MECH Assessment

RVS COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY
CENTRAL PLACEMENT CELL

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
TECHNICAL ASSESSMENT 01
1) Forces passing through a common point are known as _____
a. collinear forces
b. co-planer forces
c. concurrent forces
d. none of the above
2) Varignon's theorem is used to find ________
a. direction of resultant force
b. location of resultant force
c. magnitude of resultant force
d. nature of resultant force
3) Couple is formed due to two ______
a. like, parallel and non-collinear forces of same magnitude
b. like, perpendicular and collinear forces of different magnitude
c. unlike, parallel and non-collinear forces of same magnitude
d. unlike, perpendicular and non-collinear forces of different magnitude
4) Which of the following laminas do not have centroid at its geometrical centre?
a. Circle
b. Equilateral triangle
c. Right angled triangle
d. None of the above
5) If a material has no uniform density throughout the body, then the position of centroid and center of mass are ________
a. identical
b. not identical
c. independent upon the density
d. unpredictable
6) A particle moving with respect to fixed frame of reference is called as __________
a. absolute motion
b. relative motion
c. rectilinear motion
7) A boat sails across a river with a velocity of 10 km/hr. If resultant boat velocity is 14 km/hr, then what is the velocity of river
water?
a. 17.20 km/hr
b. 10 km/hr
c. 9.79 km/hr
d. 4.88 km/hr
8) According to which law, every action has an equal and opposite reaction?
a. Newton's first law
b. Newton's second law
c. Newton's third law
9) A body exerts a force of 800 N on the floor of the lift which moves upwards with a retardation of 2 m/s2. What is mass of the
body carried in the lift?
a. 74.02 N
b. 81.54 N
c. 102.43 N
10) A man of 60 kg moves in a lift of constant velocity 5 m/s. What is the reactive force acting on the man by the elevator?
a. 888 N
b. 588 N
c. 288 N
d. Zero
11) When motion is _______, the normal component of acceleration is zero.
a. curvilinear
b. rotational
c. rectilinear
d. translation
12) In curvilinear motion, what is the normal component of acceleration?
a. a2 / t
b. v2 /
c. / v
d. dv / dt
13) What are the rectangular components of velocities in curvilinear motion?
a. dx/dt and dy/dt
b. dr/dt and d2r/dt
c. d2x/dt2 and d2y/dt2
14) In projectile motion, which of the following factors affecting the actual path of motion are neglected?
a. Curvature of earth
b. Rotation of earth
c. Wind resistance
d. All of the above
15) Which of the following formulae is used determine the time of flight for projectile motion, when point of projection and
point of landing are on same level of horizontal plane?
a. (2u sin ) / g
b. (u2 sin ) / 2g
c. (2u sin ) / g cos
d. 2ug sin
16) Which of the following is represented by the area under force-displacement diagram?
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Power
d. Work done
1) Forces passing through a common point are known as _____
a. collinear forces
b. co-planer forces
c. concurrent forces
2) Varignon's theorem is used to find ________
a. direction of resultant force
b. location of resultant force
c. magnitude of resultant force
d. nature of resultant force
3) Couple is formed due to two ______
a. like, parallel and non-collinear forces of same magnitude
b. like, perpendicular and collinear forces of different magnitude
c. unlike, parallel and non-collinear forces of same magnitude
d. unlike, perpendicular and non-collinear forces of different magnitude
4) Which of the following laminas do not have centroid at its geometrical centre?
a. Circle
b. Equilateral triangle
c. Right angled triangle
5) If a material has no uniform density throughout the body, then the position of centroid and center of mass are ________
a. identical
b. not identical
c. independent upon the density
d. unpredictable
6) A particle moving with respect to fixed frame of reference is called as __________
a. absolute motion
b. relative motion
c. rectilinear motion
7) A boat sails across a river with a velocity of 10 km/hr. If resultant boat velocity is 14 km/hr, then what is the velocity of river
water?
a. 17.20 km/hr
b. 10 km/hr
c. 9.79 km/hr
d. 4.88 km/hr
8) According to which law, every action has an equal and opposite reaction?
a. Newton's first law
b. Newton's second law
c. Newton's third law
9) A body exerts a force of 800 N on the floor of the lift which moves upwards with a retardation of 2 m/s2. What is mass of the
body carried in the lift?
a. 74.02 N
b. 81.54 N
c. 102.43 N
10) A man of 60 kg moves in a lift of constant velocity 5 m/s. What is the reactive force acting on the man by the elevator?
a. 888 N
b. 588 N
c. 288 N
d. Zero
11) When motion is _______, the normal component of acceleration is zero.
a. curvilinear
b. rotational
c. rectilinear
d. translation
12) In curvilinear motion, what is the normal component of acceleration?
a. a2 / t
b. v2 /
c. / v
d. dv / dt
13) What are the rectangular components of velocities in curvilinear motion?
a. dx/dt and dy/dt
b. dr/dt and d2r/dt
c. d2x/dt2 and d2y/dt2
14) In projectile motion, which of the following factors affecting the actual path of motion are neglected?
a. Curvature of earth
b. Rotation of earth
c. Wind resistance
d. All of the above
15) Which of the following formulae is used determine the time of flight for projectile motion, when point of projection and
point of landing are on same level of horizontal plane?
a. (2u sin ) / g
b. (u2 sin ) / 2g
c. (2u sin ) / g cos
d. 2ug sin
16) Which of the following is represented by the area under force-displacement diagram?
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Power
d. Work done
17) According to work energy principle, a particle of mass m when subjected to unbalanced force system, the work
done during displacement by all forces is equal to change in ____________ during displacement.
a. gravitational energy
b. kinetic energy
c. mechanical energy
d. potential energy
18) The force for which work done is independent of _______ is called as conservative force.
a. distance
b. path
c. time
d. all of the above
19) A ball is dropped on a horizontal surface from a height of 15 m. What will be the rebounding height of the ball
after striking the surface? (coefficient of restitution = 0.8)
a. 9.6 m
b. 6.5 m
c. 5.6 m
d. Insufficient data
20) What is the SI unit of linear momentum?
a. kg.m2 / sec
b. kg.m / sec
c. N.sec2
d. N.m.sec
21) Which of the following laws derive impulse moment principle?
a. Newton's 3rd law
b. Newton's 2nd law
c. Newton's 1st law
d. All of the above
22) Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for co-planer concurrent forces to be in equilibrium?
a. Fx = Fy = 0
b. M = 0
c. Both a. and b.
23) If a body in equilibrium condition is acted by three forces at three points, then the line of action of these forces should
be _____
a. always concurrent
b. always parallel
c. concurrent or parallel
24) According to Lami's theorem, a body is in equilibrium condition if each force among three ____________ are proportional to
sine angle between other two.
a. coplanar, collinear forces
b. collinear, non-concurrent forces
c. coplanar, non-concurrent forces
d. coplanar, concurrent forces
25) If n > 2j R, then the truss is called as _________.
(n = number of joints, j = number of members, R = number of reaction components)
a. perfect truss
b. redundant truss
c. deficient truss
26) Which of the following statements is false about frame/truss?
a. Bent member is never used in a truss
b. Internal hinges are used to connect members in a truss
c. All members in the truss are two force members
d. Multiforce members can be used in a frame
27) Which motion has magnitude of static frictional force directly proportional to normal reaction?
a. Actual motion
b. Impending motion
c. Both a. and b.
28) Which formula is used to calculate angle of static friction (s)?
a. tan-1 s
b. sin-1 s
c. cos-1 s
29) Frictional force depends on ________
a.Surface area in contact
b. roughness of surface
c. both a. and b.
30) Identify the type of truss shown below.
a. Deficient truss
b. Perfect truss
c. Redundant truss
d. All of the above
17) According to work energy principle, a particle of mass m when subjected to unbalanced force system, the work
done during displacement by all forces is equal to change in ____________ during displacement.
a. gravitational energy
b. kinetic energy
c. mechanical energy
d. potential energy
18) The force for which work done is independent of _______ is called as conservative force.
a. distance
b. path
c. time
d. all of the above
19) A ball is dropped on a horizontal surface from a height of 15 m. What will be the rebounding height of the ball
after striking the surface? (coefficient of restitution = 0.8)
a. 9.6 m
b. 6.5 m
c. 5.6 m
d. Insufficient data
20) What is the SI unit of linear momentum?
a. kg.m2 / sec
b. kg.m / sec
c. N.sec2
d. N.m.sec
21) Which of the following laws derive impulse moment principle?
a. Newton's 3rd law
b. Newton's 2nd law
c. Newton's 1st law
d. All of the above
22) Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for co-planer concurrent forces to be in equilibrium?
a. Fx = Fy = 0
b. M = 0
c. Both a. and b.
23) If a body in equilibrium condition is acted by three forces at three points, then the line of action of these forces should
be _____
a. always concurrent
b. always parallel
c. concurrent or parallel
24) According to Lami's theorem, a body is in equilibrium condition if each force among three ____________ are proportional to
sine angle between other two.
a. coplanar, collinear forces
b. collinear, non-concurrent forces
c. coplanar, non-concurrent forces
d. coplanar, concurrent forces
25) If n > 2j R, then the truss is called as _________.
(n = number of joints, j = number of members, R = number of reaction components)
a. perfect truss
b. redundant truss
c. deficient truss
26) Which of the following statements is false about frame/truss?
a. Bent member is never used in a truss
b. Internal hinges are used to connect members in a truss
c. All members in the truss are two force members
d. Multiforce members can be used in a frame
27) Which motion has magnitude of static frictional force directly proportional to normal reaction?
a. Actual motion
b. Impending motion
c. Both a. and b.
28) Which formula is used to calculate angle of static friction (s)?
a. tan-1 s
b. sin-1 s
c. cos-1 s
29) Frictional force depends on ________
a.Surface area in contact
b. roughness of surface
c. both a. and b.
30) Identify the type of truss shown below.
a. Deficient truss
b. Perfect truss
c. Redundant truss
d. All of the above
1. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as
A.Carnot cycle
B.Stirling cycle
C.Otto cycle
D.Diesel cycle
2. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A.low
B.very low
C.high
D.very high
3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called
A.specific heat at constant volume
B.specific heat at constant pressure
C.kilo Joule
D.none of these
4. An adiabatic process is one in which
A.no heat enters or leaves the gas
B.the temperature of the gas changes
C.the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
D.all of the above
5. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as
A.flow processes
B.non-flow processes
C.adiabatic processes
D.none of these
6. Workdone in a free expansion process is
A.zero
B.minimum
C.maximum
D.positive
7. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained in a unit volume of gas.
A.one-half
B.one-third
C.two-third
D.three-fourth
8. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
A.3 to 6
B.5 to 8
C.15 to 20
D.20 to 30
9. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by
10. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A. cut-off is increased
B. cut-off is decreased
C. cut-off is zero
D. cut-off is constant
11. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
A. equal to one
B. less than one
C. greater than one
D. none of thes
12. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called
A. constant volume process

B. adiabatic process
C. constant pressure process
D. isothermal process
13. Which of the following is correct?

A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure Atmospheric pressure
14. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
B. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
C. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels.
D. A good fuel should have low ignition point.
15. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

A. 0.287 J/kgK
B. 2.87 J/kgK
C. 28.7 J/kgK
D. 287 J/kgK
1. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as
A.Carnot cycle
B.Stirling cycle
C.Otto cycle
D.Diesel cycle
2. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A.low
B.very low
C.high
D.very high
3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called
A.specific heat at constant volume
B.specific heat at constant pressure
C.kilo Joule
D.none of these
4. An adiabatic process is one in which
A.no heat enters or leaves the gas
B.the temperature of the gas changes
C.the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
D.all of the above
5. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as
A.flow processes
B.non-flow processes
C.adiabatic processes
D.none of these
6. Workdone in a free expansion process is
A.zero
B.minimum
C.maximum
D.positive
7. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained in a unit volume of gas.
A.one-half
B.one-third
C.two-third
D.three-fourth
8. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
A.3 to 6
B.5 to 8
C.15 to 20
D.20 to 30
9. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by
10. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A. cut-off is increased
B. cut-off is decreased
C. cut-off is zero
D. cut-off is constant
11. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
A. equal to one
B. less than one
C. greater than one
D. none of thes
12. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called
A. constant volume process

B. adiabatic process
C. constant pressure process
D. isothermal process
13. Which of the following is correct?

A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure Atmospheric pressure
14. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
B. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
C. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels.
D. A good fuel should have low ignition point.
15. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

A. 0.287 J/kgK
B. 2.87 J/kgK
C. 28.7 J/kgK
D. 287 J/kgK
16. The absolute zero temperature is taken as
A. -273C
B. 273C
C. 237C
D. -237C
17. The specific heat of water is
A. 1.817
B. 2512
C. 4.187
D. none of these
18. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as
A. reversible cycle
B. irreversible cycle
C. thermodynamic cycle
D. none of these
19. An isothermal process is governed by

A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadros law
20. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as
A. workdone
B. entropy
C. enthalpy
D. none of these
21. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical properties, is governed by
A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. all of these
22. According to Kelvin-Plancks statement of second law of thermodynamics,

A. it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
B. it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
C. it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a
cold body to a hot body
D. none of the above
23. According to Avogadros law

A. the product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant
B. the sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two
C. equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of molecules
D. all of the above
24. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its expansion or compression, is called
A. isothermal process
B. hyperbolic process
C. adiabatic process
D. polytropic process
25. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A. greater than Carnot cycle
B. less than Carnot cycle
C. equal to Carnot cycle
D. none of these
26. The hyperbolic process is governed by

A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D.Avogadroslaw
27. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A. Isothermal expansion
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Isothermal compression
D. Isentropic compression
28. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This
statement is called
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Kelvin Plancks
29. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T s curve) of any thermodynamic process represents
A. heat absorbed
B. heat rejected
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of thes
30. For a perfect gas, according to Boyles law (where p = Absolute pressure, v = Volume, and T = Absolute temperature)
A. p v = constant, if T is kept constant
B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
C. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
D. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
16. The absolute zero temperature is taken as
A. -273C
B. 273C
C. 237C
D. -237C
17. The specific heat of water is
A. 1.817
B. 2512
C. 4.187
D. none of these
18. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as
A. reversible cycle
B. irreversible cycle
C. thermodynamic cycle
D. none of these
19. An isothermal process is governed by

A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadros law
20. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as
A. workdone
B. entropy
C. enthalpy
D. none of these
21. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical properties, is governed by
A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. all of these
22. According to Kelvin-Plancks statement of second law of thermodynamics,

A. it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
B. it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
C. it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a
cold body to a hot body
23. According to Avogadros law

A. the product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant
B. the sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two
C. equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of molecules
D. all of the above
24. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its expansion or compression, is called
A. isothermal process
B. hyperbolic process
C. adiabatic process
D. polytropic process
25. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A. greater than Carnot cycle
B. less than Carnot cycle
C. equal to Carnot cycle
D. none of these
26. The hyperbolic process is governed by

A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D.Avogadroslaw
27. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A. Isothermal expansion
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Isothermal compression
D. Isentropic compression
28. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This
statement is called
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Kelvin Plancks
29. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T s curve) of any thermodynamic process represents
A. heat absorbed
B. heat rejected
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of thes
30. For a perfect gas, according to Boyles law (where p = Absolute pressure, v = Volume, and T = Absolute temperature)
A. p v = constant, if T is kept constant
B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
C. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
D. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
1. Fluid is a substance that

(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress. at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
2. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
(a) Newton's law of motion
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) Pascal' law
(d) Continuity equation
3. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
4. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
5. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
d) viscosity
6. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
7. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
8. Dimensions of surface tension are
(a) MlLT2
(b) MlLTx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
9. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
10. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, then 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
11. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
12. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from
another support. The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
13. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped
glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
14. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
15. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under
mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom.
1. Fluid is a substance that

(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress. at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
2. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
(a) Newton's law of motion
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) Pascal' law
(d) Continuity equation
3. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
4. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
5. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
d) viscosity
6. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
7. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
8. Dimensions of surface tension are
(a) MlLT2
(b) MlLTx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
9. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
10. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, then 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
11. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
12. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from
another support. The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
13. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped
glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
14. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
15. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under
mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom.
16. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
17. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
18. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
19. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
20. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension with increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
21. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
22. A metal with specific gravity floating in a fluid of same specific gravity will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
23. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following

(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
24. Manometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
25. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-mergedbody is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
26. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
27. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
28. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
29. The two important forces for a floating body are
(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
30. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is

(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
16. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
17. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
18. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
19. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
20. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension with increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
21. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
22. A metal with specific gravity floating in a fluid of same specific gravity will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
23. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following

(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
24. Manometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
25. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-mergedbody is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
26. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
27. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
28. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
29. The two important forces for a floating body are
(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
30. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is

(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
1-Which one of the following welding processes uses non consumable electrode
(A) Gas metal arc welding
(B) Submerged arc welding
(C) Gas Tungsten arc welding
(D) Flux coated arc welding
2-The method of joining metal surface by introducing a non ferrous alloy with melting point above 400 C is known as
(A) Soldering
(B) Brazing
(C) Welding
(D) none of the above
3-Cutting forces at the cutting tool can be measured by
(A) A dynamometer
(B) A viscosity meter
(C) A sine bar
(D) A combination set
4-Extrusion is a process of
(A) Pushing the heated billet of metal through an orifice
(B) Producing a hole by a punch
(C) Making cup shaped parts from the sheet metal
(D) None of the above
5-The clearance angle is provided on the tools with a view to
(A) Strength the tool
(B) Shear off the metal
(C) Facilitate easy flow of chips
(D) Prevent the tool from rubbing on workpiece
6-By cold working of materials, the fatigue strength
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
7-Investment casting is used for
(A) shapes which are made by difficulty using complex patterns in sand casting
(B) mass production
(C) shapes which are very complex and intricate and cant be cast by any other method
(D) there is nothing like investment casting
8-Blow holes are casting defects
(A) which occur due to some sand shearing from the cope surface
(B) which takes the form of internal voids of surface depression due to excessive gaseous material not able to escape
(C) which occur due to discontinuity in metal casting resulting from hindered contraction
(D) caused by two streams of metals that are too cold to fuse properly
9-Laser is produced by
(A) graphite
(B) ruby
(C) diamond
(D) emerald
10-The major problem in hot extrusion is
(A) design of punch
(B) design of die
(C) wear and tear of die
(D) wear of punch
11-File used for wood work is
(A) single cut file
(B) double cut file
(C) rasp cut file
12-An example of fusion welding is
(A) arc welding
(B) gas welding
(C) thermit welding
(D) forge welding
13-Gases used in tungsten inert gas welding are
(A) hydrogen and oxygen
(B) CO and H
(C) argon and neon
(D) argon and helium
14-Oxy-acetylene flame is used to weld
(A) steel
(B) copper alloys
(C) stainless steel
(D) cast iron
15-Orthogonal cutting system is also known as
(A) one-dimensional cutting system
(B) two-dimensional cutting system
(C) three-dimensional cutting system
16-In metal cutting operations discontinuous chips are produced while machining
(A) brittle material
(B) ductile material
(C) hard material
(D) soft material
1-Which one of the following welding processes uses non consumable electrode
(A) Gas metal arc welding
(B) Submerged arc welding
(C) Gas Tungsten arc welding
(D) Flux coated arc welding
2-The method of joining metal surface by introducing a non ferrous alloy with melting point above 400 C is known as
(A) Soldering
(B) Brazing
(C) Welding
3-Cutting forces at the cutting tool can be measured by
(A) A dynamometer
(B) A viscosity meter
(C) A sine bar
(D) A combination set
4-Extrusion is a process of
(A) Pushing the heated billet of metal through an orifice
(B) Producing a hole by a punch
(C) Making cup shaped parts from the sheet metal
(D) None of the above
5-The clearance angle is provided on the tools with a view to
(A) Strength the tool
(B) Shear off the metal
(C) Facilitate easy flow of chips
(D) Prevent the tool from rubbing on workpiece
6-By cold working of materials, the fatigue strength
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains same
7-Investment casting is used for
(A) shapes which are made by difficulty using complex patterns in sand casting
(B) mass production
(C) shapes which are very complex and intricate and cant be cast by any other method
(D) there is nothing like investment casting
8-Blow holes are casting defects
(A) which occur due to some sand shearing from the cope surface
(B) which takes the form of internal voids of surface depression due to excessive gaseous material not able to escape
(C) which occur due to discontinuity in metal casting resulting from hindered contraction
(D) caused by two streams of metals that are too cold to fuse properly
9-Laser is produced by
(A) graphite
(B) ruby
(C) diamond
(D) emerald
10-The major problem in hot extrusion is
(A) design of punch
(B) design of die
(C) wear and tear of die
(D) wear of punch
11-File used for wood work is
(A) single cut file
(B) double cut file
(C) rasp cut file
12-An example of fusion welding is
(A) arc welding
(B) gas welding
(C) thermit welding
(D) forge welding
13-Gases used in tungsten inert gas welding are
(A) hydrogen and oxygen
(B) CO and H
(C) argon and neon
(D) argon and helium
14-Oxy-acetylene flame is used to weld
(A) steel
(B) copper alloys
(C) stainless steel
(D) cast iron
15-Orthogonal cutting system is also known as
(A) one-dimensional cutting system
(B) two-dimensional cutting system
(C) three-dimensional cutting system
16-In metal cutting operations discontinuous chips are produced while machining
(A) brittle material
(B) ductile material
(C) hard material
(D) soft material
17-Knurling is an operation of
(A) cutting smooth collars
(B) under cutting
(C) roughing the surface for hand grip
18-Poor fusion in a welded is due to
(A) high welding speed
(B) dirty metal surface
(C) improper current
(D) lack of flux
19-Counterboring is the operation of
(A) enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
(B) cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
(C) smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(D) sizing and finishing a hole
20-A connecting rod is made by
(A) casting
(B) drawing
(C) forging
(D) extrusion
21-Preheating before welding is done to
(A) make the steel softer
(B) burn away oil, grease, etc, from the plate surface
(C) prevent plate distortion
(D) prevent cold cracks
22-In Electro- Discharge Machining (EDM), the tool is made of
(A) Copper
(B) High speed steel
(C) Cast iron
(D) Plain carbon steel
23-Which of the following is a single point cutting tool?
(A) Hacksaw blade
(B) Milling cutter
(C) Grinding wheel
(D) Parting tool
24-In ASA System, if the tool signature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2-mm, then the side rake angle will be
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
25-Cold working of metal increases
(A) tensile strength
(B) hardness
(C) yield strength
(D) all of the above
26-Seamless tube can be produced by
(A) two high rolling mill
(B) ring rolling combined with stretch forming
(C) piercing
(D) steam hammering forging
27-In electro chemical machining (ECM) the material removal is due to
(A) corrosion
(B) erosion
(C) fusion
(D) ion displacement
28-Crater wear occurs mainly due to
(A) abrasion
(B) diffusion
(C) oxidation
(D) adhesion
29-Tool life of the cutting tool is most affected by
(A) Cutting speed
(B) Tool geometry
(C) Cutting feed and depth
(D) Microstructure of material being cut
30-Metal in machining operation is removed by
(A) Tearing chips
(B) Shearing the metal across a zone
(C) Distortion of metal
(D) Cutting the metal across a zone
17-Knurling is an operation of
(A) cutting smooth collars
(B) under cutting
(C) roughing the surface for hand grip
18-Poor fusion in a welded is due to
(A) high welding speed
(B) dirty metal surface
(C) improper current
(D) lack of flux
19-Counterboring is the operation of
(A) enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
(B) cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
(C) smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(D) sizing and finishing a hole
20-A connecting rod is made by
(A) casting
(B) drawing
(C) forging
(D) extrusion
21-Preheating before welding is done to
(A) make the steel softer
(B) burn away oil, grease, etc, from the plate surface
(C) prevent plate distortion
(D) prevent cold cracks
22-In Electro- Discharge Machining (EDM), the tool is made of
(A) Copper
(B) High speed steel
(C) Cast iron
(D) Plain carbon steel
23-Which of the following is a single point cutting tool?
(A) Hacksaw blade
(B) Milling cutter
(C) Grinding wheel
(D) Parting tool
24-In ASA System, if the tool signature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2-mm, then the side rake angle will be
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
25-Cold working of metal increases
(A) tensile strength
(B) hardness
(C) yield strength
(D) all of the above
26-Seamless tube can be produced by
(A) two high rolling mill
(B) ring rolling combined with stretch forming
(C) piercing
(D) steam hammering forging
27-In electro chemical machining (ECM) the material removal is due to
(A) corrosion
(B) erosion
(C) fusion
(D) ion displacement
28-Crater wear occurs mainly due to
(A) abrasion
(B) diffusion
(C) oxidation
(D) adhesion
29-Tool life of the cutting tool is most affected by
(A) Cutting speed
(B) Tool geometry
(C) Cutting feed and depth
(D) Microstructure of material being cut
30-Metal in machining operation is removed by
(A) Tearing chips
(B) Shearing the metal across a zone
(C) Distortion of metal
(D) Cutting the metal across a zone
1. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the direction of the
A. axis of load
B. perpendicular to the axis of load
C. maximum moment of inertia
D. minimum moment of inertia
2. Eulers formula holds good only for
A. short columns
B. long columns
C. both short and long columns
D. weak column
3. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15 C to 40 C and it is free to expand. The bar Will induce
A. no stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress
4. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to
the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
A. 400MPa
B. 500MPa
C. 900MPa
D. 1400MPa
5. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually.
A. equal to
B. one-half
C. twice
D. four times
6. The deformation per unit length is called
A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shear stress
D. strain
7. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to
volumetric strain is
8. In the torsion equation T/J=/R=C/Rthe term J/R is called

A. shear modulus
B. section modulus
C. polar modulus
D. none of these
9. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where = Maximum allowable shear stress)
10. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the
A. top layer
B. bottom layer
C. neutral axis
D. every cross-section
11. F a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the centre of the beam, the maximum deflection is
12. The simply supported beam A of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam B is loaded with a uniformly distributed
load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is
A. 5/8
B. 8/5
C. 5/4
D.4/5
13. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at
A. smaller end
B. larger end
C. middle
D.anywhere
14. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
A. the axis of load
B. an oblique plane
C. at right angles to the axis of specimen
D.wouldnotoccur
15. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. infinity
1. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the direction of the
A. axis of load
B. perpendicular to the axis of load
C. maximum moment of inertia
D. minimum moment of inertia
2. Eulers formula holds good only for
A. short columns
B. long columns
C. both short and long columns
D. weak column
3. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15 C to 40 C and it is free to expand. The bar Will induce
A. no stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
4. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to
the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
A. 400MPa
B. 500MPa
C. 900MPa
D. 1400MPa
5. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually.
A. equal to
B. one-half
C. twice
D. four times
6. The deformation per unit length is called
A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shear stress
D. strain
7. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to
volumetric strain is
8. In the torsion equation T/J=/R=C/Rthe term J/R is called

A. shear modulus
B. section modulus
C. polar modulus
D. none of these
9. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where = Maximum allowable shear stress)
10. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the
A. top layer
B. bottom layer
C. neutral axis
D. every cross-section
11. F a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the centre of the beam, the maximum deflection is
12. The simply supported beam A of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam B is loaded with a uniformly distributed
load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is
A. 5/8
B. 8/5
C. 5/4
D.4/5
13. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at
A. smaller end
B. larger end
C. middle
D.anywhere
14. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
A. the axis of load
B. an oblique plane
C. at right angles to the axis of specimen
D.wouldnotoccur
15. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. infinity
16. When a bar is cooled to 5 C, it will develop
A. no stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
17. Resilience is the
A. energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
B. energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen
C. maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
18. Strain energy is the
B. energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen
D. proof resilience per unit volume of a material
19. The point of contraflexure is a point where
A. shear force changes sign
B. bending moment changes sign
C. shear force is maximum
D.bendingmomentismaximum
20. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of __________ from the end B.
21. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

A. linearly
B. parabolically
C. hyperbolically
D. elliptically
22. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
B. The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
C. The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
a. Torsional stress
b. Bending stress
c. Principal stress
d. All of the above
24. Which theory gives satisfactory results for brittle materials?
a. Maximum shear stress theory
b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Shear strain energy theory
25 What is the bulk modulus of a material, if a cube of 100 mm changes its volume to 4000 mm3 when subjected to compressive
force of 2.5 x 106 N?
a. 62.5 Gpa
b. 65 Gpa
c. 67.5 Gpa
d. 70 Gpa
26 The value of elasticity increases, when temperature _____
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
27 What is the maximum bending moment acting on simply supported beam shown below?
a. 2000 Nm
b. 3000 Nm
c. 4000 Nm
d. 6000 Nm
28 A 10 m long cantilever beam is fixed at point B. What is the bending moment at point B.
if 5 m span of AC carries uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m?

a. 125 kN/m
b. 200 kN/m
c. 375 kN/m
d. 500 kN/m
29 What is the product of sectional modulus and allowable bending stress called as?
a. Moment of inertia
b. Moment of rigidity
c. Moment of resistance
d. Radius of gyration
30 A circular pipe is subjected to maximum shear force of 60 kN.
What is the diameter of the pipe if maximum allowable shear stress is 5 Mpa?
a. 27.311 mm
b. 75.56 mm
c. 142.72 mm
d. 692.10 mm
16. When a bar is cooled to 5 C, it will develop
A. no stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
17. Resilience is the
B. energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen
18. Strain energy is the
B. energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen
D. proof resilience per unit volume of a material
19. The point of contraflexure is a point where
A. shear force changes sign
B. bending moment changes sign
C. shear force is maximum
D.bendingmomentismaximum
20. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of __________ from the end B.
21. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

A. linearly
B. parabolically
C. hyperbolically
D. elliptically
22. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
B. The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
C. The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
a. Torsional stress
b. Bending stress
c. Principal stress
d. All of the above
24. Which theory gives satisfactory results for brittle materials?
a. Maximum shear stress theory
b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Shear strain energy theory
25 What is the bulk modulus of a material, if a cube of 100 mm changes its volume to 4000 mm3 when subjected to compressive
force of 2.5 x 106 N?
a. 62.5 Gpa
b. 65 Gpa
c. 67.5 Gpa
d. 70 Gpa
26 The value of elasticity increases, when temperature _____
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
27 What is the maximum bending moment acting on simply supported beam shown below?
a. 2000 Nm
b. 3000 Nm
c. 4000 Nm
d. 6000 Nm
28 A 10 m long cantilever beam is fixed at point B. What is the bending moment at point B.
if 5 m span of AC carries uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m?

a. 125 kN/m
b. 200 kN/m
c. 375 kN/m
d. 500 kN/m
29 What is the product of sectional modulus and allowable bending stress called as?
a. Moment of inertia
b. Moment of rigidity
c. Moment of resistance
d. Radius of gyration
30 A circular pipe is subjected to maximum shear force of 60 kN.
What is the diameter of the pipe if maximum allowable shear stress is 5 Mpa?
a. 27.311 mm
b. 75.56 mm
c. 142.72 mm
d. 692.10 mm

MECH Assessment

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RVS COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

CENTRAL PLACEMENT CELL

A. constant volume process

13. Which of the following is correct?

14. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

15. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

A. constant volume process

13. Which of the following is correct?

14. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

15. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

19. An isothermal process is governed by

22. According to Kelvin-Plancks statement of second law of thermodynamics,

23. According to Avogadros law

25. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

26. The hyperbolic process is governed by

19. An isothermal process is governed by

22. According to Kelvin-Plancks statement of second law of thermodynamics,

23. According to Avogadros law

25. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

26. The hyperbolic process is governed by

1. Fluid is a substance that

1. Fluid is a substance that

19. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

23. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following

24. Manometer is used to measure

30. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is

19. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

23. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following

24. Manometer is used to measure

30. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is

8. In the torsion equation T/J=/R=C/Rthe term J/R is called

8. In the torsion equation T/J=/R=C/Rthe term J/R is called

21. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

if 5 m span of AC carries uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m?

21. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

if 5 m span of AC carries uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m?

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