second D. Fourth

25. Most of the articulations in the human body are ______ joints.
A. Diarthrodial C. Synsrthrodial
B. Amphiarthrodial D. Irregular

26. An inner fluid secreting layer of a diarthrosis joints is termed as:

A. Medullary canal C. Synovial membrane
B. Shaft D. Tendon

27. An injury of a bone without a break in the skin:

A. Contusion C. Closed fracture
B. Concussion D. Compound fracture

28. A polypeptide hormone secreted by the mucosa of the upper intestine that stimulate contraction
of the gallbladder.
A. Pancreozymine C. Pepsinogen
B. Cholecystokinin D. Bilirubin

29. The Hemorrhoids is an abnormal ________ varies.

A. Esophagus C. Anal
B. Intestinal D. Oral

30. During CPR the sternum can be depressed normally for how many inches____________.
A. 1.5 to 2 C. 5.5 to 7
B. 3.5 to 5 D. 7 to 9

31. The disease of an abnormal density of bone formation, resulting in a decrease in bone mass is
medically termed as ____________.
A. Osteomyelitis C. Osteomyeoma
B. Osteoporosis D. Ostesarcoma

32. The epigastrium is the __________ is the portion of the abdomen:

A. Superior medial C. Inferior medial
B. Media lateral D. Lateroantero

33. The term osteomyelitis is an inflammation of the __________ which is also the site of
hemopoiesis and fat storage in a bone .
A. Marrow C. Epiphysis
B. Diaphysis D. Cartilage

34. The skull bones that form the bony orbit:

1. Palatine
2. Lacrimal
3. Frontal
A. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

35. The total twisting of the mesenteric bowel is a:

A. Pylorus C. Aberration
B. Polyp D. Volvulus

36. The ankle bone that lies anteriorly to the talus:

A. Astragalus C. Scaphoid
B. Calcaneum D. Navicular

37. Which is / are the function of the medulla oblongata in the skull?
1. To lower the temperature of the body
2. To have good respiration
3. To check the function of the heart
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

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38. The suture of the skull that is located between the upper adjacent border of the two parietal bone
is called:
A. Sagittal C. Coronal
B. Lamboidal D. Squamous

39. The artery that carries blood from the right ventricle on the lungs is:
A. Pulmonary C. Superior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava D. Pancreatic

40. The bony prominence of the shoulder joint is the _____ process.
A. Transverse C. Styloid
B. Spinous D. Acromion

41. The Rickets is a metabolic disease of the:

A. Skin C. Mucous membrane
B. Bone D. Liver

42. The duct that connects the junction of the cystic duct with the hepatic duct:
A. CBD C. Bronchial
B. Pancreatic D. Pulmonary

43. The portion of the forearm which is located most superior is _____ process:
A. Ulnar styloid C. Olecranon
B. Coranoid D. Radial styloid

44. The smooth round prominence above the root of the nose:
A. Nacion C. Occiput
B. Glabella D. Magnum

45. The capitulum and the trochlea is located on what bone:

A. Arm C. Leg
B. Forearm D. Femur

46. The bony prominence that extend downward and forward from the temporal bone is:
A. Petrous C. Spinous
B. Transverse D. Styloid process

47. Which bone forms the anterior cranial fossa and nasal and orbital walls?
A. Maxillae C. Mandible
B. Temporal D. Ethmoid

48. The Clivus is located within what bone of the cranium:

A. Sphenoid C. Ethmoid
B. Occipital D. Frontal

49. The manubrium is a part of what bone of the body:

A. Mandible C. Sternum
B. Maxillae D. Scapula

50. The longest portion of the small intestine is the:

A. Duodenum C. Ileum
B. Flexure D. Jejunum

51. The sutures in the skull are classified as ____ type.

A. Cordiathroidal C. Diarthrodial
B. Amphiarthrodial D. Synarthrodial

52. The skull bone(s) that are a part of a cranial floor:

1. Sphenoid
2. Temporal
3. Maxillary
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

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53. The silent area of the stomach:
A. Cardia C. Body
B. Fundus D. Pylorus

54. The trochlea can be found in what bone of the body:

A. Humerus C. Femur
B. Tibia D. Forearm

55. The anatomical neck of the bone humerus is ______ to the tuberosity:
A. Superior C. Laterally
B. Inferior D. Distally

56. The left mainstream of the bronchus is ______ than the right mainstream bronchus of the lungs.
A. Longer C. Wider
B. Shorter D. The same

57. The angle between the eyelids in the face:

A. Canthus C. Joint
B. Menti D. Angle

58. Blood vessel that supply nutrients for the heart wall:
A. Inferior vena cava C. Carotid arteries
B. Coronary arteries D. Jugular veins

59. The site of gas exchange occurs at which structure:

A. Larynx C. Bronchi
B. Trachea D. Alveoli

60. The falling down of a kidney is:

A. Nephrolithiasis C. Nephroptosis
B. Nephrectomy D. Chlolelithiasis

62. Breathing at a normal rate is clinically called:

A. Dyspnea C. Tachypnea
B. Bradypnea D. Eupnea

63. Provides the relay station for all sensory information ascending to the cerebrum:
A. Thalamus C. Epithalamus
B. Hypothalamus D. Subthalamus

64. The sympathetic nervous system is involved in the following body responses during:
A. Emergency C. Defacation
B. Energy conservation D. Diuresis

65. Specific brain area that contains the areas for smell, judgment, initiative, speech production and
controls all voluntary motor activities:
A. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe
B. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe

66. Method of visualization of the kidneys:

A. Cystogram C. Pyelogram
B. Myelogram D. Cholecystogram

67. A Method of visualization of the urinary bladder:

A. Cystogram C. Pyelogram
B. Myelogram D. Cholecystogram

68. Method of visualization of the spinal cord:

A. Mammograpy C. Pyelogram
B. Myelogram D. Sialography

69. Intrathecal administration of a dye aims to visualize this structure:

A. Spinal Cord C. Colon
B. Liver D. Gallbladder

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70. Cholangiography provides the clinician a visualization of the following structures:
A. Biliary tree C. Urinary tract
B. Digestive tract D. Reproductive tract

71. Part of the stomach seen on upright radiographs as an area of lucency due to the presence of air:
A. Cardia C. Pylorus
B. Body D. Fundus

72. Tubular structure that conveys the secretion of the submandibular glands:
A. Stensens duct C. Whartons duct
B. Parotid duct D. Duct of Rivinus

73. Main pancreatic duct is also known as:

A. Santorini C. Cystic Duct
B. Wirsung D. Hepatic Duct

74. A structure that can be found in association with the gallbladder:

A. Sphincter of Oddi C. Ampulla of Vater
B. Pyloric sphincter D. Spiral valve

75. Kidney is resembled to a:

A. Basin C. Bean
B. Key D. Knob

76. The term genu refers to this joint:

A. Elbow C. Knee
B. Wrist D. Hip

77. The largest carpal bone and one of the earliest to undergo calcification is the:
A. Scaphoid C. Lunate
B. Capitate D. Hamate

78. The subtalar joint is also known as the:

A. Talocrural joint C. Tibiofibular joint
B. Talocalcaneal joint D. Calcaneonavicular joint

79. Corresponds to the number of lobes in the LEFT lung:

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

80. Event of respiration defined as gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli:
A. Pulmonary ventilation C. External respiration
B. Respiratory gas transport D. Internal respiration

81. Volume of air inspired or expired during normal relax breathing:

A. Tidal volume C. Residual volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume D. Expiratory reserve volume

82. Physiologically the most important layer of the uterus:

A. Serosa C. Endometrium
B. Myometrium D. Cervix

83. Part of the uterus that projects into the vaginal canal:
A. Cervix C. Body
B. Fundus D. Endometrium

84. Slow, alternating contractions of the smooth muscle layers that allows food movement in the
alimentary tract:
A. Ingestion C. Mastication
B. Peristalsis D. Deglutition

85. Mucosal layer of the stomach are thrown into folds, these structures are termed:
A. Villi C. Plicae
B. Haustra D. Rugae

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86. A fold of peritoneum attached to the stomach which is also known as the policeman of the abdomen:
A. Omentum C. Peritoneum
B. Mesentery D. Pleura

87. Only site of nutrient absorption in the gastrointestinal tract:

A. Esophagus C. Small intestine
B. Stomach D. Large intestine

88. Raising the arms overhead in the sagittal plane correctly describes this movement of the shoulder joint:
A. Shoulder extension C. Shoulder abduction
B. Shoulder flexion D. Shoulder adduction

89. When the toes are pointed downward and the soles are directed backward, the foot is said to be in
this position:
A. Inverted C. Dorsiflexed
B. Everted D. Plantarflexed

90. Flexion of the elbow is done by the following movement:

A. Bending the elbow joint anteriorly. C. Moving the elbow joint laterally.
B. Straightening the elbow joint posteriorly. D. Moving the elbow joint medially

91. Hip abduction is a movement of the thigh towards this direction:

A. Anteriorly C. Medially
B. Posteriorly D. Laterally

92. Medical term that refers to the act of swallowing:

A. Micturition C. Mastication
B. Deglutition D. Defecation

93. The first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum are called
A. Vertebral ribs C. Floating ribs
B. False ribs D. Sternal ribs

94. Type of Blood vessel which is the site of nutrient exchange:

A. Arteries C. Capillaries
B. Arterioles D. Veins

95. Which among the following best apply to Veins?

A. Carries oxygenated blood C. Carries blood away from the heart
B. High pressure vessels D. Greater luminal diameter

96. Tuberculous infection of the thoracic spine is clinically known as:

A. Potts disease C. Spondylolisthesis
B. Osteoporosis D. Transverse Myelitis

97. Visualization of the joint spaces is a diagnostic procedure known as:

A. Fundoscopy C. Endoscopy
B. Laparoscopy D. Arthroscopy

98. Which of these sections of the vertebral column is matched with its correct number of vertebrae?
A. Thoracic 7 vertebrae C. Sacral 5 vertebrae fused into one
B. Cervical 12 vertebrae D. Lumbar 8 vertebrae

99. The functional and structural unit of the kidneys composed of the renal tubules and a specialized
capillary bed known as the glomerulus:
A. Osteon C. Neuron
B. Nephron D. Acinus

100. Micturition is a physiologic process that involves the elimination of:

A. Undigested food C. Sweat
B. Urine D. Tears

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