Clat Diagnostic Paper For Law Entrance To Nlu

Chapter 2
Diagnostic Mock Test on CLAT

Pattern
Total questions: 200

Total time: 2 hours
Negative marking: Yes (0.25 per wrong answer)
SECTION I: ENGLISH
Directions (110): Replace the underlined part of the sentence with the correct choice.
If the underlined part is correct, mark (d) as your answer.
1. City-based Zoho Corps email and chat services is one of the handful of services,
which the US National Security Agency (NSA) has found it difficult to crack under
its mass surveillance programme.
(a) City-based Zoho Corps email and chat services are becoming one of the
handful of services
(b) City-based Zoho Corps email and chat services are one of the handful of
services
(c) City-based Zoho Corps email and chat services was one of the handful of
services
2. According to a report by German newsmagazine Der Spiegel, NSA has classified
the encryption and security-breaking problems they encountered on a scale of 1
to 5, from trivial to catastrophic.
(a) these encountered on a scale of 1 to 5, from trivial to catastrophic
(b) there encountered on a scale of 1 to 5, from trivial to catastrophic
(c) it encountered on a scale of 1 to 5, from trivial to catastrophic
3. The report was based on the documents obtained from former NSA contractor
and whistleblower Edward Snowden.
(a) the documents obtained in from former NSA contractor and whistleblower
Edward Snowden
(b) the documents obtained into former NSA contractor and whistleblower
Edward Snowden
(c) the documents obtained for former NSA contractor and whistleblower Edward
Snowden
4. The NSA had major problem at the fourth level with Zoho, an encrypted email
service, a report said.
(a) with Zoho, a encrypted email service, a report said
(b) with Zoho, a encrypted email service, a report said
(c) with Zoho, an encrypted email service, the report said
5. Encryptionthe use of mathematics to protect communications from spyingis
used for electronic transactions of all types, by governments, firms and by private
users alike.
(a) electronic transactions of all types, governments, firms and by private users
alike
(b) electronic transactions of all types, by governments, by firms and private
users alike
(c) electronic transactions of all types, by governments, firms and private users
alike
6. This comes as a strong testimonial for Zoho, that competes with Microsoft and
Google in the mail and office suite space.
(a) which competes with Microsoft and Google in the mail and office suite space
(b) that competes to Microsoft and Google in the mail and office suite space
(c) which competes to Microsoft and Google in the mail and office suite space
7. The firm has over 10 million users, and mainly focused on small and medium
enterprises in the US and other global markets.
(a) The firm had over 10 million users, and mainly focuses on small and medium
enterprises
(b) The firm has over 10 million users, and mainly focuses on small and medium
enterprises
(c) The firm had over 10 million users, and mainly focusing on small and medium
enterprises
8. In an August 2013 blog post, his company remained the only major email service
provider that never displayed any ads was noted by Zohos founder Sridhar
Vembu.
(a) it was noted by Zohos founder Sridhar Vembu noted that his company
remained the only major email service provider that never displayed any ads.
(b) Zohos founder Sridhar Vembu noted that his company remained the only
major email service provider that never displayed any ads.
(c) the only major email service provider that never displayed any ads was Zoho.
9. Despite Google has gone on record to say you cant expect privacy from Google
itself, we can assure you that we guarantee your privacy, at least from Zoho
itself, if not from the government.
(a) However Google has gone on record to say you cant expect privacy from
Google itself,
(b) But Google has gone on record to say you cant expect privacy from Google
itself,
(c) While Google has gone on record to say you cant expect privacy from Google
itself,
10. Although the documents are around two years old, experts consider it unlikely
the agencys digital spies had made much progress in cracking these
technologies, the report adds.
(a) Although the documents is around two years old, experts consider these
unlikely the agencys digital spies had made much progress in cracking these
(b) Although the documents are around two years old, experts consider them
unlikely the agencys digital spies had made much progress in cracking these
(c) Although the documents is around two years old, experts consider it unlikely
the agencys digital spies had made much progress in cracking these
Directions (1115): Fill in the blanks with the correct choices.

11. The ratio of Indias international financial assets _______ global liabilities stood at
58 per cent in September 2014 as against 58.6 per cent in June 2014.
(a) for (b) into
(c) out of (d) to
12. Further, an increase of $0.9 billion in portfolio investment also helped _______
boost the foreign-owned assets in India.
(a) by
(b) to
(c) through
(d) no word required
13. Net claims of non-residents on India (as reflected by the net IIP) increased
_______ $6.8 billion over the previous quarter to $353.7 billion as at
end-September 2014.
(a) by (b) besides
(c) on to (d) for
14. Reserve assets continued to have the dominant share (64.2 per cent) in Indias
international financial assets in September 2014, followed _______direct
investment abroad (26.5 per cent).
(a) in (b) by
(c) from (d) up
15. This drop is mainly due _______ a decrease of $2.3 billion in reserve assets.
(a) the (b) on
(c) at (d) to
Directions (1620): Identify the correct idiom for the given explanation.
16. With arms linked
(a) with open arms (b) up in arms
(c) arm in arm (d) men-at-arms
17. Forced to perform an unpleasant or difficult task
(a) bite the bullet (b) bite the dust
(c) bite your tongue(d) bite a man
18. To end a relationship
(a) break new ground
(b) make the break
(c) break ones word
(d) break the ice
19. Without delay
(a) out of order (b) in order to
(c) in short order (d) in order that
20. To maintain law and order
(a) hold ones peace
(b) keep the peace
(c) make ones peace
(d) rest in peace
Directions (2125): Identify the foreign words from the clues given below.
21. This phrase literally means art for the sake of art and is the motto for the
American media company Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer.
(a) ars gratia artis
(b) advocatus diaboli
(c) ad litem
(d) ambigendi locus
22. This phrase is essentially the nocturnal equivalent of carpe diem and so literally
means seize the night.
(a) caveat emptor (b) carpe noctem
(c) ceteris paribus (d) compos mentis
23. Literally meaning who benefits?, this phrase is used to imply that whoever
appears to have the most to gain from a crime is probably the culprit.
(a) credo (b) cui prodest
(c) cui malo (d) cui bono
24. Footballers, please note that _______ is a motto of Arsenal FC.
(a) In Scientia Opportunitas
(b) Blitzkrieg
(c) Carpe Diem
(d) Victoria Concordia Crescit
25. The Olympic motto is made up of three Latin words : _______ and they stand for
Faster - Higher - Stronger.
(a) Veni - Vedi -Veci
(b) Dictum - Meum - Pactum
(c) Citius - Altius - Fortius
(d) Hostis - Humani - Generis
Directions (2630): Identify the correct spellings of the following words.
26. (a) assidous (b) assiduous

(c) acciduous (d) asiduous
27. (a) deletirious (b) deleteruous(c) deleterius (d) deleterious
28. (a) effrontery (b) effrentery

(c) affrontery (d) effrontary
29. (a) fallecious (b) fellacious
(c) falacious (d) fallacious
30. (a) ignominiuous (b) ignominous
(c) ignominious (d) igniminious
1
Directions (3140): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
In October 2013, 17-year-old Sabir Ali left his home in Chhagelia village in Kishan
Ganj district, Bihar, to look for work in Punjab. Ali and his friend Mohammed Jamal
were 2 of 20 men who were, like many before them, looking for jobs as agricultural
labourers. A thriving agricultural economy, Punjab has been host to a large number of
migrant workers from Uttar Pradesh and Bihar for several decades now. The two
young men soon found employment with Harkishan Singh, a local landowner, near
Chhokran village, in the Shahid Bhagat Singh (SBS) Nagar district. They were also
allowed to stay inside the tube wells, or motors located around Singhs fieldsa
common practice for migrant labourers in Punjab.
On the morning of 22 December 2013, at around 10:30 am, Ali and Jamal left on
their cycles for the market at Rahon, about four kilometres away. As Ali emerged from
the fields through a mud path that met a link road, he collided with a white Skoda
Octavia. He suffered a head injury. Ravinder Singha 28-year-old, and at the time of
the accident, the sole occupant of the cardrove Ali and Jamal to Raja hospital in
Nawanshahr, another village about eight kilometres from the spot. Ali died on the way.
Alis case was brought to my attention in August this year by Mayank Aggarwal, a
Delhi-based lawyer, who had taken this case up pro bono in February 2014. Aggarwal
provided me with copies of the police records. These included two written statements,
dated 22 December 2013the day of the accidentone signed by Jamal, and
another by a second eyewitness, Gurcharan Singh, a local landowner who happened
to be at his fields along the road at the time of the accident. In his statement, Jamal
had identified himself to the police as Alis cousin. Both statements stated that the
accident was entirely Alis fault since he moved on to the road without looking left and
right side. This account detailed in the statement was repeated throughout the police
records, including the investigation and death reports.
A joint statement signed by several witnesses, also dated 22 December 2013,
concluded: Car driver Ravinder Singh has no mistake and we have neither any doubt
in the death of Sabir Ali, nor we wish to initiate action in this regard. The statement
contained 11 signatures, one of which was Jamals, and one thumb impression. The
other signatures belonged to Harkishan SinghJamal and Alis
employerGurcharan Singh, two other migrant workers employed by Harkishan
Singh and seven other locals. Three of these locals were from the same village as
Ravinder Singh. No first information report was filed for Alis death.
1
. This excerpt has been taken from Ishan Marvel, What A Bihari Migrant's Death During a Road
Accident in Punjab Reveals About the State, Caravan Magazine, Delhi Press,
paras.17<http://www.caravanmagazine.in/vantage/bihari-migrant-death-punjab-reveals-about-sta
te>last accessed 10-10-2015.
The police did a basic enquiry and made a report of unnatural sudden death under
Section 174 CrPC [Code of Criminal Procedure], since according to them there was no
negligence attributable to the driver, Aggarwal explained to me. Section 174 CrPC
states that should the police find that a person has committed suicide, or has been
killed by another or by an animal or by machinery or by an accident, or has died under
circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion that some other person has committed
an offence, the police officer must inform a Magistrate. The officer can then conduct a
special inquest in the presence of two witnesses, during which he or she must examine
the body and file a report noting the apparent cause of death, wounds, marks on the
body, and so on. However, Aggarwal claims that the police did not follow the standard
operating procedure for an accident case before concluding that Alis death was an
unnatural sudden death. Section 174 is attracted when the preliminary enquiry
conducted by the police does not even reveal allegations of a cognizable crime under
IPC, he told me. There is no MLC (medico-legal case) report and blood-alcohol test
of the driver, and we have no details regarding his licence or insurance. The police did
not even impound the car for mechanical inspection which is mandatory for all road
accident cases.
The police records also included an undated compromise statementa
settlement agreement between Surjit SinghRavinders father who is the owner of
the carand Mohammed Jamal. This settlement notes that a compensation of Rs
60,000 was given by the first party [Surjit] to the second party [Jamal]. The document
also states that the driver of the car was not Ravinder Singh, but Surjit. The
compromise statement was signed by nine witnesses including Harkishan and
Kuldeep, the sarpanch of Chhokran village. It concludes, Both the parties are mutually
settled ... there is no dispute left.
On 7 September, at Aggarwals office in Adarsh Nagar, Delhi, I met Abul Latif, Alis
maternal uncle who is a contractor based in Delhi, and Alis father, Anamul Haq, a
farmer, who had just arrived from Bihar. It was Latif who, on visiting the village after
Alis death, had suggested that Alis family pursue the case further. I was at home one
night and a village boy came and informed us about [the death of] Sabir [Ali]. My wife
faintedshe is still traumatised. Haq recounted. He was the youngest of our five
children, and had never left home for work before. I told Haq that Jamal had identified
himself to the police as Alis cousin. No, he is not related, Haq said, But he is from
Chhagelia too. He then told me that he had received only around Rs 20,000 out of the
Rs 60,000 mentioned in the raazinamathe compromise. Jamal said rest was spent
on getting the body to our village, which arrived three or four days after the accident.
On hearing that only a third of the compensation had made its way to Haq, Latif and
other villagers decided to pursue the matter further. Haq and Latif visited the police
station in Punjab and collected the case documents. Soon after, Latif contacted
Aggarwal, who agreed to take on the case.
31. To which of the following State did Harkishan Singh belong to?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) None of the above
32. Among the following who died in a car accident?
(a) Harkishan Singh
(b) Sabir Ali
(c) Mohammed Jamal
(d) Mayank Aggarwal
33. What is stated in both the statements of the witnesses?
(a) The accident was caused because of the fault of the car driver.
(b) The accident was caused because of the fault of the deceased.
(c) The witnesses were not able to identify whose fault it was.
(d) The statements were given under coercion.
34. The signatures of how many locals were present in the statement?
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 9 (d) 8
35. Which of the following things were not present according to Aggarwal?
(a) MLC report
(b) Blood-alcohol test of the driver
(c) Licence or insurance of driver
(d) All of the above
36. What was the name of the driver of the car?
(a) Surjit (b) Sukhjeet
(c) Ravinder (d) Jamal
37. How many siblings did Sabir have?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
38. What part of the compensation was relieved by Sabirs uncle?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
(c) 1/4 (d) 1/6
39. Which of the following has been used in the passage?
(a) Sarcasm (b) Narration
(c) Imagination (d) Soliloquy
40. What is the objective which the author intends to portray?
(a) Condition of migrant workers
(b) Improper justice system
(c) Improper functioning of police
SECTION II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
41. Which of the following Union Territories has the lowest population density?
(a) Daman and Diu (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Andaman and Nicobar(d) Pondicherry
42. Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja by ______.
(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Akbar II
(c) Followers of Brahma Samaj
(d) Intellectuals opposing the custom of sati
43. Sarda Act fixed the minimum age of marriage of girls and boys respectively as
______.
(a) 12 and 16 (b) 14 and 18
(c) 15 and 21 (d) 16 and 22
44. Which of the following Bills has/have been passed in the budget session (2015)
of Parliament?
(a) 100th Constitution Amendment Bill for the operationalisation of the land
boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh
(b) The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2015
(c) The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2015
45. Who has been appointed the founder President of BRICS bank headquartered at
Shanghai?
(a) K.V. Kamath (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Chanda Kocher (d) U.K. Sinha
46. Which of the following terms is not associated with banking?
(a) e-hut (b) e-lobby
(c) I-Watch (d) e-Chaupal
47. Justice A.P. Shah Committee has been constituted to look into the issue on
______ .
(a) minimum alternative tax on foreign institutional investors
(b) minimum alternative tax on domestic corporate giants
(c) minimum alternative tax on traders
(d) elimination of deductions under 80C income tax
48. Dynamo converts ______.
(a) high voltage into low voltage
(b) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(c) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(d) low voltage into high voltage
49. Which article under the fundamental rights is directly related to the employment
of children?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 17
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
50. The Hot Spots (in context of environment) found in India are ______.
(a) Eastern Ghat, Western Ghat
(b) Vindhyan Range, Eastern Ghat
(c) Eastern Himalayan Range, Western Ghat
(d) Shivalik Range, Eastern Ghat
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Rulers) List-II (Buildings)
A. Aibak 1. Kilokhari
B. Iltutmish 2. Siri Fort
C. Balban 3. Adhai Din ka

Jhonpra
D. Alauddin Khilji 4. Sultan Garhi

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
52. Recently an Indian Air Force 2000 fighter aircraft safely landed on ______.
(a) Yamuna Expressway
(b) Nasik-Pune Expressway
(c) Vadodara-Ahmedabad Expressway
(d) None of the above
53. A form of government which is headed by an elected representative and not a
hereditary monarch is known as ______.
(a) Presidential (b) Parliamentary
(c) Republican (d) Democratic
54. Human Rights Day is observed on ______ .
(a) 24 October (b) 10 December
(c) 5 June (d) 7 April
55. Which organisation is popularly called the World Bank?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Bank for Reconstruc-tion and Development
(c) International Development Agency
(d) International Finance Corporation
56. Opium is obtained from ______.
(a) dried seeds as oil
(b) dried leaves by distillation
(c) unripe capsules as latex
(d) roots
57. Amnesty International, a worldwide human rights organisation, has its
headquarters at ______.
(a) London (b) Geneva
(c) New York (d) Manila
58. Egypt recently unveiled gift to the world by opening which second canal?
(a) Suez Canal 2.0 (b) Grand Canal
(c) Panama Canal (d) Qaraqum Canal
59. Apex bank in agriculture sector is ______.
(a) Punjab National Bank
(b) State Bank of India
(c) NABARD
(d) Central Bank of India
60. Within how many days the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is required to make
its recommendation on the Money Bill?
(a) 14 days (b) 18 days
(c) 21 days (d) 30 days
61. The Adams Bridge begins from ______.
(a) Dhanuskodi (b) Mandapam
(c) Pamban (d) Rameshwaram
62. Sound above what level (in decibels) is considered hazardous noise pollution?
(a) 30 db (b) 40 db
(c) 60 db (d) 80 db
63. Search engine giant Google Inc has announced formation of new parent
company called _______?
(a) Youpath Inc (b) Alphabet Inc
(c) Truper Inc (d) Digiflip Inc
64. An atmospheric phenomenon where dust, smoke and other dry articles obscure
the clarity of the sky?
(a) Mist (b) Frost
(c) Haze (d) Fog
65. Vijnaneshwara (work: Mitakshara) who lived in Kalyana was noted _______ .
(a) Court poet (b) Musician
(c) Jurist (d) Commander
66. Who has been appointed recently as Chief Executing Officer (CEO) of Google?
(a) Sundar Pichai (b) Jack Ma

(c) Jim Guyan (d) Satya Nadella
67. Asteroids are found between the planets _______ .
(a) Mars and Jupiter
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Earth and Venus
(d) Jupiter and Saturn
68. The Bihu dance is originated from which State of India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Chhattisgarh
69. Under Article 267 of the Indian Constitution provision of which one of the
following has been made?
(a) Consolidated Fund
(b) Contingency Fund
(c) Expenditure Fund
(d) Presidents Fund
70. Under which of the following articles of Constitution, National Emergency can be
proclaimed by the President of India?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356
(c) Article 358 (d) Article 360
71. 8th BRICS Summit will be held in ______.
(a) Brazil (b) Russia
(c) India (d) China
72. On whom Bangladesh confers Award of Liberation War Honour recently?
(a) Manmohan Singh
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Arun Jaitley
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
73. Which one of the following issues the Global Economic Prospects report
periodically?
(a) The Asian Development Bank
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank
74. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gangetic gharial
75. Who has been selected as the President of ICC recently?
(a) Haroon Lorgat (b) N. Srinivasan
(c) Sharad Pawar (d) Zaheer Abbas
76. India is separated from Sri Lanka by _______ .
(a) McMahon line (b) Palk Strait
(c) Maginot line (d) Bay of Bengal
77. The atmospheric layer responsible for most of the weather phenomena is
referred to as the _________.
(a) Mesosphere (b) Stratosphere
(c) Ionosphere (d) Troposphere
78. The Union Government hiked recently national floor-level minimum wage to
_________ rupees per day.
(a) 137 (b) 145
(c) 153 (d) 160
79. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the _________
(a) Human Rights Commission

(b) Planning Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Finance Commission
80. The earliest occurrence of the mantra famous as Gayatri Mantra is found in the
following text:
(a) Bhagwad Gita (b) Atharva Veda
(c) Rig Veda (d) Manusmriti
81. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development.
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organisation.
(c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change.
(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological
Diversity.
82. Who has been chosen recently for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna?
(a) Sania Mirza (b) P.V. Sindhu
(c) Virat Kohli (d) Shubham Jaglan
83. Which of the following geological systems of rocks contain rich reserve of iron ore
in India?
(a) Vindhyan system
(b) Cuddapah system
(c) Gondwana system
(d) Dharwar system
84. Which of the following rivers of India cuts across all the ranges of the Himalayas?
(a) Ravi (b) Satluj
(c) Beas (d) Chenab
85. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in the _______ and its Capital is ______
(a) Arabian Sea; Port Blair
(b) Bay of Bengal; Kavaratti
(c) Bay of Bengal; Port Blair

(d) Bay of Bengal; Panaji
86. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India
are made in order to:
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
87. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Article 39-A-equal justice and free legal aid
(b) Article 40-organisation of village Panchayats
(c) Article 44-uniform civil code
(d) Article 48-separation of judiciary from executive
88. The ideal of welfare state in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
_________.
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive principles of State policy
(c) Fundamental rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
89. Select one of the following processes leading to stable population structure:
(a) Increasing birth rate and constant death rate
(b) Decreasing birth rate and increasing death rate
(c) Constant birth and death rate
(d) Constant birth rate and decreasing death rate
90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I (Biosphere List-II (Location)
reserve)
A. Nokrek 1. Kerala
B. Manas 2. Assam
C. Dehang Debang 3. Meghalaya
D. Agasthyamalai 4. Arunachal
Pradesh
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 4 2 3
SECTION III: NUMERIC ABILITY
91. A sphere of radius 4 cm is melted and recast into a cylindrical shape. If the radius
of the cylinder is 1 cm, find the height of the cylinder?
(a) 64/3 cm (b) 16 cm
(c) 256/3 cm (d) 48 cm
92. Two people are running around a track which is in the form of a square. The side
of the square is 10 m. If they start from a point, move in the same direction and
their speeds are 5 m/sec and 25 m/sec, after how much time from the start will
they meet for the first time?
(a) 5 sec (b) 1/3 sec
(c) 0.5 sec (d) 2 sec
93. 20 litres of a 4:1 milk and water solution is mixed with 50 litres of a 2:3 milk and
water solution. Find the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture?
(a) 18:17 (b) 18:35
(c) 1:1 (d) None of these
94. When the cost price and the selling price are both increased by x%, the value of
profit changes from Rs 30 to Rs 39. Find the value of x?
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
95. In a class of 150 students, each student had to opt for at least one of the three
subjects of Hindi, English or Computers. The number of students who opt for
Hindi, English and Computers are 60, 60 and 59 respectively. 15 students opted
for both English and Hindi, 10 students opted for both Computers and Hindi while
12 students opted for English and Computers. Find the number of students who
opt for all the three subjects?
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 12
96. How many 4 digit odd numbers can be formed using the digits 0 to 7 without
repetition such that the digit at the thousands place is also an odd digit?
(a) 360 ways (b) 432 ways
(c) 300 ways (d) 480 ways
97. In how many different ways can the alphabets of the word DECIDE be arranged
such that the vowels are always together?
(a) 72 ways (b) 144 ways
(c) 48 ways (d) 36 ways
98. 15 men can make 30 identical objects in 15 days, in how many days can 45 men
make 180 such identical objects?
99. A alone can do a work in 9 days more than that taken by A and B together to do
the work while B alone can do the same work in 25 days more than that taken by
A and B to do the work together. In how many days can A and B do the work
together?
100. The sum of a two digit number and the number formed by interchanging the digits
of the number is a multiple of 44. How many such numbers are possible?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) 4
101. Buses to destination C arrive after every 6 minutes while buses going to
destination E arrive after every 8 minutes. If buses to both the destinations last
arrived together at 1:12 p.m., when will buses to both the destinations together
arrive again?
(a) 1:36 p.m. (b) 2:00 p.m.
(c) 2:12 p.m. (d) None of these
102. Which among the following will result in the maximum discount for a customer?
(a) 2 discounts of 8% and 12%
(b) 2 discounts of 10% each
(c) Single discount of 20%
(d) All of them are equal
103. If 50% of a number is equal to 9.09% of 770, find the remainder when the number
is divided by 3?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) cannot be determined
104. A reduction of 15% in the price of bananas enables a person to buy 15 bananas
more for Rs 340. Find the number of bananas that can be purchased for Rs 340
after the price is reduced?
(a) 85 (b) 100
(c) 75 (d) 115
105. In a 75 m race A can beat B by 15 m while in a 60 m race B can beat C by 10 m.
By how many metres can A beat C in a 300 m race?
(a) 150 m (b) 100 m
(c) 175 m (d) 90 m
106. A train 150 m long and running at 72 kmph passes a man moving in the opposite
direction in 5 seconds. Find the difference in their speeds in kmph?
(a) 72 kmph (b) 48 kmph
(c) 36 kmph (d) 60 kmph
107. In a class girls constitute 40% of the class strength. In an exam 50% of the girls
qualified for the next round. If 30% of the entire class qualified for the next round,
find the % of boys who qualified for the next round?
(a) 33.33% (b) 50%
(c) 20% (d) 16.66%
108. The ratio of the present age of a father and daughter is 8:3 while the ratio of the
present age of the daughter and mother is 5:11. If the fathers present age is 40
years, find the mothers age 2 years ago?
(a) 31 years (b) 33 years
(c) 35 years (d) 34 years
109. 72 litres of a solution contains milk and water in the ratio 5:3. Water is added to
make the ratio 3:5. Find the quantity of water added?
(a) 36 litres(b) 40 litres
(c) 44 litres (d) 48 litres
110. The average score of a group of 6 students is 30 marks. When the marks of 2 of
the 6 students are not added, the average marks of the remaining 4 students
increases by 7.5 marks. Find the average marks of the 2 students whose marks
are not added?
(a) 37.5 (b) 15
(c) 22.5 (d) None of these
SECTION IV: LEGAL APTITUDE
111. Principle: Volenti non fit injuria, means that a person has no legal remedy for
the injury caused by an act to which he has consented.
Facts: An old man in his 70s was walking in a narrow one-way lane in the
opposite direction. It was late in the evening and there was no street lighting. A
car moving in right direction but without headlights knocked him down since the
driver could not see him nor could the old man see the approaching car. He filed
a suit against the driver.
(a) He would lose, because he violated the traffic rules in the first instance by
walking in the wrong direction.
(b) He would lose, because he voluntarily exposed himself to risks.
(c) The driver would lose, because he drove without proper headlights and did
not take necessary care while driving the car.
(d) None of the above.
112. Principle 1: Employers liability is concerned with the employers personal duty in
respect of the physical safety of his employees.
Principle 2: Employers liability is absolute.
Facts: A was employed by B for mining work. A was killed during a mining
accident. B had delegated this duty by entrusting mine safety to a manager. Who
will be liable for the death of A?
(a) Manager will be liable.
(b) B and Manager both will be liable.
(c) B will be liable.
(d) No one will be liable for the death of A.
113. Principle: Employers has a duty to provide adequate plant and equipment to its
employees.
Facts: X was an employee of Z. X lost his eyesight when a tool supplied by Z
split and a chip flew into his eye. Z purchased the tool from a reputable supplier
and there was no means of discovering the defect by inspection. Who is liable to
compensate X?
(a) Supplier of the tool is liable since he provided defective tools to Z.
(b) Z is liable since it provided defective tools to X.
(c) No one will be liable since Z fulfilled his duty of care.
114. Principle: A person has no remedy against an injury caused by an act to which
he has consented.
Fact: Ninad was in a hurry to get to the railway station to catch the Delhi bound
train and he hired a taxi run by Mast Bread Taxi Company, well known in city.
Ninad asked the driver to drive fast, in a bid not to miss the train. In the city zone,
there was a speed limit of 110 km per hour and the driver, rather reluctantly,
drove quite fast at times 100 km per hour in his pursuit to reach the station in
time. As a result of the fast driving, the driver lost control and hit a truck parked
outside a mill and Ninad was badly injured. Ninad filed a suit against the taxi
company.
(a) The Mast Bread Taxi Company would not be liable since Ninad asked the
driver to drive fast.
(b) The Mast Bread Taxi Company would be liable, because the driver ought not
to have exceeded the speed limit.
(c) The Mast Bread Taxi Company would be liable, because the request of
driving fast does not mean consent to negligence.
115. Principle: A person is entitled to use reasonable force for self-defence.
Fact: Praveer was living in a farmhouse at Lonavala with his family members.
One night, a group of robbers broke open the door of the house and there was
scuffle between the intruders and the residents. Praveer took out his licensed
pistol and fired a shot at one of the intruders. The shot did not hit the target and
the robbers ran out of the house and by that time, the neighbours gathered in
front of Praveers farmhouse. Praveer in a fit of anger came out of the house with
his pistol and fired at fleeing robbers who by that time mingled with the
neighbours. The shot injured a robber and he filed a suit against Praveer.
(a) Praveer is not liable, since his action was in continuation of self-defence.
(b) Praveer is liable, because he should have realised that the robbers have left
the scene and there was no further harm to anyone from the robbers. Praveer
is liable, because the action was in not in self-defence but was due to his
anger.
(c) Praveer is not liable since his act was for the betterment of society.
116. Principle 1: If a person suffers mere damage but no legal injury, he is not entitled
to any legal remedy.
Principle 2: Any person who has been arrested by the police must be produced
before a Judicial Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest.
Facts: David was once suspected by police to be part of a gang of mafia. On
18May 2014 there was a theft in the locality and the police suspected him to be
involved in the crime. He was picked up by the police and tortured in the custody
for several days to obtain information and eventually released. Can he sue the
responsible police officers?
(a) No, he has suffered actual injury but no legal injury.
(b) This is not a case where tort law is applicable, therefore, he cannot recover
any damages.
(c) He can recover damages as he has suffered legal injury.
(d) None of these.
117. Principle: Employer is liable for the act of his servant during the course of
employment.
Facts: A, driver of B was asked to directly go home after dropping B at airport.
While returning back from the airport, A knocks down C while driving the car. C
files a suit.
(a) A and B both will be liable.
(b) A only will be liable.
(c) B only will be liable.
118. Principle: Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a persons enjoyment of land
or some rights over or in connection with it.
Facts: Mario has three pet dogs. One of the three entered into the paddy fields of
Desie and caused destruction of property. Will anyone be liable for the damage
caused to Desie?
(a) Yes, the citys municipal corporation will be liable.
(b) Yes, Mario will be liable.
(c) Yes, Desie will be liable for the damage caused.
(d) None will be liable for the damage as it was caused by an animal.
119. Principle: Trespass to property refers to an unjustifiable physical encroachment
of land of one person by another.
Facts: Ali has a huge and beautiful farmhouse near Kandhala. Ben was a tourist
at the place and used his camera to view the activities happening inside the
house. Ali sued Ben for trespass to property.
(a) Ali will win the case as Bens act amounts to trespass.
(b) Ali will lose since Bens interference did not affect Alis right to enjoy his
property.
(c) None of the above.
(d) Ali will lose.
120. Principle: Volenti non fit injuria, means that a person has no legal remedy for
the injury caused by an act to which he has consented.
Facts: A cricket match is being held at Doocot park. A man was unable to buy a
ticket to view the exciting cricket match, so he climbs up a tree just outside the
park. He positions himself perfectly to view the action. When a hard hitting
batsman smashed the ball over the boundary, the ball landed outside the park.
The landing point was just beside Aman. Fearing that he might get hit from the
incoming ball, Aman tries to move and falls down from the tree top and sustains
injury on his backbone due to fall from the tree. Who will be liable to compensate
Aman?
(a) The organisers and park owners are liable to compensate Aman.
(b) The batsman who smashed the particular ball is liable along with the
organisers, but the stadium owner is not responsible.
(c) The batsman is only liable to compensate Aman.
(d) No one is liable to compensate Aman.
121. Principle: There shall be separation of powers between the legislature, the
executive and the judiciary.
Facts: The government has enacted a new law to regulate corporate and
commercial activities in the country. Under the new enactment, the tribunal for
companies has been created. The tribunal will be staffed and regulated by the
Ministry of Corporate Affairs and will be a court of first instance for all disputes
under the new enactment. Appeals lie to the High Court and subsequently to the
Supreme Court. Will the creation of the tribunal be challenged?
(a) No. The executive is merely sharing the judicial functions.
(b) Yes. The executive is taking on judicial functions.
(c) No. Final oversight remains with the judiciary, and the judiciary function,
though exercised by the executive, is still controlled by the judiciary.
(d) Yes. The legislature is taking on judicial functions.
122. Principle: Right to equality is a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution.
Facts: Harish scored poorly in Class XII Board exams, and is consequently not
able to get into the college of his choice at Delhi University. He goes to the Delhi
High Court and argues that he is being discriminated on the basis of his marks.
Will his argument be taken into consideration?
(a) Yes. This is against his fundamental right.
(b) No. There is no fundamental right against educational institutions.
(c) No. Equality does not imply that everybody will be equal, irrespective of their
performance. It means equality among equals.
(d) Yes. He has freedom to choose his educational institution and no one can
restrict his right.
123. Principle: An act which causes death amounts to murder if it was done with the
intention of causing death, or if it was done with the intention of causing such
bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the injured
person, or if it was done with the intention of causing such bodily injury to any
person as is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death, or was an
act so imminently dangerous that the actor must have known that it would, in all
probability, cause death or bodily injury to cause death.
Facts: Fanny shoots Banny in the head. Has Fanny committed murder?
(a) Yes. Fanny committed an act so dangerous that he would have known that
would, in all probability, cause death.
(b) Yes. Fanny indented to cause bodily injury sufficient in the ordinary course of
nature to cause death.
(c) Yes. Fanny intended to kill Banny.
(d) Yes. Fanny intended to cause bodily injury likely to cause the death of Banny.
probability, cause death or bodily injury to cause death. Provocation by the
deceased can be a defence to murder.
Facts: Darren was playing chess with Colin, Davids son. David intervened in the
middle and provokes Darren to an extreme level. In order to take revenge, Darren
killed Colin. Has he murdered Colin?
(a) Yes. His actions have resulted in the death of Colin.
(b) Yes. Even if he was provoked, he was provoked by Davids actions, and that
cannot be a defence for killing Colin as Colin had nothing to do with
provocation.
(c) No. He was provoked.
125. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable
duty of care causing injury to the victim.
Facts: Kim went to a local clinic for regular check up. The doctor while check up
used an injection which was already used once, without the knowledge that
injections are only used once and not reusable. Kim suffered from a dangerous
disease due to the use of the injection. Is the doctor responsible for negligence?
(a) Yes. Every doctor, no matter where he is working has the responsibility to
have expert knowledge. Use of already used injection, constitute a breach of
a reasonable duty of care.
(b) No. This lack of knowledge is expected from a local clinic.
(c) Yes. The doctor has caused injury to Kim.
(d) No. There is no duty of care from the doctor with regards to use of injections.
126. Principle: Whosoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing
death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause
death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits
the offence of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide amounts to murder if the act
is one which causes bodily injury such that the actor knows it to be sufficient to
cause the death of the injured person, or is sufficient to cause the death of the
injured person, or is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death, or
is so dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death.
Facts: Gauri repeatedly stabs Bani with a knife. Bani dies due to the wounds
suffered. Gauri can be convicted for the offence of:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide
(c) Both culpable homicide and murder
(d) Neither culpable homicide nor murder
127. Principle: Whosoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing
death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause
death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits
the offence of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide amounts to murder if the act
is one which causes bodily injury such that the actor knows it to be sufficient to
cause the death of the injured person, or is sufficient to cause the death of the
injured person, or is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death, or
is so dangerous that it must, in all probability, cause death.
Facts: Kushal shouts Six inside a crowded auditorium. Due to sudden panic,
several people died in a stampede caused. Kushal can be convicted for the
offence of:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide
(c) Both culpable homicide and murder
(d) Neither culpable homicide nor murder
128. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, and
without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful
manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Facts: Smith was working in a wine manufacturing company. He was in-charge
of bottling section. Sandhu was one of the workers in the same area. While
working with the bottles, Smith left a cracked bottled in the machine unattended.
The same cracked bottled caused a cut in the hand of Sandu and blood flowed
profusely. Has Smith committed a crime?
(a) Yes.
(b) No.
(c) Cannot be determined.
129. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, and
without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful
manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Facts: Watson is at work with a sharp hatchet. While in the course of work, the
head flies off and kills a man who was standing by. Has Watson committed a
crime?
(a) Yes.
(b) No.
(c) Only if the hatchet was sharp.
(d) Cannot be determined.
Facts: Shami was the owner of an oil company. He discharged oil into the
Sydney Harbour. It eventually ignited, causing a large and damaging fire, when
rubbish floating on the oil was ignited by sparks from a welding operation.
Welding operation was done by Kunal. Can anyone be held liable for the damage
caused due to the fire?
(a) Yes. Shami is only liable as discharging oil into the Sydney Harbour was
breach of reasonable duty.
(b) Yes. Kunal is only liable as welding operation was perfomed by him which
ignited the fire.
(c) Yes. Both Shami and Kunal are jointly liable.
(d) No. Though they have been negligent, they did not directly ignite the fire.
Facts: Salma was hit by a cricket ball hit over a fence and into the road where
she was standing. Can the cricket club be held liable for the damage caused to
Salma?
(a) Yes. The cricket club should have prepared high fence to stop the ball from
going out.
(b) No. The cricket club has not breached the duty of care owed to her, owing to
the unforeseeability of such an accident combined with the high cost of
avoiding it.
(c) No. This is an act of god.
(d) Yes. The cricket club has breached the duty of care owed to Salma.
132. Principle: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of
the possession of any person without that persons consent, moves that property
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts: Pujara and Jadeja are farmers. Their farms adjoin each other and the
adjoining areas are heavily forested on three sides and a huge lake on the other
side. Pujara seeks to encroach upon Jadejas land and claims that several of the
trees originally in Jadejas land are actually in his farm and attempts to cut them
but gets caught while cutting. Has Pujara stolen Jadejas trees?
(a) No. The property is still immovable.
(b) No. The trees have not been removed from Jadejas possession.
(c) Yes. Pujara has dishonest intent.
(d) Yes. Pujara has moved property belonging to Jadeja without his consent.
133. Principle: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft. Nothing is an offence which is
done by a child above 7 years of age and under 12, who has not attained
sufficient maturity.
Facts: Arbaaz is a nine year old boy who is jealous of his friend Rogers many
toys. One fine day, while playing at Rogers house, he steals one of Rogers
smaller toys. Has he committed theft?
(a) Yes.
(b) No.
(c) Only if Roger was really attached to the small toy.
(d) Cannot be determined.
probability, cause death or bodily injury to cause death.
Facts: Warner pushed Rahul into a swimming pool. There was rod inside the
pool. Rahul died as he landed awkwardly on the rod. Has Warner committed
murder?
(a) Yes. Warner pushed Rahul without Rahuls consent.
(b) Yes. Warner is liable even if the push was unintentional and the outcome was
unforeseen.
(c) No. Warner is not liable as the push was not intended to kill Rahul and the
outcome was unforeseen.
(d) No. Warner is not liable as the rod was placed by someone else.
135. Principle: The tort of false imprisonment consists of preventing any person from
moving beyond certain circumscribing limits.
Facts: Krishna places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells
Ram that they will fire at Ram if Ram attempts to leave the building. Is Krishna
liable for false imprisonment?
(a) No. Ram is free to leave at the risk of being shot.
(b) Yes. Ram has no practical way of leaving.
(c) Yes. Ram would be stupid to try and take on the gunmen.
(d) No. Ram is free to leave if he finds a way of avoiding the gunmen.
136. Principle: A person has no legal remedy for the injury caused by an act to which
he has consented.
Facts: One foggy evening Dinanath was jogging on the right side of the street.
On the same street, Vijay was driving his car without a licence with the
headlamps switched off. Vijay knocked Dinanath down with his car. Dinanath filed
a case against Vijay.
(a) Dinanath will win because Vijay did not have driving licence.
(b) Dinanath will win because Vijay was driving without switching the headlamps
on.
(c) Dinanath will not win because he was walking wilfully on the road.
(d) Dinanath will not win because he was walking on the wrong side of the road.
137. Principle: Accident or loss as a result of working of natural forces like rain,
storm, etc. occurrence of which was extraordinary, i.e. not one which could be
anticipated and reasonably guarded against, then in such a situation act of God
defence can be used to dodge liability.
Facts: Builder A built a wall for B using sub-standard material. Some days later
there was mild rainfall as a result of which the wall collapsed and B was injured.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(a) A can take act of god defence as wall collapsed due to rainfall.
(b) A cannot take act of god defence as he was negligent.
(c) A cannot take act of god defence as the rainfall was predictable.
138. Principle: If a person brings on his land and keeps there any dangerous thing i.e.
a thing likely to do mischief if it escapes, he will be prima facie answerable for the
damage caused by it when it escapes even though he had not been negligent in
keeping it there.
Facts: A works in an ammunition factory. While she was performing her duties, a
shell exploded and injured her. There was no evidence of negligence on part of
the defendant, i.e. B, the factory owner.
(a) B is not liable as the shell did not leave the factory premises.
(b) B is not liable as shell explosion is one of the hazards of industry about which
A already knows.
(c) B is liable as A was injured in his factory.
(d) B is liable because A is poor.
139. Principle: When a person enters certain premises under authority of law and
having entered there, abuses that authority by committing some wrongful act
there, he will be considered trespasser ab initio to that property.
Facts: Six carpenters entered a store to fix a door. After fixing the door they stole
some bread from the store and ran away.
(a) The carpenters are trespassers ab initio.
(b) The carpenters are not trespassers ab initio.
(c) Store owner has to decide if carpenters are liable.
140. Principle: Causing of damage, however substantial, to another person is not
actionable in law unless there is also violation of legal right of the person who is
harmed.
Facts: A created a film named Santoshi Maa is best. B said that the film hurt his
religious sentiments.
(a) A is liable to pay damage because Bs right to life is violated.
(b) A is liable to pay damage because Bs right to practice religion has been
violated.
(c) A is not liable because B is free to not watch the movie.
(d) A is not liable as the right to enforce religious views is not a legal right.
141. Principle: When a person consents to the infliction of some harm upon himself
he has no remedy for that in tort. Consent to suffer harm can be express or
implied. Consent obtained as a result of fraud is invalid. But if the mistake
induced by fraud is not such which goes to the real nature of the act done, then it
cannot be considered to be an element as vitiating the consent.
Facts: As husband B infected her with a venereal disease during sexual
intercourse. B hid the fact that he had the venereal disease.
(a) B is liable as he obtained consent for intercourse fraudulently.
(b) B is not liable as the wife was fully aware of the nature of act.
(c) B is liable as he threatened his wifes life.
142. Principle: When one person (principal)authorises another (agent) to commit a
tort the liability of that will not only be of that person who has committed it but
also of the person who has authorised it.
Facts: B is employee of State Bank of India. A is Bs friend. While attending a get
together A gave B some money to deposit in As bank account in the State Bank
of India. B bought himself a car with that money and fled.
(a) Bank is liable as B is its agent.
(b) Bank is liable as A is Bs friend and B is banks employee.
(c) Bank not liable as B did not accept money in capacity of banks agent.
(d) Bank is not liable as B was not in bank premises when he accepted the
money.
143. Principle: As a general rule the master is liable for the torts committed by his
servant, but an employer is not liable for torts committed by an independent
contractor employed by him. But there are certain exceptions to this rule. If an
employer authorises the doing of an illegal act, or subsequently ratifies the same
he can be made liable for the same;also in case of strict liability and breach of
statutory duty, the employer is also liable.
Facts: In a temple, the chief trustee called upon an electric contractor to illegally
divert the electric supply given for agricultural purpose, to the temple for one
month, for providing facility of lighting and mike in the temple. The job was
executed in a palpably obvious hazardous manner, and without informing the
electricity board. After about a fortnight, the service line was snapped and the
agriculturist working on the fields got injured.
(a) Trustee is not liable as he got the work done by independent contractor.
(b) Trustee is liable as the job authorised by him was illegal.
(c) Trustee is liable because this is a case of strict liability.
(d) None of these.
144. Principle: In an action for negligence, the plaintiff has to prove some essential
ingredients. The defendant should owe a duty of care to the plaintiff, the
defendant should breach that duty and there should be some damage to the
plaintiff as a consequence of the breach.
Facts: A and B go to a restaurant. After a few drinks, A and B got into an
argument. A said, Go to hell.A left to use the rest room, and while he was gone,
B noticed that another patron, C, left a lit cigarette on As stool. When A came
back from the rest room, B thought about warning A, but B decided against it. A
sat on the lit cigarette and received painful burns. A sued B for negligence.
(a) A cannot recover because he cannot establish that B had a duty to act, and
duty is a necessary element of a negligence case.
(b) A cannot recover because he cannot establish that Bs failure to warn A of the
cigarette butt is a cause of As injury, and actual causation is a necessary
element of a negligence case.
(c) A cannot recover because he cannot establish damages flowing from having
sat on the cigarette, since merely painful injuries are not sufficient to
establish damages in a negligence case.
(d) None of these.
145. Principle: A mere non-disclosure of truth or mere silence as to certain facts does
not amount to fraud.
Facts: Ram, who was a candidate for the LLB exam, was short of required
attendance. He did not mention this fact in examination form filled by him. To be
on the safer side he bribed a clerk to get his attendance increased. The clerk
accepted the bribe but did nothing. Later due to negligence on part of college the
examination forms were not checked properly and Ram was allowed to give
exam.
(a) Ram has committed fraud as he bribed the clerk.
(b) Rams intention was to mislead college authorities and thus is guilty of fraud.
(c) Ram is not guilty of fraud.
146. Principle: For there to be a case of misstatement the defendant must make the
representation with an intention that the plaintiff should rely and act upon that
representation.
Facts: Fraudlal tried to sell a gun to A saying that the gun was manufactured by
Lockheed Martin and could shoot down satellites. A was quite impressed and
said that he had heard the same. B overheard this conversation. B went and
bought the same product from another store at a lower price. When B tried to
shoot the gun it back fired and injured his eyes. B sued Fraudlal.
(a) Fraudlal is liable as he made false claims which could have harmed anyone.
(b) Fraudlals statement was not meant for B so he is not liable.
(c) Fraudlal is liable because he and A conspired to sell the gun to B and staged
the conversation.
None of these.
147. Principle: Nuisance as a tort means an unlawful interference with a persons use
or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection, with it. Interference
may be by the way of noise, heat, smoke, etc. Otherwise lawful activity can
become nuisance just because of malicious intention of defendant. Nuisance is
generally a continuing harm, i.e. a constant noise or smoke causing discomfort.
Facts: A, a music teacher,was Bs neighbour. A used to constantly play drums
which annoyed B. To make A pay, B started hammering his wall and played loud
music whenever A took music lessons. In a totally unrelated incident once while
playing cricket in his garden A hit a ball which landed on Bs head while he was
reading newspaper in his garden.
(a) A is liable for nuisance.
(b) B is liable for nuisance.
(c) A and B both are liable for nuisance.
(d) Both A and B are not liable.
148. Principle: When plaintiff on his own want of care contributes to damage caused
by the negligence of the defendant, he is considered guilty of contributory
negligence. The plaintiff should take reasonable steps for his safety.
Facts: When Sushma was travelling by bus she rested her arm on the window
sill. A truck coming from the opposite side drove dangerously close to the bus
and injured Sushmas arm.
(a) Sushma is guilty of contributory negligence as she was resting her elbow on
the sill instead of sitting properly.
(b) Truck driver is guilty as he was negligent.
(c) Truck driver is the only one guilty as Sushma took reasonable care.
(d) None of above.
149. Principle: Animals like horses, camels, cows, dogs, etc. are considered
harmless by nature and the person keeping them is not liable for damage done
by them unless it can be proved that the particular animal is vicious by nature and
person owning him has knowledge of the same.
Facts: A was training his dog to fetch a ball, in a parking lot. B entered the
parking lot and proceeded towards his car. B was carrying a bag of meat with
him. When the dog sensed the smell of meat he ran towards B and started
circling him playfully while eyeing the package. B feared dogs. Acts of the dog
freighted B and he threw his package at the dog and fled the spot. B sued A for
loss of his package.
(a) A is liable as he knew that meat would attract dog but did not restrain his dog.
(b) A is not liable as B caused his loss due to his own fear.
(c) A is not liable because dog did acts apt to its nature and caused no direct
harm.
150. Principle: If the consequence of a wrongful act can be foreseen by a reasonable
person, they are not too remote. If, on other hand, a reasonable man would not
have foreseen the consequences then they are remote. The liability of the
defendant is only for those consequences which he could have foreseen.
Facts: A, an employee of BSNL, opened a manhole to do routine repair of
telephone line. While the manhole was open a tent was laid on top of it and
paraffin lamps were put around to warn pedestrians of the danger. A child playing
nearby entered the dark tent carrying a lamp. The lamp fell in the hole which
caused a large explosion when the lamp fell on a leaking LPG pipeline in the
hole. Due to the explosion the child fell in the manhole and sustained severe
burns. The explosion also caused damage to a shop adjacent to manhole.
(a) A is liable for injury caused to child as it was foreseeable that a child could
wander into the dark tent and thus carry a lamp with him which could cause
fire.
(b) A was responsible for the explosion and the injury caused to the child and
damage to the shop as the explosion was predictable.
(c) A was not liable as the event could not be foreseen by a reasonable man.
(d) A was liable because he was negligent.
151. Principle: Defamation is injury to the reputation of a person. For defamation to
be there a defamatory statement must be made by the defendant. The statement
must refer to the plaintiff and the statement must be published i.e. must be in
public domain.
Facts: A railway guard was checking tickets in a railway compartment. While
checking As ticket, the railway guard became suspicious and said, I think you
are travelling with false ticket. This was said in presence of all passengers. Later
it was found that the ticket was in order. A sued railway company for defamation.
(a) Company is not liable as guard acted in a bona fide manner while performing
his duty and according to circumstances of the case, actions taken by guard
were not defamatory.
(b) Company is not liable as guard acted on his own accord.
(c) Company is liable as the given statement injured As reputation.
(d) Company is liable because the statement was defamatory, it referred to the
plaintiff and was published.
152. Principle: Ignorance of law is not an excuse.

Facts: A person buys two houses facing each other in a residential colony which
has total four entries. For his convenience he constructs parking space in
between his houses on the road which blocks one entry of the colony and parks
his vehicle. In a foggy night a person gets injured because of low visibility while
entering from that entry. Injured person files a case against the parking owner.
Determine whether the parking owner is guilty or not?
(a) He is not guilty because he owns two houses in the colony.
(b) He is not guilty because he does not know about any violating law.
(c) He is guilty for blocking easement of others.
153. Principle: The criminal intent in order to be punishable must become manifest in
some voluntary act or omission.
Facts: Suresh and Mahesh are brothers and they had an oral fight after which
Mahesh threatened to commit suicide and jumped from a tall building and died. Is
Suresh guilty?
(a) Guilty of abetment.
(b) Not guilty.
(c) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
154. Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of
common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same
manner as if it were done by him alone. The reason why all are deemed guilty in
such cases is that the presence of accomplices gives encouragement, support
and protection to the person actually committing an act.
Facts: Four persons entered a bank with a common intention of robbery out of
which one was made to guard the entrance door from outside. One of them killed
the cashier and they left the bank from emergency door. The person who was
guarding the door was caught. Determine the correct option in light of the
principle given above.
(a) Only the person who fired the gun is guilty of murder.
(b) The person guarding the door is not guilty of murder.
(c) All of them are guilty of murder.
(d) None of them are guilty of murder.
155. Principle: Any person intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts: Raman sees a diamond ring lying on a table at Abhisheks house. Raman
with the intention of misappropriating the ring at a later point of time hides it
behind a painting in Abhisheks house where it is highly improbable to be
searched by anyone.
(a) Raman has not committed theft because he has not removed it from
Abhisheks house yet.
(b) Raman has not committed theft because he has not derived any profit from
the ring.
(c) Raman has committed theft because he moved the ring with dishonest
intention.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
156. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of
private defence as defined under the Indian Penal Code, 1860. Right to private
defence is not available in case the party claiming the right had time to recourse
to proper authorities.
Facts: Raman threatened Siddharth to vacate his farmland in a week. The next
day Raman comes along with some other men and tries to take the land by force.
A fighting ensues in which Siddharth intentionally shoots Raman and kills him.
(a) Siddharth is not guilty of murder because of his right of private defence.
(b) Siddharth is guilty of murder.
(c) Siddharth is guilty of culpable homicide.
157. Principle: Marrying again during lifetime of husband or wife is bigamy and is
punishable under Indian law.
Facts: Nitin was the captain of a merchant ship which went missing along with its
crew in 1991. His wife Shilpa remarried in 2000 to Arunesh.
(a) Shilpa is not guilty because she reasonably believed her husband to be dead.
(b) Shilpas second marriage would be void ab initio.
(c) Shilpa is guilty of bigamy because she did not attain divorce from her first
marriage.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
158. Principle: The object of criminal law is to punish only serious infractions of the
rules of society, it follows that criminal law cannot punish a man for his mistake or
misfortune as long as he reasonably believes that his act poses no threat of
injury. An injury is said to be caused accidentally when it is neither wilfully nor
negligently caused.
Facts: A was disposing heavy waste material from his rooftop on the adjacent
empty plot. Z passing from that plot got hit by the heavy material and died.
(a) A is guilty of culpable homicide.
(b) A is not guilty because it was an accident.
(c) A is guilty because he did not exercise due care and caution.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
159. Principle: Involuntary intoxication is a defence under the Indian Penal Code,
1860.
Facts: Vinayak, on returning home from a party, under drunken state
administered sleeping pills to his child thinking it to be childs medicine because
he could not differentiate between the two due to near identical packing, which
resulted in death of the child.
(a) Vinayak is guilty of murder.
(b) Vinayak is guilty of culpable homicide.
(c) Vinayak is not guilty because he was intoxicated.
(d) Vinayak is not guilty due to absence of mens rea.
160. Principle: Defamation is an offence where a person, by words either spoken or
intended to be read or by signs, makes or publishes any false statement about
someone with an intention to tarnish his image in public but any accusation
preferred in good faith for public good is an exception to defamation.
Facts: A, on being asked for a bribe by a clerk in District Magistrate office, got a
letter published in the newspaper accusing the District Magistrate of being
involved in corrupt practices.
(a) A is guilty because the reputation of District Magistrate is a matter of public
good.
(b) A is not guilty because mistake of fact is an excuse.
(c) A is guilty because the accusation was not made to an authorised person.
(d) A is not guilty because the accusation was made with bona fide intentions.
SECTION V: LOGICAL REASONING
161. Looking at the photograph of a girl a man said, She is the only daughter of the
mother-in-law of my wifes son. How is the man related to the girl in the
photograph?
(a) uncle (b) father
(c) father-in-law (d) none of these
162. A man is facing the south-east direction. He goes straight and takes a 135
degree turn in the anticlockwise direction followed by a 90 degree turn in the
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) East (b) West
(c) South (d) none of these
163. Find the next term of the series 1, 3, 9, 19?
(a) 29 (b) 31
(c) 32 (d) 33
Directions for questions 164166: The students of a college had to be administered

assessments in a particular week. The assessments will be in five areas, namely,
verbal, quant, reasoning, GD and interview and would be conducted one on each day
from Monday to Friday subject to the following conditions:
1. Reasoning cannot be the first assessment to be conducted.
2. There should be a gap of exactly two days between the GD and interview
assessments.
3. The verbal assessment will be conducted on Thursday.
164. Which assessment will be scheduled on Monday?
(a) quant (b) GD
(c) interview (d) cannot be determined
165. If the interview is to be scheduled before the verbal assessment, which area will
be assessed on the last day?
(a) reasoning
(b) quant
(c) GD
(d) cannot be determined
166. In how many different ways can the assessments be conducted?
(a) one (b) two
(c) three (d) more than three
Directions for questions 167169: In a particular language, the words are coded using
different digits but in no particular order as mentioned below:
MORE: 6789
REST : 5296
TIME : 7621
167. What is the code for I in this language?
(a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 2 (d) 1
168. Which among the following can be the code for RIME?
(a) 9716 (b) 6759
(c) 2179 (d) 9765
169. Which alphabet is represented by 5?
(a) T (b) S
(c) R (d) E
170. A is the father of Bs sister and the brother of E. D, son-in-law of C, is the
husband of E. How is Bs mother related to C?
(a) daughter (b) sister
(c) daughter-in-law (d) cousin
171. A man goes straight for 18 m, takes a right turn to walk a further distance of 24 m
and stops. How far is the man from the starting point?
(a) 30 m (b) 42 m
(c) 6 m (d) none of these
172. Find the wrong term in the following series. 5, 11, 21, 43, 87?
(a) 21 (b) 43
(c) 87 (d) 11
173. In a school there are 20 boys and 15 girls. Each boy will play one game with
every other boy and each girl will play one game with every other girl. Find the
total number of matches to be played?
(a) 190 (b) 590
(c) 105 (d) 295
174. If MOTHER is coded as SOHSMZ in a certain language, how will SISTER be
coded in the same language?
(a) SUHMYZ (b) SUHMYY
(c) SVHMYZ (d) SVHMYY
175. A cube of side 6 cm is cut into small cubes of side 1.5 cm each. Find the number
of small cubes?
(a) 27 (b) 25
(c) 16 (d) 64
Directions (176180): Read the following statements and identify if the given
assumptions are implicit. Mark your answer as:
(a) I is implicit
(b) II is implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit
(d) Neither is implicit
176. An advertisement, David Guetta Live in Delhi. Tickets at Rs 3000 onwards.
I. People enjoy reading David Guetta.
II. People do not care who is David Guetta.
177. As in the case of the December 2012 incident, the latest instance of rape reveals
an appalling lack of visible policing in large parts of Delhi, a city of vast distances
and many lonely stretches.
I. Visible policing would help control or reduce such incidents.
II. Long and lonely stretches of roads are the only reasons why such incidents
happen.
178. In the meeting between the PM and the various CMs, a point on which
consensus appeared to have emerged is that power and planning should be
decentralised and States should be empowered to plan, design and manage
schemes based on what fits them best.
I. States have the desire to manage such schemes.
II. PM is ready to relinquish power from the Centre to the States in areas of
planning.
179. There is, however, not much clarity on the traditional role of the Planning
Commission, including its job of sitting in on expenditure committee meetings.
I. The Planning Commission is being given a new role.
II. The Planning Commission is losing its relevance as the governments
think-tank.
180. Seeking permission to contest in the BCCI election, N. Srinivasan has given an
undertaking in the Supreme Court to keep out of IPL matters if elected as BCCI
president till he gets clean chit from the high power panel.
I. The Supreme Court does not want Srinivasan to be involved in BCCI matters.
II. Srinivasan has committed a crime.
Directions (181185): Read the following passages and answer the questions that
follow:
181. Tiny Tots, a chain of toy stores, has relied on a supermarket concept of
computerised inventory control and customer self-service to eliminate the
category of salesmen from its force of employees. It now plans to employ the
same concept in selling childrens clothes.
The plan of Tiny Tots assumes:
(a) Supermarkets will not also be selling childrens clothes in the same manner.
(b) Personal service by sales personnel is not required for selling childrens
clothes successfully.
(c) The same kind of computers will be used in inventory control for both clothes
and toys at Tiny Tots.
(d) A self-service plan cannot be employed without computerised inventory
control
182. Continuous indoor fluorescent light benefits the health of hamsters with inherited
heart disease. A group of them exposed to continuous fluorescent light survived
25 per cent longer than a similar group exposed instead to equal periods of
indoor fluorescent light and of darkness.
The method of the research described above is most likely to be applicable in
addressing which of the following questions?
(a) Can industrial workers who need to see their work do so better by sunlight or
by fluorescent light?
(b) Can hospital lighting be improved to promote the recovery of patients?
(c) How do deep-sea fish survive in total darkness?
(d) What are the inherited illnesses to which hamsters are subject?
183. Millions of identical copies of a plant can be produced using new tissue-culture
and cloning techniques.
If plant propagation by such methods in laboratories proves economical, each
of the following, if true, represents a benefit of the new techniques to farmers
except:
(a) The techniques allow the development of superior strains to take place more
rapidly, requiring fewer generations of plants grown to maturity.
(b) It is less difficult to care for plants that will grow at rates that do not vary
widely.
(c) Plant diseases and pests, once they take hold, spread more rapidly among
genetically uniform plants than among those with genetic variations.
(d) Mechanical harvesting of crops is less difficult if plants are more uniform in
size.
184. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
Sales campaigns aimed at the faltering personal computer market have
strongly emphasised ease of use, called user-friendliness. This emphasis is oddly
premature and irrelevant in the eyes of most potential buyers, who are trying to
address the logically prior issue of whether______ .
(a) user-friendliness also implies that owners can service their own computers.
(b) personal computers cost more the more user-friendly they are.
(c) currently available models are user-friendly enough to suit them.
(d) they have enough sensible uses for a personal computer to justify the
expense of buying one.
185. A weapons-smuggling incident recently took place in country Y. We all know that
Y is a closed society. So Ys government must have known about the weapons.
Which of the following is an assumption that would make the conclusion above
logically correct?
(a) If a government knows about a particular weapons-smuggling incident, it must
have intended to use the weapons for its own purposes.
(b) If a government claims that it knew nothing about a particular
weapons-smuggling incident, it must have known everything about it.
(c) If a government does not permit weapons to enter a country, it is a closed
society.
(d) If a country is a closed society, its government has knowledge about
everything that occurs in the country.
Directions (186190): Read the following statements and following arguments and if
they are strong or weak arguments, mark your answer as:
(a) I is strong
(b) II is strong
(c) Both I and II are strong
(d) Neither is strong
186. Should Gita be made Indias Rashtriya Granth?
I. Yes, the richness and the contemporary value of the Gita will do a lot for
increasing its popularity.
II. No, it would also needlessly ruffle the feathers of Hinduisms closer cousins
like Sikhism which already have a principal granth.
187. Should same sex marriages be allowed in India?
I. Yes. Everyone wants it to be allowed.
II. No. Not many countries allow it.
188. Should organisations using child labour be banned?
I. Yes. Children do not know what is right for them.
II. No. The UNICEF only gives a warning to such organisations and so why
should we?
189. Should online taxi companies be banned?
I. Yes. They are fly-by-night operators and cannot be relied upon for service or
passenger safety.
II. No. They make travel fun.
190. Should pregnant women be stopped from working?
I. Yes. Pregnant women are ill and so need to rest.
II. No. Pregnancy is not a disease and pregnant women are allowed to work.
Directions (191195): In each of the questions given below, there are two statements
labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided
below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
191. Assertion: The exosphere cannot support life.
Reason: There is no air and the atoms escape into space.
192. Assertion: Earthquakes frequently occur around the pacific rim or the Ring of
Fire (as it is called).
Reason: This is a direct result of plate tectonics and the movement and collisions
of lithospheric plates.
193. Assertion: A large cube made from 9 small red cubes when dropped into a pot
of yellow paint will have 8 small cubes with yellow paint on their faces.
Reason: All the outer surfaces of the small cubes will get immersed in the yellow
paint with only the innermost cube being left untouched.
194. Assertion: Atlantis is the name of a fictional island mentioned within an allegory
on the hubris of nations in Platos works Timaeus and Critias.
Reason: Platos dialogues Timaeus and Critias, written in 360 BC, contain the
earliest references to Atlantis.
195. Assertion: The adult eels make the 6,000 km (3,700 mi) open ocean journey
back to their spawning grounds north of the Antilles, Haiti, and Puerto Rico.
Reason: These migrating eels are typically called Silver Eels or Big Eyes.
Directions (196200): Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and
II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of
independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect
of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the following
answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
(a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(c) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(d) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
196. I. The UP State Government has announced the creation of a lion safari in the
State.
II. The MP State Government has bought 500 new ambulances for the State
health services.
197. I. There are frequent traffic jams in one area of the city for the last two weeks.
II. Many celebrities have been frequenting the city for the last two weeks.
198. I. Modi tweeted a welcome message in Russian today.
II. Putin arrives in India for a two day visit.
199. I. The government has announced a five per cent increase in national income
yesterday.
II. The stock market is rising for last one day.
200. I. DM has announced changed school timings to be 9 a.m. to 2 p.m. applicable
from tomorrow.
II. The temperature in the city has fallen to almost five degrees.
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

1. (b) 2. (c)
3. (d) 4. (c)
5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (b)
9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b)
15. (d) 16. (c)
17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b)
23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (b)
27. (d) 28. (a)
29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b)
33. (b) 34. (d)
35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (b) 38. (b)
39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (d)
45. (a) 46. (d)
47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a)
53. (c) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (c)
57. (a) 58. (a)
59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d)
63. (b) 64. (c)
65. (c) 66. (a)
67. (a) 68. (c)
69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (d)
73. (d) 74. (c)
75. (d) 76. (b)
77. (d) 78. (d)
79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (a)
83. (d) 84. (b)
85. (c) 86. (a)
87. (d) 88. (b)
89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (d)
93. (a) 94. (c)
95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (d) 98. (b)
99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (c)
103. (c) 104. (b)
105. (b) 106. (c)
107. (d) 108. (a)
109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (c) 112. (c)
113. (c) 114. (c)
115. (b) 116. (c)
117. (a) 118. (b)
119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (c)
123. (a) 124. (b)
125. (a) 126. (c)
127. (d) 128. (a)
129. (b) 130. (a)
131. (b) 132. (a)
133. (b) 134. (c)
135. (b) 136. (c)
137. (c) 138. (a)
139. (b) 140. (d)
141. (b) 142. (c)
143. (c) 144. (a)
145. (c) 146. (b)
147. (b) 148. (c)
149. (c) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (c)
153. (b) 154. (c)
155. (c) 156. (b)
157. (a) 158. (d)
159. (b) 160. (d)
161. (c) 162. (a)
163. (d) 164. (a)
165. (c) 166. (b)
167. (d) 168. (a)
169. (b) 170. (c)
171. (a) 172. (c)
173. (d) 174. (c)
175. (d) 176. (d)
177. (a) 178. (c)
179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (b)
183. (c) 184. (d)
185. (d) 186. (b)
187. (d) 188. (d)
189. (a) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (a)
193. (a) 194. (b)
195. (b) 196. (c)
197. (d) 198. (b)
199. (a) 200. (b)
SECTION I: ENGLISH
1. (b) Subject-verb agreement is tested here. Email and chat services are plural
and so will take the verb are and not is, was. Was becoming is incorrect
as the tense need not be continuous.
2. (c) Pronoun antecedent is being tested here. Since subject is NSA so the correct
pronoun would be it and not they or these or there.
3. (d) The given statement is correct so does not require corrections.
4. (c) This question checks the usage of articles; an encrypted mail and the
report are the correct articles to be used here.
5. (c) Parallelism is being tested here. We either use only one preposition with a list
or use prepositions with each item in the list.
6. (a) Two concepts are tested here: 1) The use of that vs. which: we know that is
used only in restrictive clauses and this clause is non-restrictive so which was
correct. 2) Prepositions: competes takes with after it and not by.
7. (b) Concept being tested here is verb-tenses. All the verbs needed to be in the
same tense. So has and focuses are correct.
8. (b) The concept being tested here was dangling modifiers. The phrase In an
August 2013 blog post needed a subject and the appropriate subject was
Zohos founder Sridhar Vembu.
9. (c) Concept being tested here is conjunctions. The correct conjunction to be used
here is the subordinating conjunction while and not the contrasting
conjunctions despite, but or however.
10. (d) Given statement is correct.
11. (d) to
12. (b) to
13. (a) by
14. (b) by
15. (d) to
16. (c) arm in arm
17. (a) bite the bullet
18. (b) make the break
19. (c) in short order
20. (b) keep the peace
21. (a) ars gratia artisart for the sake of art
22. (b) carpe noctemsieze the night
23. (d) cui bono
24. (d) Victoria Concordia CrescitVictory grows through harmony
25. (c) Citius - Altius - Fortius
26. (b) assiduous
27. (d) deleterious
28. (a) effrontery
29. (d) fallacious
30. (c) ignominious
31. (c) 1st para, 6th line
32. (b) 2nd para, 6th line
33. (b) 3rd para, 7th line
34. (d) 7 locals of the village and Harkishan Singh
35. (d) 5th para
36. (a) 7th para
37. (b) 7th para
38. (b) 20,000 out of 60,000
39. (b)
40. (c) 5th para
SECTION III: NUMERICAL ABILITY
91. (c) In this problem, the volume of the sphere is equal to the volume of the
cylinder.
Volume of the sphere = (4/3) r3
Volume of the cylinder = r2h
Therefore, (4/3)r3 = r2h
(4/3) x 4 x 4 x 4 = 1 x 1 x h
Therefore, h = 256/3 cm.
92. (d) For them to meet again after the start, the faster person must have covered
one complete round more than the slower one.
One complete round would be 4 x side of the square = 4 x 10 = 40 m
Their relative speed = 25 m/sec 5 m/sec = 20 m/sec
Time taken for them to meet again after the start = 40/20 = 2 sec.
93. (a) 20 litres 50 litres
4:1 2:3
Fraction 4/5 2/5
x
Let x be the resultant fraction of milk in the mixture. Therefore,
20/50 = (2/5 x) / (x-4/5)
2x-8/5 = 2-5x
7x = 2+8/5
7x = 18/5
x = 18/35
Therefore, ratio of milk to water
= 18:17.
94. (c) We know that when the CP and SP are both increased or both decreased by
the same %, there is no change in the % profit or loss. However, the absolute
value of profit or loss increases or decreases by the same % by which both
the CP and the SP have been increased or decreased.
Since [(3930)/30] x 100 = 30%
Therefore, the CP and the SP must have been both increased by 30%.
95. (b) We can use the formula here
n(AUBUC) = n(A)+n(B)+n(C)
n(AB)n(AC)n(BC)+
n(ABC)
150 = 60+60+59151012+x
where x represents the number of students who study all the three subjects.
150 = 17937+x
150 = 142+x
x=8.
96. (a) _____ 3 ways _____ x _____ x _____ x _____ 4 ways _____
The units place can be filled with either 1, 3, 5 or 7, i.e. 4 ways.
After doing this, the thousands place can be filled in 3 ways (since we have
already used one digit out of the 4 odd digits available).
We had a total of 8 digits (0 to 7). We have used 2 digits.
The hundreds place can be filled in 6 ways and the tens place in 5 ways.
Total number of ways = 3 x 6 x 5 x 4 = 18 x 20 = 360 ways.
97. (d) Let the vowels EIE be a group.
So, we have a group and 3 other alphabets D, C and D. These 4 things can
be arranged in 4! / 2! ways (since the Ds are identical)
Also, the vowels can be arranged within the group in 3! / 2! ways
(since the 2 Es are identical)
Total number of ways
= 4! x 3! / 2! X 2!
= 24 x 6 / 2 x 2
= 36 ways.
98. (b) As per the question, 15 men x 15 days = 30 objects------------(1)
45 men x y days = 180 objects-----------(2)
Dividing (2) by (1) we have
45 x y / 15 x 15 = 180/30
45 x y = 15 x 15 x 6
y = 30 days.
99. (a) Let A and B do the work in x days.
Therefore, A alone can do it in (x+9) days while B alone can do it in (x+25)
days.
Let the total work be (x+9) (x+25)
Efficiency of A = x+25
Efficiency of B = x+9
As per the problem, (x+25+x+9) x = (x+25)(x+9)
2x2 + 34x = x2+34 x + 225
x2=225
x=15 days.
Alternate method: If A takes x days more than A and B together to do a job
while B takes y days more than A and B together to do the job, then the
number of days for A and B to do the job together = xy.
In this case, required value = 9x15 = 225 = 15 days.
100. (d) Let the 2 digit number be 10x+y and so the number obtained by interchanging
the digits of the number will be 10y+x.
As per the problem, 10x+y+10y+x = 44M where M is any integer.
i.e. the value of 44M can be 44 or 88 or 132 or 176.
The left hand side = 11(x+y) i.e. x+y can be either be 4 or 8 or 12 or 16.
4 such values are possible.
101. (a) Buses to both the destinations will together arrive after a time which is equal
to the LCM of 6 minutes and 8 minutes, i.e. 24 minutes.
If both the buses arrived together at 1:12 p.m., they will again arrive after 24
minutes, i.e. at 1:36 p.m.
102. (c)
103. (c) 9.09% is the equivalent of 1/11.
Therefore, 9.09% of 770 = 1/11 of 770 = 70.
This represents 50% of the number N.
Therefore, the number N will be 140.
When 140 is divided by 3, the remainder obtained is 2.
104. (b) Let the initial price be 100 and so the reduced price will be 85.
If price changes from 100 to 85 and expenditure is constant, quantity
purchased will change from 85 to 100, i.e. an increase of 15 which is the data
given in the problem.
Therefore, the number of bananas that can be purchased after the price is
reduced = 100.
105. (b) A 75 m
B 60 m
B 60 m
C 50 m
Since B is equal, we can compare A and C
In a 75 m race, A can beat C by 25 m and therefore in a 300 m race A can
beat C by 100 m.
106. (c) Time taken for the train to cross the man = 150/5 = 30 m/sec
Speed of the train = 72 kmph = 72 x 5/18 = 20 m/sec
Therefore, speed of the man = 3020 = 10 m/sec
Speed in kmph = 10 m/sec x 18/5 = 36 kmph.
So, the difference in speeds in kmph will be (7236) = 36 kmph.
107. (d) Let the strength of the class be 100.
Number of girls = 40
Number of boys = 60
Total number of students who qualified = 30% of 100 = 30.
Number of girls who qualified = 50% of 40 = 20.
Number of boys who qualified = 10.
% of boys who qualified = (10/60) x 100 = 100/6 = 16.66%.
108. (a) The ratio of the age of the father and daughter = 8:3.
If the fathers present age is 40, the daughters present age = 15.
Ratio of the age of the daughter and mother = 5:11
If the daughters present age is 15, the mothers present age is 33.
Mothers age 2 years ago = 332 = 31 years.
109. (d) 72 litres of the solution contains milk and water in the ratio 5:3.
Quantity of milk = 5/8 x 72 = 45 litres.
Quantity of water = 3/8 x 72 = 27 litres.
Let x litres of water be added. Therefore,
45 / (27 + x) = 3/5
225 = 81+3x
3x = 144
x= 48 litres.
110. (b) Average score of the group of 6 students is 30 which means the total marks is
180.
Let the marks of the 2 students be y.
Therefore, (180y) / 4 = 37.5
180y = 150
y = 180150 = 30 marks.
Average marks of the 2 students = 30/2 = 15 marks.
SECTION IV: LEGAL APTITUDE
111. (c) Knowledge of the risk does not mean that there was consent for the risk as
well.
112. (c) Direct application of both the principles.
113. (c) The basic duty of care has been fulfilled by the employer.
114. (c) Self-explanatory.
115. (b) I hope none of you simply applied no continuing threat idea because the
principle simply talks of reasonable force and does not refer to continuing
threat. Irrespective of course, this is unreasonable force.
116. (c) Not being produced before the Magistrate is a legal injury.
117. (a) Self-explanatoryCompensation, however, would be paid by the employer.
118. (b) Self-explanatory.
119. (d) There is no physical encroachment on the property.
120. (d) Self-explanatory.
121. (c) The tribunal would only be a court of the first instance.
123. (a) Self-explanatory.
124. (b) The defence is not covered in the principle and in any case humiliation in a
chess game is not grave and sudden provocation.
125. (a) The doctor obviously had a higher duty of care to ensure that he knew of the
needle.
127. (d) Not even remotely foreseeable!
128. (a) There was no proper care and caution.
129. (b) The damage was not foreseeable.
130. (a) Self-explanatory.
132. (a) The trees are immovable only after they are cut down and not before.
133. (b) Being jealous of toys implies a certain degree of immaturity.
136. (c) Derived from volenti non fit injuria.
137. (c) For act of god defence to be used the natural event must be such that it
cannot be anticipated. Mild rainfall is an event which occurs now and then.
138. (a) According to the principle the hazardous substance must escape the
premises. Although other principles of tort, if applied, will give a different
answer but according to the principle the answer is (a).
139. (b) Carpenter do not have authority of law.
140. (d) Right to follow a religion is a fundamental right but to enforce its views on
other people is not a legal right.
141. (b) It was natural for husband and wife to have intercourse. There was implied
consent for the very nature of the act but the consequences were not known
to the wife.
142. (c) B was not acting as banks agent while accepting money.
144. (a) B was not legally duty bound to warn A.
145. (c) Ram was silent, he did not pass on any false information.
148. (c) Keeping arm on window sill is an act which can be considered natural and is
reasonable.
149. (c) It was natural for dog to be attracted to meat. Further he did not make any
attempt to take the meat away from B.
150. (a) It was foreseeable that a child could wander into the hole and get injured. But
the explosion was not foreseeable.
151. (a) The statement was made in course of doing ones duty and in a bona fide
way.
152. (c) Self-explanatory, based on the maxim ignorantia juris non excusat.
153. (b) Self-explanatory, actus reus is an essential element of crime.
157. (a) A person can be presumed dead if he has been untraceable for seven years
or more.
158. (d) Voluntary drunkenness is no excuse under Section 85 IPC.
160. (d) Self-explanatory.
SECTION V: LOGICAL REASONING
161. (c) Mother-in-law of the son of the mans wife will be the mother of the mans
sons wife and so the man will be the ladys father-in-law.
162. (a) The net effect of a 135 degree turn anticlockwise and a 90 degree turn
clockwise will be a 45 degree turn anticlockwise and so the final direction will
be East.
163. (d) The differences are 2, 6, 10 and so on. Therefore, the next difference must be
14 and so the required term = 19+14 = 33.
General explanation for questions 164166
_____ x _____ x _____ x Verbal x _____

1. Also, there must be a gap of 2 days between the GD and interview assessment.
Therefore, neither GD nor the interview assessment can be on Monday.
So, one out of GD or interview assessment will be on Tuesday and the other one
will be on Friday.
2. Reasoning cannot be scheduled on Monday and so reasoning will get scheduled
on Wednesday and quant will get scheduled on Monday.
Quant x GD/Interview x Reasoning x Verbal x GD/Interview.
164. (a)
165. (c)
166. (b)
General explanation for questions 167169
We first compare MORE, REST and their codes.

R and E will be 6 and 9 in no particular order.
Comparing with TIME, E will be 6 and R will be 9.
Comparing MORE and TIME, M will be 7 and so O will be 8.
T will be 2 and S will be 5.
I will be 1.
167. (d)
168. (a)
169. (b)
170. (c)
171. (a) Required value = 182+242
= 324+576 = 900 = 30.
172. (c) The series is (multiplied by 2) +1, (multiplied by 2) 1 and so on.
Therefore, 43 x 21 = 861 = 85.
173. (d) 20C2 + 15C2 = 295.
174. (c) The basis of coding is one from the back and one from the front alternately
with an increment of one.
175. (d) n = 6 cm / 1.5 cm = 4
Number of small cubes = 4 x 4 x 4 = 64.
176. (d) Neither is implicit. The Ad mentions a David Guetta live in Delhi. From
nowhere can it be assumed that he is a writer. II again cannot be assumed.
177. (a) Only I can be assumed. If criminals knew that cops were about, they would be
less inclined to commit such crimes; also policing would ensure that nobody
could stop on such roads for extended periods of time without a cop stopping
over. II cannot be assumed to be the only reason behind rapes and other
such violent crimes.
178. (c) Both I and II are implicit. Since a consensus has emerged, so it means that
both I and II are implicit.
179. (d) Neither can be assumed from the given statement.
180. (a) Only I can be assumed from the given statement as if the Supreme Court
wanted Srinivasan to be involved in BCCI matters, he would not have to give
the undertaking that he has given. II cannot be assumed.
181. (b) In selling toys, there is no real need for salesmen but when selling clothes,
generally people expect to get personal services and this is what the Tiny
Tots store assumes not to be true. So they take the idea that no personal
selling is required for clothes and base the new concept on it.
182. (b) Here the idea is to take each and work backwards from there. Frame each
option into a question and see if the argument would be helpful in answering
that question and this is how you can arrive at an answer.
183. (c) Look for the one that is not a benefit. So (c) is the only one which says that
there will be a problem with the cloned varieties due to genetic similarities.
184. (d) Here we are looking at the first step of the buying process and that needs
identification. Once a person has determined if they need a personal
computer, then and only then will they worry about the user friendliness or
other features of the PC. So (d) has to be the correct answer.
185. (d) As assumption is one which if not true would make the argument incorrect. If
(d) is negated then the argument would become false and so it is the correct
answer.
186. (b) Only II is a strong argument. (a) mentions increasing the popularity but the
question is not looking at increasing the popularity of the Gita. (b) is a strong
argument because it gives us a reason why making Gita Indias principal
granth would not be a good idea.
187. (d) Neither is strong. I is weak as it is ambiguous. II is irrelevant, so it is weak.
188. (d) Neither is strong. I is not strong as it does not answer the question whether
such organisation should be banned or not. II is not strong as it asks a
question and does not give a reason.
189. (a) I is a strong argument as it gives a strong reason of safety and service for
banning these taxi services. II is an irrelevant argument as it has no impact on
the issue at hand.
190. (b) I is weak as it is factually incorrect. II answers the question being asked and
so it is a strong argument.
191. (c) A is true but R is false. Refer Google.
192. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Refer Google.
193. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Refer Google.
194. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Refer
Wikipedia.
195. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Refer
Wikipedia.
196. (c) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. Both States
must be doing these for their own purposes so they have to be effects of
independent causes.
197. (d) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. It is
possible that a festival has been going on in an area of the city and that is
why there are jams in that area and also why so many celebrities are
frequenting the city. The connect between the two is the two week period
otherwise these could have been effects of independent causes also.
198. (b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. Putin arrived in India
and that is why Modi tweeted a welcome message in Russian. So II is cause
and I is effect.
199. (a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
200. (b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. Ask why with I and
you will get II as the answer.
ANALYSE YOUR PERFORMANCE

Identify your strong and weak areas based on your performance in each section
of the paper.
English
1. Sentence substitution: The section was of a medium difficulty with some tricky
ones in the fray upping the ante a bit. There are some errors in the questions which
need to be rectified such as same options and others. The continuity of sentences
made it slightly easier as it held the attention. Average score of 8 while 10 is not a
huge task.
2. FITB: Simple section. Perfect 5 is achievable with a minimal English preparation.
3. Idioms: Again a simple section. A score of 45 is expected from all students with
a basic knowledge of English.
4. Foreign phrases: The addition of an element of GK made this slightly tricky,
however, scoring 2 is easy enough, average score of 4 would be expected.
5. Spelling: Did not hold any strangely similar looking words so the section became
easier, however the words were uncommon, so score should average round 3.
Chances of not knowing even one of the words also exist.
6. Passage: Equal parts inference and information questions make the passage
question a slightly challenging question; however, the inference are not too tricky to
make, and the inclusion of vocabulary-based questions makes a 6+ score a must in
this passage.
General knowledge
2.1. Static: With 33 questions on static, there is an even divide between static and
current GK, the difficulty is fairly high, with breeze questions such as World Bank and
Palk Strait and also some bouncers like Opium, etc; out of 33, a good static score in
this section would be anywhere above 15 since some of the questions like dates and
the geographical ones are common knowledge.
2.2. Current: Extremely easy current section, with 17 questions that are picked
directly from the newspaper. A brief daily reading of the newspaper or a monthly
reading of the compendiums (speaking from experience) would easily fetch a score of
12+ for the average student who is not very regular with the news, 10 is the bare
minimum. Anything below 9 is cause for concern as far as current affairs is the matter.
Mathematics
A medium section with questions from all aspects of maths, the questions were of fair
difficulty with some blazers which would make the student think, nothing too tough
though. A student with consistent maths practice and who has attended classes
regularly would not have taken too long in this section. A score of 15+ would be
considered a good score. Between 1015 would be average and below that would
require work on the part of the student.
Legal reasoning
A normal section with some bouncers which are not common. However, anyone who
has given more than 2 mocks would recognise most of these questions. As is the case
normally, the questions were from past years papers with some twists to keep the
mind running. Completely new questions were also present which cause the test-taker
to think before an answer. All in all an interesting section which was a mixture of old
and new at the same time; thus, it prepared the student for the fact that questions are
repeated and also not to panic in case of any deviation from the said repetition.
Logical reasoning
1. Analytical: The analytical section was not too tough, though some blazers
existed which forced the student to think about the questions and apply the basic
concepts. The question type should not have been alien for a student who had gone
through the material, but some of the questions were tricky. A score of 11+ would be
good and below 8 would need hard work.
2. Assumption questions: A couple of questions which have obvious answers,
most of the section cannot be judged objectively due to the variety of correct answers.
At least 2 out of the 5 questions had fairly obvious answers while the others needed a
bit of thinking. The section would have taken time and should have been left for the
end.
3. Passage-based: An easy section, each question would require one reading of
the passage to get the answer, the scores should range between 4 and 5.
4. StrongWeak: Cant say, questions seem tricky and need concentrated reading
a couple of times to understand what the question requires and following that
answering should become easy; however, answers may vary even after that.
5. AssertionReasoning: GK based questions with maths as well, the section
requires fair knowledge of science and literature, anything above 12 would be good.
6. CauseEffect: Simple section, no blazers which make the section tough, it is
easy to understand where connections exist and where none are possible, 3 would be
average while a 5 would not be unachievable.

Clat Diagnostic Paper For Law Entrance To Nlu

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Chapter 2

Diagnostic Mock Test on CLAT

Total questions: 200

Directions (1115): Fill in the blanks with the correct choices.

Directions (2630): Identify the correct spellings of the following words.

26. (a) assidous (b) assiduous

28. (a) effrontery (b) effrentery

SECTION II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

List-I (Rulers) List-II (Buildings)

B. Iltutmish 2. Siri Fort

C. Balban 3. Adhai Din ka

D. Alauddin Khilji 4. Sultan Garhi

(a) Sundar Pichai (b) Jack Ma

(a) Human Rights Commission

(c) Bay of Bengal; Port Blair

C. Dehang Debang 3. Meghalaya

SECTION III: NUMERIC ABILITY

SECTION IV: LEGAL APTITUDE

152. Principle: Ignorance of law is not an excuse.

Directions for questions 164166: The students of a college had to be administered

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

SECTION III: NUMERICAL ABILITY

SECTION V: LOGICAL REASONING

_____ x _____ x _____ x Verbal x _____

We first compare MORE, REST and their codes.

ANALYSE YOUR PERFORMANCE

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___ x _ x _ x Verbal x ___