1. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?

a. A fecalith
b. Bowel kinking
c. Internal bowel occlusion
d. Abdominal bowel swelling

2. Which of the following terms best describes the pain associated with appendicitis?
a. Aching
b. Fleeting
c. Intermittent
d. Steady

3. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?
a. Assessing for pain
b. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
c. Providing discharge teaching
d. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

4. Which of the following definitions best describes gastritis?

a. Erosion of the gastric mucosa
b. Inflammation of a diverticulum
c. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa
d. Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus

5. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?

a. Milk
b. Bicarbonate of soda, or baking soda
c. Enteric coated aspirin
d. Nonsteriodal anti-imflammatory drugs

6. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?

a. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
b. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine
c. The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents
d. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it.

7. Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?

a. Low-fiber diet
b. High-fiber diet
c. High-protein diet
d. Low-carbohydrate diet

8. Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate the development of diverticulosis into diverticulitis?
a. Treating constipation with chronic laxative use, leading to dependence on laxatives
b. Chronic constipation causing an obstruction, reducing forward flow of intestinal contents
c. Herniation of the intestinal mucosa, rupturing the wall of the intestine
d. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the area to bacterial invasion.

9. Which of the following symptoms indicated diverticulosis?

a. No symptoms exist
b. Change in bowel habits
c. Anorexia with low-grade fever
d. Episodic, dull, or steady midabdominal pain
10. Which of the following tests should be administered to a client suspected of having diverticulosis?
a. Abdominal ultrasound
b. Barium enema
c. Barium swallow
d. Gastroscopy

11. Medical management of the client with diverticulitis should include which of the following treatments?
a. Reduced fluid intake
b. Increased fiber in diet
c. Administration of antibiotics
d. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure

12. Crohns disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system
may be involved with this disease?
a. The entire length of the large colon
b. Only the sigmoid area
c. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa
d. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel

13. Which area of the alimentary canal is the most common location for Crohns disease?
a. Ascending colon
b. Descending colon
c. Sigmoid colon
d. Terminal ileum

14. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Crohns disease?

a. Constipation
b. Diet
c. Hereditary
d. Lack of exercise

15. Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative colitis?

a. Acidic diet
b. Altered immunity
c. Chronic constipation
d. Emotional stress

16. Fistulas are most common with which of the following bowel disorders?
a. Crohns disease
b. Diverticulitis
c. Diverticulosis
d. Ulcerative colitis

17. Which of the following areas is the most common site of fistulas in clients with Crohns disease?
a. Anorectal
b. Ileum
c. Rectovaginal
d. Transverse colon

18. Which of the following associated disorders may a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit?
a. Gallstones
b. Hydronephrosis
 c. Nephrolithiasis
d. Toxic megacolon

19. Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohns disease exhibit?
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Colon cancer
c. Malabsorption
d. Lactase deficiency

20. Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohns disease?
a. Bloody diarrhea
b. Narrow stools
c. N/V
d. Steatorrhea

21. Which of the following symptoms is associated with ulcerative colitis?

a. Dumping syndrome
b. Rectal bleeding
c. Soft stools
d. Fistulas

22. If a client had irritable bowel syndrome, which of the following diagnostic tests would determine if the diagnosis
is Crohns disease or ulcerative colitis?
a. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
b. Abdominal x-ray
c. Barium swallow
d. Colonoscopy with biopsy

23. Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohns disease?
a. Increasing oral intake of fiber
b. Administering laxatives
c. Using long-term steroid therapy
d. Increasing physical activity

24. In a client with Crohns disease, which of the following symptoms should not be a direct result of antibiotic
therapy?
a. Decrease in bleeding
b. Decrease in temperature
c. Decrease in body weight
d. Decrease in the number of stools

25. Surgical management of ulcerative colitis may be performed to treat which of the following complications?
a. Gastritis
b. Bowel herniation
c. Bowel outpouching
d. Bowel perforation

26. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel
disease?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Opiates
c. Steroids
d. Stool softeners
27. During the first few days of recovery from ostomy surgery for ulcerative colitis, which of the following aspects
should be the first priority of client care?
a. Body image
b. Ostomy care
c. Sexual concerns
d. Skin care

28. Colon cancer is most closely associated with which of the following conditions?
a. Appendicitis
b. Hemorrhoids
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Ulcerative colitis

29. Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with colon cancer?
a. Low-fiber, high fat
b. Low-fat, high-fiber
c. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate
d. Low carbohydrate, high protein

30. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?
a. Abdominal CT scan
b. Abdominal x-ray
c. Colonoscopy
d. Fecal occult blood test

31. Radiation therapy is used to treat colon cancer before surgery for which of the following reasons?
a. Reducing the size of the tumor
b. Eliminating the malignant cells
c. Curing the cancer
d. Helping the bowel heal after surgery

32. Which of the following symptoms is a client with colon cancer most likely to exhibit?
a. A change in appetite
b. A change in bowel habits
c. An increase in body weight
d. An increase in body temperature

33. A client has just had surgery for colon cancer. Which of the following disorders might the client develop?
a. Peritonitis
b. Diverticulosis
c. Partial bowel obstruction
d. Complete bowel obstruction
34. A client with gastric cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
a. Abdominal cramping
b. Constant hunger
c. Feeling of fullness
d. Weight gain

35. Which of the following diagnostic tests may be performed to determine if a client has gastric cancer?
a. Barium enema
b. Colonoscopy
c. Gastroscopy
 d. Serum chemistry levels

36. A client with gastric cancer can expect to have surgery for resection. Which of the following should be the
nursing management priority for the preoperative client with gastric cancer?
a. Discharge planning
b. Correction of nutritional deficits
c. Prevention of DVT
d. Instruction regarding radiation treatment

37. Care for the postoperative client after gastric resection should focus on which of the following problems?
a. Body image
b. Nutritional needs
c. Skin care
d. Spiritual needs

38. Which of the following complications of gastric resection should the nurse teach the client to watch for?
a. Constipation
b. Dumping syndrome
c. Gastric spasm
d. Intestinal spasms

39. A client with rectal cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
a. Abdominal fullness
b. Gastric fullness
c. Rectal bleeding
d. Right upper quadrant pain

40. A client with which of the following conditions may be likely to develop rectal cancer?
a. Adenomatous polyps
b. Diverticulitis
c. Hemorrhoids
d. Peptic ulcer disease

41. Which of the following treatments is used for rectal cancer but not for colon cancer?
a. Chemotherapy
b. Colonoscopy
c. Radiation
d. Surgical resection

42. Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause peritonitis?
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Gastritis
c. Perforated ulcer
d. Incarcerated hernia

43. Which of the following symptoms would a client in the early stages of peritonitis exhibit?
a. Abdominal distention
b. Abdominal pain and rigidity
c. Hyperactive bowel sounds
d. Right upper quadrant pain

44. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a client with peritonitis?
a. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds
 b. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL
c. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
d. White blood cell count above 15,000

45. Which of the following therapies is not included in the medical management of a client with peritonitis?
a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
b. Electrolyte replacement
c. I.V. fluids
d. Regular diet

46. Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis?
a. Fluid and electrolyte balance
b. Gastric irrigation
c. Pain management
d. Psychosocial issues

47. A client with irritable bowel syndrome is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following meal plans should
the nurse give the client?
a. Low fiber, low-fat
b. High fiber, low-fat
c. Low fiber, high-fat
d. High-fiber, high-fat

48. A client presents to the emergency room, reporting that he has been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the
past 8 hours. Frequent vomiting puts him at risk for which of the following?
a. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalemia
b. Metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia
c. Metabolic alkalosis with hyperkalemia
d. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia

49. Five days after undergoing surgery, a client develops a small-bowel obstruction. A Miller-Abbott tube is inserted
for bowel decompression. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority?
a. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
b. Acute pain
c. Deficient fluid volume
d. Excess fluid volume

50. When teaching an elderly client how to prevent constipation, which of the following instructions should the
nurse include?
a. Drink 6 glasses of fluid each day.
b. Avoid grain products and nuts.
c. Add at least 4 grams of bran to your cereal each morning.
d. Be sure to get regular exercise.

51. In a client with diarrhea, which outcome indicates that fluid resuscitation is successful?
a. The client passes formed stools at regular intervals
b. The client reports a decrease in stool frequency and liquidity
c. The client exhibits firm skin turgor
d. The client no longer experiences perianal burning.

52. When teaching a community group about measures to prevent colon cancer, which instruction should the nurse
include?
a. Limit fat intake to 20% to 25% of your total daily calories.
 b. Include 15 to 20 grams of fiber into your daily diet.
c. Get an annual rectal examination after age 35.
d. Undergo sigmoidoscopy annually after age 50.

53. A 30-year old client experiences weight loss, abdominal distention, crampy abdominal pain, and intermittent
diarrhea after birth of her 2nd child. Diagnostic tests reveal gluten-induced enteropathy. Which foods must she
eliminate from her diet permanently?
a. Milk and dairy products
b. Protein-containing foods
c. Cereal grains (except rice and corn)
d. Carbohydrates

54. After a right hemicolectomy for treatment of colon cancer, a 57-year old client is reluctant to turn while on bed
rest. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate?
a. Asking a coworker to help turn the client
b. Explaining to the client why turning is important.
c. Allowing the client to turn when hes ready to do so
d. Telling the client that the physicians order states he must turn every 2 hours

55. A client has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube inserted for tube feedings. Before starting a
continuous feeding, the nurse should place the client in which position?
a. Semi-Fowlers
b. Supine
c. Reverse Trendelenburg
d. High Fowlers

56. An enema is prescribed for a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
a. Prepare 750 ml of irrigating solution warmed to 100*F
b. Question the physician about the order
c. Provide privacy and explain the procedure to the client
d. Assist the client to left lateral Sims position

57. The client being seen in a physicians office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The
nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow before the test?
a. Fast for 8 hours before the test
b. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
c. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled.
d. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation

58. The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs of dumping syndrome. Which symptom indicates this
occurrence?
a. Abdominal cramping and pain
b. Bradycardia and indigestion
c. Sweating and pallor
d. Double vision and chest pain

59. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the client who had an umbilical hernia repair. Which of the
following would the nurse include in the plan?
a. Restricting pain medication
b. Maintaining bedrest
c. Avoiding coughing
 d. Irrigating the drain

60. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on
assessment of the client, would the nurse report to the physician?
a. Bloody diarrhea
b. Hypotension
c. A hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL
d. Rebound tenderness

61. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with Crohns disease. Which of the following stool characteristics
would the nurse expect to note documented on the clients record?
a. Chronic constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
d. Stool constantly oozing from the rectum

62. The nurse is performing a colostomy irrigation on a client. During the irrigation, a client begins to complain of
abdominal cramps. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
a. Notify the physician
b. Increase the height of the irrigation
c. Stop the irrigation temporarily.
d. Medicate with dilaudid and resume the irrigation

63. The nurse is teaching the client how to perform a colostomy irrigation. To enhance the effectiveness of the
irrigation and fecal returns, what measure should the nurse instruct the client to do?
a. Increase fluid intake
b. Reduce the amount of irrigation solution
c. Perform the irrigation in the evening
d. Place heat on the abdomen

64. The nurse is reviewing the physicians orders written for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which
physician order would the nurse question if noted on the clients chart?
a. NPO status
b. Insert a nasogastric tube
c. An anticholinergic medication
d. Morphine for pain

65. The nurse is doing an admission assessment on a client with a history of duodenal ulcer. To determine whether
the problem is currently active, the nurse would assess the client for which of the following most frequent
symptom(s) of duodenal ulcer?
a. Pain that is relieved by food intake
b. Pain that radiated down the right arm
c. N/V
d. Weight loss

66. The nurse instructs the ileostomy client to do which of the following as a part of essential care of the stoma?
a. Cleanse the peristomal skin meticulously
b. Take in high-fiber foods such as nuts
c. Massage the area below the stoma
d. Limit fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
67. The client who has undergone creation of a colostomy has a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed body image. The
nurse would evaluate that the client is making the most significant progress toward identified goals if the client:
a. Watches the nurse empty the colostomy bag
b. Looks at the ostomy site
c. Reads the ostomy product literature
d. Practices cutting the ostomy appliance

68. The nurse is assessing for stoma prolapse in a client with a colostomy. The nurse would observe which of the
following if stoma prolapse occurred?
a. Sunken and hidden stoma
b. Dark- and bluish-colored stoma
c. Narrowed and flattened stoma
d. Protruding stoma

69. The client with a new colostomy is concerned about the odor from the stool in the ostomy drainage bag. The
nurse teaches the client to include which of the following foods in the diet to reduce odor?
a. Yogurt
b. Broccoli
c. Cucumbers
d. Eggs

70. The nurse has given instructions to the client with an ileostomy about foods to eat to thicken the stool. The
nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client stated to eat which of the following foods
to make the stools less watery?
a. Pasta
b. Boiled rice
c. Bran
d. Low-fat cheese

71. The client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate post-op
period for which of the following most frequent complications of this type of surgery?
a. Intestinal obstruction
b. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
c. Malabsorption of fat
d. Folate deficiency

72. The nurse is doing pre-op teaching with the client who is about to undergo creation of a Kock pouch. The nurse
interprets that the client has the best understanding of the nature of the surgery if the client makes which of the
following statements?
a. I will need to drain the pouch regularly with a catheter.
b. I will need to wear a drainage bag for the rest of my life.
c. The drainage from this type of ostomy will be formed.
d. I will be able to pass stool from my rectum eventually.

73. The client with a colostomy has an order for irrigation of the colostomy. The nurse used which solution for
irrigation?
a. Distilled water
b. Tap water
c. Sterile water
d. Lactated Ringers

74. A nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client is scheduled
for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On
 assessment the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and the bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the
following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
a. Administer dilaudid
b. Notify the physician
c. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible
d. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on a warm setting to the clients abdomen.

75. The client has been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse would assess this client for pain
that is:
a. Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back.
b. Severe and unrelenting, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the groin.
c. Burning and aching, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the umbilicus.
d. Burning and aching, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the hip.

76. The client with Crohns disease has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain. The nurse would teach the client to avoid
which of the following in managing this problem?
a. Lying supine with the legs straight
b. Massaging the abdomen
c. Using antispasmodic medication
d. Using relaxation techniques

77. A client with ulcerative colitis has an order to begin salicylate medication to reduce inflammation. The nurse
instructs the client to take the medication:
a. 30 minutes before meals
b. On an empty stomach
c. After meals
d. On arising

78. During the assessment of a clients mouth, the nurse notes the absence of saliva. The client is also complaining
of pain near the area of the ear. The client has been NPO for several days because of the insertion of a NG tube.
Based on these findings, the nurse suspects that the client is developing which of the following mouth
conditions?
a. Stomatitis
b. Oral candidiasis
c. Parotitis
d. Gingivitis

79. The nurse evaluates the clients stoma during the initial post-op period. Which of the following observations
should be reported immediately to the physician?
a. The stoma is slightly edematous
b. The stoma is dark red to purple
c. The stoma oozes a small amount of blood
d. The stoma does not expel stool

80. When planning care for a client with ulcerative colitis who is experiencing symptoms, which client care activities
can the nurse appropriately delegate to a unlicensed assistant? Select all that apply.
a. Assessing the clients bowel sounds
b. Providing skin care following bowel movements
c. Evaluating the clients response to antidiarrheal medications
d. Maintaining intake and output records
e. Obtaining the clients weight.
81. Which goal of the clients care should take priority during the first days of hospitalization for an exacerbation of
ulcerative colitis?
a. Promoting self-care and independence
b. Managing diarrhea
c. Maintaining adequate nutrition
d. Promoting rest and comfort

82. A clients ulcerative colitis symptoms have been present for longer than 1 week. The nurse recognizes that the
client should be assessed carefully for signs of which of the following complications?
a. Heart failure
b. DVT
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypocalcemia

83. A client who has ulcerative colitis has persistent diarrhea. He is thin and has lost 12 pounds since the
exacerbation of his ulcerative colitis. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order which of the
following treatment approaches to help the client meet his nutritional needs?
a. Initiate continuous enteral feedings
b. Encourage a high protein, high-calorie diet
c. Implement total parenteral nutrition
d. Provide six small meals a day.

84. Digoxin preparations and absorbents should not be given simultaneously. As a nurse, you are aware that if these
agents are given simultaneously, which of the following will occur?
a. Increased absorption of digoxin
b. Decreased absorption of digoxin
c. Increased absorption of the absorbent
d. Decreased absorption of the absorbent

85. When used with hyperacidic disorders of the stomach, antacids are given to elevate the gastric pH to:
a. 2.0
b. 4.0
c. 6.0
d. >8.0

86. One of your patients is receiving digitalis orally and is also to receive an antacid at the same time. Your most
appropriate action, based on the pharmacokinetics of antacids, is to:
a. Delay the digitalis for 1 to 2 hours until the antacid is absorbed
b. Give the antacid at least 2 to 4 hours before administering the digitalis
c. Administer both medications as ordered and document in nurses notes
d. Contact the physician regarding the drug interaction and request a change in the time of dosing of
the drugs.

87. The nurse would teach patients that antacids are effective in treatment of hyperacidity because they:
a. Neutralize gastric acid
b. Decrease stomach motility
c. Decrease gastric pH
d. Decrease duodenal pH

88. The nurse would monitor for which of the following adverse reactions to aluminum-containing antacids such as
aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)?
a. Diarrhea
b. Constipation
 c. GI upset
d. Fluid retention

89. The nurse would question an order for which type of antacid in patients with chronic renal failure?
a. Aluminum-containing antacids
b. Calcium-containing antacids
c. Magnesium-containing antacids
d. All of the above.

90. The nurse would monitor a patient using sodium bicarbonate to treat gastric hyperacidity for signs and
symptoms of:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypercalcemia

91. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for a patient receiving famotidine (Pepcid)?
a. Increased risk for infection due to immunosuppression
b. Potential risk for bleeding related to thrombocytopenia.
c. Alteration in urinary elimination related to retention
d. Alteration in tissue perfusion related to hypertension

92. Histamine2-receptor antagonists:

a. Compete with histamine for binding sites on the parietal cells
b. Irreversibly bind to H+/K+ATPase
c. Cause a decrease in stomach pH
d. Decrease signs and symptoms of allergies related to histamine release

93. Proton pump inhibitors:

a. Gastric ulcer formation
b. GERD
c. Achlorhydria
d. Diverticulosis

94. A patient unable to tolerate oral medications may be prescribed which of the following proton pump inhibitors
to be administered intravenously?
a. lansoprazole (Prevacid)
b. omeprazole (Prilosec)
c. pantoprazole (Protonix)
d. esomeprazole (Nexium)

95. When administering sucralfate (Carafate) to a patient with a nasogastric tube, it is important to:
a. Crush the tablet into a fine powder before mixing with water
b. Administer with a bolus tube feeding
c. Allow the tablet to dissolve in water before administering
d. Administer with an antacid for maximum benefit

96. Sucralfate (Carafate) achieves a therapeutic effect by:

a. Neutralizing gastric acid
b. Enhancing gastric absorption
c. Forming a protective barrier around gastric mucosa
d. Inhibiting gastric acid secretion
97. To avoid fecal impaction, psyllium (Metamucil) should be administered with at least how many ounces of fluid?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10

98. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol), as an absorbent, has which of the following mechanisms of action?
a. Decreased GI motility
b. Decreased gastric secretions
c. Increased fluid absorption
d. Binding to diarrhea-causing bacteria for excretion

99. Side effects of loperamide (Imodium) include all of the following except?
a. Diarrhea
b. epigastric pain
c. Dry mouth
d. Anorexia

100. The mechanism of action of diphenoxylate (Lotomil) is:

a. An increase in intestinal excretion of water
b. An increase in intestinal motility
c. A decrease in peristalsis in the intestinal wall
d. A decrease in the reabsorption of water in the bowel
1. Answer: 1. A fecalith 50. Answer: 4. Be sure to get regular exercise.
2. Answer: 4. Steady 51. Answer: 3. The client exhibits firm skin turgor
3. Answer: 4. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis 52. Answer: 1. Limit fat intake to 20% to 25% of your
4. Answer: 3. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa total daily calories.
5. Answer: 4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs 53. Answer: 3. Cereal grains (except rice and corn)
6. Answer: 2. A noninflamed outpouching of the 54. Answer: 2. Explaining to the client why turning is
intestine important.
7. Answer: 1. Low-fiber diet 55. Answer: 1. Semi-Fowlers
8. Answer: 4. Undigested food blocking the 56. Answer: 2. Question the physician about the order
diverticulum, predisposing the area to bacterial 57. Answer: 1. Fast for 8 hours before the test
invasion. 58. Answer: 3. Sweating and pallor
9. Answer: 1. No symptoms exist 59. Answer: 3. Avoiding coughing
10. Answer: 2. Barium enema 60. Answer: 4. Rebound tenderness
11. Answer: 3. Administration of antibiotics 61. Answer: 2. Diarrhea
12. Answer: 4. The small intestine and colon; affecting 62. Answer: 3. Stop the irrigation temporarily.
the entire thickness of the bowel 63. Answer: 1. Increase fluid intake
13. Answer: 4. Terminal ileum 64. Answer: 4. Morphine for pain
14. Answer: 3. Hereditary 65. Answer: 1. Pain that is relieved by food intake
15. Answer: 2. Altered immunity 66. Answer: 1. Cleanse the peristomal skin
16. Answer: 1. Crohns disease meticulously
17. Answer: 1. Anorectal 67. Answer: 4. Practices cutting the ostomy appliance
18. Answer: 4. Toxic megacolon 68. Answer: 4. Protruding stoma
19. Answer: 3. Malabsorption 69. Answer: 1. Yogurt
20. Answer: 4. Steatorrhea 70. Answer: 3. Bran
21. Answer: 2. Rectal bleeding 71. Answer: 2. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
22. Answer: 4. Colonoscopy with biopsy 72. Answer: 1. I will need to drain the pouch
23. Answer: 3. Using long-term steroid therapy regularly with a catheter.
24. Answer: 3. Decrease in body weight 73. Answer: 2. Tap water
25. Answer: 4. Bowel perforation 74. Answer: 2. Notify the physician
26. Answer: 3. Steroids 75. Answer: 1. Severe and unrelenting, located in the
27. Answer: 2. Ostomy care epigastric area and radiating to the back.
28. Answer: 4. Ulcerative colitis 76. Answer: 1. Lying supine with the legs straight
29. Answer: 1. Low-fiber, high fat 77. Answer: 3. After meals
30. Answer: 4. Fecal occult blood test 78. Answer: 3. Parotitis
31. Answer: 1. Reducing the size of the tumor 79. Answer: 2. The stoma is dark red to purple
32. Answer: 2. A change in bowel habits 80. Answer: 2, 4, and 5.
33. Answer: 1. Peritonitis 81. Answer: 2. Managing diarrhea
34. Answer: 3. Feeling of fullness 82. Answer: 3. Hypokalemia
35. Answer: 3. Gastroscopy 83. Answer: 3. Implement total parenteral nutrition
36. Answer: 2. Correction of nutritional deficits 84. Answer: 2. Decreased absorption of digoxin
37. Answer: 2. Nutritional needs 85. Answer: 1. 2.0
38. Answer: 2. Dumping syndrome 86. Answer: 4. Contact the physician regarding the
39. Answer: 3. Rectal bleeding drug interaction and request a change in the time
40. Answer: 1. Adenomatous polyps of dosing of the drugs.
41. Answer: 3. Radiation 87. Answer: 1. Neutralize gastric acid
42. Answer: 3. Perforated ulcer 88. Answer: 2. Constipation
43. Answer: 2. Abdominal pain and rigidity 89. Answer: 3. Magnesium-containing antacids
44. Answer: 4. White blood cell count above 15,000 90. Answer: 1. Metabolic alkalosis
45. Answer: 4. Regular diet 91. Answer: 2. Potential risk for bleeding related to
46. Answer: 1. Fluid and electrolyte balance thrombocytopenia.
47. Answer: 2. High-fiber, low-fat 92. Answer: 1. Compete with histamine for binding
48. Answer: 4. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia sites on the parietal cells
49. Answer: 3. Deficient fluid volume 93. Answer: 3. Achlorhydria
94. Answer: 3. pantoprazole (Protonix)
95. Answer: 3. Allow the tablet to dissolve in water
before administering
96. Answer: 3. Forming a protective barrier around
gastric mucosa
97. Answer: 3. 8
98. Answer: 4. Binding to diarrhea-causing bacteria
for excretion
99. Answer: 1. Diarrhea
100. Answer: 3. A decrease in peristalsis in the
intestinal wall