Classical Electrodynamics Gabriel Barello

5.9
Consider two circular coils of radius a and separation b with current density

J = I( a)[(z b/2) + (z + b/2)]

a.)
From problem 5.7 we have that
Z
1
mL = d3 x rL1 PL1 (cos())J(r, )
L(L + 1)
Z
1
L = d3 x rL PL1 (cos())J(r, )
L(L + 1)

p z
Note that r = 2 + z 2 and = ArcCos( ). Plugging in our expression for J gives
2 +z 2

!
I2a b/2 b/2
mL = (a2 + (b/2)2 )(L1)/2 [(PL1 ( p )+ PL1 ( p )]
L(L + 1) a2 + (b/2)2 r2 + (b/2)2
!
I2a b/2 b/2
L = (a2 + (b/2)2 )(2+L)/2 [(PL1 ( p )+ PL1 ( p )]
L(L + 1) a2 + (b/2)2 r2 + (b/2)2

Recall that the associated legendre polynomials have the same parity at l +m, thus the multipole moments for L = 2, 4, . . .
are zero, since in these cases the terms in sqare brackets cancel. For L odd we have

4aI b/2
mL = (a2 + (b/2)2 )(L1)/2 PL1 ( p )
L(L + 1) r2 + (b/2)2
4aI b/2
L = (a2 + (b/2)2 )(2+L)/2 PL1 ( p )
L(L + 1) r + (b/2)2
2

The required legendre polynomials are listed here

L11 (x) = 1 x2 L13 = 32 (5x2 1) 1 x2 L15 = 15
8 1 x2 (21x4 14x2 + 1)

p
If we take x = (b/2)/ a2 + (b/2)2 , then we have

s
p a2
L11 (x) = 1 (b/2)2 /(a2 + (b/2)2 ) =
a2 + (b/2)2
s 3/2
(b/2)2 a2 3 a2 b2 a2

3
L13 (x)
= (5 2 1) =
2 (a + (b/2)2 ) a2 + (b/2)2 2 a2 a2 + (b/2)2
s 2 !
a2 (b/2)2 (b/2)2

1 15
L5 = 21 14 2 +1
8 a2 + (b/2)2 (a2 + (b/2)2 ) (a + (b/2)2 )
s
15 a2
= (a4 12a2 (b/2)2 + 8(b/2)4 )(a2 + (b/2)2 )2
8 a2 + (b/2)2

1
b.)
Again, for even L the internal multipole is zero. Defining d2 = a2 + (b/2)2 , for odd L it is given by
4aI b
mL = dL1 PL1 ( )
L(L + 1) 2d
Then, the vector potential is given by (problem 5.8)

0 X
A (r, ) = mL rL PL1 (cos())
4
L
0 X
A (, z) = mL (2 + z 2 )L/2 PL1 (/z)
4
L

Where the second term is written in cylindrical coordinates, noting that the field is independent of . Now, the z
component of the magnetic field is given by

 
1
Bz = ( A)z = (A )

 
0 X 1 2 2 L/2 1
= mL (( + z ) PL (/z))
4
L
 2
( + z 2 )L/2 1 2
  
0 X 2 2 L/2 1
= mL PL (/z) 1 + L 2 + ( + z ) P (/z)
4 + z2 L
L

Now we can specialize to the z axis, where 0. At least one term (the second term in parenthesis) obviously goes to
zero, the derivative of PL2 term also goes to zero. The other term is

zL
   L1 
0 X 0 X z
Bz (z) = mL PL1 (( 0)/z) = mL PL1 (x 0)
4 ( 0) 4 (x 0)
L L

d
Well, PL1 = 1 x2 dx PL (x) and as x 0 we get PL1 = a1 a2 x where ai is ith coefficient in the taylor expansion for
L(L+1)
PL . In general, a1 = 0 and a2 = 2 . So, in the limit we just get this coefficient, because it cancels the 1/x exactly and
we have the expression

0 X L(L + 1)
Bz (z) = mL z L1
4 2
L

Or, plugging in mL

X (L + 1) L1 1 b
Bz (z) = 0 aI z L1 d PL ( )
(L + 1) 2d
L
2
0 a I X L1 1 b
= z P 1( )
d3 adL2 L 2d
L
2
3(b2 a2 )z 2 15(b4 6b2 a2 + 2a4 )z 4
 
0 a I
= 3 1+ + . . .
d 2d4 16d8

2
5.11
a.)
A circular loop lies with its center on the origin and in the plane defined by the vector with spherical angles 0 , 0 . The
loop has a current I flowing through it.

There is an applied magnetic field B = (B0 (1 + y), B0 (1 + x), 0).

Note, in particular, that the second derivative of each component of B is zero. Thus, using equation 5.66 we can throw
out all but the first two terms and write
Z Z
Fi = ijk [Bk (0) Ji (x0 )d3 x0 + Jj (x0 )x0 Bk (0)d3 x0 ]

Since this thing is a closed loop in a steady state the total current flowing in any given direction is zero (otherwise there
would be charge building up somewhere) so the first term is zero. Furthermore, any derivative higher than second of the B
field is zero, so in fact only the first order term survives in this case anyway, so we can just use equation (5.69) from Jackson.

F = (m B)
Since the magnetic dipole moment is just a vector, it obviously is the same magnitude as if the circle were in the x y
plane, but pointed in the 0 , 0 direction. In fact it is easy to see that m = IR(cos(0 ) sin(0 ), sin(0 ) sin(0 ), cos()0 ) so
that

m B = IRB0 (cos(0 ) sin(0 )(1 + y) + sin(0 ) sin(0 )(1 + x))

The gradient of which gives

F = 2IRB0 (sin(0 ) sin(0 ), cos(0 ) sin(0 ), 0)

Of course, this is exactly the same as the approximate result, exactly because the magnetic field is only linear in the
coordinates so all higher order derivatives vanish.

b.)
We can read off the lowest order term in the torque using equation (5.71) in Jackson and the result above. This gives

N = IRB0 (cos(0 ), cos(0 ), sin(0 )(cos(0 ) sin(0 )))

To determine the nature of the higher order corrections, lets plug the expansion for B into equation (5.13). Note that
this particular magentic field is linear in the coordinates so any derivatives higher than first order are zero. Thus the exact
torque is

Z
N= x (J B(0) + J (x )B(0))d3 x

Of course, the first term is just the first order correction, the second term is the additional correction. This is given by

Z
N = x (J (x )B(0))d3 x
Z
= (x (x )B(0))J (x J)(x )B(0)d3 x

We can compute part of the first term. Note that

(x (x )B(0)) = (x (, , 0)) = (x, y, 0)

So that (x )B(0) points everywhere in the (cylindrical) radial direction. Of course, if the circular loop of wire were
in the x y plane, the cross product would be constant in the z direction, and the integrand would obviously be zero.
In the case we are discussing the loop is tilted at some angle. To analize this consider two antipodal points on the cir-
cle. The vectors J and x both change signs. Since the integrand containt two factors of x and one of J, the two points

3
exactly cancel when the integral is performed. Thus, the higher order corrections cancel for the specific case of the loop of wire.

On the other hand, if the current density does not have this symmetry the higher order term will not nessecarially cancel.
Consider, for example, a half circle of wire which is closed by a straight line through the origin. The contributions to the
integral from the straight path are obviously zero and the contribution from the half-circle will not cancel.

5.13
This setup has a differential current given by the expression

dJ = a3 sin()( sin()x + cos()y) sin()(r a)drdd

Notice that this is exactly the same as the uniiformly magnetized sphere on section 5.10 with M0 = a, so the integration
works out the same way and we have the result that there is only a component of A with value
0 r<
A (x) = a3 sin()
3 r >2
(Interior of the Sphere) On the interior of the sphere we have a potential

0 r
A< (x) = a3 2 sin()
3 a
With all other components zero. The magnetic field is given by the curl of A< so that

2
Br (x) = 0 a cos()
3
2
B (x) = 0 a sin()
3
B (x) = 0

(Exterior of the Sphere) On the exterior of the sphere, there is a potential

0 a
A> (x) = a3 2 sin()
3 r
With all other components zero. The magnetic field is given by the curl of A< so that

2 0 a4
Br (x) = cos()
3 r3
1 0 a4
B (x) = sin()
3 r3
B (x) = 0

5.19
A right circular cylinder of length L and radius a has permanent magnetization M0 uniform throughout its volume.

4
a.)
There is an effective charge density on the ends of the cylinder of magnitude M0 /a2 with + on the top of the cylinder,
and on the bottom. We can use the method of the scalar magnetic potential in cylindrical coordinates. Applying equation
(5.100) we arrive at the solution
Z Z 
M0 1 1
m (x) = 0
0
4 s+ | x x | s | x x |
Where s+ and s are the top and bottom of the sylinder respectively. which gives the magnetic field

Z Z 
M0 1 1
H(x) = m (x) = ( ) ( )
4 s+ | x x0 | s | x x0 |
x x0 x x0
Z Z 
M0
= 0 3
0 3
4 s+ | x x | s | x x |

Now we can specialize to the z axis and write this integral as

Z 
M0 (r cos(), r sin(), z L/2) (r cos(), r sin(), z + L/2)
H(z) = rdrd
4 (r2 + (z L/2)2 )3/2 (r2 + (z + L/2)2 )3/2

Obviously when we integrate over the x and y components of the field vanish, so we only have a z component, which is
given by

(z L/2)r
Z
M0 (z + L/2)r
Hz (z) = 2 dr
2 (r2 + (z L/2)2 )3/2 (r + (z + L/2)2 )3/2

And yo, this integral is pretty easy. We can write the integrand as
 
(z L/2)r d (z L/2)
=
(r2 + (z L/2)2 )3/2 dr (r2 + (z L/2)2 )1/2
So the integral is given by terms of the form

(z L/2)r M0 z L/2 z L/2

Z
M0
dr = ( p )
2 (r2 + (z L/2)2 )3/2 2 | z L/2 | a2 + (z L/2)2

So the integral is piecewise-continuous. The magentic field for L/2 < z < L/2 is

!
M0 z + L/2 z L/2
Hz,in (z) = p p 2
2 a2 + (z + L/2)2 a2 + (z L/2)2

And for | z |> L/2 it is

!
M0 z + L/2 z L/2
Hz,out (z) = p p 2
2 a2 + (z + L/2)2 a2 + (z L/2)2

Recall that H = 10 B M, or B = 0 (H + M) so that for | z |< L/2 this exactly cancels the anomalous M0 that appears
in H, so that everywhere on the axis Bz is

!
0 M0 z + L/2 z L/2
Bz (z) = p p
2 a2 + (z + L/2)2 a2 + (z L/2)2

5
b.)
Were gonna plot this thing in terms of x z/L for ease of implementing the condition L/a = 5. Given this, we have that

!
5 x + 1/2 x 1/2
Bz (x)/0 M0 = p p
2 1 + 5(x + 1/2)2 1 + 5(x 1/2)2

and
!
5 x + 1/2 x 1/2
Hz,in (x)/M0 = p p 2
2 1 + 5(x + 1/2)2 1 + 5(x 1/2)2
!
5 x + 1/2 x 1/2
Hz,out (x)/M0 = p p
2 1 + 5(x + 1/2)2 1 + 5(x 1/2)2

-2 -1 1 2

-1

-2

-3

-4

Figure 1: This plot shows the magnetic field (dotted) and magnetic induction (solid). Note that the field (H) is discontinuous
whereas the induction (B) is continuous.

6.1
Using natural units, the retarded greens function is

(t0 [t | x x0 |])
G+ (x) =
| x x0 |

a.)
Consider a source in three dimentions,

f (x0 , t0 ) = (x0 )(y 0 )(t0 )

The resulting wave is given by

Z
[f ]ret 3 0
(x, t) = d x
| x x0 |
p
(t x2 + y 2 + (z z 0 )2 ) 0
Z
= p dz
x2 + y 2 + (z z 0 )2

0 2 2 2 2
The argumentpof the delta function is zero when (z z ) = t x y . Note that there are two zeroes, then,
0 2 2
p z ) = t Note, too, that the argument of the delta
at (z function will be negative for all values of z 0 unless
1
P
t > x2 + y 2 . So, we also need to use the identity (f (x)) = x0 f 0 (x 0)
(x0 ), with f (x0 ) = 0. Thus we get

6
 p t p t p
(t x2 + y 2 + (z z 0 )2 ) = p ((z z 0 ) t2 2 ) + p ((z z 0 ) + t 2 2 )
t 2 t2 2
So that

!
t1 t 1 2(t )
(x, t) = (t ) p +p =p
t t
2 2 t t
2 2 t 2 2

b.)
Now we just need to do the same, but use a source

f (x0 , t0 ) = (x0 )(t0 )

we get

Z
[f ]ret 3 0
(x, t) = d x
| x x0 |
p
(t x2 + (y y 0 )2 + (z z 0 )2 ) 0 0
Z
= p dz dy
x2 + (y y 0 )2 + (z z 0 )2

We
pcan shift the integration without consequence to get rid of the appearance of z and y. Let us then change to coordinates
r2 = z 02 + y 02 and = ArcTan(z/y). The integration is immediate and we end up with the integral

(t x2 + r 2 )
Z
(x, t) = 2 rdr0
x2 + r 2

and we play the same game. This time the integrand is positive for all r unless t >| x |, so we get a factor of (t | x |).
Next, we can write
p t  p p 
(t x2 + r2 ) = (r + t2 x2 ) (r t2 x2 )
t2 x2
Which gives the solution

!
t t2 x2 t 2 x2
(x, t) = 2(t | x |)
t x2
2 t t
= 4(t | x |)