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Neonatology
CASE-BASED REVIEW
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Pediatric residents in the United States have fewer rotations in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
(NICU) than ever before. The recent reduction in resident duty hours has also limited residents
exposure to the NICU. Nonetheless, pediatric residents are still required to have a significant un-
derstanding of neonatology. We created this resource to help residents develop this understanding
through a case-based approach to neonatal diseases. We selected the topics for this book based
on the most recent American Board of Pediatrics Content Specifications recommended for the
Pediatrics certification examination. To make the cases realistic, we incorporated pictures and
radiographs when possible. Although we originally targeted this book to pediatric residents, we
think that it will also be a valuable self-learning tool for medical students and nurse practitioner
students. While students can use this book on their own, they may also benefit from discussing the
cases with neonatologists, neonatology fellows, and pediatricians.
DB and EGD
vii
CASE 1
Maternal serum screening
A pregnant woman undergoes blood testing at 16 weeks The womans test results are shown in the table below:
gestation.
Lab Result
Line A (Multiples of Normal Result
Test Mean, MoM) (MoM)
-Fetoprotein 4.0 0.42.5
-Human
-Fetoprotein
0.8 0.42.5
Line B chorionic
gonadotropin
Inhibin A 1.0 ,2.5
Line C
Unconjugated 0.9 .0.5
estriol
Line D
Her obstetrician meets to discuss possible reasons for these
Week of gestation results.
FIGURE 1.
2. Of the following, the diagnosis that is not consistent with
1. Of the following, the line in Figure 1 that most likely these laboratory findings is:
represents the maternal serum -fetoprotein concentration
A. Gastroschisis
throughout pregnancy is:
B. Neural tube defect
A. Line A C. Line C C. Trisomy 21
B. Line B D. Line D D. Twin gestation
CASE 2
Prenatal ultrasonography
1. Of the following, this fetal image most likely is consistent with: 3. Of the following, the potential short-term complication
that can occur after birth is:
A. Anencephaly
B. Holoprosencephaly A. Dehydration
C. Hydrocephalus B. Intestinal perforation
D. Meningomyelocele C. Meconium plug
D. Nonbilious emesis
The family then meets with a cardiologist to discuss the car-
diac findings in the fetus. The fetal ultrasonographic find- The familys high-risk obstetrician is also suspicious of a
ings are shown in Figure 2. The defect is confirmed by fetal genitourinary abnormality because the infants bladder is ex-
echocardiography. tremely large with a thickened wall. The fetal image in Figure 4
shows the markedly dilated bladder (B) and dilated proximal
urethra (U).
FIGURE 2. From Eisenberg RL. An Atlas of Differential Diagnosis. 4th ed. FIGURE 4. From Eisenberg RL. An Atlas of Differential Diagnosis. 4th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 1.35; Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 1.33
f=foramen
4. Of the following, the genitourinary abnormality that this
2. Of the following, the cardiac defect that is most likely in
infant is likely to have is (are):
this infant is:
A. Hydronephrosis
A. Complete atrioventricular canal
B. Pelviectasis
B. Hypoplastic left ventricle syndrome
C. Posterior urethral valves
C. Transposition of the great arteries
D. Renal agenesis
D. Large ventricular septal defect
Because of the multiple anomalies in the fetus, the couple
The fetal ultrasound also demonstrates a gastrointestinal
decides to terminate the pregnancy. Several years later, the
complication (Figure 3). A surgeon meets with the family to
woman becomes pregnant. Her blood screening results are
discuss the diagnosis and possible outcomes.
normal. A fetal ultrasound demonstrates choroid plexus cysts.
The rest of the fetal ultrasound is normal. Given her past his-
tory, the woman is extremely worried that this infant will have
multiple anomalies.
CASE 3
Invasive prenatal genetic testing
A. Amniocentesis ____
B. Periumbilical blood sampling ____
C. Transabdominal chorionic villus sampling ____
D. Transvaginal chorionic villus sampling ____
FIGURE 3. Modified from Gibbs RS, Karlan BY, Hanley AF, et al.,
eds. Danforths Obstetrics and Gynecology. 10th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2008. Figure 6.15
FIGURE 1. Modified from Gibbs RS, Karlan BY, Hanley AF, et al.,
eds. Danforths Obstetrics and Gynecology. 10th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2008. Figure 6.13
A. Amniocentesis
B. Fetal ultrasonography
C. Periumbilical blood sampling
D. Transvaginal chorionic villus sampling
FIGURE 2. Modified from Gibbs RS, Karlan BY, Hanley AF, et al.,
eds. Danforths Obstetrics and Gynecology. 10th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2008. Figure 6.14
Fetal DNA analysis shows that the fetus does not have sickle 3. Of the following, the result that is most consistent with
cell disease. The pregnancy is uncomplicated until the woman mature fetal lungs is a(n):
develops severe sciatica and walking becomes extremely pain-
A. Absence of phosphatidylglycerol
ful. At 36 weeks gestation, she asks her obstetrician to con-
B. Elevated lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
sider delivering the baby early because she has severe constant
C. Increased amount of phosphatidylinositol
pain. Her obstetrician performs an amniocentesis to deter-
D. Low amount of sphingomyelin
mine fetal lung maturity.
CASE 4
Fetal assessment
90 90 90
60 60 60
30 30 30
FIGURE 1. From Pillitteri A. Maternal and Child Nursing. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 8.11
1. Of the following, the result that is most consistent with this Three days later, the woman contacts the obstetrician because
nonstress test is: she feels decreased fetal movements. The obstetrician per-
forms a biophysical profile, which is normal.
A. Normal amniotic fluid volume
B. Normal fetal breathing pattern 3. Of the following, the measurement that is not part of the
C. Normal fetal heart rate response to fetal movement biophysical profile is:
D. Regular, frequent contractions
A. Amount of amniotic fluid
At 40 3/7 weeks gestation, the obstetrician performs a con- B. Blood flow in the umbilical arteries
traction stress test, which is normal. C. Fetal breathing
D. Fetal tone
2. Of the following, the primary purpose of the contraction
stress test is to:
CASE5
Effects of maternal diabetes mellitus
A full-term male infant with macrosomia is born by cesarean The infants serum glucose then increases to 61 mg/dL. How-
delivery to a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes mel- ever, the infant is noted to have a right arm oxygen saturation
litus. The mother had extensive prenatal testing (including of 84%. The rest of the infants vital signs, including blood
maternal blood testing, several fetal ultrasonographs, fetal pressure, are normal. With a half liter per minute of 100%
echocardiography) to assess for anomalies in the fetus. All of oxygen, the infants oxygen saturation increases to 98%.
these tests were normal. The infants physical examination at 3 hours of age reveals a
well-appearing, ruddy infant without any respiratory distress
1. Pregnant women with diabetes mellitus are at increased and with a soft I/VI systolic heart murmur heard loudest at
risk of having an infant with congenital anomalies. Of the the left mid to upper sternal border. A chest radiograph is
following, the scenario that is associated with a lower risk of normal.
congenital anomalies is:
4. Of the following, the most likely cause of this infants cya-
A. Diabetes mellitus without evidence of vascular disease
nosis is:
B. Good maternal glucose control before conception
C. Good maternal glucose control during the third A. Cyanotic heart disease
trimester B. Polycythemia
D. A and B C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Most congenital anomalies found in infants of diabetic women
occur early in gestation. However, there is one anomaly that The baby has the following laboratory findings:
occurs later.
Na = 131 mEq/L
2. Of the following, the anomaly that occurs during the K = 3.1 mEq/L
second half of gestation is: Cl = 95 mEq/L
HCO3 = 16 mEq/L
A. Caudal regression syndrome Ionized calcium = 0.88 mmol/L
B. Meningomyelocele
C. Small left colon syndrome
5. Of the following, the electrolyte abnormality that is often
D. Transposition of the great arteries
found in infants born to women with diabetes mellitus is:
The babys initial breastfeeding attempt was unsuccessful be-
A. Hypocalcemia
cause he did not latch well. Because the babys initial serum
B. Hypochloremia
glucose is 21 mg/dL, he is brought to the Neonatal Intensive
C. Hypokalemia
Care Unit for further care. He is given an intravenous glucose
D. Hyponatremia
bolus and started on a continuous intravenous infusion of
D10W at 60 mL/kg/day. The neonatology fellow meets with
the infants parents to discuss the reason for their babys low
serum glucose and the treatment approach.
CASE 6
Effects of maternal lupus
A full-term, well-appearing female neonate is noted to have Additional tests are performed on the mother to help identify
a low resting heart rate. The infants mother is in excellent the cause of this infants medical issues.
health without any medical problems. The infants electrocar-
diogram is shown in Figure 1. 2. Of the following, the maternal antibodies that are most
likely associated with this infants clinical findings are:
Testing of the infants mother confirms that she has these se-
rum antibodies.
CASE7
Maternal medications
A 39-year-old woman with a seizure disorder and a clotting ab- Aneonatologist examines the infant after birth and observes
normality finds out that she is 13 weeks pregnant. Although that the infant also has digit and nail hypoplasia in addition
she had not been taking any anticoagulant medication, she to a cleft palate.
has been taking her antiseizure medication regularly. Her ob- Postdelivery, the woman develops a deep vein thrombosis
stetrician discusses the potential impact of anticonvulsant use and is placed on warfarin.
during pregnancy. A few years later, the woman meets with her obstetrician in
anticipation of expanding her family. Her obstetrician changes
1. Of the following, the statement that is most accurate is: her anticoagulant therapy from warfarin to heparin and, in
A. All anticonvulsants marketed prior to 1976 have been consultation with a neurologist, discontinues her antiseizure
shown to have teratogenic effects. medication.
B. Although intrauterine anticonvulsant exposure can lead
3. Of the following, potential effects of warfarin exposure
to dysmorphic features, neurological outcomes are not
during the first trimester are:
altered in exposed children.
C. Fetal risk of anticonvulsant exposure is greatest if the ex- A. Ebstein anomaly
posure occurs during the third trimester. B. Microtia, cerebellar hypoplasia, and transposition of the
D. Major malformations associated with intrauterine an- great arteries
ticonvulsant exposure occur in more than 50% of ex- C. Nasal hypoplasia and stippled bone epiphyses
posed fetuses. D. Yellow-brown discoloration of deciduous teeth
Ultrasonography at 14 weeks gestation reveals that the fetus During this pregnancy, the fetal imaging is normal and there
has a cleft palate. are no medical concerns in either the woman or the fetus.
However, at 30 weeks gestation, the woman is admitted to the
2. Match the morphogenesis problem with the resulting fetal hospital in preterm labor. Because of the teratogenic effects of
abnormality: her antiseizure medications in her first child, she is extremely
concerned about potential effects of tocolytic medications.
A. Deformation 1. Amniotic bands Her obstetrician discusses the risks and benefits of several pos-
B. Disruption 2. Arthrogryposis caused by sible tocolytic agents.
intrauterine constraints
4. Of the following, the tocolytic medication that has been as-
C. Dysplasia 3. Cleft palate
sociated with pulmonary hypertension in the newborn is:
D. Malformation 4. Hemangioma
A. Indomethacin
B. Magnesium sulfate
Delivery is induced at 34 weeks gestation because of con- C. Nifedipine
cerns about significant intrauterine growth restriction. D. Terbutaline
CASE8
Maternal substance use
A woman and her husband have tried for several years to pediatrician to review the infants medical history. Upon
have a baby. Because they have been unsuccessful, they meet review of the medical records, the pediatrician notes that
with an adoption agency. The agency offers them an option the baby was born by emergent cesarean section because of
to adopt a 6-month-old boy. The couple then meets with a placental abruption.
1. Of the following, the maternal drug that has been associ- The pediatrician then looks at a picture of the infant and tells
ated with placental abruption is: the couple that the infant likely has fetal alcohol syndrome.
A. Cocaine 4. Of the following, a common physical finding in infants
B. Heroin with fetal alcohol syndrome is (a):
C. Methadone
D. Morphine A. Long nose
B. Long palpebral fissures
During the newborn period, the infant had the following C. Macrocephaly
symptoms after birth: D. Thin upper lip
Irritability The parents are not concerned about the infants physical fea-
Shrill, high-pitched cry tures but want to know about the babys long-term neurologi-
Tremors cal prognosis.
Hyperreflexia
Hypertonia 5. Of the following, the least likely neurological outcome in
Nasal stuffiness this infant is:
Tachypnea
A. Behavioral issues
Frequent sneezing
B. Cognitive deficits
Poor feeding
C. Macrocephaly
Loose, watery stools
D. Structural brain abnormalities
Vomiting
Given the potential of significant medical issues in this baby, the
2. Of the following, the maternal drug that is least likely to family decides not to pursue the adoption. A few weeks later, the
lead to neonatal withdrawal symptoms is: adoption agency contacts the couple again about a 7-month-old
infant girl. The infants medical records reveal that the mother
A. Codeine
smoked one pack per day throughout the pregnancy. She had
B. Heroin
monthly drug testing that was negative except for one positive
C. Methamphetamine
test for marijuana. The infant was born at term gestation with
D. Methadone
a normal birth weight and did not have any medical problems
These withdrawal symptoms resolved with treatment, and by a after birth. She has been developing appropriately without any
few weeks of age, the infant was symptom-free and not receiv- medical concerns. The couple again meets with the pediatrician
ing any medications. to discuss the potential effects of smoking on the baby.
3. Of the following, potential drugs that can be used to treat 6. Of the following, a potential effect of prenatal exposure to
neonatal withdrawal are: tobacco is:
CASE 9
Delivery room assessment
Fetal heart rate monitoring of a fetus at 40 weeks gestation neonatology fellow, pediatric resident, and neonatal nurse,
reveals decreased fetal heart rate variability and a prolonged evaluates the infant. The team begins to dry the baby and
late deceleration. The obstetrician asks the neonatology team provide stimulation. Because the infant does not have any
to be present for an emergent cesarean delivery. respiratory effort, the pediatric resident provides bag-mask
After delivery, the infant is brought over to a radiant ventilation and the nurse places a pulse oximeter on the in-
warmer. The neonatology team, consisting of a neonatologist, fants right wrist. The nurse reports that the infants heart rate
is 80beats per minute. The resident continues to provide pos- The Apgar score at 5 minutes of age is 8. The father asks the
itive-pressure ventilation. At 1 minute of age, the team notes neonatologist about the significance of his infants low Apgar
that the infant has: score at 1 minute of age.
A heart rate of 78 beats per minute 3. Of the following, the statement that the neonatologist is
An oxygen saturation of 65% most likely to say to the father is:
No respiratory effort
No spontaneous movements A. An amplitude electroencephalogram can help assess if
No tone the infants status at 1 minute of age has impacted the
Poor perfusion infants brain activity.
B. The infants Apgar score < 3 at 1 minute of age corre-
1. Of the following, the clinical finding that is not used when lates with a 1% risk of cerebral palsy.
calculating an infants Apgar score is: C. The infants Apgar score is a poor indicator of neurologi-
cal outcome.
A. Activity D. The infant is at increased risk for seizure activity in the
B. Color first 24 hours of age.
C. Perfusion
D. Respiratory rate The next morning, the pediatrician and a third-year medical
student examine the full-term infant in the newborn nursery.
2. Of the following, the number that corresponds to this The pediatrician discusses the physical examination findings
infants Apgar score at 1 minute is: in a full-term infant compared with those of a preterm and
postterm infant.
A. 0
B. 1 4. Of the following, the physical finding often found in a pre-
C. 2 term infant is (are):
D. 3
A. Cracked, wrinkled skin
The team continues to provide positive-pressure ventilation B. Excessive plantar creases
and the infants heart rate increases to 150 by 2 minutes of age. C. Instant recoil of ear pinna
The infant starts to breathe spontaneously and becomes active. D. Minimal flexion of arms and legs at rest
CASE 10
Delivery room resuscitation
A group of medical students attend a simulation course about Using a newborn mannequin, the instructor then demon-
neonatal resuscitation. The instructor begins the class by strates appropriate bag-mask ventilation and chest compres-
showing a video of a resuscitation using a high-fidelity new- sions. The students review the details of these techniques and
born simulator. The instructor asks the students to identify the then practice on the mannequin.
resuscitative actions that were appropriate.
2. Of the following, the most appropriate technique to pro-
1. Of the following, the action that is most appropriate in the vide effective chest compressions in a newborn is:
resuscitation of a newborn is:
A. Apply compressions over the upper third of the new-
A. Continued stimulation of a newborn with a slow heart borns sternum
rate and apnea B. Compress to a depth one-third the anteriorposterior
B. Establishment of a patent airway before applying posi- diameter of the chest
tive-pressure ventilation C. Provide chest compressions and bag-mask breaths in a
C. Placement of a pulse oximeter probe on the new- ratio of 2:1
borns right wrist after 5 minutes of positive-pressure D. Use the two-finger technique instead of the two-thumb-
ventilation encircling-hands approach
D. Technique of applying low peak inspiratory pressure by
bag-mask ventilation for the first few assisted breaths
3. Of the following, an indication for beginning chest com- gestation with severe respiratory distress. Thin meconium was
pressions in a newborn is: noted when the membranes ruptured prior to delivery and
there were no sepsis risk factors.
A. If the heart rate does not increase above 60 beats per min-
ute despite effective ventilation with oxygen for 30 seconds 4. Of the following, the approach that might have decreased
B. If the heart rate is less than 30 beats per minute imme- the severity of this newborns respiratory disease is:
diately after birth
C. If the newborn remains cyanotic despite appropriate A. Administration of maternal steroids prior to delivery
bag-mask ventilation B. Initiation of continuous positive airway pressure soon
D. If the newborns perfusion is extremely poor after after birth
30seconds of bag-mask ventilation C. Intubation and suctioning the infants trachea if the
infant was not vigorous immediately after birth
The instructor then shows the students a chest radiograph D. Minimal use of oxygen supplementation in the delivery
(Figure 1) of a 30-minute-old newborn born at 36 weeks room
CASE 11
Small-for-gestational-age infant
Figure 1 shows three fetal growth curves. 2. Of the following, the most likely cause of the fetal growth
pattern in Curve 3 is:
Curve 1 A. Familial short stature
B. Maternal gestational diabetes
Growth
Curve 2 C. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
curves
Curve 3
D. Twin gestation
90%
A high-risk obstetrician is closely monitoring a pregnant
50%
woman with pregnancy-induced hypertension because of fe-
10% tal growth restriction. After a poor fetal biophysical profile at
34 40 36 weeks gestation, the obstetrician decides to induce labor.
Gestational age (weeks) Because the fetal heart rate patterns show late decelerations
FIGURE 1. with each contraction, the obstetrician delivers the baby by
1. Of the following, the graph(s) (Figure 1) that represents a cesarean.
fetus with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is (are):
A. Curve 1 C. Curve 3
B. Curve 2 D. Curves 1 and 2
The neonatal team attends the delivery and needs to ad- 3. Of the following, the morbidity that is most likely in this
minister bag-mask ventilation because the infant emerges infant is:
apneic. After 1 minute of assisted ventilation, the infant is
A. Anemia
breathing spontaneously and well-appearing. The babys birth
B. Hypercalcemia
weight is 2,000 g, which is 6th percentile for a baby born at 36
C. Hyperthermia
weeks gestation.
D. Hypoglycemia
CASE 12
Initial care of the premature infant
A pregnant woman presents to the hospital with s pontaneous The baby is then brought to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
rupture of membranes and contractions. Her obstetrician for further care. The neonatal nurse places the infant on a radi-
orders antenatal steroids and antibiotics. Although tocolysis ant warmer and assesses the infants vital signs. The pediatric
is attempted, her labor progresses and she delivers a preterm resident orders laboratory studies, a chest radiograph, and an
infant at 28 weeks gestation with a birth weight of 1,200 g intravenous solution containing total parenteral nutrition.
(70%). The pediatric resident meets with the family to discuss the re-
sults of these studies and the management plan.
1. Of the following, the term that best describes this infant is:
3. Of the following, the current issue that is least likely to be
A. Low-birth-weight (LBW) infant
present in this 1-hour-old infant is:
B. Very low-birth-weight (VLBW) infant
C. Extremely low-birth-weight (ELBW) infant A. Anemia of prematurity
D. Micropremie B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypothermia
The neonatology team cares for the infant immediately af-
D. Hypoxemia
ter delivery. At 5 minutes of age, the infant is receiving facial
continuous positive airway pressure because of respiratory
distress and appears hypotonic with decreased reflex irritabil- 4. Of the following, the laboratory studies that were most
ity. The infants Apgar score is 5 and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes, likely sent on this infant are:
respectively. A. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine
The neonatology fellow updates the parents in the delivery B. Complete blood cell count and blood culture
room. The parents express concern that the babys Apgar score C. Serum electrolytes
is lower than their older childs score; the parents relate that D. Serum transaminases
the infants sibling was born at 39 weeks gestation and had
an Apgar score of 8 at 1 minute of age and 9 at 5 minutes of
age. The fellow is reassures the parents and discusses that a
premature infant often cannot achieve as high an Apgar score
as does a full-term infant.
secti on I
Answers
Maternal serum
0.02
12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40
SUGGESTED READINGS
Week of gestation Blumenfeld Y. First trimester screening for fetal aneuploidy. NeoReviews.
FIGURE 2. From Seppala M, ed. Amniotic Fluid. 2nd ed. New York, NY: 2012;13:e4e8.
Excerpta Medica; 1978, with permission Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Cunningham FG, Leveno KJ, Bloom SL, et al., eds. Williams Obstetrics.
2. C. Trisomy 21 23rd ed. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill; 2009.
The combination of maternal serum -fetoprotein, unconju-
gated estriol, -human chorionic gonadotropin, and inhibin
A testing is known as a quadruple screen. It is typically mea- CASE 2 ANSWERS
sured between 14 and 20 weeks gestation, with 16 weeks
gestation being the optimal time. Assessment of these results 1. A. Anencephaly
can help determine the risk of fetal chromosomal anomalies, This ultrasonographic image demonstrates a poorly developed,
particularly trisomy 21 and trisomy 18. If this second trimester small head that is most consistent with anencephaly. Anenceph-
testing is combined with first trimester maternal pregnancy- aly is caused by a failure of the anterior tube to close, leading to
associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) levels and first trimester degeneration of the forebrain within the first month of gesta-
nuchal translucency measurements, the detection rate of tri- tion. This results in absence of most of the brain tissue, skull,
somy 21 approaches 90% to 95%. and scalp; an affected fetus may have sparing of the brainstem
In this vignette, the pregnant womans quadruple screen and cerebellum. The maternal serum -fetoprotein is often el-
is normal except for an elevated -fetoprotein. An isolated evated. Ultrasonographic findings are typically apparent by 15
weeks gestation. This abnormality needs to be distinguished of the herniated mass. The liver is often within the covered sac
from a ruptured encephalocele or amniotic bands involving the (designated as L in Figure 5). An infant with an omphalocele
scalp. Although holoprosencephaly, hydrocephalus, and me- has a much higher risk of additional anomalies (45%80%)
ningomyelocele can all be diagnosed by fetal ultrasonography, compared with an infant who has a gastroschisis.
these findings are not apparent on this radiographic image.
4. C. Posterior urethral valves
2. D. Large Ventricular septal defect The image shown in this vignette is most consistent with
The fetal ultrasound imaging shows two ventricular chambers posterior urethral valves. This diagnosis is suggested by fe-
that are not separated by a septum (white dots). Thus, the fe- tal ultrasonography if there is bilateral hydronephrosis, a hy-
tus in this vignette also has a large ventricular septal defect. droureter, a thick-walled large bladder, and dilation of the
Transabdominal echocardiography can be helpful to further proximal urethra. The diagnosis can be confirmed postnatally
delineate cardiac defects. The optimal timing of perform- by a voiding cystourethrogram that demonstrates the valve
ing transabdominal echocardiography is between 18 and leaflets.
32weeks gestation; however, this procedure can be performed
as early as 14 weeks gestation. A transvaginal approach can be 5. A. Healthy term infant
performed as early as 10 weeks gestation, but the quality of the Choroid plexus cysts are thought to be caused by fluid- and
images are dependent on the position and activity of the fetus. debris-filled neuroepithelial folds. This finding is usually iso-
Most cardiac defects are apparent by routine fetal ultraso- lated and seen in 0.5% of normal fetuses. If the fetus has
nography between 18 and 22 weeks gestation. If a defect is other anomalies, the finding of these cysts raises the possibil-
observed, it can be further delineated by fetal echocardiogra- ity that the fetus has trisomy 18.
phy. The following cardiac defects may not always be identified
by fetal echocardiography:
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Small ventricular or atrial septal defect, CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Coarctation of the aorta, and
Minor valve abnormalities. Recognize that prenatal ultrasonography can detect ma-
jor fetal anomalies (e.g., hydrocephalus or anencephaly,
3. A. Dehydration myelomeningocele, congenital heart defects, gastro-
This fetal ultrasound demonstrates loops of bowel without a intestinal or genitourinary abnormalities) as early as
covering sac outside the abdominal cavity; this abnormality 16weeks gestation
is consistent with a gastroschisis. In this lesion, the abdomi-
nal wall defect is located to the right of an intact umbilical
cord. The diagnosis is typically made in the second trimester.
SUGGESTED READINGS
An infant with gastroschisis has a 10% to 20% risk of addi-
tional anomalies. Because bowel is exposed, infants with gas- Bianchi D, Crombleholme T, DAlton M, et al. Fetology: Diagnosis and
troschisis are at increased risk for dehydration and infection Management of the Fetal Patient. 2nd ed. New York, NY: McGraw-
after birth. If an intestinal atresia is present (16% of affected Hill; 2010.
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
infants), infants may have bilious emesis. 2010.
In contrast to gastroschisis, an omphalocele is an abdomi-
nal wall defect that has a covering membrane (large white a rrow
in Figure 5) with an umbilical vein (uv in image) that is part CASE 3 ANSWERS
FIGURE 5. From Eisenberg RL. An Atlas of Differential Diagnosis. 4th ed. In periumbilical blood sampling, also known as cordocente-
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 1.21 sis, a needle is placed through the pregnant womans abdomen
into the umbilical cord using real-time ultrasonography. The 3. B. Elevated lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
most common indications for performing this procedure During the end of the third trimester, the fetal lung begins
include: to mature. An amniocentesis can measure specific surfac-
tant components to assess for fetal lung maturity. Phospha-
Need for rapid chromosomal analysis
tidylglycerol typically increases after 34 weeks gestation and
Assessment for fetal anemia in red cell isoimmunization
correlates with lung maturation. Similarly, lecithin content
Evaluation for fetal infection
increases with advancing gestational age and increasing lung
Evaluation of nonimmune hydrops
maturity. Because sphingomyelin is a lipid within amniotic
Assessment for fetal thrombocytopenia in alloimmune
fluid that is not related to fetal lung maturation, it can be used
thrombocytopenia
to standardize amniotic fluid volume changes. Thus, the ratio
Chorionic villus sampling allows for reliable testing for of lecithin to sphingomyelin correlates with lung maturation
DNA analysis, karyotype, and biochemical abnormalities and normalizes amniotic fluid volume. Phosphatidylinositol
early in pregnancy. In the transvaginal (also known as trans is present in fetal lung fluid in the beginning of the third tri-
cervical) approach, a catheter is placed through the cervix mester, and its levels decrease as the lung matures. Thus, the
into the placental tissue using real-time ultrasonography. following are consistent with mature fetal lungs:
A syringe containing nutrient medium is then attached to Presence of phosphatidylglycerol (10%)
the catheter and pulled back until villi are visible in the sy- Elevated lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio (ideal if >2)
ringe. In the transabdominal approach, a needle is placed Low amounts of phosphatidylinositol (2%)
across the pregnant womans abdomen into the placenta
using real-time ultrasonography and villi are aspirated into This diagnostic approach to fetal lung maturity assessment is
the syringe. Chorionic villus sampling is usually performed no longer commonly performed. This is partly because obstetri-
by a transvaginal approach; however, a transabdominal ap- cians are performing elective preterm deliveries only for signifi-
proach can be used if karyotype analysis is needed late in cant maternal or fetal indications and the fetal lung maturity
pregnancy. results would not impact their decision to deliver an infant.
2. B. Fetal ultrasonography
DNA testing can be performed using amniotic fluid ob- AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
tained by an amniocentesis, fetal blood obtained by peri- CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
umbilical blood sampling, and placental cells obtained
Chorionic villus sampling
from chorionic villus sampling. If a specific DNA abnor-
Know that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed prenatally
mality is of concern, chorionic villus sampling is the pre-
(e.g., chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis, fetal
ferred method because this procedure obtains the largest
erythrocytes)
amount of tissue for testing. At present, some of the most
common diseases that can be prenatally diagnosed using Amniocentesis
DNA analysis include: Know the appropriate tests for predicting the absence of
neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
1-Antitrypsin deficiency
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Cystic fibrosis SUGGESTED READINGS
DiGeorge syndrome
Bianchi D, Crombleholme T, DAlton M, et al. Fetology: Diagnosis and
Fragile X syndrome Management of the Fetal Patient. 2nd ed. New York, NY: McGraw-
Muscular and myotonic dystrophy Hill; 2010.
Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Phenylketonuria Martin RJ, Fanaroff AA, Walsh MC. Fanaroff and Martins Neonatal
Retinoblastoma Perinatal Medicine: Diseases of the Fetus and Infant. 9th ed. Philadel-
Sickle cell disease phia, PA: Mosby; 2010.
Spinal muscular atrophy
Thalassemia
TaySachs disease CASE 4 ANSWERS
WiskottAldrich syndrome
1. C. Normal fetal heart rate response to fetal movement
Cell-free DNA obtained from the maternal circulation is an The nonstress test assesses the fetal heart rate in response to
exciting new method of fetal genetic testing. Currently, ma- fetal movements. The upper strip of the nonstress test, shown
ternal blood can be analyzed to determine fetal gender, fetal in the question, represents the fetal heart rate pattern and the
Rh (D) genotype, some aneuploidies, and some single gene lower strip corresponds with uterine activity. Arrows on the
disorders. bottom of the upper strip indicate fetal movement.
If a fetus has two accelerations in heart rate that are asso- Fetal breathing
ciated with fetal movements within a 20-minute period, the Fetal muscle tone
nonstress test is reactive. A nonreactive nonstress test result Amniotic fluid volume
occurs if there are fewer than two accelerations in heart rate
Each of these parameters receives a score of 2 if normal or
during a period of 20 minutes. In this scenario, the test is then
0 if abnormal. The highest score is 10, suggesting a well fetus
repeated 20 minutes later. While a reactive nonstress result
who does not require any intervention. If the biophysical score
is predictive of intrauterine survival for 7 days, a nonreactive
is 0 or 2, the obstetrician is likely to deliver the fetus because of
nonstress test may suggest a compromised fetus. Because a
the possibility of fetal asphyxia.
nonreactive result is not specific for poor fetal well-being, fur-
Blood flow within the umbilical arteries moves from the
ther testing (e.g., biophysical profile) is required.
fetal to placental circulation. Doppler studies can assess the
This fetal strip demonstrates a reactive nonstress test be-
blood flow in the umbilical arteries during diastole to evaluate
cause the fetus has four accelerations following four fetal
placental insufficiency. If the placenta is not functioning well,
movements. The strip also shows that the fetus has good heart
the placental vascular resistance will increase. If this happens,
rate variability throughout the monitored period. While a
the flow through the umbilical arteries will be decreased or,
nonstress test also demonstrates uterine activity, regular and
if the placental vascular resistance is extremely high, the flow
frequent contractions are not seen on this fetal strip. A non-
in the umbilical arteries will be reversed. Possible umbilical
stress test does not measure the fetal breathing pattern or am-
artery Doppler study results are:
niotic fluid volume.
An example of a nonreactive nonstress test is shown in Normal umbilical artery blood velocity
Figure2B. While the upper panel (A) shows that the fetal heart Increased resistance but blood flow is still present during
rate increases in response to two fetal movements, the lower diastole
panel (B) shows that the fetal heart rate does not change after Absence of umbilical arterial blood flow during dias-
a fetal movement. tole (leads to decreased blood flow from the fetus to the
placenta)
Reversal of umbilical arterial blood flow during diastole
Doppler flow studies of the umbilical arteries are not part of
the biophysical profile fetal assessment.
Reactive NST
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Nonstress test: Know that the nonstress test monitors fe-
tal heart rate reactivity in response to fetal activity
Stress test: Recognize that the stress test is used to evalu-
Nonreactive NST ate uteroplacental insufficiency
FIGURE 2. From Beckmann CRB, Ling FW, et al. Obstetrics and Biophysical profile: Know the factors used by obstetri-
Gynecology. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; cians in evaluating fetal well-being
2006. Figure 5.02
who does not have any vascular disease has an 9% risk of viscosity, which results in poor blood flow and decreased
having an infant with congenital anomalies. In contrast, if the tissue oxygenation. Similar to the infant in this case, babies
woman has nephropathy or retinopathy, this risk increases to with polycythemia often appear ruddy and have an oxygen
22%. Recent studies have found that the risk of congenital requirement.
anomalies correlates with the degree of uncontrolled diabe- The infant in this vignette is unlikely to have cyanotic heart
tes prior to conception. If a woman achieves glycemic control disease because his oxygen saturation increased to normal
prior to conception, the risk of congenital anomalies is 2.5% with supplemental oxygen. While the infant is likely to have a
compared with 7.8% in women who attain glycemic con- patent ductus arteriosus at 3 hours of age, it is unlikely to be
trol after becoming pregnant. Glycemic control in pregnant causing the cyanosis. If the cause of this infants cyanosis is
women can be assessed by measuring the hemoglobin A1C from significant right-to-left shunting across a patent ductus
values, with lower hemoglobin A1C values correlating with arteriosus, one would expect the infant to have radiographic
better glucose control. evidence of decreased pulmonary blood flow and the cyanosis
should be more significant. If the infant had significant left-
2. C. Small left colon syndrome
to-right shunting across a patent ductus arteriosus, one would
The fetal structural anomalies associated with women with
expect the infant to have radiographic evidence of increased
diabetes mellitus typically occur prior to 2 months gestation,
pulmonary blood flow. An infant with retained fetal lung fluid
at the time of organogenesis. Most of these anomalies involve
leading to transient tachypnea of the newborn may have a
the cardiac and neurological systems and include:
small oxygen requirement but also should have an increased
Cardiac: transposition of the great arteries, ventricular respiratory rate and radiographic evidence of increased fetal
septal defect, atrial septal defect, hypoplastic left heart lung fluid. Infants of diabetic women are at increased risk for
syndrome, aortic stenosis, coarctation of the aorta surfactant deficiency even if they are born at term gestational
Neurologic: meningomyelocele, encephalocele, anencephaly age; however, this is unlikely in this case because the infant
does not have any respiratory distress.
Infants are also at risk for caudal regression syndrome, which
consists of spinal abnormalities and syringomyelia. Renal 5. A. Hypocalcemia
anomalies (hydronephrosis, renal agenesis, cystic kidneys) Infants born to women with diabetes mellitus are at increased
and intestinal atresias can also occur. risk for hypocalcemia. This most likely results from a delay
Small left colon syndrome usually occurs during the second in the appropriate parathyroid hormone response after birth.
half of gestation, after organogenesis is complete. In this syn- Infants born to women with diabetes are also at risk for hypo-
drome, the diameter of the descending colon, sigmoid colon, magnesemia as a result of the decreased postnatal parathyroid
and rectum are smaller than normal. The cause is thought to hormone response and maternal hypomagnesemia from renal
be related to large changes in maternal and fetal serum glucose losses leading to decreased placental transfer of magnesium
concentrations. Affected infants often present with signs of during gestation. Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia usually
intestinal obstruction, such as bilious emesis and abdominal occur within the first few days of life, especially if the infant
distention. has respiratory distress.
4. B. Polycythemia
Infants born to women with insulin-dependent diabetes
SUGGESTED READINGS
are at increased risk of having polycythemia. This associa- Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
tion is likely a result from increased oxygen consumption in 2010.
utero, prompting the fetal bone marrow to produce more red Nold JL, Georgieff MK. Infants of diabetic mothers. Pediatr Clin N Am.
2004;619637.
blood cells to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. After birth, White BA and Porterfield SP. Endocrine and Reproductive Physiology. 4th
cyanosis may then occur because of an increase in blood ed. St Louis, MO: Mosby; 2012.
Hematologic (35%)
CASE 6 ANSWERS
Hepatobiliary (9%25%)
1. A. Complete heart block Hematologic complications include anemia, thrombocyto-
This infants electrocardiogram shows complete heart block penia, and neutropenia. These manifestations typically occur
because there is no association between the depolarization of during the second week of life and resolve by 3 months of
the atria and the ventricles. In first-degree heart block, the PR age. If hematologic manifestations are severe and persistent,
interval is consistently prolonged but is followed by a QRS treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and/or cortico-
complex. Infants with sinus bradycardia will have a slow heart steroids may be indicated. Hepatobiliary findings typically
rate with a normal sinus rhythm evident by a QRS complex include transiently elevated transaminases and conjugated
appropriately following every P wave. In a Wenckebach pattern hyperbilirubinemia, first occurring at a few weeks of age. In
of second-degree atrioventricular heart block (also known as addition to these complications, recent data suggest that af-
Mobitz type I), electrocardiographic findings will demonstrate fected infants are also at risk for central nervous system injury.
increasing PR intervals followed by QRS complexes until the Thus, affected neonates require close neurological follow-up.
PR interval becomes so prolonged that an atrial impulse is not Based on these clinical manifestations, if an infant is
conducted and the QRS complex is absent. diagnosed with neonatal lupus, the following tests are
2. C. Anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies recommended:
The infant described in this vignette has complete heart block Electrocardiogram
and annular erythematous plaques on the face and trunk. These Complete blood count
two findings are found in infants with neonatal lupus erythe- Transaminases
matosus. Neonatal lupus is a rare autoimmune disease that is Direct bilirubin
usually benign and self-limited. It is caused by maternal anti-
Ro/SSA and/or anti-La/SSB antibodies that cross the placenta. In addition, head imaging should be considered, particularly
A rash is the most common clinical manifestation of if an infant has neurological symptoms. If an affected infant
neonates with lupus. This rash usually appears during the has hematuria or proteinuria, an evaluation for nephritis
first weeks of life and is characterized by round or elliptical should be considered.
erythematous lesions with a central clearing (i.e., annular er-
ythema). These findings are typically found on the face and
scalp but can also be observed on an infants neck, trunk, and AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
extremities. The classic malar rash found in adults with lupus CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
is uncommon in infants with lupus. The rash typically resolves
Identify the clinical picture of neonatal lupus, including
spontaneously by 8 months of age when the maternal autoan-
heart block
tibodies have been completely cleared from the infants body.
Know which tests are useful in evaluating neonatal lupus
Sometimes, residual skin abnormalities such as dyspigmenta-
tion, telangiectasias, or skin atrophy may occur.
Infants with neonatal lupus can have first-, second-, or
third-degree (i.e., complete) heart block caused by antibody- SUGGESTED READINGS
mediated injury to the fetal and neonatal cardiac conduction
tissues. Neonatal lupus is responsible for 85% of cases of Frankovich J, Sandborg C, Barnes P, et al. Neonatal lupus and related
autoimmune disorders of infants. NeoReviews. 2008;9:e206e217.
complete heart block. However, the incidence of complete White BA and Porterfield SP. Endocrine and Reproductive Physiology. 4th
heart block in infants born to mothers with anti-Ro/SSA or ed. St Louis, MO: Mosby; 2012.
anti-La/SSB antibodies is low, only 1% to 2%. If a woman with
lupus has a child with neonatal lupus and heart block, the risk
of heart block increases dramatically to 16% to 18% in sub- CASE 7 ANSWERS
sequent pregnancies. Complete heart block can be associated
with significant morbidity and mortality. 1. A. All anticonvulsants marketed prior to 1976 have
been shown to have teratogenic effects
3. C. 50% All antiseizure medications marketed prior to 1976, includ-
Approximately half of the infants affected with lupus are ing carbamazepine, hydantoin, phenobarbital, and valproate,
born to undiagnosed, healthy mothers. These asymptomatic have been shown to have teratogenic effects when exposure
women are often diagnosed after delivery, when their infant occurs during the first trimester. These effects have varying clin-
presents with symptoms of neonatal lupus. ical manifestations and degrees of severity. The most common
4. D. Thrombocytopenia manifestations observed in infants are:
Infants with neonatal lupus are at risk of the following clinical
Digit hypoplasia,
manifestations:
Growth restriction,
Cutaneous (70%) Midface hypoplasia, and
Cardiac (65%) Microcephaly.
Intrauterine exposure to carbamazepine and valproate also in- A dysplasia is an abnormal organization of cells within tissues
creases the risk for meningomyelocele. Fortunately, the associ- caused by a deregulation. A hemangioma and ectodermal dys-
ated major malformations are relatively uncommon. Indeed, plasia are examples of dysplasias.
most of the major malformations found in infants exposed to
3. C. Nasal hypoplasia and stippled bone epiphyses
intrauterine anticonvulsants are also common in unexposed
First-trimester exposure to warfarin can lead to a syndrome
children. Older children exposed to anticonvulsants in utero
of nasal hypoplasia and stippled epiphyses. Approximately
are at increased risk for cognitive disabilities.
one-third of exposed fetuses have these findings. Affected
The infant described in this vignette has some clinical fea-
infants often present with upper airway obstruction that
tures that are consistent with intrauterine hydantoin exposure.
is improved with an oral airway. Because heparin does not
The fetal hydantoin syndrome consists of:
cross the placenta, heparin has not been associated with
Digit and nail hypoplasia teratogenic effects and is often used as a substitute for
Craniofacial features, such as wide anterior fontanel; me- warfarin.
topic ridging; ocular hypertelorism; broad, depressed na- Previous data has identified an association between intra-
sal bridge; short nose; cleft lip and palate uterine exposure to lithium and Ebstein anomaly. However,
Growth deficiency, usually of prenatal onset recent studies question this association.
Mental deficiency, usually mild First-trimester exposure to retinoic acid can lead to abnor-
mal findings, such as central nervous system abnormalities,
2.
A. Deformation 2. Arthrogryposis caused by microtia, and cardiac defects. The possible central nervous
intrauterine constraints system findings include hydrocephalus, microcephaly, abnor-
B. Disruption 1. Amniotic bands malities in neuronal migration, and posterior fossa structural
abnormalities.
C. Dysplasia 4. Hemangioma
Maternal tetracycline intake during pregnancy has been as-
D. Malformation 3. Cleft palate sociated with a yellow-brown discoloration of deciduous teeth
and impaired bone growth in the exposed child.
There are four types of problems in morphogenesis: mal-
4. A. Indomethacin
formation, deformation, disruption, and dysplasia. A mal-
Prolonged use of indomethacin, a prostaglandin synthase in-
formation is caused by an abnormality in tissue formation
hibitor, is associated with risks, including oligohydramnios,
associated with an environmental exposure, a genetic abnor-
premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, renal insufficiency,
mality, or an unknown cause. These problems typically impact
pulmonary hypertension, ileal perforation, and necrotizing
the fetus during the first trimester and can lead to minor or
enterocolitis.
major malformations. Some examples of malformations are:
Magnesium sulfate decreases uterine contractility by inhib-
Anencephaly iting acetylcholine release from the neuromuscular junction
Bladder exstrophy and functioning as a calcium antagonist. Postnatal effects of
Branchial sinus or cyst intrauterine exposure to magnesium sulfate include decreased
Cleft lip or palate peristalsis, hypotension, hypotonia, and apnea.
Diaphragmatic hernia Nifedipine is a calcium-channel blocking agent that de-
Hypospadius creases uterine contractility. Prolonged use of nifedipine dur-
Intestinal atresias ing pregnancy can lead to uteroplacental insufficiency.
Meningomyelocele Terbutaline is a 2-agonist that leads to decreased intracel-
Omphalocele lular calcium, inhibiting uterine contractility. Use of terbuta-
Transposition of the great arteries line during pregnancy can lead to fetal tachycardia.
The recurrence risk typically ranges between 1% and 5%. A
syndrome occurs when a fetus has many primary malforma-
tions caused by one etiology. AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
A deformation occurs when there are mechanical forces CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
that alter normal tissue formation. Some examples of defor-
mations are arthrogryposis caused by intrauterine constraints Recognize that the use of some anticonvulsants during
and breech deformation sequence. Most deformations have a pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of fetal
good prognosis and the risk for recurrence is very low, unless anomalies
there is a persistent issue, such as a bicornate uterus. Know the effect on a fetus of lithium use during pregnancy
A disruption occurs when there is a breakdown of normal Know that isotretinoin is a potent teratogen
tissue. Some examples of disruptions are: Know the effect on a fetus of warfarin use during pregnancy
Understand the effects of drugs given to the mother dur-
Amniotic bands ing labor (e.g., opiates, -adrenergic tocolytic agents) on
Limb reduction defects as a result of vascular anomalies the fetus/neonate
Porencephaly
Prenatal exposure to smoke places infants at increased risk for To recall the specific components of the Apgar score, it may
sudden infant death syndrome. be helpful to remember that the first letter of each sign spells
The effects of marijuana use during pregnancy are not clear. the word Apgar. The perfusion of an infant is not part of the
Some studies have demonstrated long-term cognitive deficits Apgar score.
and neurobehavioral concerns, but this has not been consis-
2. B. 1
tently found.
After birth, the medical team reports an infants Apgar score
by assessing the infants color, heart rate, reflex irritability,
tone, and respiratory effort. This assessment occurs at 1 and
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
5 minutes of age; if the Apgar score is less than 7 at 5 min-
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
utes of age, the scoring is continued every 5 minutes until the
Neonatal abstinence syndrome score is 7 or greater for up to 20 minutes. The team provides a
Know the association between the maternal use of co- score of 0, 1, or 2 for each of the five clinical signs, as shown
caine and neonatal withdrawal syndrome in Figure 1.
Know the association between the maternal use of barbi-
turates and neonatal withdrawal syndrome
Know the association between the maternal use of opi-
Apgar Scoring Chart
ates and neonatal withdrawal syndrome
Know the association between the maternal use of am- Score
phetamines and neonatal withdrawal syndrome Sign 0 1 2
Know the management of neonatal abstinence syndrome Heart rate Absent Slow (<100) >100
Respiratory Absent Slow, irregular; Good; strong
Fetal alcohol exposure effort weak cry cry
Recognize the physical features of fetal alcohol Muscle tone Flaccid Some flexion Well flexed
syndrome of extremities
Reflex
Know that fetal alcohol syndrome is a frequently docu- irritability
mented cause of mental retardation Response No Grimace Cough or
to catheter response sneeze
Know the association between the maternal use of alco- in nostril
hol and neonatal withdrawal syndrome or
slap of sole No Grimace Cry and with-
Maternal marijuana and smoking of foot response drawal of foot
Know the association between the maternal use of mari-
juana and any fetal abnormalities Color Blue, pale Body pink, Completely
extremities blue pink
Know the association between the maternal use of
tobacco and any fetal abnormalities FIGURE 1. Courtesy of Artesia Assets 2014 Lippincott W
illiams &
Wilkins. All rights reserved
The infant in this vignette has a heart rate, but it is less than 0 1 2 3 4 5
100 beats per minute. This corresponds to a score of 1. Because Skin Gelatinous
red, trans-
Smooth,
pink,
Superficial,
peeling
Cracking,
pale area,
Parchment, Leathery,
deep cracked,
the infant is cyanotic without any respiratory effort, tone, or parent visible
veins
&/or rash,
few veins
rare veins cracking,
no vessels
wrinkled
reflex irritability, the other signs have a score of 0 and the in- Lanugo None Abundant Thinning Bald Mostly
fants total score is 1. areas bald
condition after birth and was not intended to predict neuro- Breast Barely Flat Stippled Raised Full
percept. areola, areola, areola, areola,
logical outcome. While a low Apgar score at 1 minute of age no bud 12 mm 34 mm 510 mm
bud bud bud
shows that an infant needs medical assistance, it does not in-
Ear Pinna Sl. curved Well-curv. Formed & Thick
dicate long-term problems, especially if the 5-minute score is flat, pinna, soft pinna, firm with cartilage,
stays with slow soft but instant ear stiff
high. Thus, the neonatologist is most likely to tell the infants folded recoil ready recoil recoil
father that the Apgar score is a poor indicator of neurological Genitals Scrotum Testes Testes Testes
outcome. Male
empty,
no rugae
descend-
ing, few
down,
good
pendulous,
deep
An amplitude electroencephalogram is used to assess an in- rugae rugae rugae
Scarf
in this vignette is not at increased risk for seizure activity Sign 35 38
encephalopathy. Heel
to
45 42
Ear
50 44
4. D. Minimal flexion of arms and legs at rest
Infants born preterm, full-term, and postterm have specific B C
physical findings. A preterm infants examination may have FIGURE 2. From Ballard JL. New Ballard score expanded to include
the following characteristics: extremely premature infants. J Pediatr. 1991;119: 417423
Apply compressions over the lower third of the newborns Administration of maternal steroids prior to delivery
sternum Initiation of continuous airway pressure soon after
Compress to a depth one-third the anteriorposterior di- birth
ameter of the chest Intratracheal administration of surfactant soon after
Provide chest compressions and bag-mask breaths in a birth
ratio of 3:1 Although oxygen supplementation does lead to pulmonary
Use the two-thumb-encircling-hands approach instead of inflammation, minimizing the use of supplemental oxy-
the two-finger technique when possible gen would not have decreased the severity of this infants
disease.
The two-thumb-encircling technique is preferred because of
the likelihood that it generates greater coronary perfusion.
However, if a neonate requires an umbilical line placement,
the two-finger technique may need to be used to allow access
to the umbilicus. AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
3. A. If the heart rate does not increase above 60 beats
per minute despite effective ventilation with oxygen for Ventilation
30seconds Recognize the need to establish a patent airway before
It is really important that assisted ventilation is being deliv- applying positive-pressure ventilation
ered effectively before starting chest compressions. If a new- Recognize that a newborn who has a slow heart rate and
borns heart rate does not increase above 60 beats per minute impaired ventilatory effort requires immediate positive-
despite effective ventilation with oxygen for 30 seconds, chest pressure ventilation
compressions should be initiated. Know that the initial lung inflation may require in-
If a newborn has a heart rate less than 30 beats per minute creased pressure for the first breath
immediately after birth, the team should provide bag-mask Perfusion
ventilation. Know the proper technique for external cardiac massage
If a newborn remains cyanotic despite appropriate bag- in a newborn
mask ventilation, a team member should intubate the baby. Recognize the indications for external cardiac massage of
Decreased perfusion is not an indication for chest compres- a newborn during resuscitation
sions in a newborn. If a newborns perfusion is extremely poor Suctioning
with pale skin color and weak pulses, volume expansion is in- Recognize a newborns larynx needs to be visualized and
dicated if the heart rate has not responded to other resuscita- the trachea suctioned if meconium is present in the am-
tive approaches. Poor perfusion is not a specific indicator to niotic fluid and the infant is not vigorous
start chest compressions.
SUGGESTED READINGS These fetuses may have a growth curve similar to Curve 1 or
Curve 2.
American Academy of Pediatrics and American Heart Association. A woman with pregnancy-induced hypertension may have
Textbook of Neonatal Resuscitation. 6th ed. American Academy of associated placental insufficiency, which leads to a decrease in
Pediatrics; 2011.
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; fetal growth. Although this decrease in fetal growth may occur
2010. in the second or third trimester, it most commonly occurs in
the third trimester, similar to the pattern of growth shown in
Curve 1 or Curve 2.
CASE 11 ANSWERS Multiple gestation will also lead to a decrease in fetal
growth over time, partly because growth is limited by the
1. D. Curves 1 and 2
size of the uterus. Examples of typical fetal growth curves
Although the terms intrauterine growth restriction or IUGR and
for a twin, triplet, and quadruplet gestation are shown in
small for gestational age or SGA are often used interchangeably,
Figure 2.
they are actually distinct. A fetus or infant has growth restric-
tion if the intrauterine rate of growth is less than the prede-
termined growth potential of the fetus. Curve 1 corresponds 8
with a growth-restricted infant because the initial intrauterine Singletons
growth along the 75th percentile was disrupted, preventing the
infant from achieving his/her growth potential. At birth, the
6 Twins
infant had a normal birth weight percentile of 40%, which is
appropriate for gestational age.
Triplets
A neonate is described as being SGA if the babys birth Mean weight
weight is lower than that of the standard population, typically 4
lower than the 10th percentile of population-based weight Quads
data. Curve 3 represents an infant who is SGA because the
birth weight percentile is below the 10th percentile. Because 2
the fetal growth pattern was less than the 10th percentile
throughout gestation, there was no interruption of intrauter-
ine growth; thus, Curve 3 corresponds to an infant who is SGA
but not growth-restricted. 0
24 28 32 36 4042 and 43
An infant can have IUGR and be SGA if the intrauterine
Week of gestation
growth curve was disrupted and the infants birth weight
FIGURE 2. Adapted from McKeown T Record RG. Observation on
percentile is less than the 10th percentile. Curve 2 shows a foetal growth in multiple pregnancy in man. J Endocrinol 1952;8:386,
growth-restricted infant because the infants growth potential with permission
was never reached. The infant is also SGA because the birth
weight percentile is less than the 10th percentile.
Other causes of IUGR include maternal smoking, maternal
2. A. Familial short stature undernutrition, and intrauterine infection.
The intrauterine growth curve of a fetus with familial short
3. D. Hypoglycemia
stature may appear similar to Curve 3 with a low growth per-
Similar to the fetus in this vignette, growth-restricted fetuses
centile throughout the pregnancy. Fetuses with a genetic ab-
are at increased risk for intolerance of labor because uterine
normality may have a similar growth curve because of their
contractions cause additional stress to the fetus. This leads to
small size throughout gestation. However, some genetic ab-
a greater risk for cesarean delivery, need for neonatal resuscita-
normalities will cause IUGR, leading to an infant who is either
tion, and/or perinatal asphyxia.
SGA or an appropriate size for gestational age.
The infant in this vignette had a decline in intrauterine
Maternal gestational diabetes may impact fetal growth by
growth, which led to a low birth weight (less than 10th per-
leading to a large-for-gestational-age infant (i.e., above the
centile), characterizing the infant as IUGR and SGA. In gen-
90th percentile). This mechanism is caused by high maternal
eral, SGA infants have a higher mortality and a greater risk
serum glucose concentrations that cross into the fetal circula-
for morbidities compared with appropriate-for-gestational-
tion. The fetal pancreas responds by increasing insulin pro-
age infants. The two most common morbidities found in SGA
duction. Because insulin is an important intrauterine growth
infants include:
hormone, infants born to women with gestational diabetes
often have macrosomia. If a woman has severe type I diabetes Hypoglycemia because of decreased glycogen stores,
mellitus with significant small vessel disease, the fetal growth decreased gluconeogenesis, and increased sensitivity to
pattern may be inhibited because of placental insufficiency. insulin
Hypothermia because of decreased subcutaneous fat and While term infants may have a low resting heart rate, this
a large surface area to body-weight ratio finding is uncommon in premature infants.
Premature infants, especially those born less than 34 weeks
Because of these risks, clinicians will typically monitor the ini-
gestation, often have respiratory distress and cyanosis in the
tial serum glucose concentrations and temperatures of a SGA
delivery room as a result of surfactant deficiency. However,
infant.
these symptoms are unlikely to result from persistence of the
SGA infants are also at risk for polycythemia because of
fetal circulation because a preterm infants pulmonary vessel
chronic intrauterine hypoxemia. Finally, SGA infants may
musculature is inadequately developed.
have hypocalcemia because of decreased amount of calcium
Both term and preterm infants may have poor perfusion
acquired in utero.
soon after birth, but this finding will not alter an infants
Apgar score.
CASE 1
Ventilator management
A neonatology team was called to evaluate a full-term male Even though the team increases the Fio2 to 100% and increases
infant with severe respiratory distress and cyanosis at a few the PEEP to 7 cm H2O, the infant remains cyanotic and has
minutes of age. The infant had been born by vaginal delivery persistent respiratory distress. The infant is then intubated and
after his mother presented in spontaneous labor. Labor was placed on spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation
complicated by maternal fever. with the following settings:
Upon arrival, the pediatric resident initiates continuous
Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) of 26 cm H2O
positive airway pressure (CPAP) with 21% Fio2 using a bag-
PEEP = 6 cm H2O
mask. The infants work of breathing decreases and the baby
Rate = 25 breaths per minute
appears pink with a right-arm pulse oximetry reading of 94%.
Fio2 = 100%
The infants physical examination reveals decreased aeration
bilaterally. The infant is then admitted to the Neonatal Inten- A chest radiograph shows that the endotracheal tube is
sive Care Unit for further care. appropriately positioned and the lung fields reveal bilat-
In the intensive care unit, the baby is placed on a cardiovas- eral pneumonia. There is no evidence of a pneumothorax
cular monitor. The infants vital signs are: or pleural effusions. An echocardiograph reveals a structur-
ally normal heart with normal function and a patent duc-
HR = 160 beats per minute tus arteriosus with left-to-right (aorta to pulmonary artery)
RR = 84 breaths per minute shunting.
BP = 60/40 mm Hg A repeat arterial blood gas is obtained and the results are:
T = 100.9F (38.3C)
pH = 7.08, Paco2 = 95 mm Hg, Pao2 = 38 mm Hg, HCO3=
The nurse sends a complete blood count, blood culture, and 27 mEq/L, base excess = 1.8 mEq/L
an arterial blood gas. She also places an IV and administers The infants complete blood count results are:
intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin.
White blood cell count = 3 103/l (neutrophils 20%,
1. Of the following (noted in the table below), the normal bands 20%, lymphocytes 60%)
arterial blood gas results in a newborn in room air are: Hemoglobin = 11g/dL (mmol/L)
Hematocrit = 33% (0.33)
Option pH Paco2 (mm Hg) Pao2 (mm Hg) Platelet count = 150 103/l (150 109/L)
A. Metabolic acidosis In the setting of respiratory failure, the team attempts multiple
B. Metabolic alkalosis strategies to improve this infants oxygenation, including:
C. Respiratory acidosis
Ventilator change to a high-frequency oscillator
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Frequent endotracheal suctioning
The infants clinical examination worsens, and the infant has Packed red blood cell transfusion to increase the infants
severe respiratory distress and decreasing oxygen saturations. oxygen-carrying capacity
Sedation to prevent the infant from breathing against the 5. Of the following, the type of ECMO that is most indicated
ventilator in this infant is:
Placement of an arterial line for frequent arterial gas
A. Arterio-arterial (AA)
monitoring
B. Arteriovenous (AV)
Because this infant has severe respiratory failure with persis- C. Venoarterial (VA)
tent hypoxemia that has not responded to any medical inter- D. Veno-venous (VV)
ventions, the neonatal team consults the pediatric surgeon
The infant is placed on ECMO for 5 days, and with resolution
to place the infant on extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
of the pneumonia, the baby is able to be decannulated with-
(ECMO).
out difficulty. The infant is discharged home at 3 weeks of age
with close neurologic follow-up.
CASE 2
Apnea
A male infant is born at 30 weeks gestation. He initially has On the fifth day of life, he has five pauses in breathing, each
some respiratory distress, which requires treatment with con- lasting 15 seconds, and followed by cyanosis and bradycardia.
tinuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) for 12 hours. He These apneic events occur over a period of 1 hour. The neona-
starts nasogastric feedings at 24 hours of age and feedings are tology fellow meets with the babys mother to discuss possible
advanced slowly. At 48 hours of age, he has several episodes causes for this infants breathing pattern.
of periodic breathing.
3. Of the following, the least likely etiology for this infants
1. Of the following, the description that best describes peri- apnea is:
odic breathing is a:
A. Anemia
A. Pause in breathing associated with an inward movement B. Infection
of both the rib cage and the abdomen during inspiration C. Prematurity
B. Pause in breathing for longer than 20 seconds D. Reflux
C. Pause in breathing that is usually associated with either
After a complete evaluation and several interventions includ-
cyanosis or a decrease in heart rate
ing caffeine therapy, the infants apnea decreases to 1 to 4 epi-
D. Pause in breathing that is less than 20 seconds followed
sodes per day.
by several rapid shallow breaths
During the infants third and fourth day of life, he has three 4. Of the following, the least likely mechanism of caffeine
apneic events over a period of 24 hours. therapy is a(n):
CASE 3
Stridor
A nurse pages a pediatric resident to evaluate a 1-hour-old full- 2. Match the type of stridor with the most likely location of
term infant who is making a loud breathing noise. The resi- the obstruction:
dent assesses the baby and finds the following:
A. Biphasic stridor 1. Intrathoracic obstruction
A high-pitched upper airway sound that occurs during in- B. Expiratory stridor 2. Laryngeal obstruction
spiration and expiration
C. Inspiratory stridor 3. Supraglottic obstruction
An upper airway noise that worsens with crying and im-
proves when the infant is prone A few weeks later, the same pediatric resident is rotating in the
No respiratory distress Neonatal Intensive Care Unit. A neonatal intensive care nurse
No difficulty with feeding calls him to the bedside to evaluate an infant with respiratory
distress. The nurse reports that the female infant had been
1. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is:
born at 25 weeks gestation. Her clinical course had been com-
A. Choanal atresia plicated by severe lung disease requiring prolonged intuba-
B. Laryngomalacia tion. The infant had self-extubated a few minutes prior to the
C. Macroglossia residents arrival. Upon examination, the resident notices that
D. Tracheomalacia the infant has biphasic stridor and respiratory distress. The
resident asks the nurse to page the neonatologist. The neona-
The resident consults an otolaryngologist to help determine
tologist then intubates the infant after the second attempt, and
the cause of this infants breathing. The specialist discusses
an otolaryngologist evaluates the infant.
that the infants clinical findings often correspond to the lo-
cation of the obstruction. The otolaryngologist speaks with 3. Of the following, the most likely cause of this infants stri-
the infants parents and is optimistic about their infants long- dor is:
term prognosis.
A. Bronchospasm
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Subglottic stenosis
CASE 4
Surfactant deficiency
A pregnant woman presents at 32 weeks gestation with pre- 1. Of the following, the typical clinical course found in most
mature rupture of membranes. The obstetrician orders to- infants with surfactant deficiency is:
colytics, antibiotics, and dexamethasone. Despite tocolytic
A. Delayed respiratory symptoms in infants exposed pre-
therapy, the labor progresses and she delivers later that day.
natally to steroids
After birth, the infant has severe respiratory distress and cya-
B. Peak severity of illness usually occurs at 12 to 24 hours
nosis, requiring intubation. The neonatology fellow meets
of age
with the infants parents to discuss the infants expected clini-
C. Recovery begins at ~72 hours of age
cal course.
D. Respiratory symptoms are initially observed at 2 to
4hours of age
A respiratory therapist administers surfactant through the 3. Of the following, the radiographic finding that is most con-
infants endotracheal tube. sistent with surfactant deficiency is (are):
2. Of the following, the most likely effect of synthetic surfac- A. Air bronchograms
tant administration is to: B. Enlarged heart size
C. Heterogeneous lung disease
A. Decrease alveolar surface tension
D. Hyperinflated lung fields
B. Increase the pressure needed to keep alveoli open
C. Maintain bronchiolar patency After surfactant therapy, the infants ventilator support de-
D. Preferentially improve the surface tension of collapsed creases significantly and the infant is extubated to continuous
alveoli positive airway pressure (CPAP) at 8 hours of age.
The infants chest radiograph at 15 minutes of age is shown 4. Of the following, the least likely strategy to decrease the se-
in Figure 1. verity of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants is:
CASE 5
Pulmonary air leaks
A pediatric resident is asked to evaluate a full-term infant who 1. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is:
developed respiratory distress soon after birth. The resident ex-
A. Bilateral pneumothoraces
amines the infant and finds the following:
B. Left pneumothorax
RR = 70, HR = 160s, BP = 60/46, T = 98.6F (37C) C. Pneumomediastinum
Oxygen saturation = 88% in room air D. Right pneumothorax
Mild intercostal retractions
The infant has an oxygen saturation of 96% after being placed
Slightly decreased breath sounds on the left
in an oxygen hood with 100% Fio2. The neonatal nurse places
Slightly increased anteriorposterior diameter of the left
an IV and starts D10W at 60 ml/kg/day. The resident is unable
chest
to identify an air leak by transillumination and orders a chest
The resident suspects an air leak and brings the infant to the radiograph. While waiting for the results, the resident teaches
Neonatal Intensive Care Unit. the medical student about the radiographic findings found in
infants with air leaks.
A. Bilateral pneumothoraces
B. Left pneumothorax
C. Pneumomediastinum
D. Right pneumothorax
A. Esophageal atresia
B. Excessive bag-mask ventilation
FIGURE 1. From Eisenberg L. Clinical Imaging: An Atlas of Differential C. Severe lung disease requiring high ventilator pressures
Diagnosis. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
D. Spontaneous occurrence
2003. Figure 29.6A
The infants radiograph confirms that the infant has a small left
pneumothorax. Because the infant has mild respiratory dis-
tress and a normal oxygen saturation in a 50% oxygen hood,
the resident does not intervene. A few hours later, the neonatal
nurse pages the resident because the infant has increased work
of breathing. The infants examination reveals the following:
CASE 6
Meconium aspiration syndrome
A neonatology team is called to the delivery of a full-term in- 2. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is:
fant with thin meconium-stained amniotic fluid. The infant
A. Meconium aspiration syndrome
emerges without any respiratory effort, no activity, and a heart
B. Pneumothorax
rate of 55.
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
1. Of the following, the most appropriate next step in the man- D. Retained fetal lung fluid
agement of this infant is:
The neonatology fellow reviews the pathogenesis of this in-
A. Bag-mask ventilation fants disease with the pediatric resident.
B. Chest compressions
C. Intratracheal suctioning 3. Of the following, the pathophysiology that is least likely to
D. Intubation and positive pressure ventilation be occurring in this infant is:
After initial resuscitation, the team observes that the infant has A. Airway obstruction
severe intercostal and subcostal retractions with decreased aer- B. Chemical pneumonitis
ation and central cyanosis. The neonatology fellow intubates C. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
the infant and the team transports the baby to the Neonatal D. Surfactant dysfunction
Intensive Care Unit. The infant is then placed on a synchro-
nized intermittent mechanical ventilator with high settings.
The infants abdomen appears distended and the nurse places
a nasogastric tube to remove air in the stomach. The infants
radiograph is shown in Figure 1.
CASE 7
Patchy lung fields
A male infant is delivered at 32 weeks gestation after his 1. Of the following, the diagnosis that is most likely in this
mother develops a fever of 102F (38.9C) in the setting of infant is:
ruptured membranes for 48 hours. The baby has respiratory
A. Congenital pneumonia
distress soon after birth, evident by grunting, severe intercostal
B. Pneumothorax
and subcostal retractions, and nasal flaring. His vital signs are:
C. Surfactant deficiency
Heart rate = 130 beats per minute D. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Respiratory rate = 70 breaths per minute
The infant is then intubated and placed on synchronized in-
Oxygen saturation (right arm, room air) = 80%
termittent mechanical ventilation. Additional laboratory data
Oxygen saturation (right arm, facial continuous positive
include the following:
airway pressure [CPAP] 40%) = 91%
Blood pressure = 39/32 mm Hg White blood cell count = 1.5 103/L (1.5 109/L)
Differential = 25% neutrophils, 25% bands, 50%
His initial arterial blood gas while on CPAP is: pH = 7.17,
lymphocytes
Paco2 = 75 mm Hg, Pao2 = 32 mm Hg, HCO3 = 26 mEq/L,
Hemoglobin = 18.3 g/dL (11.3 mmol/L)
base excess = 1.3 mEq/L
Hematocrit = 55% (0.55)
His chest radiograph is shown in Figure 1.
Platelet count = 90 103/L (90 109/L)
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Flavobacteria
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
FIGURE 1. From Sweet RL, Gibbs RS. Atlas of Infectious Diseases of the
Female Genital Tract. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
2005. Figure 4.4
CASE 8
Tachypnea
An obstetrician is closely monitoring a pregnant woman with 1. Of the following, the most likely cause of this infants
insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. At 40 weeks gestation, tachypnea is:
a fetal ultrasound shows that the fetus is in a breech position
A. Cyanotic heart disease
and is macrosomic. The following day, the infant is delivered
B. Metabolic acidosis
by cesarean. After birth, the baby is noted to have a bluish
C. Retained fetal lung fluid
discoloration to the lips. The pediatric resident evaluates the
D. Surfactant deficiency
infant and finds the following:
Heart rate = 130 beats per minute 2. Of the following, the most appropriate next step in manag-
Respiratory rate = 95 breaths per minute ing this infant is to:
Oxygen saturation (right arm, room air) = 91%
Oxygen saturation (right arm, 25% blow by oxygen) = 99% A. Administer a normal saline bolus and an intravenous
Blood pressure = 62/38 mm Hg NaHCO3 bolus if repeated arterial pH is <7.35
B. Avoid supplemental oxygen and start a prostaglandin
The infants physical examination findings include the following: infusion
Active infant, appropriate during examination C. Initiate intravenous antibiotics
Slightly cyanotic lips in room air that become pink after D. Start maintenance intravenous fluid and provide sup-
25% blow by oxygen is applied plemental oxygen
Rapid respiratory rate without retractions and no evi- The pediatric resident meets with the family to discuss the in-
dence of grunting or nasal flaring fants expected clinical course.
Symmetric breath sounds with good aeration
Normal heart sounds without murmur, normal femoral 3. Of the following, the most likely clinical course for the in-
pulses, and well-perfused fant in this vignette is:
Normal abdominal and neurologic examination
A. Decreased distal perfusion at 48 hours of age
The infants laboratory data include the following: B. Increased severity of respiratory distress at 48 hours of
age
Arterial blood gas (25% blow by oxygen): pH = 7.32,
C. Resolution of tachypnea within 48 hours of age
Paco2= 50 mm Hg, Pao2 = 89 mm Hg, HCO3 = 25 mEq/L
D. Worsening cyanosis at 48 hours of age
Serum glucose = 65 mg/dL (3.6 mmol/L)
CASE 9
Cystic lung disease
A female infant born at 26 weeks gestation had a complicated 2. Of the following, the infant in this vignette is at increased
medical course. She received two doses of surfactant and ini- risk of developing:
tially required high ventilator settings on the high-frequency
A. Cor pulmonale
oscillator. She was able to transition to the conventional ven-
B. Recurrent wheezing episodes
tilator at 12 days of life and extubated at 3 weeks of age af-
C. Respiratory infections
ter a 7-day course of steroids. Her feeding advancement went
D. All of the above
slowly initially, but she was on full-volume enteral feedings
by 3 weeks of age. She was treated for 1 week with antibiot- Five months after discharge, the pediatrician is concerned be-
ics for presumed chorioamnionitis. At 10 weeks of age, she cause the infants growth has been poor despite an increase
required 1-L flow by nasal cannula with 30% Fio2. Her most to 26 calories per ounce. The family meets with a gastroenter-
recent chest radiograph is shown in Figure 1. ologist to determine the approach to managing this infants
failure to thrive.
A. Bronchogenic cyst
B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
C. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM)
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)
CASE 10
Tracheoesophageal abnormalities
A neonatology team is asked to attend a delivery of a term 2. Of the following, the next best step in the management of
infant with a prenatal diagnosis of polyhydramnios of uncer- this infant is to:
tain etiology. The infant emerges with good activity but has a
A. Consult Interventional Radiology to place a nasogastric
large amount of oral secretions. A nasogastric tube is placed,
feeding tube into the infants stomach
and the radiograph is shown below (Figure 1). An abdominal
B. Place a cuffed endotracheal tube in the infants trachea
radiograph reveals that air is located in the stomach and proxi-
and consult Pediatric Surgery
mal intestines.
C. Place a suction catheter into the esophageal blind pouch
to remove secretions and consult Pediatric Surgery
D. Start intravenous prostaglandin infusion and consult
Pediatric Cardiology
A B C D E
FIGURE 2. From Pillitteri, A. Maternal and Child Nursing. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 39.05
CASE 11
Congenital malformations of the lung
A. Bronchogenic cyst
B. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM)
C. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)
FIGURE 3. From Mulholland W, Maier V, et al. Greenfields Surgery:
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) Scientific Principles and Practice, 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott
Williams & Wilkins; 2006. Figure 109.04
After the infant is discharged home, the same pediatric resi- 3. Of the following, a possible cause of this infants respira-
dent is called again to the delivery room to evaluate another tory distress is:
term infant with respiratory distress. The pregnancy had been
A. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
complicated by severe oligohydramnios at 20 weeks gesta-
B. Pulmonary hypoplasia
tion. The infant has severe retractions and appears cyanotic.
C. Septic shock
The resident provides bag-mask ventilation and notes that the
D. All of the above
infant requires high peak inspiratory pressures and 100% Fio2
to maintain a preductal oxygen saturation over 85%.
SECTIONII
Answers
2. C. Respiratory acidosis However, each of these changes can lead to secondary conse-
The infant in this vignette has severe cyanosis and respiratory quences. For example, by increasing the ventilator rate, stacked
distress. An arterial blood gas is helpful to assess an infants breaths or inadvertent PEEP can occur, which may decrease
ventilation and oxygenation. If the pH is low (i.e., acidotic) tidal volume and increase Paco2. An increase in PIP or flow
and the Paco2 is high, this is consistent with a respiratory can induce barotrauma. While an infants tidal volume will
acidosis and demonstrates that an infant is not ventilating increase with a decrease in PEEP, the mean airway pressure
effectively because of lung disease. This infants blood gas is will also decrease, and this may lead to worsening hypoxemia.
consistent with a respiratory acidosis. Similarly, an increase in expiratory time can decrease mean air-
In contrast, if the pH is high (i.e., alkalotic) and the Paco2 way pressure and worsen an infants oxygenation.
is low, this is consistent with a respiratory alkalosis. A respi- 5. D. Veno-venous (VV)
ratory alkalosis is sometimes observed in infants with a urea Despite multiple strategies to treat the infant in this vignette,
cycle defect. the infant remains hypoxemic. ECMO is an option for in-
Metabolic acidosis is associated with a low pH and a low fants who fail maximal ventilator support with 100% Fio2
Paco2. The infants anion gap can be helpful to determine the and have an elevated alveolararterial O2 gradient and a high
cause of an infants metabolic acidosis. The anion gap is calcu- oxygenation index. ECMO is contraindicated in the following
lated by the difference between cations and anions: infants:
Anion gap = [Na+] ([Cl] + [HCO3]) Premature infants (typically those infants who are <34
A metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap is asso- weeks gestation)
ciated with shock, sepsis, renal failure, and metabolic disor- Irreversible lung disease
ders. A metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can result Irreversible severe neurologic abnormalities
from renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, and congenital adrenal Severe intraventricular hemorrhage
hyperplasia. Significant coagulopathy
A metabolic alkalosis is associated with an elevated pH and Congenital anomalies incompatible with a good long-
Paco2. A metabolic alkalosis can be found in infants with em- term outcome
esis, diuretic use, and Bartter syndrome. There are two types of ECMO: VV and VA. In VV ECMO, blood
3. B. Increase the PEEP from an infants vein is circulated outside of the infant, oxy-
Oxygenation is most dependent on mean airway pressure. genated, and returned back to the infants venous circulation.
Themost effective way to increase mean airway pressure is by In VA ECMO (see Figure 1), blood is similarly removed from
increasing the PEEP. However, as the PEEP increases, the tidal an infants vein and oxygenated outside of the body. How-
volume decreases and can compromise ventilation. ever, blood is returned back to the infants arterial circulation,
3. A. Esophageal atresia
A pneumothorax occurs when air enters the space between the CASE 6 ANSWERS
parietal pleura that lines the chest wall and the visceral pleura
that covers the lung. A pneumothorax occurs in the following 1. C. Intratracheal suctioning
situations: The most recent Neonatal Resuscitation Program guide-
lines from 2012 recommend that an apneic, inactive infant
Excessive bag-mask ventilation
born through meconium-stained amniotic fluid should un-
Severe lung disease requiring high ventilator pressures
dergo intratracheal suctioning immediately after delivery.
Spontaneous occurrence
This procedure is performed based on the newborns de-
Intubated infant with improving compliance
gree of activity rather than the degree of thickness of the
Intubated infant with expiratory efforts that oppose the
meconium-stained fluid. Meconium in an infants trachea
ventilator breaths
is then removed, preventing this meconium from being as-
Infants with esophageal atresia can have various symptoms, pirated. It is uncertain if the amount of meconium in an
depending on the communication with the trachea. Infants infants trachea is sufficient to cause meconium aspiration
can present with excessive oral secretions, feeding intolerance, syndrome, and most studies have shown that the aspiration
respiratory distress with feeding, and abdominal distention. occurs prior to birth.
Bag-mask ventilation is indicated if the baby in the vignette
4. C. Needle thoracentesis
remains apneic or bradycardic after the intratracheal intuba-
The left pneumothorax of the infant in this vignette has now
tion. Chest compressions are not indicated for initial brady-
increased in size. This is evident by the infants symptoms of
cardia until effective ventilation with bag-mask ventilation has
severe respiratory distress, hypotension, tachycardia, cyanosis,
been established. If bag-mask ventilation is ineffective at im-
and a displaced point of maximal cardiac impulse to the right.
proving the infants respiratory or cardiovascular status, intu-
These findings are consistent with a tension pneumothorax
bation to provide more effective positive pressure ventilation
that requires emergent removal of air by a needle thoracente-
is indicated.
sis. If the leak is continuous after needle aspiration, placement
of a chest tube may be necessary. 2. A. Meconium aspiration syndrome
If an infant has minimal symptoms associated with a pneu- Similar to the infant in this vignette, an infant with meconium
mothorax, conservative management is appropriate. This in- aspiration syndrome typically presents soon after birth with
cludes close observation for worsening symptoms.
These findings are consistent with meconium aspiration Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010.
Yeh TF. Meconium aspiration syndrome: Pathogenesis and current
syndrome. management. NeoReviews. 2010;11:e503e512.
An infant with a pneumothorax will have a hyperlucent
area in the lung region that does not have pulmonary paren-
CASE 7 ANSWERS
chymal markings. Radiographic findings in an infant with
respiratory distress syndrome include low lung volumes, dif- 1. A. Congenital pneumonia
fuse reticulogranular pattern, and air bronchograms. An infant The chest radiograph of the infant in this vignette is most
with retained fetal lung fluid (i.e., transient tachypnea of the consistent with pneumonia. Classic radiographic findings of
newborn) has hyperinflated lung fields, fluid in the pleural congenital pneumonia include unilateral or bilaterally streaky
effusion, perihilar linear densities, and, sometimes, pleural ef- densities, opacifications, a pleural effusion, and, sometimes,
fusions evident on the chest radiograph. a granular appearance with air bronchograms. Because the ra-
3. C. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema diographic findings of congenital pneumonia can mimic im-
After experiencing intrauterine stress, a fetus may pass meco- ages of surfactant deficiency, it is often difficult to distinguish
nium. If the fetus becomes hypoxemic and has fetal gasping, between these two diseases. Thus, premature infants with re-
the risk of intrauterine aspiration is increased. When meco- spiratory distress are often treated initially with antibiotics.
nium enters the infants lung, it causes a(n): The infants clinical course and blood culture results will then
help to determine the length of antibiotic treatment.
Acute airway obstruction
Possible chemical pneumonitis 2. D. All of the above
Pulmonary vasoconstriction and pulmonary hypertension The infant in this vignette has other findings consistent with
Surfactant dysfunction pneumonia, including a low white blood cell count, an abnor-
mal differential with increased immature white blood cells, and
Infants with severe chronic lung disease of prematurity (i.e., bron- thrombocytopenia. Congenital pneumonia can be a cquired by
chopulmonary dysplasia) may have pulmonary interstitial em- aspiration of contaminated amniotic fluid, ascending vaginal
physema; this complication is not typically found in infants with flora, or a transplacental route
meconium aspiration syndrome. A general overview of the patho-
genesis of meconium aspiration syndrome is outlined in Figure 2. 3. C. Listeria monocytogenes
A newborn can acquire pneumonia in utero, intrapartum, or
postnatally. Because this infant presented soon after birth, his
Maternalfetal compromise
pneumonia was most likely acquired during pregnancy or
delivery. The specific organisms that are associated with intra-
Perinatal asphyxia
uterine, intrapartum, and postnatal acquisition of pneumonia
are summarized in the table below.
Fetal Passage of meconium
gasping
Acquisition
Aspiration of meconium Period Associated Organisms
SUGGESTED READINGS require greater than 100% of the recommended dietary allow-
ance of calories in order to grow. This is a result of increased
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; energy expenditure associated with their respiratory disease.
2010. Poor growth in infants with BPD may be a sign of insufficient
Flidel-Rimon O, Shinwell ES. Respiratory distress in the term and
near-term infant. NeoReviews. 2005;6:e289e297. oxygenation.
Infants with BPD are also at greater risk of developing an
oral aversion and of having gastroesophageal reflux that may
CASE 9 ANSWERS worsen their respiratory status. In addition, affected infants are
also at increased risk for neurodevelopmental disabilities.
1. B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
The infant described in this vignette has a postmenstrual age
of 36 weeks gestation. Her chest radiograph shows general- AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
ized overaeration, a heterogeneous pattern of lung disease, CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
and multiple cystic regions bilaterally. These radiographic
Recognize that BPD can develop in a newborn, regard-
findings are consistent with BPD. BPD is caused by multiple
less of gestational age, who has been treated with artifi-
factors that impact the prenatal (e.g., infection, intrauterine
cial ventilation and an enriched oxygen concentration
stress, glucocorticoid exposure) and postnatal (e.g., mechani-
Recognize that infants with BPD may require home oxy-
cal ventilation, glucocorticoid therapy, nutritional deficien-
gen therapy
cies, inflammation) development of the lung. An overview of
Recognize that infants with BPD are prone to cor pul-
the pathogenesis of BPD is shown in Figure 2.
monale, recurrent wheezing with infections, and severe
Pathogenesis of BPD respiratory infections
Recognize that failure to thrive is common in infants
Infection/Cytokines Initiation with BPD
of Glucocorticoids
Stress
Know that infants with BPD often require greater than
ventilation
Nutrition 100% of the recommended dietary allowance of calories
in order to grow
Intrauterine lung Postnatal lung Lung injury,
development development inhibition of Know that poor growth may be a sign of insufficient oxy-
lung genation in an infant with BPD
development Recognize that aversive oral motor behavior is associ-
Antenatal
Inflammation ated with BPD
glucocorticoids
Recognize that gastroesophageal reflux is a common as-
Oxygen Overdistention Infection sociation in infants with BPD and that it may aggravate
FIGURE 2. Adapted from Jobe AH. The new BPD: An arrest of lung
their respiratory status
development. Pediatr Res. 1999;46:641, with permission
option A (esophageal atresia with a distal TEF) and option E SUGGESTED READINGS
(esophageal atresia with a distal and proximal TEF, a rare type
of TEF) correlate with this infants clinical findings. Because op- Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
tion A is more common, occurring in 86% of infants with a 2010.
Hansen TN, Cooper TR, Weisman LE. Contemporary Diagnosis and
TEF, this is the infants most likely diagnosis. Management of Neonatal Respiratory Diseases. 2nd ed. Newtown, CT:
An infant with option B (esophageal atresia without a TEF, Handbooks in Health Care; 1998.
5%8%) or option D (esophageal atresia with proximal TEF, Kovesi T, Rubin S. Long-term complications of congenital esophageal
atresia and/or tracheoesophageal fistula. Chest. 2004;126;915925.
a rare type of TEF) will present with increased oral secretions
but air will not be present in the stomach or intestines. In-
fants with an H-type TEF without esophageal fistula (option
CASE 11 ANSWERS
C, 2%3%) may present later with recurrent pneumonias or
difficulty with feedings. Infants with any of these types of tra- 1. A. Bronchogenic cyst 2
cheoesophageal abnormalities can also present with cyanosis,
B. Congenital cystic adenomatoid 3
coughing or choking with feedings.
malformation (CCAM)
2. C. Place a suction catheter into the esophageal blind C. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) 4
pouch to remove secretions and consult Pediatric Surgery D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) 1
After an infant is diagnosed with a TEF, it is important to
place a suction catheter into the esophageal blind pouch to
A bronchogenic cyst is evident in radiograph 2 because of a
continuously remove secretions. Following, the neonatology
well-defined hyperaerated area within the right lower lobe. Ra-
team should consult with a Pediatric Surgery.
diograph 3 reveals a fluid-filled mass that appears as a density in
The other options in this question are all incorrect. A na-
the right hemithorax, which is consistent with a CCAM. A left-
sogastric feeding tube cannot be placed in an infant with an
sided congenital diaphragmatic hernia is evident in radiograph
esophageal atresia and distal TEF. Positive pressure ventilation
4 shown by intestinal contents within the left lung and a shift in
should be avoided in the infant in this vignette because gastric
the heart to the right side. Radiograph 1 demonstrates an infant
distention will be excessive. Intravenous prostaglandin is indi-
with pulmonary interstitial emphysema in the left lung.
cated only if an infant with a TEF also has a ductal-dependent
cardiac defect. 2. D. Reevaluate at 1 to 2 months of age with a computed
tomography scan to evaluate the lesion in more detail
3. A. Apneic episodes
An infant with a prenatal diagnosis of a CCAM can have a vari-
An infant with a TEF requires surgical repair to resect any
able outcome. If the mass is large, an infant may present with
fistula and anastomose any incongruent esophageal seg-
respiratory distress soon after birth. However, some lesions
ments. After surgery, infants can have the following potential
regress or disappear and, similar to the infant in this vignette,
complications:
an affected infant may be asymptomatic after birth. Asymp-
Dysphagia because of impaired esophageal peristalsis tomatic infants with a prenatal diagnosis of a CCAM should
Esophageal stricture as a result of acidic gastric fluid erod- have a postnatal radiograph after birth and a computed to-
ing the shortened esophagus mography scan at 1 to 2 months of age to evaluate the lesion
Gastroesophageal reflux in more detail. Although ~20% of asymptomatic infants with
Leakage of esophageal contents at the point of anastomosis radiographic evidence of a CCAM have complete regression of
Recurrence of the fistula the abnormality, the remaining 80% have persistence of the
lesions. Symptomatic infants will require surgical resection.
Infants with a TEF may have respiratory complications (e.g.,
Because of the concern that a persistent CCAM may lead to
recurrent pneumonia, aspiration, poor coordination with
recurrent infections or pose a malignancy risk, most surgical
feedings) as a result of reflux, tracheomalacia, recurrent fistula,
centers resect the mass of asymptomatic infants as an elective
and esophageal stricture.
procedure during childhood.
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
DiPrima FA, Bellia A, Inclimona G, et al. Antenatally diagnosed
congenital cystic adenomatoid malformations. J Prenat Med.
2012;6:2230.
CASE 1
Congenital heart disease
60 C
Mean BP (mm Hg)
B
40
A
20
22 42
Week of gestation
FIGURE 1.
B
1. Of the following, the line in the Figure 1 that best repre- PICTURE A. From MacDonald G, Seshia MK, et al. Averys Neonatology:
Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed. Philadelphia,
sents the correlation between mean blood pressure and
PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 38.3AB
gestational age is:
A. Line A
B. Line B
C. Line C
D. None of the above
The nurse then comments that the term infant has dysmorphic
features and a murmur. You remember that some infants with
dysmorphic features are at increased risk for congenital heart
disease (CHD).
B
PICTURE B. From MacDonald G, Seshia MK, et al. Averys Neonatology:
Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 38.4AB
A. _____
B. _____
C. _____
D. _____
CASE 2
Cyanosis
A full-term female infant in the well-baby nursery is noted to 3. Refer to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve below and
be cyanotic. select the most likely Pao2:
CASE 3
Cardiogenic shock
A 3-day-old full-term male infant, born via spontaneous vagi- 1. Select the information you feel would be most helpful for
nal delivery, was scheduled to go home when he is noted to be your preliminary diagnosis:
acutely cyanotic, tachypneic, and poorly perfused. His room
A. Complete blood count with differential and blood
air oxygen saturation (Sao2) is 54% and his blood pressure is
culture
40/28 (32).
B. Electrolyte measurements and blood glucose
concentration
C. Family history
D. Physical examination, four extremity blood pressures,
pre- and postductal oxygen saturations, chest radiogra-
phy, electrocardiography, and arterial blood gas
The infants physical examination findings include central cya- 3. Because the infant in this vignette had of symptoms of
nosis, tachypnea, tachycardia, delayed capillary refill of 3 to cardiogenic shock on day 3 of life, the infants most likely
4 seconds, and cool extremities. Laboratory results and imag- heart lesion is:
ing for this infant reveal increased lung markings on the chest
A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)
radiograph, arterial blood gas findings of metabolic acidosis
B. Pulmonary valve stenosis
and hypoxemia, pre- and postductal differential in oxygen
C. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
content of 15 mm Hg, a complete blood count without a
D. Tricuspid atresia
left shift, normal serum electrolytes, and a blood glucose of
62mg/dL. The family history is not significant. Although you
have ordered an electrocardiogram and echocardiography, the
technician will not be available for one hour.
CASE 4
Non-cardiogenic shock
A 25-year-old pregnant woman at 37 weeks gestation presents 2. From the choices below, select the next most appropriate
to the labor and delivery floor with copious vaginal bleeding. therapy for this infant:
Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. The male infant is
A. Antibiotics
born via stat cesarean under general anesthesia. He emerges
B. Emergency administration of O-negative blood
floppy with marked pallor, perioral cyanosis, and no pulse or
C. Normal saline (NS) bolus until O-negative blood arrives
respiratory rate.
D. B and C
1. With the limited data above, select the best choice for the The infants HR is now 170 beats per minute with a BP mean
infants preliminary diagnosis: of 32 mm Hg. He remains extremely pale with cool extremi-
A. ABO blood type incompatibility ties. His birth hematocrit is 21%. He has received a total of
B. Hypovolemic shock as a result of a placental abruption 20 ml/kg of NS and 10 ml/kg of O-negative blood.
and blood loss
3. From the choices below, select the next most appropriate
C. Reaction to maternal general anesthesia
therapy for this infant:
D. Sepsis
A. Additional 10 ml/kg of NS
The resuscitation team acts swiftly, following the Neonatal Re-
B. Another 10 ml/kg of O-negative blood
suscitation Program guidelines. The team intubates the infant,
C. Intravenous 2 ml/kg bolus of glucose
places an umbilical venous catheter (UVC), and administers
D. Intravenous 1 mEq/kg bolus of bicarbonate
two doses of intravenous epinephrine. The infants heart rate
(HR) is now 100.
CASE 5
Cyanotic heart disease: Diagnosis and management
A male infant was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at 4. Of the following, the congenital cardiac lesions associated
39 3/7 weeks gestation to a 24-year-old G2 P0 woman with with decreased pulmonary blood flow are:
reassuring prenatal screens, including negative Group B Strep-
A. ASD, VSD, AS, coarctation of the aorta, atrioventricular
tococcus status. The membranes had spontaneously ruptured 4
canal (AVC) without PS
hours prior to delivery and the mother did not have a fever. The
B. Critical PS, tricuspid atresia, PA, TOF, Ebstein anomaly,
infants Apgar scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respec-
TAPVR with obstruction
tively. The infant stayed with his mother and attempted breast-
C. HLHS, TGA, truncus arteriosus, TOF with PA, TAPVR
feeding. During the second breastfeeding attempt at 4 hours of
without obstruction, single ventricle
age, the nurse noted that he had tachypnea and cyanosis.
D. B and C
1. Of the following, the preferred initial assessment to deter- The infants examination was notable for severe cyanosis, non-
mine whether this infants cyanosis results from a respira- dysmorphic features, and absence of murmur. He had a pre-
tory or cardiac cause is: ductal oxygen saturation (right arm) that was 20% lower than
A. Complete blood count, blood culture, and arterial his postductal oxygen saturation (leg). The infants chest radio-
blood gas (ABG) graph is shown in Figure 1. His electrocardiogram had a normal
B. Echocardiography QRS axis. Echocardiography revealed a cyanotic heart defect.
C. Family history
D. Physical examination, chest radiograph, electrocardio-
gram, hyperoxia test
CASE 6
Cyanotic heart disease: Outcomes
A full-term female infant was discharged to home on day 3 of 2. From the choices below, select the statement that best re-
life. Her course was unremarkable until 3 weeks of age when flects her prognosis:
her mother noted that she was tiring with feedings and be-
A. Good long-term survival and excellent quality life
coming tachypneic. Her mother also noted that when the baby
B. Progressive RVH and heart failure
awakened from sleep, her lips and face turned blue while cry-
C. Unlikely to survive beyond age 30
ing. The mother brought the infant to the emergency room
D. A and B
(ER) where her room air oxygen saturations with crying are
found to be 70%. Her electrocardiogram shows right ventricu- The infant is followed regularly in a cardiology clinic that mon-
lar hypertrophy (RVH), and her chest radiograph is described itors patients with cyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD).
as a boot-shaped heart with a right aortic arch.
3. From the choices below, select the statement that reflects
1. Of the following, the diagnosis that most likely explains the prognosis for cognitive development for patients seen
this infants desaturation events while crying is: in the cyanotic CHD clinic:
CASE 7
Differential cyanosis
A 5-hour-old male infant born at 41 weeks gestation via spon- 1. Of the following, the diagnosis that is most likely in the
taneous vaginal delivery is noted to be cyanotic with retractions. infant in this vignette is:
He is brought to the Special Care Nursery, where his oxygen
A. Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD)
saturations are 80% in room air. His preductal oxygen satura-
B. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
tions are ~10% higher than his postductal oxygen saturations.
C. Surfactant deficiency
D. A or B
The rest of his history reveals that he was born through thick He has a mixed acidosis on his arterial blood gas. Echocar-
particulate meconium-stained amniotic fluid. His first chest diography shows pulmonary pressures greater than systemic
radiograph after intubation is shown in Figure 1. pressures, evident by moderate tricuspid regurgitation, bow-
ing of the ventricular septum into the left ventricle, and right-
to-left (pulmonary artery to aorta) shunting across the patent
ductus arteriosus.
A. Antibiotics
B. Inhaled nitric oxide
C. Thirty percent oxygen
D. All of the above
CASE 8
Arrhythmias
A 37-year-old G4P0 pregnant woman presents for her regu- 1. Of the following, the most accurate statement about fetal
larly scheduled prenatal appointment at 28 weeks gestation. arrhythmias is:
Her obstetrician notes an intermittent fetal arrhythmia. She
A. About 1 to 2% of fetuses have fetal arrhythmias; of
undergoes fetal echocardiography with Doppler imaging
those, 10% have associated morbidity.
and, at a follow-up visit, also has fetal magnetocardiography
B. Fetal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) represents 70%
to observe the fetal cardiogram signals. The womans sister
to 80% of fetal tachyarrythmias.
has lupus, and her sisters most recent pregnancy had been
C. Lupus is associated with fetal or neonatal complete
complicated by a fetal arrhythmia. This patient does not have
heart block.
lupus but has many questions about fetal arrhythmias.
D. All of the above
The result of the fetal testing shows that the fetal arrhythmia is During the rest of the pregnancy, the fetus remains healthy.
most consistent with intermittent SVT. The fetal arrhythmia is not sustained, and intrauterine inter-
ventions are not required. The baby is born at term and ap-
2. Match the EKG with the corresponding arrhythmia. pears healthy. He is hemodynamically stable but continues to
1. QRS T have SVT after delivery and needs treatment.
A. Adenosine, adenosine
B. Digoxin, vagal maneuvers
C. Sotalol, vagal maneuvers
D. Verapamil, adenosine
FIGURE 1. From Bickley LS, Szilagyi P. Bates Guide to Physical
Examination and History-Taking. 8th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 17.5
2.
3.
4.
SECTIONIII
Answers
Dysmorphic features
110 Upper 95% CL Presence or absence of murmur
100 Quality of femoral pulses
90 Presence or absence hepatomegaly
Systolic blood pressure
60
50 Chest radiography
Lower 95% CL
40 Electrocardiography
30 Pre- and postductal oxygen saturations
20 Hyperoxia test
10 When possible, an echocardiography is important to confirm
0 the diagnosis and delineate the complete structure of the
24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38 40 42 44 46
Postconceptional age (wk)
heart. For critically ill infants or those with severe cyanosis,
FIGURE 2. Linear regression of mean systolic blood pressure on
echocardiography may need to be obtained emergently.
postconceptional age (gestational age in weeks plus weeks after
delivery). Data from Zubrow AB, Hulman S, Kushner H, et al.
Determinants of blood pressure in infants admitted to Neonatal AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Intensive Care Units: A prospective multicenter study. Philadelphia CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Neonatal Blood Pressure Study Group. J Perinatol. 1995;15:470479
Know that blood pressure values vary directly with gesta-
2. A. i. tional age
Recognize the increased risk and plan appropriate evalu-
B. v.
ation of congenital heart disease in a newborn with
C. iv. congenital anomalies (e.g., trisomy 21, trisomy 18, fetal
D. iii. alcohol syndrome, 22q11 microdeletion, 45,0)
E. ii.
to meet tissue metabolic requirements. This leads to tissue hy- SUGGESTED READING
poxemia, metabolic acidosis, irreversible cellular changes, and
possibly subsequent cellular death. Shock can be classified as Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
hypovolemic, distributive, or cardiogenic; common causes of 2010.
each include placental abruption/massive bleeding, sepsis,
and critical congenital heart disease (CHD), respectively. The
most common types of CHD causing shock are left-sided ob- CASE 4 ANSWERS
structive lesions. Blood shunting from the pulmonary artery to
1. B. Hypovolemic shock as a result of a placental abrup-
aorta across a patent ductus arteriosus will assist with provid-
tion and blood loss
ing systemic blood flow, lessening the symptoms of an infant
Hypovolemic shock is characterized by decreased blood vol-
with a left-sided obstructive lesion. With closure of the ductus
ume below a critical level. There is decreased ventricular filling
arteriosus (typically by 48 hours of age), an affected infant will
and decreased stroke volume (SV) with subsequent decreased
develop severe symptoms. The initial therapeutic management
cardiac output (CO) unless the infant is able to compensate
in an infant with cardiogenic shock includes:
with increased HR. Infants have poor peripheral perfusion,
Consulting with a cardiologist decreased distal pulses, hypotension, and decreased urine
Starting PGE1 with consideration for intubation because output.
of a potential side effect of apnea In contrast to hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock is
Correcting any metabolic acidosis with an intravenous bi- characterized by cardiac failure with impaired filling, poor
carbonate bolus or intravenous fluids with added acetate ventricular emptying, and decreased contractility. Distributive
Initiating inotropic agents to improve myocardial shock is characterized by inadequate relative intravascular vol-
function. ume secondary to vasodilation. A comparison of these three
types of shock is shown in the table below.
3. A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)
The most common types of CHD causing shock are left-sided Hypovolemic Distributive Cardiogenic
obstructive lesions, such as: Shock Shock Shock
Aortic atresia or severe aortic stenosis Decreased blood Inadequate Cardiac failure
Coarctation of the aorta volume below a relative intra-
critical level vascular volume
Interrupted aortic arch
Most common secondary to
Mitral valve atresia or severe mitral stenosis (a type of vasodilation
type of shock in
HLHS) neonate
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR) with
Decreased ven- Normal circu- Impaired filling,
obstruction. tricular filling and lating blood impaired ven-
It is important to be aware that PGE1 is indicated in most decreased SV volume but tricular empty-
Decrease in CO insufficient for ing, impaired
cases where a newborn is critically ill with a presumed ductal- adequate cardiac contractility
unless able to
dependent lesion. However, it is important to recognize that compensate with filling
in a newborn with TAPVR with obstruction, PGE1 may worsen increased HR
symptoms by increasing pulmonary blood flow, further in-
Presents initially Presents with Presents with
creasing pulmonary congestion with an associated worsening with decreased decreased urine decreased urine
of systemic perfusion. urine output, output, increased output, increased
decreased BP, HR, decreased HR, decreased
increased HR BP BP
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS (note: prema- Often with CHF/pulmonary
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS ture infants may bounding pulses edema
actually have de- Often with
Know that an electrocardiogram and echocardiography creased HR), no hepatomegaly,
congestive heart cardiomegaly
should be part of the evaluation of a patient with pos- failure (CHF)
sible cardiogenic shock
Know that cardiogenic shock may be the initial finding
in a newborn with congenital heart disease
Recognize the findings of cardiogenic shock in the
newborn
Know the treatment of cardiogenic shock in the newborn
Know what important lesions are associated with the
shock-like presentation in a newborn
3. B. Another 10 ml/kg of O-negative blood 2. D. Comparison of the infants arterial Pao2 in room air
It must be recognized that immediate volume resuscitation of
with the infants Pao2 while receiving 100% Fio2
The hyperoxia test is a useful tool for diagnosing cyanotic
an infant in hypovolemic shock may require more than 20
heart disease. In this test, an ABG is obtained from the right ra-
ml/kg to improve the infants clinical status. This infant is pro-
dial artery (preductal) while the infant is in room air. Another
foundly anemic and his body is attempting to compensate for
ABG is obtained after the infant has inspired 100% oxygen for
his decreased ventricular filling and SV by increasing his HR.
a minimum of 15 minutes. If an infant has cyanotic heart dis-
Frequent clinical assessment of this infant is mandatory to
ease, there is little to no rise in Pao2 with 100% Fio2 (usually
provide ongoing appropriate medical management.
<100 torr), leading to a failed hyperoxia test result. Infants
receiving 100% Fio2 with a Pao2 between 100 and 250 torr
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS may have structural heart disease with intracardiac mixing and
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS increased pulmonary blood flow. However, an infant receiv-
ing 100% Fio2 with a Pao2 >250 torr has passed the hyper-
Recognize the clinical signs of shock due to fluid loss oxia test, indicative of the absence of cyanotic heart disease.
Know the type of fluids to be administered in the treat-
ment of shock 3. D. B and C
Recognize that frequent clinical assessment is required Lesions with right-to-left shunting at the intracardiac level
in the treatment of shock cause infants to have cyanosis because blood is shunted away
Recognize that immediate fluid resuscitation of infants from the lungs. These cyanotic lesions can be remembered by
in shock may require more than 20 mL/kg of fluid to the five Ts rule:
improve their clinical conditions TOF
Tricuspid atresia
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
RV LV Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neona-
tal Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
2011.
Long WA (ed). Fetal and Neonatal Cardiology. Philadelphia, PA: WB
Saunders; 1990.
Tet spells or hypercyanotic spells can be described as an Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
imbalance between pulmonary and systemic vascular resis- Marino B, Lipkin PH, Newburger JW, et al. Neurodevelopmental out-
tance favoring decreased pulmonary flow and increased right- comes in children with congenital heart disease: Evaluation and
to-left (i.e., pulmonary artery to aorta) shunting. Hypoxemia, managementa scientific statement from the American Heart As-
sociation. Circulation. 2012;126:11431172.
metabolic acidosis, hyperpnea, increased systemic venous re-
turn, excessive catecholamines, and pulmonary vasoconstric-
tion are thought to be involved in an interaction that results in
CASE 7 ANSWERS
a continuous cycle. The proposed mechanism for a tet spell
is shown in Figure 2. 1. D. A or B
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
occurs in ~1 to 2 per 1,000 births. It is caused by a failure
Increased right-to-left shunt of transition from intrauterine to extrauterine pulmonary
physiology. Thus, affected infants have a persistent eleva-
tion in their pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). This in-
Crying, Increased PVR, Decreased
stooling decreased SVR PBF
crease in PVR leads to right-to-left shunting at the atrial
(i.e., right-atrium-to-left-atrium shunting) or ductal level
(i.e., pulmonary-artery-to-aorta shunting), with the resultant
Decreased PO2, acidosis, decrease in pulmonary blood flow leading to hypoxemia.
increased PCO2
PPHN can be divided into two groups:
FIGURE 2. Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C.
Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:120 Maladaptationnormal structure of the pulmonary vascu-
lar bed with elevated PVR (e.g., meconium aspiration syn-
drome, pneumonia, sepsis, hypoxia, perinatal depression)
Maldevelopmentabnormal structure of the pulmonary arrhythmias represent deviations from this norm. Approxi-
vascular bed leading to vascular smooth muscle hypertro- mately 1% to 2% of fetuses have fetal arrhythmias; of those,
phy (e.g., CHD, pulmonary hypoplasia, diaphragmatic 10% have associated morbidity. The most common cause of a
hernia) fetal arrhythmia is premature atrial contractions (PACs) where
there is most often a 1:1 conduction of ectopic beats yielding
A newborn with cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, and a sig-
early ventricular contractions as well. PACs are most often be-
nificant differential in pre- and postductal oxygen saturations
nign and intermittent. In any fetus with frequent ectopy, the fe-
requires further evaluation to establish a definitive diagnosis.
tal heart rate should be auscultated at each prenatal visit and an
In the absence of meconium aspiration syndrome, it is diffi-
ultrasound should be done to evaluate structural abnormality
cult to distinguish between PPHN and cyanotic CHD.
of the fetal heart. Pregnant women with lupus are at increased
2. B. Inhaled nitric oxide risk of having a fetus or neonate with complete heart block.
The infant described in this vignette should have an echo-
cardiograph to rule out CHD and to confirm the presence of
2. A 2
PPHN. There are several strategies that are used to treat PPHN, B 3
including: C 1
Administration of 100% oxygen to increase pulmonary D 4
vasodilation
Use of inhaled nitric oxide, a selective pulmonary 3. B. Digoxin, vagal maneuvers
vasodilator A fetus with sustained SVT warrants treatment. First-line intra-
Use of sedation medications uterine treatment is digoxin administered intravenously to the
Maximization of an infants oxygen-carrying capacity by pregnant woman. If the fetus is sick, second-line treatment is
transfusing with packed red blood cells if the infant is amiodarone, while second-line treatment for a healthier fetus
anemic can be procainamide, flecainide, or sotalol. Lastly, delivery is
Maintenance of cardiac output an option for the fetus with mature lungs.
Avoidance of acidosis A newborn with SVT warrants treatment if the SVT is sus-
Administration of antibiotics as PPHN may be associated tained or if there are any signs or symptoms of cardiovascular
with sepsis/pneumonia compromise. If the infant is unstable, clinicians can perform
Utilization of ventilator support synchronized cardioversion at a dose of 0.5 to 2 J/kg. If the in-
Option of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation fant is stable, clinicians can perform vagal maneuvers (crushed
(ECMO) in term infants should all else fail ice to face; rectal stimulation) and administer adenosine intra-
venously if the arrhythmia persists.
SUGGESTED READINGS
SUGGESTED READING
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010.
2010. Strasburger JF. Prenatal diagnosis of fetal arrhythmias. In: Wernovsky
G, Berger S, Rubenstein SD, eds. Congenital Heart Disease: Impact
on the Fetus, Pregnancy, Neonate and Family. Philadelphia, PA:
W B Saunders; 2005:891912. Clinics in Perinatology; vol 32.
CASE 8 ANSWERS
CASE 1
Head growth
During a night shift, four full-term infants are admitted to 2. Of the following, a possible etiology of this babys head
the Special Care Nursery. The next day, the neonatologist re- growth from birth until 4 months of age is:
views each infants head circumference (HC). Her findings are
A. Acquired microcephaly as a result of craniosynostosis
shown below:
B. Acquired microcephaly from a perinatal insult
Baby boy Banks HC = 37 cm
C. Progressive microcephaly as a result of a neurodegenera-
Baby girl Gray HC = two to three standard
tive or neurogenetic process
deviations below the mean
D. All of the above
Baby boy Scott HC > three standard deviations
above the mean One of the babies in the scenario above has craniosynostosis
Baby girl Smith HC = 40 cm that requires surgery at age 4 months.
1. Match the infant with the corresponding description (the 3. Review the diagrams (Figure 2) and match the type of cra-
descriptions may be used more than once): niosynostosis to the corresponding head shape:
U
d
te
ni
oi
la
la
ni
or
te
U
on
ra
La
l
al
C
C
FIGURE 2. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM, eds. Averys
Neonatology: Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005
A. _____ 1. Brachycephaly
B. _____ 2. Plagiocephaly
C. _____ 3. Scaphocephaly or dolichocephaly
D. _____ 4. Trigonocephaly
4. For the baby in the Special Care Nursery who had mac-
rocephaly, what is the most likely etiology of this infants
abnormal head growth?
CASE 2
Brachial plexus injury at birth
You are called stat to labor room 2 due to possible shoulder The infant was diagnosed with an Erb palsy. You are asked to
dystocia. A large-for-gestational-age baby girl is delivered us- explain the management and prognosis to the parents.
ing McRoberts maneuver assistance. She is vigorous and cry-
ing at the perineum. She is brought to the warmer, where you 2. Select the most appropriate management and prognosis
provide routine care. You palpate her clavicles, and they are in- below:
tact. However, she has decreased movement of her right arm. A. Physical therapy; likely full recovery by 4 months
B. Immediate surgery; likely full recovery by 4 months
1. Match the following clinical signs and symptoms with the
C. Physical therapy and Botox injections; variable recovery
two types of brachial plexus injury listed to the right:
D. Neurosurgical consultation; if no improvement by
A. C5C7 ____ i. ErbDuchenne 2weeks, likely will persist
(proximal) palsy
B. Less common ____ ii. Klumpke (distal) palsy
C. Waiters tip ____
D. Absent shoulder Moro
reflex with presence of
hand Moro reflex ____
CASE 3
Seizures
A full-term female infant was born by an uncomplicated re- The infant undergoes the following laboratory tests and
peat cesarean delivery. Her Apgar scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and studies:
5 minutes, respectively. She had been doing well until day 5
A sepsis evaluation, including a lumbar puncture
of life when her mother noted that she had brief jerking move-
Electrolytes, calcium, magnesium, phosphorus
ments of her legs. As the covering pediatrician, you evaluate
An electroencephalography (EEG)
the infant.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
1. What would be your differential diagnosis? She develops unifocal clonic seizure activity and is diagnosed
A. Benign sleep myoclonus with a right middle cerebral arterial (MCA) infarct.
B. Exaggerated startle response, jitteriness
3. Which statement(s) below is(are) true?
C. Seizure
D. All of the above A. Abnormal interictal EEG has less favorable outcome
B. Overall outcome for infants with seizures after arterial
The infant is admitted to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
or venous vaso-occlusive disease is favorable
(NICU). While you are observing her, she has another event.
C. Seizures are the most common presentation of stroke
2. All of the following possible clinical findings would sup- in the newborn period, and stroke is the second most
port a diagnosis of seizure with the exception of: common cause of neonatal seizures
D. All of the above
A. Abnormal chewing
B. Bicycling or swimming movement of the extremities
C. Eye deviation
D. Sudden hypotension
CASE 4
Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
A 43-year-old primigravida woman presents to Labor and and ATN, respiratory distress with shunting from left to
Delivery 1 hour after feeling a decrease in fetal movement. The right across the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and pat-
fetal tracing is flat, prompting an emergent cesarean delivery. ent foramen ovale (PFO), intestinal ischemia
After birth, the baby girl requires resuscitation with intuba-
The infant is undergoing therapeutic hypothermia. Her sei-
tion, chest compressions, epinephrine, and volume. Her Apgar
zures have quelled with phenobarbital; she remains on do-
scores are 1, 3, and 4 at 1, 5, and 10 minutes, respectively. The
pamine at 5 mcg/kg/min; her laboratory values peaked with
cord pH is 6.82 in the umbilical artery and 6.93 in the umbili-
aspartate aminotransferase (AST) of 800 mg/dL and alanine
cal vein. While being observed in the Neonatal Intensive Care
aminotransferase of 675 mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Unit (NICU), the infant has a seizure.
of 12 mg/dL, creatinine (Cr) of 1.3 mg/dL, and a platelet nadir
1. The most common timing of seizure activity in this infant of 72 109/L. She remains critically ill.
with hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) is:
3. The nurse has been talking with the father at the bedside.
A. 0 to 6 hours of life He is devastated and believes that his daughter will have
B. Within the first 24 hours of life a terrible outcome. The nurse suggests a family meeting
C. 24 to 48 hours of life as soon as possible. Before the meeting, the neonatology
D. >72 hours of life attending discusses HIE and outcomes with the pediatric
residents. Which statement(s) below is(are) true?
2. Multisystem organ effects may occur in the setting of severe
intrapartum asphyxia. Chose the answer below that reflects A. More individualized outcome predictors for infants
the type of end-organ injury seen as a result of severe HIE: with HIE depend on the severity of the encephalopathy,
the presence or absence of seizures, EEG findings, and
A. Hypotonia, seizures, hypertension, ventricular dysfunc- neuroimaging results
tion, tricuspid regurgitation, polyuria with sodium wast- B. The majority of term infants with seizures due to HIE do
ing, pulmonary hypertension, intestinal ischemia not manifest long-term neurodevelopmental sequelae
B. Hypotonia, seizures, other organ effect uncommon C. Therapeutic hypothermia in term infants with m oderate/
C. Hypotonia, seizures, transient myocardial ischemia, severe encephalopathy reduces mortality and/or neurode-
ventricular dysfunction, tricuspid regurgitation, oliguria velopmental outcomes (measured at 18months of age)
and acute tubular necrosis (ATN), pulmonary hyperten- D. All of the above
sion, intestinal ischemia
D. Hypotonia, seizures, transient myocardial ischemia,
ventricular dysfunction, tricuspid regurgitation, oliguria
CASE 5
Intracranial hemorrhage
The attending on service has selected three infants in the Neo- been complicated by respiratory distress syndrome, se-
natal Intensive Care Unit (NICU) for you to follow this week. vere hypotension, a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), and
He has asked you to prepare a presentation on intracranial sepsis. His neurologic examination is currently appro-
hemorrhage by the end of the week. He suggests you design a priate for gestational age.
case-based presentation based on the following four patients. ii. A full-term female infant had a difficult delivery. Her
neurologic examination is significant for hypotonia,
i. A male infant was born at 24 weeks gestation to a
lateral eye deviation, unequal pupil size, and irregular
mother with chorioamnionitis. His hospital course has
respirations.
iii. A full-term male infant was born via uncomplicated 3. The critically ill patients described in vignettes ii and iv
spontaneous vaginal delivery. He had been well until need intervention. What steps would you take to evaluate
his second postnatal day when he developed seizures. and manage these infants?
He is currently hemodynamically stable and remains
A. Call neurology stat, but hold off on calling neurosurgery
in room air.
as you do not have imaging results yet
iv. A preterm infant was born via emergent cesarean de-
B. Follow guidelines for neonatal stabilization; secure the
livery for fetal distress. He required cardiopulmonary
airway (intubate); provide blood products and volume;
resuscitation after birth and now is showing signs of
start inotropes; obtain complete blood count with dif-
brainstem compression.
ferential, blood culture, electrolytes, disseminated intra-
1. Match the above cases to potential head imaging results vascular coagulation panel; call neurosurgery stat and
based on the risk factors in the short vignettes above: arrange for head imaging urgently
C. Monitor vital signs and call neurosurgery
A. Bilateral germinal matrix hemorrhages (GMH) on post- D. Send the infant urgently to radiology as there is no time
natal day 3, followed by periventricular leukomalacia to secure the airway
(PVL) noted on imaging at 1 month
B. Cerebellar hemorrhage
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Subdural hemorrhage
CASE 6
Neonatal encephalopathy
A full-term male infant was born at a community hospital via A. Ammonia level, electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen
repeat cesarean delivery to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 2 now (BUN), creatinine (Cr), glucose
3 Caucasian woman with reassuring prenatal screens aside B. Arterial blood gas (ABG), complete blood count (CBC),
from Group B Streptococcus colonization. The infant did well blood culture
in the delivery room, with Apgar scores of 8 and 9 at 1 and C. Radiograph of chest and abdomen
5minutes, respectively. D. All of the above
On postnatal day 3, the infant was unable to breast-feed
The infant is now intubated and receiving intravenous fluids.
and became hypothermic and jittery. Within an hour, his
He also received a normal saline bolus, a 10% dextrose bo-
clinical condition deteriorates rapidly with tachypnea, tachy-
lus, and has been started on ampicillin and gentamicin. Test
cardia, and extreme lethargy. The pediatric hospitalist calls the
results are as follows:
transport team to transfer the infant to the closest level 3 Neo-
natal Intensive Care Unit (NICU). You are the resident who ABG: pH = 7.17, Paco2 = 55 mm Hg, Pao2 = 147 mm
will be admitting the infant to the NICU. Hg, base deficit = 15 mEq/L
Na = 149 mEq/L, K = 6.9 mEq/L, Cl = 111 mEq/L
1. Based on the clinical history thus far, you have created a Blood glucose = 90 mg/dL
differential diagnosis. What studies will you order upon Plasma ammonia level > 2,000 M/L
admission?
CBC within normal limits 2. Which statement(s) is(are) true regarding neurologic se-
Chest radiograph within normal limits quelae and outcomes in infants diagnosed with a urea cycle
Newborn state screen pending defect?
The metabolism consult service has recommended sending A. Most patients with urea cycle defects live well into
quantitative plasma amino acids, urine amino acids, urine adulthood
ketones, liver function tests (LFTs), and frequent repeat se- B. Neurologic sequelae and survival depend on the length
rum ammonia levels via arterial puncture. The results lead of the hyperammonemic coma
to a diagnosis of a urea cycle defect. Despite maximal ther- C. There is a low risk for neurologic sequelae if the coma
apy with hemodialysis, the infant remains in a coma for lasts for 4 days
3days. D. All of the above
SECTION IV
Answers
CASE 2 ANSWERS
1. A. i. ErbDuchenne
B. ii. Klumpke
C. i. ErbDuchenne
D. i. ErbDuchenne
Figure 1 compares the clinical findings of an infant with an Erb
Duchenne palsy and those of an infant with a Klumpke palsy.
2. A. Physical therapy; likely full recovery by 4 months The clinical diagnosis of neonatal seizures can be catego-
Some brachial plexus injuries heal without treatment; others rized into five subtypes, as summarized in the table below.
improve or recover by 3 to 4 months of age. Treatments used
for brachial plexus injuries are physical therapy and, in cer-
Seizure Preterm or
tain cases, surgery. Prognosis is based on location and type Subtype Clinical Manifestations Term Infant
of injury. For avulsion and rupture injuries, surgical interven-
tion is needed in a timely fashion to offer an opportunity for Subtle Oral, facial, or ocular Occurs in both
activity; swimming (most frequent
complete recovery.
or bicycling limb neonatal
movements; auto- subtype)
nomic changes with
tachycardia, apnea,
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS and increased blood
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS pressure
Multifocal Clonic activity of one Term infant
Recognize the clinical manifestations of neonatal bra- clonic limb with movement to
chial plexus injuries another part of body in
Know the management and prognosis of neonatal bra- a nonordered manner;
chial plexus injuries may look like jitteri-
ness; not usually as-
sociated with apnea or
ocular movements
SUGGESTED READINGS Focal clonic Well-localized, repeti- Term infant >
tive, usually one limb, preterm infant
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; conscious throughout,
2010. may represent focal
Tschudy M, Arcara K (Childrens Medical and Surgical Center, Johns or diffuse disease (i.e.,
Hopkins Hospital), eds. The Harriet Lane Handbook: A Manual for metabolic disorder)
Pediatric House Officers. 19th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby Elsevier;
2012.
Tonic Abrupt change in tone Preterm infant
that leads to change
in posture; described
as posturing,
CASE 3 ANSWERS stiffening, rigidity;
may have associated
1. D. All of the above apnea and ocular
Seizure mimics in the newborn period can make it difficult movements
to distinguish between normal immature activity, abnormal Myoclonic Rapid, sudden, shock- Term and
nonseizure activity, and true seizures. like jerks of flexion of preterm
both arms and/or legs;
True epileptic seizures are not usually stimulus-sensitive events may occur in
Epileptic seizures cannot be stopped by repositioning or brief series
passive restraint
Epileptic seizures most often have associated autonomic Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed.
changes or ocular manifestations Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:177178
venous vaso-occlusive disease is favorable. In infants with arte- of the images represents changes at day 3, at 4 months of age,
rial strokes, those with an abnormal interictal EEG background and at 2 years of life. Figure 1A shows generalized, decreased
have a less favorable outcome. Infants with benign neonatal sei- tissue attenuation in both cerebral hemispheres. Figure 1B
zures, also known as fifth day fits, have normal background and Figure 1C reveal multicystic e ncephalomacia and cerebral
EEG patterns with seizure resolution usually by day 15 of life; as atrophy.
the name implies, infants have a normal neurologic outcome.
Intracranial hemorrhage and subsequent seizure are seen in
both term and preterm infants, but the outcome depends on
parenchymal injury and gestational age with lower-gestational-
age infants at risk for significantly worse neurologic outcome.
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
Olson D. Neonatal seizures. NeoReviews. 2012;13:e213e222.
CASE 4 ANSWERS
Know that hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy is the most Grade ISubependymal Grade IIIntraventricular hemorrhage
hemorrhage only without ventricular dilation
frequent cause of neonatal seizure in a full-term infant
Recognize that neonatal seizures secondary to hypoxic-
ischemic encephalopathy characteristically occur within
24 hours of birth
Recognize that intrapartum asphyxiation can cause in-
jury to multiple organ systems (e.g., kidney, lung, intes-
tine, liver, brain, heart)
Recognize that the majority of full-term newborns who
have neonatal seizures secondary to hypoxic-ischemic
encephalopathy do not manifest long-term neurodevel-
opmental sequelae
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
Whitelaw A. Core concepts: Intraventricular hemorrhage. NeoReviews.
2011;12:e94e101.
C ase 6 A nswers
Hyperammonemia
Propionic, methylmalonic,
and isovaleric acidemia; Fatty acid oxidation
lactic acidemia; glutaric Plasma citrulline abnormalities
aciduria; pyruvate
carboxylase deficiency;
-methylcrotonyl glycinuria
Absent Present
Carbamyl
phosphate Ornithine
synthetase transcarboxylase
deficiency, Check plasma Argininosuccinic acid
deficiency arginine
N-acetylglutamate lyase deficiency
synthetase
FIGURE 1. Printed with permission from: deficiency
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review.
2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:420; Normal or low Elevated
Modified from: Ward JC. Inborn errors of
metabolism of acute onset in infancy. Pediatr
in Rev. 1990;11:210 and An Approach to Transient neonatal
Inborn Errors of Metabolism in the Neonate. hyperammonemia, Arginase deficiency
Lecture by Korson M. Childrens Hospital, lysine protein
intolerance
Boston, MA. August 1990
See Figure 1 for the workup and steps to further delineate the
etiology of hyperammonemia:
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
2. B. Neurologic sequelae and survival depend on the
length of the hyperammonemic coma Formulate a differential diagnosis of lethargy and coma
Infants diagnosed with a urea cycle defect at a few days of in the neonate
life may succumb to their illness unless management is swift.
Neurologic sequelae and survival depend on the length of the
hyperammonemic coma. In infants with a duration of hyperam- SUGGESTED READINGS
monemia coma that is <2 days, there is potential for minimal
neurologic sequelae. Many infants who survive the newborn Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
period have developmental delay, cognitive deficits, seizures, Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
cortical atrophy, and spastic quadriparesis. Further morbidity Enns G, Packman S. Diagnosing inborn errors of metabolism in the
or death may result from acute illness due to protein intake or newborn: Clinical features. NeoReviews. 2001;2:e183e191.
Joseph M, Hageman J. Neonatal transport: A 3-day-old neonate with
infection. hypothermia, respiratory distress, lethargy, and poor feeding.
JPerinat. 2002;22:506509.
CASE 1
Clubfoot
A 32-year-old pregnant woman has a benign prenatal course 2. Of the following, the most likely classification for this
with a normal early risk assessment and 16-week fetal ultra- infants deformity is:
sound. She delivers a full-term female infant with a left-sided
A. Genetic
foot abnormality. The infants pediatrician is unable to ma-
B. Isolated
nipulate the foot back to the midline position. A diagram of
C. Positional
this infants feet is shown in Figure 1.
D. Syndromic
A. Casting
B. Observation
C. Surgical correction
D. All of the above
FIGURE 1. Courtesy of LifeArt 2014 Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 4. Of the following, the recurrence risk that is most likely in
All rights reserved this baby girls future sibling is:
CASE 2
Developmental dysplasia of the hips
A pediatrician is rounding with a third-year medical student pediatrician and medical student review the perinatal histo-
in the newborn nursery. This is the students second day of ries and then examine the 15 neonates who are currently in
his clinical rotation in the nursery. He expresses interest in the nursery.
learning more about the newborns hip examination. The
Four newborns have a distinct perinatal history, as described 2. Of the following, match the infant scenarios listed above
below; all have a normal hip examination: (vx) with the most appropriate next management:
i. Female full-term infant with a history of breech position A. No actions required, routine newborn care
between 24 and 26 weeks gestation but then changed to B. Obtain hip radiographs
vertex position and was delivered vaginally C. Schedule hip ultrasonography at 4 to 6 weeks of age
ii. Female infant born at 36 weeks gestation by cesarean D. Obtain a hip ultrasound and consult a pediatric orthopedist
delivery because of breech presentation
iii. Male full-term infant born by cesarean delivery because The remaining five newborns have a benign perinatal history
of breech presentation and a completely normal hip examination.
iv. Male infant who was born to a mother with develop-
3. Which statement is true about the risk of DDH in the five
mental dysplasia of the hips (DDH)
remaining newborns?
1. Of the following, match the infant scenarios listed above A. If an orthopedist confirms that the hip examinations are
(iiv) with the most appropriate next management: normal, the infants have no risk of DDH.
A. No actions required, routine newborn care B. It would be extremely rare that these infants later have a
B. Obtain hip radiographs diagnosis of DDH.
C. Schedule hip ultrasonography at 4 to 6 weeks of age C. Only the female infants need to be monitored for a
D. Obtain a hip ultrasound and consult a pediatric orthopedist potential risk of DDH.
D. The pediatricians will still need to monitor the infants
Six newborns have specific physical examination findings:
hip examinations because they are still at risk for DDH.
v. Male infant with asymmetric thigh and posterior gluteal folds
vi. Male infant with disproportionate length of legs
vii. Female infant with bilateral hip clicks
viii. Female infant with unilateral hip clunk
ix. Male infant with bilateral hip clunks
x. Female infant with abnormal Barlow maneuver but nor-
mal Ortolani test
CASE 3
Torticollis
A full-term male infant is born by cesarean delivery because of 1. Of the following, the most likely cause of this infants phys-
breech presentation. The baby does well in the newborn nurs- ical examination finding is injury to the right:
ery and is discharged after 2 days. At a routine appointment at
A. Clavicle
2 weeks of age, the pediatrician observes that the infant prefers
B. Facial nerve
to hold his head toward the right side. The pediatrician is able
C. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
to move the infants head to the left side without difficulty
D. Trapezius muscle
but movement toward the right side is restricted and seems
to cause pain to the infant. The infant is pictured in Figure 1. The pediatrician needs to determine if this infants torticollis
is congenital or acquired. He recalls that there are different
reasons for acquired torticollis, including the following:
However, based on a complete physical examination of the The pediatrician discusses management options with the
infant, the pediatrician believes that this infant most likely has infants mother.
isolated congenital torticollis.
3. Of the following, the management that is most likely to be
2. Of the following, the finding that is most consistent with helpful in this infant is:
congenital, instead of acquired, torticollis is:
A. Await spontaneous resolution (i.e., no treatment
A. A low posterior hairline required)
B. A palpable neck mass B. Passive stretching exercises
C. Microcephaly C. Surgical removal of any neck mass
D. Strabismus D. Temporary stabilization of the neck
CASE 4
Contractures
A neurologist is asked to evaluate a full-term male infant who The neurologist meets with the infants parents to obtain a
was born with contractures of all his extremities. A photo- detailed prenatal and family history.
graph of the infant is shown in Figure 1.
2. Of the following, the intrauterine history that corresponds
with this infants findings is a(n):
A. Connective tissue
B. Muscular system
C. Neurologic system
D. All of the above
FIGURE 1. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM, eds. Averys
Neonatology: Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 52.15
A. Achondrogenesis
B. Achondroplasia
C. Arthrochondritis
D. Arthrogryposis
CASE 5
Osteogenesis imperfecta
A full-term male newborn has the following radiograph The neonatologist obtains a complete skeletal survey, with the
(Figure 1) on the first day of life. skull film shown in Figure 2.
CASE 6
Achondroplasia
A geneticist is following several children with achondropla- Children with achondroplasia require frequent monitoring to
sia in her outpatient clinic. All of her patients have the same assess for potential complications.
mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)
gene. They also have similar clinical characteristics, including 2. Of the following, the most likely potential complication of
the following: children with achondroplasia is:
CASE 7
Limited neck movements
A neonatologist is asked to evaluate a 6-hour-old full-term in- The neonatologist speaks with the family about the infants
fant with limited neck movements. The neonatologist finds likely diagnosis. Lateral flexion-extension radiographs of the
that the infant also has a low posterior hairline and a short infants cervical spine reveal fused cervical vertebrae. Because
neck. of possible associated findings, the neonatologist recom-
mends additional testing.
1. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is:
2. Of the following, the most likely associated finding in this
A. Ellisvan Creveld syndrome
infant is (are):
B. KlippelFeil syndrome
C. Stickler syndrome A. Deafness
D. Thanatophoric dysplasia B. Genitourinary abnormalities
C. Structural heart defects
D. All of the above
SECTION V
Answers
4. B. 2% to 5%
CASE 1 ANSWERS
If an affected infants parents did not have a clubfoot, as in
1. A. Talipes equinovarus this vignette, then the overall risk of an isolated clubfoot in the
The infant in this vignette has a left clubfoot, which is caused siblings depends on the sex of the affected child. If the affected
by abnormal bone formation that also involves the local child is male, the recurrence risk is 2%. If the affected child is
muscles, nerves, tendons, and blood vessels. There are several female, the recurrence risk is 5%.
structural abnormalities that can lead to a clubfoot, including: If an affected infant (without respect to gender) has a par-
ent who had a clubfoot, the recurrence risk is 3% to 4%. If
Talipes varusthe foot is turned inward, leading to the both parents had a clubfoot, this risk increases to 15%. It is
appearance of the leg and foot of the letter J likely that a single gene is involved, but both autosomal reces-
Talipes valgusthe foot rotates outward, leading to the sive and X-linked recessive inheritance patterns have been de-
appearance of the letter L scribed in affected families. Less commonly, variably penetrant
Talipes equinusthe foot points downward, similar to a autosomal dominant inheritance has also been observed.
ballerinas position
Talipes calcaneusthe foot points upward with the heel
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
pointing downward
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
The infant in this vignette has talipes equinovarus, the most
common cause of clubfoot. In this deformity, the foot ap- Know that the most common component of clubfoot is
pears to be pointed downward (i.e., equinus) and inward (i.e., equinovarus deformity
varus). Clubfoot can be unilateral or bilateral and involve a Be aware that early treatment of clubfoot is critical
mild or severe deformity. Recognize that the treatment for talipes equinovarus is
casting or splinting of the affected foot
2. B. Isolated
Clubfoot can be classified into three types:
In the setting of a normal hip examination, the recognition Finally, when the infant is in a supine position, the Orto-
of these risk factors, such as the infants in scenario ii and sce- lani and Barlow tests are helpful in the detection of DDH. In
nario iv, should prompt a hip evaluation by ultrasonography the Barlow maneuver (shown in Figure 2B), the clinicians fin-
at 4 to 6 weeks of age. Hip ultrasonography is preferred over gers are placed over the greater trochanters and the hips and
radiographies because it is the most precise imaging modality knees are flexed at 90 degrees. Following, a gentle backward
to confirm the diagnosis of DDH in infants. pressure is applied while adducting the thighs. If the femo-
For the infant in scenario i with a short intrauterine period ral head dislocates out of the acetabulum, the test is positive.
of breech positioning and for the male infant in scenario iii In the Ortolani test, the clinicians fingers are placed on the
who was born breech, further actions are not required because infants greater trochanters and the thumbs grip the femurs
these infants are at low risk for DDH. (shown in Figure 2A). While applying upward pressure over
the trochanters, the thighs are abducted. If the femoral head
2. A. vii
is dislocated, this can be felt as a clunk. Thus, the Barlow
B. none maneuver dislocates a dislocatable hip and the Ortolani test
C. none relocates a dislocated hip. Any male or female infant with a
D. v, vi, viii, ix , x unilateral or bilateral positive Barlow and/or Ortolani test
(e.g., scenarios viii, ix, and x) requires a hip ultrasound and a
An infant with DDH can have one or more abnormal physical pediatric orthopedist consult.
examination findings, including:
Asymmetry of the thigh and posterior gluteal folds
Limited abduction of the affected hip
Galeazzi test (also known as the Allis sign): with knee
flexion, while the infants feet are flat on a surface, the
knee on the affected side appears lower
B
A B
FIGURE 2AB. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM, eds.
Averys Neonatology: Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 52.1AB
the infants hip examinations even if prior examinations therapy, such as placing visual effects on the side of the torti-
were normal because the babies are still at risk for DDH. collis, will help encourage infants to rotate their head in that
direction. A physical therapist may also be involved in moni-
toring an infants progress. After 6 months of age, additional
active stretching movements are recommended. If children
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
continue to have limited neck motion, severe plagiocephaly,
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
or facial asymmetry beyond 6 to 12 months of age, surgical
Know that developmental dysplasia of the hips is more intervention may be warranted.
likely in girls and in infants who are born by breech
presentation
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Know that ultrasonography is the most precise imaging
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
modality for confirmation of the diagnosis of develop-
mental dysplasia of the hip(s) in young infants Understand the etiology of congenital torticollis
Recognize asymmetry of the gluteal and thigh folds as a Recognize that the differential diagnosis of torticollis in-
sign of possible subluxation of the hip cludes head tilt secondary to malformation of the cervical
Know that isolated hip clicks are unlikely indicators of spine, a visual disturbance, and a posterior fossa tumor
dysplasia Differentiate between congenital and acquired torticollis
Know that initially there may be no abnormal signs of Understand that physical therapy (stretching) of the
subluxation of the hip in developmental dysplasia of the neck by a pediatric physical therapist and/or a parent
hip(s) may be successful treatment for torticollis
SUGGESTED READING
SUGGESTED READING
Macias CG, Gan V. Congenital muscular torticollis. UpToDate (Subscrip-
Wilkinson AG, Wilkinson S. Neonatal hip dysplasia: A new perspec- tion required). http://www.uptodate.com/contents/congenital-
tive. NeoReviews. 2010;11:e349e362. muscular-torticollis. Accessed March 18, 2013.
Decreased fetal movements 2. A. Most affected newborns have deep blue sclerae
Intrauterine breech positioning Type II is the most severe form of OI with a high intrauterine
mortality or death in early infancy as a result of respiratory
The maternal glucose tolerance test and fetal resting heart rate
failure. Affected infants have short broad long bones, short
will be unaffected in infants with arthrogryposis.
limbs, multiple fractures, and deep blue sclerae. The skull is
3. D. All of the above often poorly mineralized with a soft calvarium and large fon-
Joint contractures in a fetus can be caused by intrinsic fetal tanels. This type of OI typically has an autosomal dominant
abnormalities in the fetal neurologic, muscular, or connective inheritance pattern (although some rare subtypes have an au-
tissue systems. A neurologic problem is the most common tosomal recessive inheritance pattern) and is usually caused by
cause of arthrogryposis. Potential neurologic abnormalities an abnormality in type I collagen genes.
include meningomyelocele, motor horn cell deficiency, and
3. D. Wormian bones
structural brain abnormalities, such as anencephaly, hydran-
This skull film demonstrates multiple Wormian bones, which
encephaly, and holoprosencephaly. Muscular abnormalities,
are small bony fragments along a suture line. As shown in this
such as muscle agenesis, myopathy, and myotonic dystro-
radiograph, these bones are often observed along the lamb-
phy, can also lead to arthrogryposis. A fetus with a significant
doid suture. Wormian bones can be found as a normal variant
connective tissue disorder (e.g., synostosis, lack of joint de-
or in infants with OI or cleidocranial dysplasia.
velopment, abnormal fixation of joints) is at increased risk
for developing arthrogryposis. All of these abnormalities can 4. C. Hearing loss
lead to decreased intrauterine joint mobility resulting in joint Even though OI types I and II are both autosomal dominant dis-
fixations. orders that impact the same collagen gene, patients have different
In addition to intrinsic fetal abnormalities, arthrogrypo- clinical manifestations. This occurs because type I OI is caused
sis can occur because of an extrinsic etiology leading to fetal by a quantitative defect in the type I collagen genes (COL1A1 or
crowding or constraint. Examples of these external/environ- COL1A2), while type II OI results from a qualitative defect of the
mental causes are: same genes. While OI type 2 is associated with a poor prognosis,
patients with OI type 1 have an excellent prognosis. Individuals
Multiple births
with type I OI have blue sclerae, Wormian skull bones, a normal
Severe oligohydramnios as a result of renal agenesis or
stature, hyperextensibility, and infrequent fractures that often
early persistent amniotic fluid leakage; affected infants
decrease after puberty. Approximately 50% of affected patients
may have a Potter facies with abnormal ear lobation, mi-
have adult-onset hearing loss as a result of osteosclerosis.
crognathia, flattened nose, and infraorbital folds
There are a total of nine types of OI. Type I is the mildest
form; type II is the most severe form; types III through IX lead
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS to moderate or severe bone fragility. All types have an autoso-
CONTENT SPECIFICATION mal dominant or recessive pattern of inheritance.
These radiographic findings are consistent with OI. OI is a het- 1. Thanatophoric dysplasia
erogeneous disorder of increased bone fragility that is catego- 2. Achondroplasia
rized into nine types. 3. Hypochondroplasia
SUGGESTED READINGS
Jones K. Smiths Recognizable Patterns of Human Malformation. 6th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Saunders; 2006.
Swarr DT, Sutton VR. Skeletal dysplasias in the newborn: Di-
agnostic evaluation and development genetics. NeoReviews.
2010;11:e290e305. FIGURE 1. Courtesy of Paul S. Matz, MD
Infants with thanatophoric dysplasia type II have a charac- 2. D. All of the above
teristic cloverleaf skull deformity, shown in Figure 2. Approximately 30% of infants with KlippelFeil syndrome
also have conductive or neural deafness. Affected infants can
have congenital heart defects, with ventricular septal defect be-
ing the most common. Genitourinary abnormalities are also
found in infants with KlippelFeil syndrome. The most com-
mon renal abnormalities include renal agenesis, renal ectopia,
or a pelvic kidney.
SUGGESTED READINGS
Jones K. Smiths Recognizable Patterns of Human Malformation. 6th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Saunders; 2006.
FIGURE 2. Reprinted with permission from: Stevenson RE, Hall JG, Swarr DT, Sutton VR. Skeletal dysplasias in the newborn: Di-
Goodman RM (eds). Human Malformations and Related Anomalies. agnostic evaluation and development genetics. NeoReviews.
NewYork, NY: Oxford University Press;1993 2010;11:e290e305.
CASE 1
Postnatal genetic testing
A 40-year-old gravida 6 para 0 woman is currently pregnant at The infants clinical features are not consistent with any of
12 weeks gestation. Her past medical history is complicated by the common gene defects, and the FISH results are normal.
five spontaneous abortions with one fetus with a postmortem Further testing will need to be done. The consulting geneti-
diagnosis of Turner syndrome. The prenatal fetal ultrasound cist recommends sending comparative genomic hybridization
for this pregnancy is concerning for a thickened nuchal fold. (CGH).
The parents have declined prenatal testing. Six months later, a
male infant is born at term, and his examination reveals dys- 2. Which of the following statements is true regarding CGH?
morphic features. A. CGH has replaced high-resolution chromosomal
analysis.
1. Which of the following gene defects could be diagnosed
B. CGH is inexpensive.
via fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) to provide the
C. CGH is less likely than karyotype analysis to provide a
family with information as soon as possible?
genetic diagnosis.
A. 22q11 deletion C. Trisomy 18 syndrome D. CGH only detects large deletions.
B. Down syndrome D. All of the above
CASE 2
Inheritance patterns
A 42-year-old woman is pregnant. Her family history is re- fetus with a postmortem diagnosis of Turner syndrome. You
viewed and is significant for a maternal uncle with Marfan also learn that her cousin with intellectual disability was diag-
syndrome, a paternal aunt with cystic fibrosis, and a cousin nosed with fragile X syndrome and her father had hemophilia.
with intellectual disability. To understand the implications to
The medical records include the pedigree charts
the fetus, you need to review the inheritance patterns in the
(Figure1AD).
womans family.
3 5 9
C D
(c) 2015 Wolters Kluwer. All Rights Reserved. 4 6 7 8
A B
3 5 9
D 4 6 7 8
FIGURE 1. AD: (Continued)
CASE 3
Autosomal trisomy syndromes
A full-term male infant is born via spontaneous vaginal de- 2. Match the trisomy (AC) with the most commonly associ-
livery to a 27-year-old primigravida woman. Her pregnancy ated cardiac lesion (i through iv). Of note, i, ii, iii, or iv may
was unremarkable, and she declined prenatal testing. As the be used more than once:
pediatric resident covering the delivery room, you are called to
A. Trisomy 13 i. Endocardial cushion
evaluate the infant shortly after birth because of a concern for
(Patausyndrome) defect, ventricular septal
dysmorphic features. On your examination, you find that the
defect (VSD), patent ductus
baby has features consistent with trisomy 21 syndrome.
arteriosus (PDA), cardiac
1. Match the trisomy (AC) with the descriptions (i through iv) anomalies seen in 40% to
below. Of note, i, ii, iii, or iv may be used more than once: 50% of patients
B. Trisomy 18 ii. Mitral valve prolapse, aortic
A. Trisomy13 i. Duodenal atresia, increased risk (Edwardsyndrome) regurgitation, anomalous
(Patau of Hirschsprung disease subclavian artery
syndrome) C. Trisomy 21 iii. VSD, PDA, bicuspid aortic
B. Trisomy 18 ii. Hypoplastic nails, clenched (Downsyndrome) valve, pulmonary stenosis,
(Edward hand, overlapping of second coarctation of the aorta,
syndrome) finger over third finger or fifth tetralogy of Fallot, cardiac
finger over fourth finger, rocker- anomalies seen in 95% to
bottom feet, micrognathia, small 99% of patients
mouth, malformed low-set ears, iv. VSD, PDA, cardiac anoma-
occipital prominence lies seen in 80% to 90%
C. Trisomy21 iii. Transverse palmar crease, cutis ofpatients
(Down aplasia, polydactyly, cleft lip/
syndrome) palate, colobomas, narrow
hyperconvex fingernails
iv. Transverse palmar crease; flat
facies; upslanting palpebral fis-
sures; wide gap between first and
second toes; broad, short hands
and feet; inner epicanthal folds;
large protruding tongue; nuchal
redundancy; hypotonia
The infants karyotype is shown in Figure 1. 3. Match the clinical finding that can be observed in infants
with this diagnosis with the corresponding incidence. Of
note, i, ii, iii, and iv may be used more than once or not at all:
A. Atlantoaxial subluxation with i. 1%
spinal cord compression
B. Early Alzheimer disease by ii. 2% to 5%
60years of age
C. Hearing loss (associated chronic iii. 70% to 75%
otitis media effusions or
sensorineural)
D. Hypothyroidism iv. 100%
The parents ask about future pregnancies and whether they
have an increased risk of having another child with Down
syndrome. You recall that the mother and father are 27 and
FIGURE 1. Klossner NJ, Hatfield NT. Introductory Maternity and Pediatric 29years old, respectively.
Nursing. 2nd ed. Philadephia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
2009. Figure 21.27 4. Select the true statement(s) below about recurrence risk
and trisomy 21 syndrome:
He has a VSD but otherwise is doing well, tolerating feedings A. Fifty percent of new diagnoses are sporadic.
and has a normal stooling pattern. He is at risk for several B. Three percent to 4% result from an unbalanced translo-
medical problems. cation between chromosome 21 and another acrocentric
chromosome, usually chromosome 14.
C. If both parents have normal karyotypes, recurrence risk
is 10%.
D. Recurrence risk is higher in a 45-year-old woman than
for a 25-year-old woman with a balanced translocation.
CASE 4
Turner syndrome
A 33-year-old pregnant woman has a finding of a cystic hy- The infant in the vignette has an evaluation that includes
groma observed by fetal ultrasonography at 16 weeks gesta- echocardiography, a renal ultrasound, and a genitourinary
tion. A fetal ultrasound at 35 weeks gestation shows that the ultrasound. The parents ask about their daughters ability to
hygroma is decreasing in size. Fetal echocardiography is unre- have children in the future.
markable. The woman declines any invasive testing. She deliv-
ers a full-term female infant with dysmorphic features that are 2. Select the correct statement about fertility in a patient with
suggestive of Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome:
A. Gonadal dysgenesis is universal in patients with Turner
1. Select the collection of clinical findings that are most con-
syndrome; about 50% will bear children.
sistent with Turner syndrome:
B. Gonadal dysgenesis is universal in patients with Turner
A. Coloboma, genital hypoplasia, ear anomalies, murmur, syndrome; however, fertility is unaffected.
microcephaly, anal atresia C. Gonadal dysgenesis is universal in patients with Turner
B. Edema of hands and feet, short stature, broad chest syndrome; infertility is most likely.
with wide-spaced nipples, webbed neck, low posterior D. None of the above.
hairline
The pediatrician meets with the family to describe the physi-
C. Micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate
cal features and relay the presumptive diagnosis of Turner
D. Short/webbed neck, low posterior hairline, hyper-
syndrome. He tells them that a definitive diagnosis of Turner
telorism, low-set ears, low nasal bridge, pectus excava-
syndrome requires chromosomal analysis.
tum, ptosis
A. Figure 1 C. Figure 3
B. Figure 2 D. Figure 4
FIGURE 3. Scott JR, Gibbs RS, Karlan BY, et al. Danforths Obstetrics and
Gynecology. 10th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
2003. Figure 6.03
FIGURE 2. From Beckmann CRB, Ling FW, Laube DW, et al. Obstetrics
4. Select the therapy that is recommended in patients with
and Gynecology. 4th ed. Baltimore, MD: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; Turner syndrome as soon as their height falls below the
2002 fifth percentile:
A. Androgen
B. Estrogen
C. Growth hormone
D. No therapy should be initiated
CASE 5
Syndromes of tall stature
A 45-year-old woman delivers a full-term nondysmorphic, 1. Select the syndrome below that would be most consistent
average-weight male infant via cesarean for failure to progress. with the presentation above:
The infant does well throughout the neonatal period and early
A. EhlersDanlos syndrome
childhood. By age 6, he is diagnosed with autism. By age 15,
B. Klinefelter syndrome
he is significantly taller than anyone in his class and the class
C. Marfan syndrome
above his. His mother and father are average height. At his
D. None of the above
next pediatrician appointment, his physician notes his growth
velocity and detects small testes by physical examination.
CASE 6
Genetic associations
A 27-year-old primigravida woman from Korea presents to Further workup and examination of the infant reveal hemiver-
Labor and Delivery with a cervical dilation of 8 cm. All of her tebrae, anal atresia, single umbilical artery, dysplastic kidneys,
prenatal care has been in Korea. She tells the obstetrician on and thumb hypoplasia.
call that her pregnancy was uncomplicated except for intra-
uterine growth restriction. The neonatologist is called to at- 2. Select whether the infants diagnosis is consistent with a
tend the delivery. The infant is born with multiple congenital syndrome or an association and the corresponding likely
anomalies, including a cardiac defect and renal/genitourinary neurological outcome and recurrence risk:
anomalies. A. Association, as there is currently no known genetic
cause; it is not associated with developmental disabili-
1. Select the syndrome(s)/association that would most likely
ties; there is a low recurrence risk.
fit this description:
B. Syndrome, as it represents a pattern of congenital anom-
A. Alagille syndrome and VACTERL association alies with a known genetic cause; it is often associated
B. CHARGE syndrome and VACTERL association with developmental disabilities; there is a significant
C. HoltOram syndrome and CHARGE syndrome recurrence risk.
D. None of the above C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
CASE 7
Deletion syndromes
A 39-year-old gravida 6 para 0 woman pregnant with twins 2. Select the syndrome (AD) with the pictures below. Each
presents with spontaneous rupture of membranes at 35weeks syndrome can be used only once:
gestation. The twins are delivered via cesarean because of A. Angelman syndrome i. Figure 1
breech presentation in the presenting twin. The mothers
B. BeckwithWiedemann syndrome ii. Figure 2
medical history is significant for infertility, and this pregnancy
C. DiGeorge syndrome iii. Figure 3
had been conceived by in vitro fertilization. One of the twins
D. PraderWilli syndrome iv. Figure 4
(twin A) has hypotonia, almond-shaped palpebral fissures,
and undescended testes. Although his twin brother (twin B)
currently has no stigmata of a syndrome, each twin has a dis-
tinct syndrome. One has a microdeletion of maternal origin,
while the other has a microdeletion of paternal origin.
FIGURE 2. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM, eds. Averys
Neonatology: Pathophysiology of the Newborn. 6th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 38.13
The nurse caring for the twins assists with a blood draw for an
infant in the adjacent bed space. She notices that the infant is
markedly jittery and has dysmorphic facial features consisting
of hypertelorism, short palpebral fissures, a small mouth, and
a prominent nose with a square nasal root and narrow alar
base. The infants ionized calcium result is 0.69 mmol/L.
4. Select the genetic syndrome that best fits the description above:
A. Angelman syndrome
B. BeckwithWiedemann syndrome
FIGURE 5. From Schad CR, Jalal SM, Thibodeau SN. Genetic C. DiGeorge syndrome
testing for PraderWilli and Angelman syndromes. Mayo Clin Proc. D. PraderWilli syndrome
1995;70:11951196, with permission
CASE 8
Treacher Collins syndrome and PierreRobin sequence
FIGURE 1. (Continued)
FIGURE 1. A: Courtesy of Warkany J. Reprinted with permission from A. One is a sequence and one is a syndrome.
Warkany J. Congenital Malformations. Chicago, IL: Yearbook publishers; B. One is caused by a single-gene defect, while the other
1971. BD: Courtesy of Gorlin RJ. Department of Oral Pathology and is a condition secondary to hypoplasia of the mandible
Genetics, University of Minnesota before the ninth week of development.
C. A and B
D. None of the above
The infant in the vignette is diagnosed with PierreRobin se- A systolic murmur
quence. After several weeks in the hospital, he was discharged Coarse breath sounds bilaterally
to home on a monitor, stable in room air, with nasogastric
An electrocardiography is consistent with biventricular
tube feedings. Close follow-up was arranged, with plans for
hypertrophy.
cleft palate repair at a later date. Parents were also told that
he may need a gastrostomy tube and tonguelip adhesion, 4. From the list below, which is the most likely clinical
depending on his clinical course. By 5 weeks of life, he devel- diagnosis?
ops rapid weight gain, progressive respiratory difficulty, and
cyanosis in room air. He is admitted to the hospital with the A. Aspiration pneumonia
following findings: B. Cyanotic congenital heart disease
C. Sepsis
Heart rate = 180 beats per minute D. Upper airway obstruction leading to cor pulmonale
A third heart sound
SECTION VI
Answers
Mendelian
Inheritance
Patterns Incidence Characteristics Recurrence Risk
Mendelian
Inheritance
Patterns Incidence Characteristics Recurrence Risk
X-linked Rarer than Twice as common in females than in males Dependent on genotype of
dominant X-linked reces- Fathers cannot transmit the disease to sons each parents and the sex of
sive diseases Rare to have skipped generations their offspring
Heterozygote females may be less severely
affected than affected males
An affected female has a 50% chance of passing
the disease to her sons or daughters
X-linked More common Since females have two copies of the X chro- Dependent on genotype of
recessive than X-linked mosome and males have only one, X-linked each parents and the sex of
dominant recessive diseases are usually clinically evident their offspring
diseases inmales
Fathers cannot transmit the disease to sons
Can have skipped generations
An affected father will transmit the disease to all
of his daughters, who will be carriers and pass
the disease onto ~ half of their sons
Adapted from Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:162163
2. A iv. Marfan syndrome (Autosomal dominant) Know that Factor VIII and IX deficiencies can be diag-
B i. Cystic fibrosis (Autosomal recessive) nosed prenatally
C iii. Hemophilia B (X-linked recessive) Recognize that fragile X syndrome is associated with
D ii. Fragile X syndrome (X-linked dominant) X-linked mental retardation
X-linked dominant
Affected individuals in the pedigree charts are shown as filled
Recognize the inheritance patterns of X-linked dominant
circles or squares and unaffected individuals are shown as
disorders
empty symbols. Figure 1D represents a pedigree of a family
with fragile X syndrome. Figure 1D also has symbols with a
central dot, representing a premutation. All of these genetic dis-
orders (i.e., cystic fibrosis, fragile X syndrome, hemophiliaB, SUGGESTED READINGS
and Marfan syndrome) can be diagnosed prenatally.
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Jorde LB, Carey JC, Bamshad MJ. Medical Genetics. 3rd ed. St. Louis,
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS MO: Mosby; 2009.
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Autosomal dominant CASE 3 ANSWERS
Recognize the inheritance pattern associated with an au-
tosomal dominant disorder with incomplete penetrance 1. A. Trisomy 13 Answer is iii.
Autosomal recessive B. Trisomy 18 Answer is ii.
Recognize the clinical and laboratory features associated C. Trisomy 21 Answer is i and iv.
with an autosomal recessive disorder
X-linked recessive
Recognize the inheritance patterns of X-linked recessive
disorders
Recognize the clinical features associated with an
X-linked recessive disorder
Figure 2 shows an infant with trisomy 21. Figure 4 shows an infant with trisomy 13 syndrome who has a
cleft lip and palate, a sloping forehead, microphthalmia, and
polydactyly.
A B
A B
FIGURE 4. From Sadler T. Langmans Medical Embryology. 9th ed.
Image Bank. Baltimore, MD: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003.
Figure 1.10AB
B
FIGURE 2. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM, eds. Averys
Neonatology: Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed. 2. A. Trisomy 13 Answer is iv
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 52.15 B. Trisomy 18 Answer is iii
C. Trisomy 21 Answers are i and ii
3. A i. 1%
B iii. 70% to 75%
FIGURE 3. From Sadler T. Langmans Medical Embryology. 9th ed. Image
C iii. 70% to 75%
Bank. Baltimore, MD: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 1.9 D ii. 2% to 5%
An infant with trisomy 18 syndrome is shown in Figure 3; The karyotype of this infant confirms the diagnosis of trisomy
clinical findings include a prominent occiput, micrognathia, 21 syndrome. There is an increased incidence of congenital
low-set ears, and a flexed finger. malformations and acquired diseases in patients with Down
Coloboma (80%)
SUGGESTED READINGS Heart defect (50%70%)
Atresia of choanae (60%)
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; Retarded growth (90%, most often noted postnatally)
2010. Genital hypoplasia (in males, 75%)
Bull M. Health supervision for children with Down syndrome. Pediat-
rics. 2011;128(2):393406. Ear anomalies (90%), often with deafness
Newberger D. Down syndrome: Prenatal risk assessment and diagno-
sis. Am Fam Physician. 2000;62(4):825832.
Figure 5 depicts features of Turner syndrome. 2. C. Gonadal dysgenesis is universal in patients with
Turner syndrome; infertility is most likely.
Spontaneous fertility is rare among patients with Turner syn-
Heart-shaped face drome. If a woman with Turner syndrome successfully becomes
pregnant, the womans karyotype would most likely represent
Low hairline on neck Wide, webbed neck
mosaicism for a normal 46, XX cell lineage or 47, XXX cell lin-
Coarctation eage. In addition, it is unlikely she would carry the fetus to term.
of aorta
Broad, flat chest with
widely separated 3. B. Figure 2
nipples Figure 2 shows a karyotype in a patient with Turner syndrome,
demonstrating 45, X with one of the X chromosomes m issing.
Outwardly angled The karyotype in Figure 1 is consistent with trisomy 21 because
forearms
there are three chromosomes in the 21st position. Figure 3
shows a normal male human karyotype. The karyotype in
Figure 4 depicts translocation of chromosome 21 into 14, re-
sulting in Down syndrome.
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Saenger P. Management of Turner syndrome (gonadal dysgenesis).
UpToDate (Subscription required). http://www.uptodate.com/
contents/management-of-turner-syndrome-gonadal-dysgenesis.
FIGURE 6. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM. Averys Accessed April 8, 2013.
Neonatology. 6th ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, Sybert V, McCauley E. Turners syndrome. N Engl J Med. 2004;351:
2005. 12271238.
VATER association was first named in the early 1970s; shortly 2. A. Angelman syndrome i. Figure 1
thereafter, the C and the L were added, with the subse- B. BeckwithWiedemann syndrome ii. Figure 2
quent change to the acronym VACTERL. Vertebral and cardiac C. DiGeorge syndrome iii. Figure 3
anomalies are features of patients with either CHARGE or D. PraderWilli syndrome iv. Figure 4
VACTERL syndrome.
Alagille syndrome is a genetic disorder that predominantly Table 1 summarizes the clinical features in these syndromes.
affects the liver, heart, and kidney and is associated with bile
duct paucity and cholestasis. Renal anomalies have been re- Table 1. Clinical Features
CASE 7 ANSWERS
3. A. Angelman i. Monitor for delayed develop-
1. B. Contiguous gene syndromes syndrome mental milestones and risk
Microdeletions are chromosomal deletions that are too small for seizure
to be detected by conventional cytogenetic methods. They are B. Beckwith- iii. Monitor for hypoglycemia
usually only a few megabases (Mb) long and involve contigu- Wiedemann
ous genes. The twins in the vignette have a small deletion be- syndrome
tween 15q11 and 15q13, resulting in two completely different C. DiGeorge syndrome ii. Monitor for hypocalcemia
syndromes depending on the parental origin of the chromo- D. Prader-Willi iv. Monitor for risk of failure to
some. In contrast to contiguous gene syndromes, single-gene syndrome thrive in infancy
disorders (Mendelian inheritance) include the following in-
heritance patterns: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive,
X-linked dominant, and X-linked recessive.
Syndrome/
4. C. DiGeorge syndrome
Sequence Features
Newborn infants with DiGeorge syndrome can have the fol-
lowing physical findings: DiGeorge Majority with 22q11.2 deletion
syndrome Also described as Velocardiofacial
Cleft palate
syndrome
Hypertelorism CATCH 22 (Cardiac, Abnormal facies,
Micrognathia Thymic hypoplasia, Cleft palate,
Misshapen ears Hypocalcemia)
Murmur Autosomal dominant with variable
expression
Prominent nose with square nasal root and narrow alar
base Goldenhar Hemifacial microsomia
Short palpebral fissures syndrome Short neck, low posterior hairline,
limited movement of head, facial
Short philtrum asymmetry, deafness (conductive or
Hypoplastic parathyroid glands in patients with DiGeorge neural)
Abnormal cervical vertebrae (typically
syndrome result in hypocalcemia with clinical findings of jit- fused)
teriness. None of the other syndromes fit with the clinical pic- Unknown etiology
ture of the infant in this vignette.
PierreRobin Triad: micrognathia; glossoptosis
sequence (normally sized tongue in a small oral
cavity); cleft palate (U-shaped)
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS Feeding intolerance
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS Conductive hearing loss; normal
intelligence
Understand the cause(s) of contiguous gene syndromes Posterior airway obstruction with
Appreciate that contiguous gene syndromes (deletion or potential for cor pulmonale
May be isolated or associated with
alteration of multiple gene pairs that are adjacent to one
genetic disorders such as Treacher
another) can cause syndromes with multiple apparent Collins syndrome
unconnected defects (e.g., Angelman, PraderWilli)
Recognize contiguous gene syndromes, including
PraderWilli, Angelman, BeckwithWiedemann, and
DiGeorge, and manage appropriately
Recognize the signs of DiGeorge syndrome
CASE 1
Sepsis
A 28-year-old pregnant woman contacts her obstetrician af- 3. If this pregnant woman also had a flu-like illness and
ter her water breaks at 25 weeks gestation. Her obstetrician brown-colored amniotic fluid, the most likely organism
urges her to come to the hospital for an evaluation. Testing in involved would be:
the hospital confirms that the woman has experienced rupture
A. Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
of the membranes of the amniotic sac and chorion, leading
B. Escherichia coli
to complete loss of amniotic fluid. The fetus appears active
C. Enterococcus
with a normal heart rate tracing. The woman is afebrile and is
D. Listeria monocytogenes
not having any contractions. She is admitted to the hospital
for observation and bed rest. She meets with the neonatology After 2 days, the infant stabilizes. The infants blood culture
team to discuss the prognosis of an infant born at this gesta- is negative and cerebrospinal fluid testing is normal. How-
tional age. ever, because of initial clinical concerns for sepsis, the infant
receives 14 days of antibiotics. Because of some initial intoler-
1. Of the following, a potential complication in a new- ance of enteral feedings and a need for slow feeding advance-
born with preterm premature rupture of membranes ment, a percutaneous central-line catheter is placed to provide
(PPROM) is: TPN. At 2 weeks of age, the infant has an increase in apneic
A. Infection events and appears lethargic. The neonatology team is con-
B. Pulmonary hyperplasia cerned about late-onset sepsis.
C. Renal dysfunction
4. Match the characteristics listed below with the type of sep-
D. All of the above
sis (of note, some characteristics may be found in both
Four weeks later, the woman is noted to have a high fever, types of sepsis):
abdominal pain, and contractions. Her obstetrician suspects
A. Presents in the first week of i. Early-onset sepsis
chorioamnionitis, and the infant is born at 29 weeks gestation
life
after unstoppable preterm labor. The baby has severe respira-
B. Acquired from the maternal ii. Late-onset sepsis
tory distress requiring intubation and surfactant administra-
genital tract
tion, hypotension requiring volume and inotropic support,
and a coagulopathy requiring platelet and fresh frozen plasma C. Acquired from the postnatal
transfusions. The infant receives total parenteral nutrition environment
(TPN) by an umbilical venous catheter. The neonatology D. Caused by GBS
team treats the baby with antibiotics for presumed early-onset E. Caused by Staphylococcus
sepsis. coagulase-negative
F. Focal involvement more
2. Of the following, the antibiotic regimen that is most common than multisystem
appropriate for this infant is: involvement
G. Associated with central-line
A. Ampicillin and gentamicin
catheter
B. Cefotaxime
H. Mortality between 15%
C. Gentamicin
and45%
D. Vancomycin and gentamicin
CASE 2
Group B Streptococcus
At 36 weeks gestation, a pregnant woman has a vaginal culture The pregnant woman remains extremely anxious about the
that is positive for Group B Streptococcus (GBS). The woman is possibility of GBS infection in her baby. Thus, the obstetrician
concerned about the possibility that her infant will develop a asks a neonatologist to discuss care of her infant after birth.
GBS infection. The neonatologist reviews the three possible options that may
occur after delivery:
1. Of the following, the time period that an infant can acquire
a GBS infection is: Observation of the baby and/or
Evaluation of the baby with blood tests and/or
A. Shortly before delivery C. Postnatally Initiation of antibiotic therapy
B. During delivery D. All of the above
The obstetrician discusses the factors that would increase the 6. Match the clinical description (A through F) with the initial
babys risk of acquiring a GBS infection in the first week of life. approach in the neonate (i, ii, or iii):
2. Of the following, the characteristic that is least likely to A. Asymptomatic, well- i. Observation
increase this babys risk for early-onset GBS infection is: appearing infant born to a (i.e., no
GBS-positive woman with evaluation
A. Advanced maternal age adequate intrapartum GBS or antibiotic
B. Maternal GBS bacteriuria prophylaxis and no signs of initiation)
C. Preterm birth chorioamnionitis ii. Observation
D. Sibling with invasive GBS disease in the neonatal period and evaluation
B. Asymptomatic, well-appearing
To minimize the risk of acquisition of GBS disease in this infant born to a GBS-positive with blood tests
infant, the obstetrician describes the approach to and im- woman with inadequate iii. Observation,
pact of maternal intrapartum antimicrobial prophylaxis (i.e., intrapartum GBS prophylaxis evaluation, and
chemoprophylaxis). with duration of membrane initiation of
rupture <18 hours and no antibiotics
3. Chemoprophylaxis is indicated in all of the following sce- maternal fever
narios except for a woman with:
C. Asymptomatic, well-appearing
A. A prior infant with invasive GBS disease, regardless of infant born to a GBS-positive
current GBS status woman with inadequate GBS
B. GBS bacteriuria during current pregnancy prophylaxis with duration of
C. GBS colonization during a prior pregnancy, regardless membrane rupture 18 hours
of current GBS status D. Asymptomatic, well-appearing
D. Unknown GBS status and is in preterm labor infant born to a GBS-positive
woman with adequate
4. Of the following, the optimal intravenous antibiotic for
intrapartum GBS prophylaxis
intrapartum chemoprophylaxis is:
and signs of chorioamnionitis
A. Cefazolin C. Penicillin E. Asymptomatic, well-appearing
B. Clindamycin D. Vancomycin infant born to a GBS-positive
woman with inadequate
5. Of the following, the most likely impact of chemoprophy- intrapartum GBS prophylaxis
laxis in a GBS-positive pregnant woman is: and signs of chorioamnionitis
A. A decreased incidence of late-onset neonatal GBS dis- F. Symptomatic, ill-appearing
ease by 50% infant born to a GBS-positive
B. A lower incidence of early-onset neonatal GBS disease woman with adequate
by 80% intrapartum GBS prophylaxis
C. A lower risk of early-onset neonatal GBS disease in
future pregnancies
D. Prolongation of labor by 2 to 4 hours
After the infant is born and the appropriate approach is taken, 8. Of the following, the most appropriate management ap-
the infant is discharged home. At 3 weeks of age, the infant is proach in an infant with GBS infection is:
admitted to the hospital with late-onset GBS disease.
A. Change broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage to intrave-
7. Of the following, the clinical manifestation(s) that is (are) nous penicillin G after isolation of the GBS organism
more common in late- rather than early-onset GBS disease B. Length of treatment is dependent on the location of
is (are): infection
C. Use of oral penicillin is inadequate in the treatment of
A. Meningitis C. Septicemia GBS disease in an infant
B. Pneumonia D. All of the above D. All of the above
CASE 3
Herpes simplex virus
A pregnant woman presents to the hospital in labor at 32weeks The neonatology team is asked to evaluate the baby because of
gestation. She reports that her water had broken 6hours ago his mothers primary genital herpes lesion.
and she is now having contractions every 2 minutes. On
examination, her obstetrician observes a genital lesion that is 3. Of the following, the most appropriate management of an
most consistent with herpes simplex virus (HSV). This is the asymptomatic infant born to a mother with a primary active
first time the woman has had a genital lesion. genital lesion at the time of delivery is:
A. Cesarean birth vs. vaginal delivery The neonatologist meets with the infants family to discuss the
B. Maternal genital lesion in the first trimester vs. maternal different approach for HSV infection and HSV disease. He ex-
genital lesion at delivery plains that their neonate has HSV infection and requires 10
C. Premature infant vs. term infant to 14 days of intravenous acyclovir to prevent progression to
D. Rupture of membranes for less than 2 hours prior to de- HSV disease. If the babys test results are consistent with HSV
livery vs. rupture of membranes more than 6 hours prior disease, longer treatment with acyclovir will be needed.
to delivery
E. Use of a fetal scalp monitor vs. noninvasive fetal monitoring
The neonatologist meets with the family a few days later be- 7. Of the following, the appropriate management of an
cause the CSF and whole blood PCR tests are consistent with infant with HSV disease with central nervous system (CNS)
HSV disease. The baby does indeed develop clinical symptoms involvement is:
consistent with HSV disease.
A. Oral acyclovir 3 weeks
5. Of the following, the most likely timing of neonatal symp- B. Intravenous acyclovir 3 weeks
toms caused by peripartum acquisition of HSV is: C. Oral acyclovir 3 weeks, followed by oral acyclovir sup-
pressive therapy 6 months
A. Immediately after delivery C. Two to 3 weeks of age D. Intravenous acyclovir 3 weeks, followed by oral acy-
B. Forty-eight hours of age D. Four months of age clovir suppressive therapy 6 months
6. Of the following, the examination finding(s) that is (are)
consistent with HSV disease in an infant is:
CASE 4
Lower respiratory tract infections
An infant born at 27 weeks gestation has a postnatal course The infant has an evaluation and is found to have an RSV
significant for: infection. The parents are surprised by their infants diagno-
sis because the baby had been receiving monthly palivizumab
Intubation and surfactant therapy
since November to protect against RSV. The pediatrician
Transition to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
explains the benefit of this prophylaxis.
on the second day of life
Continuation of CPAP for 6 weeks, then transitioned to 2. Of the following, the benefit of palivizumab prophylaxis in
room air premature infants is to decrease the:
Apnea of prematurity that resolved
Feeding immaturity that resolved A. Mortality rate
Mild retinopathy of prematurity that resolved B. Rate of acquisition
C. Rate of hospitalization
The baby is discharged home in June. Initially, the babys D. Rate of transmission
mother is the primary care provider. However, the mother re-
turns to work in September and enrolls the baby in full-time 3. Of the following, the population that should receive RSV
daycare. At the end of March, the parents bring the baby to the prophylaxis during the first winter season includes:
pediatrician because of a low-grade fever, tachypnea, cough,
A. All infants with a small ventricular septal defect
wheezing, and nasal congestion.
B. All infants with cystic fibrosis
1. Of the following, the most common cause of lower respira- C. All premature infants with a diagnosis of chronic lung
tory infections in infants is: disease
D. All premature infants born less than 35 weeks gestation
A. Chlamydia
B. Influenza
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D. Ureaplasma
CASE 5
Hepatitis B virus
A full-term 3,400-g female infant is born by vaginal delivery The mothers HBsAg status is negative. However, she converts
to a mother with an unknown hepatitis B surface antigen to a positive HBsAg status during her second pregnancy. She
(HBsAg) status. delivers this second baby at term gestational age.
1. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this 3. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this
infant is to: infant is to:
A. Administer hepatitis vaccine (HBV) by 12 hours of age A. Administer HBV and HBIG by 12 hours of age
B. Administer hepatitis immune globulin (HBIG) as soon B. Administer HBV by 12 hours of age and HBIG by 1 week
as possible if the mother is positive for HBsAg or by of age
1week of age if she remains HBsAg-unknown C. Test the infant for HBsAg and antibodies to HBsAg (anti-
C. Test the infants mother for HBsAg HBs) at 1 month of age
D. All of the above D. B and C
2. If this infant had weighed 1,900 g at birth, the most appro- The infant receives the appropriate management after birth.
priate management for this infant would have been to:
4. Of the following, the transmission of hepatitis B infection
A. Administer HBV by 12 hours of age to this mothers second child is highest during:
B. Administer HBIG by 12 hours of age
A. Breast-feeding C. Labor and delivery
C. Test the infants mother for HBsAg
B. Gestation (i.e., in utero) D. Postpartum
D. All of the above
CASE 6
Syphilis
A female infant is born at 35 weeks gestation by vaginal de- 2. Of the following, the route by which this 1-month-old
livery. The pregnancy had been complicated by a diagnosis of infant most likely acquired syphilis is during:
syphilis in the infants mother at 32 weeks gestation.
A. Breast-feeding
1. Of the following, the scenario in which this infant would B. Direct contact with the mother
require an evaluation for syphilis is: C. Gestation (by transplacental route)
D. Labor and delivery
A. If the mother was appropriately treated during preg-
nancy and had a twofold decrease in viral titers 3. Additional clinical findings in this infant with syphilis in-
B. If the mother was appropriately treated during preg- clude all of the following, except:
nancy less than 4 weeks prior to delivery
A. Desquamating maculopapular rash
C. If the mother was treated with a nonpenicillin antibiotic
B. Hepatosplenomegaly
D. All of the above
C. Hutchinson triad
At 1 month of age, the infant has clinical findings that are D. Osteochondritis
consistent with syphilis, including the following:
To confirm the diagnosis of syphilis in this infant, the neonatolo-
Copious nasal secretions gist orders an RPR (rapid plasma reagin) test and a fluorescent
Hemolytic anemia treponemal antibody absorption (FTA) test on the infant and com-
Lymphadenopathy pares these findings with the mothers test results. The maternal
Pneumonia and neonatal testing are consistent with neonatal infection.
4. Of the following, the test results most consistent with con- All of these test results are abnormal and consistent with sys-
genital syphilis is: temic and neurologic evidence of syphilis.
A. Mother: negative RPR, positive FTA; infant: negative 5. Of the following, the most effective treatment for this in-
RPR, positive FTA fant is:
B. Mother: positive RPR, negative FTA; infant: positive
RPR, negative FTA A. Ampicillin administered intravenously 10 days
C. Mother: positive RPR, positive FTA; infant: negative B. Aqueous crystalline penicillin G administered intrave-
RPR, positive FTA nously 10 days
D. None of the above C. Penicillin G benzathine administered intramuscularly
once per week three doses
The neonatologist also performs a complete evaluation for D. All of the above are acceptable options
syphilis, including the following:
CASE 7
Toxoplasmosis
A full-term male infant is born to a woman with normal pre- 2. Of the following, the mode of transmission that might
natal screening tests. He is discharged to home after 2 days in have led this mother to acquire toxoplasmosis is:
the hospital. The pediatrician meets with the infants parents
A. Oocyst from contaminated food
the day after discharge to discuss a positive toxoplasmosis re-
B. Oocyst from contaminated water
sult that was found on the infants state screening test. The
C. Tissue cyst from undercooked meat
infants examination is normal. The pediatrician reviews the
D. All of the above
maternal history and learns that the woman had been healthy
throughout her pregnancy and is currently asymptomatic. Maternal Toxoplasma gondii-specific IgG and IgM antibody lev-
els and neonatal T. gondii-specific IgG, IgM, and IgA antibody
1. Of the following, the most accurate statement by the pedia- levels confirm that the baby has congenital toxoplasmosis.
trician about this baby is: The infant is asymptomatic and has normal ophthalmologic,
A. Congenital toxoplasmosis is unlikely because the baby auditory, and neurologic evaluations.
is asymptomatic.
3. Of the following, the clinical issues that are likely to de-
B. Congenital toxoplasmosis is unlikely because the
velop in this infant several months to years later include
mother is asymptomatic.
the following:
C. The baby most likely has congenital toxoplasmosis from
a primary maternal infection. A. Hearing impairment
D. The baby most likely has congenital toxoplasmosis from B. Mental deficiency
a secondary maternal infection. C. Visual impairment
D. All of the above
The parents have many questions for the pediatrician. In par-
ticular, the mother wants to know how she might have ac- The pediatrician consults with infectious diseases experts to
quired toxoplasmosis. determine the management plan.
4. Of the following, the appropriate management of this in- 5. Of the following, the clinical manifestation of T. gondii
fant is: infections acquired after birth is:
A. Close monitoring but no medications until the infant A. Easy bruisability, petechial rash, hematochezia
becomes symptomatic B. Fever, rash, myalgia, cervical lymphadenopathy
B. Pyrimethamine only 1 year C. Lethargy, seizures, hearing loss
C. Sulfadiazine only 1 year D. Nausea, emesis, diarrhea
D. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine 1 year
CASE 8
Human immunodeficiency virus
A 32-year-old pregnant woman has routine blood testing dur- After following all of the recommendations by the infectious
ing the first trimester. Her testing reveals the following: disease specialist to attempt to minimize HIV transmission to
her infant, the woman delivers a full-term infant girl.
Blood type O positive
Rapid plasma reagin nonreactive 3. Of the following, the preferred method to diagnosis HIV
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative infection in a newborn is:
Rubella immune
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibody positive A. Detection of p24 antigen
B. Enzyme immunoassay
The womans HIV-positive status is confirmed with additional C. Nucleic acid amplification
testing. The womans obstetrician reviews these new findings, D. Viral isolation by culture
discusses the preventive strategies to decrease the risk of HIV
transmission to her baby, and refers her to an infectious dis- While waiting for the infants test results, the woman asks the
ease specialist. pediatrician to describe the most likely clinical presentation in
an infant with a maternally acquired HIV infection.
1. Of the following, the most likely period of mother-to-child
transmission of HIV in the United States is: 4. Of the following, the most likely clinical diagnosis in an
untreated infant with a maternally acquired HIV infection is:
A. During the first trimester
B. During the third trimester A. Disseminated candidiasis
C. Intrapartum B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
D. Postnatally C. Toxoplasmosis
D. All of the above
2. Of the following, the approach(es) to minimize the risk of
transmission is:
CASE 9
Cytomegalovirus
A 6-month-old female infant with a diagnosis of cytomega- The infant was symptomatic with classic findings of congeni-
lovirus (CMV) infection has an appointment in the Pediatric tal CMV infection after birth.
Infectious Diseases Clinic. The pediatric resident rotating in
the clinic reviews the infants medical records prior to the visit. 3. Of the following, the most likely clinical finding in the in-
fant in this vignette is:
1. Of the following, acquisition of CMV infection may have
A. Large for gestational age
occurred in this infant:
B. Macrocephaly
A. By a blood transfusion C. Periventricular intracerebral calcifications
B. During delivery D. Thrombocytosis
C. Via infected breast milk
Upon further review of the infants records, the resident finds
D. All of the above
that the infant had three normal hearing screens (day of life2,
The resident learns that the infant acquired CMV by transpla- age 2 months, and age 4 months). The parents report that their
cental passage in utero. baby is able to hear noises and have no concerns about her
hearing.
2. Of the following, the most accurate statement about the
intrauterine transmission of CMV is: 4. Of the following, this infants risk of hearing loss is:
A. A fetus is at greater risk of acquiring CMV infection if A. 1% to 5% because the infants hearing screen was nor-
maternal infection occurs during the second half of mal soon after birth
pregnancy instead of the first half of pregnancy. B. 10% to 15% because the 6-month-old infants hearing
B. CMV is the most common intrauterine infection seems appropriate to the parents
worldwide. C. 30% to 40% because of the diagnosis of symptomatic
C. More than 80% of infants with congenital CMV are congenital CMV infection
symptomatic and have clinical sequelae. D. 80% to 90% because of the diagnosis of symptomatic
D. All of the above congenital CMV infection
CASE 10
Immunizations
A male infant is born at 28 weeks gestation with a birth weight 1. Of the following, the least accurate statement is:
of 960 g. He has a typical clinical course in the Neonatal Inten-
A. Most preterm infants have an adequate immune
sive Care Unit (NICU), complicated by surfactant deficiency,
response postvaccination to prevent disease.
apnea of prematurity, feeding immaturity, anemia of prema-
B. Preterm infants should receive a lower vaccine dose than
turity, and mild retinopathy of prematurity. He is discharged
term infants.
home at 35 weeks postmenstrual age, weighing 1,995 g. At
C. Preterm infants should receive inactivated vaccines
his first pediatric appointment at 36 weeks postmenstrual age,
while in the hospital.
the pediatrician meets with the family and discusses the ap-
D. Very-low-birth-weight infants may have an increase in
proach to immunizations in a former preterm infant.
cardiorespiratory events postvaccination.
The pediatrician then plans the vaccination schedule for this To protect the preterm infant until he can be vaccinated
infant. against influenza and receive the complete set of pertussis
vaccinations, the pediatrician also discusses that household
2. Of the following, the most appropriate timing of this members should receive influenza each year and an acellular
infants 2-month set of vaccinations is: pertussis booster dose.
A. Simultaneously at 36 weeks postmenstrual age (i.e., at
2months chronologic age)
B. Simultaneously at 48 weeks postmenstrual age (i.e.,
2months after the estimated due date)
C. Simultaneously once the infants weight is over 2,500 g
D. Separation of vaccines in 1-week intervals, starting at
36weeks postmenstrual age
SECTION VII
Answers
4. A i
CASE 1 ANSWERS
B i and ii
1. A. Infection C ii
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) describes the rup- D i and ii
ture of the amniotic sac prior to the onset of labor. If the rup- E ii
ture occurs prior to 37 weeks gestation and prior to labor, F ii
this is termed preterm premature rupture of membranes G ii
(PPROM). In either situation, the fetus becomes susceptible; H i
bacteria from the maternal vaginal flora can ascend and lead The characteristics of early-onset and late-onset sepsis are
to chorioamnionitis and a fetal infection. If a womans mem- compared in Table 1.
branes rupture prematurely, she will need to be monitored
closely for signs of infection. If there is a concern for chorio- Table 1. Early-Onset and Late-Onset Comparisons
amnionitis, the obstetrician will need to deliver the baby.
For infants born after several weeks of PPROM without re- Early-Onset Sepsis Late-Onset Sepsis
accumulation of the amniotic fluid, there is an increased risk
for pulmonary hypoplasia. Renal function in these infants is Timing Presents 0 to 6 days Presents 7 to
not usually affected. of life (some studies 10days of life
narrow to 03days) (may occur later in
2. A. Ampicillin and gentamicin premature infant)
For a newborn with suspected sepsis, the appropriate antibi-
Acquisition From maternal Either maternal
otic regimen should provide a broad coverage of gram-negative genital tract genital tract
and gram-positive organisms that are present in the maternal or postnatal
genital tract. These organisms include the following: environment
Organisms GBS, E. coli, Listeria, Staphylococcus
Group B Streptococcus
nontypeable H. (Staph)
Escherichia coli influenzae (H flu), coagulase-negative,
Listeria monocytogenes and Enterococcus Staph aureus,
Nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae Pseudomonas, GBS,
Enterococcus E Coli, and Listeria
Clinical Fulminant Usually slowly
Because Listeria monocytogenes is a possible cause of neonatal Multisystem progressive
sepsis, coverage with ampicillin is important. involvement (greater Focal involvement
risk of pneumonia) (greater risk of
3. D. Listeria monocytogenes meningitis)
A pregnant woman can acquire a Listeria monocytogenes in-
Mortality Greater mortality Lower mortality
fection by consuming unpasteurized milk, unpasteurized
(15%45%) (10%20%)
soft cheeses, unwashed raw vegetables, or uncooked meat.
Approximately 65% of pregnant women infected with Listeria
Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
will have a prodromal flu-like illness with headache, malaise, Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:223
fever, and gastrointestinal symptoms. Infants can then acquire
early-onset disease by transplacental transmission (most com-
mon) of the gram-positive rod or by ingestion or aspiration of
infected amniotic fluid. The amniotic fluid of infected infants
may have a brown-colored appearance, sometimes mistaken
for meconium. Infants can also acquire a late-onset Listeria
infection by a nosocomial route or from a colonized mother.
7. A. Meningitis
SUGGESTED READING
Early-onset GBS disease is characterized by systemic infec- Baker CJ, Long SS, Pickering LK, eds. Red Book: 2012 Report of the
tion in a neonate less than 7 days of age. Newborns with Committee on Infectious Diseases. 29th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL:
early-onset GBS disease typically have the following clinical American Academy of Pediatrics; 2012.
manifestations:
2. Higher risk is associated with: experts would not recommend intravenous acyclovir unless sur-
A. Vaginal birth face cultures are positive.
B. Maternal genital lesion at delivery
4. B. Monitor the infant closely
C. Premature infant
For an asymptomatic infant born by vaginal delivery to a
D. Rupture of membranes more than 6 hours prior to delivery
woman with a history of genital herpes but no active lesions at
E. Use of a fetal scalp monitor
the time of delivery, the following is recommended:
The risk of a neonate acquiring HSV is greatest if the mother
Monitor the infant closely and educate the family to
has a primary genital lesion at the time of a vaginal delivery.
monitor for signs and symptoms of HSV disease during
Additional risk factors include the following:
the first 6 weeks of life.
Prematurity because of low transplacental antibodies It is not necessary to obtain surface cultures for HSV.
Fetal scalp monitoring because of the potential that an Empiric acyclovir therapy is not indicated.
infants skin barrier is broken, allowing easier entry of
herpetic cells
5. C. Two to 3 weeks of age
The most likely timing of neonatal symptoms from perinatal
Rupture of membranes more than 4 hours because of the
acquisition of HSV is between 2 and 3 weeks of age. In con-
increased risk of ascending infection
trast, infants with congenital HSV will be symptomatic imme-
3. D. All of the above diately after delivery.
For an asymptomatic infant born by vaginal delivery to a
woman with a primary active genital lesion, infectious diseases 6. D. All of the above
experts recommend the following: There are three types of clinical presentations of neonatal
herpes:
Obtain surface cultures of conjunctivae, nasopharynx,
mouth, and rectum at 12 to 24 hours of age; the delay 1. Disseminated (systemic) disease
in obtaining surface cultures in an asymptomatic infant 2. Encephalitis (CNS involvement)
will allow the cultures to reflect viral replication instead 3. Skin, eye, mucous membranes (SEM)
of contamination from an exposure. There is some overlap with each of these disorders. Table 1
Monitor the infant closely. compares the timing, incidence, clinical features, morbidity,
Some experts suggest empirical intravenous acyclovir after and mortality of these three types. Of note, while skin find-
surface cultures are obtained. ings are common, they are not always present in neonates with
For asymptomatic infants born by vaginal delivery to a woman herpes.
with a secondary genital lesion at the time of delivery, most
Morbidity 30% to 80% normal development if Treatment minimizes risk of 30% with normal development
treated progression to disseminated or Increased risk of microcephaly,
CNS disease spasticity, blindness,
Normal development in >90% if chorioretinitis, developmental
treated delay
Greatest risk of neurologic
sequelae if 3 skin recurrences
Mortality 30% (despite treatment) Minimal 4% to 10% (despite treatment)
Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:236237
Cognitive deficits
CASE 6 ANSWERS
Eighth cranial nerve deafness (evident at 10 to 40 years
1. D. All of the above of age)
A neonate must be evaluated for syphilis soon after birth in Frontal bossing
the following scenarios: Hutchinson teeth (peg-shaped, notched central incisors)
Interstitial keratitis (evident at 5 to 20 years of age)
If the baby is born to a seropositive mother with un-
treated syphilis Hutchinson triad refers to the combination of eighth cranial
If the mother is treated for syphilis during pregnancy with nerve deafness, Hutchinson teeth, and interstitial keratitis.
a nonpenicillin antibiotic These late findings of congenital syphilis can be prevented
If the mother was appropriately treated during pregnancy with appropriate early treatment.
but this treatment occurred less than 4 weeks prior to de- 4. C. Mother: positive RPR, positive FTA; infant: negative
livery; evaluation is necessary because of the potential for RPR, positive FTA
a treatment failure The RPR or VDRL test is a nontreponemal antibody test that
If the mother was appropriately treated during pregnancy detects cell membrane cardiolipin nonspecific IgG antibod-
but did not show a fourfold (or more) decrease in viral titers. ies. It is reported as a titer, and it correlates with disease activ-
If the mother was appropriately treated during pregnancy ity. In contrast, FTA detects a specific antibody to Treponema
but had insufficient follow-up pallidum, remains active for life, and does not correlate with
If the baby has symptoms that are consistent with syphilis disease activity. Because of potential false-positive results, a
2. C. Gestation (by transplacental route) diagnosis of syphilis requires both nontreponemal and trepo-
The transplacental route is the most common mode of acqui- nemal testing.
sition of syphilis in the neonate. If a pregnant woman has pri- If a mother tests positive for RPR and FTA with an infant
mary syphilis that is untreated, there is a 70% to 100% risk of who is negative or positive for RPR and positive for FTA, this
fetal acquisition. is consistent with a mother with syphilis and an infected
An infant can acquire syphilis by contact with an active neonate.
vaginal lesion during delivery, but this is less common than in- If a mother tests negative for RPR and positive for FTA with
trauterine acquisition. Transmission of syphilis by direct ma- an infant who is negative for RPR and positive for FTA, the
ternal contact and breast-feeding is unlikely. Acquired syphilis mother has been successfully treated for syphilis or has a false-
in children and adults almost always occurs through sexual positive serology.
contact with infected lesions or mucous membranes If a mother tests positive for RPR and negative for FTA with
an infant who is also positive for RPR and negative for FTA,
3. C. Hutchinson triad this is consistent with a false-positive nontreponemal test.
Congenital syphilis can result in prenatal findings, including Thus, the mother does not have syphilis and there has been
stillbirth, hydrops fetalis, or preterm birth. Affected infants passive transfer of RPR antibodies to the neonate.
can be asymptomatic at birth (23) or have clinical findings that
present within the first 2 months of age (13). These symptoms 5. B. Aqueous crystalline penicillin G administered intra-
include the following: venously 3 10 days
For neonates with a definite or likely diagnosis of congenital
Chorioretinitis and/or uveitis syphilis, the most appropriate treatment is aqueous crystal-
Copious nasal secretions (also known as snuffles) line penicillin G administered intravenously for 10 days. An
Desquamating maculopapular rash involving the palms alternative treatment is procaine penicillin G administered
and soles or bullous eruptions intramuscularly for 10 days; although procaine penicillin G
Erb palsy has low entry into the CSF, treatment failures have not been
Hemolytic anemia reported. For neonates who are at risk for congenital syphi-
Hepatosplenomegaly lis but have a benign examination with normal radiographic
Leptomeningitis imaging and laboratory testing, some infectious diseases
Lymphadenopathy experts recommend treatment with penicillin G benzathine
Nephrotic syndrome intramuscularly for 10 days. There is no data to support am-
Osteochondritis picillin for the treatment of congenital syphilis. After treat-
Pneumonia ment, infants need to be followed closely with serum and CSF
Pseudoparalysis VDRLtests.
Thrombocytopenia
SUGGESTED READINGS
Baker CJ, Long SS, Pickering LK, eds. Red Book: 2012 Report of the Com-
mittee on Infectious Diseases. 29th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL: American
Academy of Pediatrics; 2012.
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
CASE 7 ANSWERS
Approaches to decrease the transmission rate of HIV from Mycobacterium avium infection (10%)
an HIV-positive mother to her infant include the following: Herpes simplex virus infection (5%)
Cryptosporidiosis (5%)
Oral antiretroviral medications to the woman during
pregnancy A childs risk of acquiring these opportunistic infections is sig-
Intravenous antiretroviral medication to the woman dur- nificantly decreased with highly active antiretroviral therapy.
ing delivery Unless an infant is receiving total parenteral nutrition or
Oral antiretroviral prophylaxis to the infant for 6 weeks has a central venous catheter, disseminated candidiasis is un-
after birth common in an HIV-infected child. Similarly, toxoplasmosis is
Avoidance of breast-feeding (recommended approach in not a common illness in HIV-infected children.
the United States)
Cesarean delivery before the onset of labor and before
rupture of membranes if maternal viral load > 1,000 AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
copies/mL or unknown viral load CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Because these approaches have markedly decreased the Know the means of maternal transmission of HIV to her
risk of perinatal HIV transmission, the American Academy of infant (e.g., vaginal delivery, breast-feeding, transplacen-
Pediatrics currently recommends that all pregnant women, tally, intrapartum)
with their consent, undergo HIV testing. For those women Know that cesarean delivery and treatment of an HIV-
with an unknown HIV status, clinical providers should o
btain positive mother with antiretroviral drugs decrease the
rapid HIV antibody testing on the mother or infant after risk of transmission of virus to her infant
state-specific consent is obtained. Know the preferred method of diagnosis of HIV infec-
3. C. Nucleic acid amplification tion in infancy (i.e., nucleic acid amplification test)
Nucleic acid amplification by HIV-DNA polymerase chain Know the effect of a mothers HIV-positive status on her
reaction (PCR) assay is the preferred method of diagnosis of infants HIV test
HIV infection in a neonate. Although 30% of HIV-infected Know the clinical manifestations of human immunode-
neonates will test positive for HIV-DNA by PCR at 48 hours ficiency virus infection in neonates
of age, almost all HIV-infected neonates will have a positive
DNA PCR assay result at 1 month of age. When an infant has a
positive HIV-DNA PCR result, repeat testing is recommended SUGGESTED READINGS
at 1 to 2 months of age and again at 2 to 4 months of age. An
Baker CJ, Long SS, Pickering LK, eds. Red Book: 2012 Report of the
infant is diagnosed with an HIV infection if two separate sam- Committee on Infectious Diseases. 29th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL:
ples are positive by DNA PCR assays. In non-breast-feeding American Academy of Pediatrics; 2012.
infants, two negative HIV DNA PCR assays confirm that the Brodsky D. Clinical presentation of neonatal HIV. NeoReviewsPlus.
April 5, 2008:Q7.
infant is not infected. Brodsky D. Diagnostic criteria of HIV. NeoReviewsPlus. July 5, 2008:Q2.
Detection of p24 antigen is less sensitive than testing by Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
HIV-DNA PCR and may yield false-negative results because of 2010.
Maldonado YA. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome in the infant.
a low amount of circulating antigen in asymptomatic infected In: Remington JS, Klein JO, Wilson CB, et al. , eds. Infectious Disease
infants. Detection of HIV antibody by enzyme immunoassay of the Fetus and Newborn Infant. 6th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier
may yield false-positive results because of passively acquired Inc; 2006:667692.
maternal antibodies remaining in the infant until 18 months
of age. Viral isolation by culture is not an ideal test in neonates
because it is expensive and often requires up to 1 month to CASE 9 ANSWERS
attain positive results.
1. D. All of the above
4. B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia An infant can acquire CMV by different modes, including:
P. jirovecii (previously known as Pneumocystis carinii) pneumonia
By a blood transfusion (less common because of use of
is the most likely clinical presentation in an untreated infant with
CMV-negative blood)
a maternally acquired HIV infection, occurring in approximately
By intrauterine transmission (all trimesters)
one-third of affected infants. Other c linical manifestations in an
During delivery (from cervical secretions; term infants usu-
infant infected with HIV include the following:
ally asymptomatic because of passively transferred mater-
Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis (25%) nal antibodies; preterm infants at risk for clinical findings)
Recurrent bacterial infections (20%) Secretions (requires close contact)
Encephalopathy (15%) Via infected breast milk (term infants are usually asymp-
Candida esophagitis (15%) tomatic because of passively transferred maternal anti-
Cytomegalovirus infection (10%) bodies; preterm infants are at risk for clinical findings)
2. B. CMV is the most common intrauterine infection loss in an infant with congenital CMV infection. Approximately
worldwide. half of affected infants are at risk for neurologic sequelae, includ-
Worldwide, CMV is the most common intrauterine infec- ing cognitive deficits, developmental delays, and seizures.
tion. Seroconversion from a positive to a negative status dur- In contrast, infants who acquire CMV infection intrapar-
ing pregnancy is not very common, occurring in 1% to 4% tum or postnatally from infected breast milk or blood prod-
of pregnant women and the majority of these women are as- ucts typically are asymptomatic. However, some infants, such
ymptomatic. Approximately 40% of fetuses will acquire CMV as preterm infants, may have clinical manifestations, such as
if the pregnant woman acquires a primary CMV infection. The pneumonitis, thrombocytopenia, hepatitis, poor head growth,
risk of neonatal disease and the severity of the neonates ill- and/or hearing loss.
ness are highest if the pregnant woman acquires an infection
4. C. 30% to 40% because of the diagnosis of symptom-
during the first half of gestation. Of those fetuses who become
atic congenital CMV infection
infected with CMV, 85% to 90% will be asymptomatic and
Sensorineural hearing loss is the most common clinical con-
have normal development. These infants have asymptomatic
sequence of symptomatic congenital CMV infection, occurring
congenital CMV. Of the remaining 10% to 15% who become
in 30% to 40% of affected children. In contrast, hearing loss
infected, 90% will have clinical sequelae (i.e., symptomatic
occurs in 5% to 10% of children with asymptomatic congenital
congenital CMV).
CMV. In those children with symptomatic congenital CMV and
3. C. Periventricular intracerebral calcifications hearing loss, half will be identified during the newborns hear-
Infants with symptomatic congenital CMV infection can have ing screening test and the remainder will be diagnosed during
the following findings: childhood. Thus, frequent audiology screening is necessary to
identify children with late-onset CMV-related hearing loss.
Chorioretinitis
Coagulopathy
Dermal hematopoiesis
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Growth restriction
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Hearing loss, sensorineural (most common clinical
sequela of congenital CMV infection) Recognize that perinatal infection with cytomegalovirus
Hepatosplenomegaly may be acquired in utero, during delivery, or in the neo-
Indirect hyperbilirubinemia natal period (e.g., breast milk, blood transfusion)
Microcephaly Recognize the clinical manifestations of symptomatic
Periventricular intracerebral calcifications congenital cytomegalovirus disease, including congeni-
Thrombocytopenia tal hearing loss and mental retardation
The computed tomography image in Figure 1 reveals periventric-
ular calcifications, enlarged ventricles, and white matter volume
SUGGESTED READINGS
Baker CJ, Long SS, Pickering LK, eds. Red Book: 2012 Report of the Com-
mittee on Infectious Diseases. 29th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL: American
Academy of Pediatrics; 2012.
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
CASE 10 ANSWERS
CASE 1
Fluid, caloric, and nutritional requirements
Two infants with respiratory distress are admitted to the Neo- 2. Match the findings below (AF) with the appropriate gesta-
natal Intensive Care Unit soon after birth. One infant is born tional age (iiv):
at 28 weeks gestation, and the other infant is born at term.
A. Decreased ability to digest i. Both full-term and
Both infants are started on maintenance intravenous fluids.
fats and absorb fat-soluble preterm infants
1. Select the most appropriate initial total fluid order for the vitamins
infant born at 28 weeks gestation and the infant born at B. Greater fluid requirement ii. Full-term infants
term, respectively: per kilogram of body
weight
A. 60 mL/kg/day for both
B. 60 mL/kg/day and 100 mL/kg/day C. Greater insensible water iii. Preterm infants
C. 100 mL/kg/day and 60 mL/kg/day loss (IWL)
D. 100 mL/kg/day for both D. Greater protein require- iv. Neither full-term
ment for adequate growth nor preterm infants
E. Lower caloric requirement
per kilogram for adequate
growth
F. Most regain birth weight by
2 weeks of life
CASE 2
Acidosis and alkalosis
A 1,300-g male infant is born at 30 5/7 weeks gestation af- Bicarbonate = 15 mEq/L
ter unstoppable preterm labor. His mother is a 28-year-old Arterial blood gas: pH = 7.2, Pco2 = 41 mm Hg,
woman with unremarkable prenatal screens aside from un- bicarbonate = 15 mEq/L
known Group B Streptococcus status. The infant is treated for Urinalysis: pH = 7.5, no glucose, no protein
respiratory distress syndrome with intubation and adminis-
The neonatology team stops his enteral feedings, starts anti-
tration of surfactant. He is extubated to continuous positive
biotic therapy, and provides more supplemental alkali. His
airway pressure (CPAP) on postnatal day 2 and begins enteral
bicarbonate normalizes, and the team restarts enteral feedings.
feedings. On postnatal day 5, he has pronounced, frequent ap-
nea and bradycardia episodes. The results of the sepsis evalu- 1. Using the laboratory results from above, calculate the an-
ation and abdominal radiograph are reassuring. His serum ion gap:
electrolytes, blood gas, and urinalysis are as follows:
A. 12 C. 18
Sodium = 137 mEq/L B. 14 D. 44
Potassium = 4.2 mEq/L
Chloride = 108 mEq/L
2. For each of the causes of metabolic acidosis (AI), choose His course has consisted of treatment for surfactant deficiency,
the corresponding selection (i, ii): a 48-hour rule-out sepsis with antibiotics, and phototherapy
for indirect hyperbilirubinemia. His current settings on syn-
A. Acute renal failure i. Elevated anion gap
chronized intermittent mandatory ventilation are:
B. Congenital adrenal ii. Normal anion gap
hyperplasia Peak inspiratory pressure = 20 mm Hg
Peak end-expiratory pressure = 5 mm Hg
C. Congenital
Rate = 40 breaths per minute
hypothyroidism
D. Galactosemia He continues to breathe above the set rate of 40 breaths per
E. High-protein formula minutes. His blood gas is as follows:
pH = 7.5, Pco2 = 30 mm Hg, bicarbonate = 16 mEq/L
F. Inborn errors of
metabolism 3. Select the most likely acidbase disorder:
G. Lactic acidosis A. Acute metabolic acidosis
H. Organic acidemias B. Acute respiratory alkalosis
I. Toxins C. Chronic metabolic acidosis with compensation
D. Chronic respiratory alkalosis with compensation
The infant in the next bed space was born at 28 weeks gesta-
tion, is now postnatal day 5, and remains on the ventilator.
CASE 3
Electrolyte abnormalities
A 690-g female infant is born at 24 weeks gestation after un- 2. Select the EKGs below (see Figure 1AD) that would be con-
stoppable preterm labor. She is born to a 21-year-old woman sistent with cardiac changes in the setting of hyperkalemia:
with unremarkable prenatal screens aside from unknown
A. Figure 1A
Group B Streptococcus status. Starter parenteral fluid is initi-
B. Figure 1B
ated and consists of dextrose, sodium, and protein. The in-
C. Figure 1C
fants serum electrolytes at 36 hours are as follows:
D. Figure 1D
Sodium = 143 mEq/L
Potassium = 8.2 mEq/L
Chloride = 110 mEq/L A.
Bicarbonate = 18 mEq/L
Soon after these results are reported, the bedside nurse notices
a possible arrhythmia on the cardiorespiratory monitor.
D.
FIGURE 1.
3. Choose the next step(s) in medical management for this she is on full feedings and her nutrition laboratory values are
patient: notable for:
CASE 4
Mineral deficiencies
An 880-g male infant born at 28 weeks gestation is now 2. Match the clinical findings below (AD) with the most
6 months old and has hypochromic anemia unresponsive appropriate trace mineral deficiency (iiv). Each mineral
to iron therapy, neutropenia, and osteoporosis. In addition, deficiency may be used more than once or not at all:
he has decreased skin pigmentation, diarrhea, and failure to
A. Erosive skin changes, alopecia, i. Chromium
thrive (FTT).
diarrhea, FTT, and oral candidiasis
1. Select the most likely mineral deficiency that is consistent B. Often diagnosed as eczema or impetigo ii. Copper
with this infants clinical findings:
C. Often seen with late-onset iii. Magnesium
A. Chromium C. Magnesium hypocalcemia
B. Copper D. Zinc D. Wiry hair iv. Zinc
CASE 5
Vitamin deficiencies
A 760-g male infant born at 27 weeks gestation is now ap- 2. Select the signs or symptoms that would not typically be
proaching 2 months old. He is status-post necrotizing entero- present in an infant or child with MBD:
colitis at 4 weeks of age and has now reached full-volume
A. Frontal bossing, craniotabes, prominence of costochon-
enteral feedings with unfortified breast milk. He remains on
dral junction (rachitic rosary)
mechanical ventilation because of severe chronic lung disease.
B. Manifestation between 6 and 12 weeks of age
His laboratory values and radiographs reveal that he has meta-
C. Nonpainful fractures
bolic bone disease (MBD) consistent with rickets.
D. Poor weight gain and failure to wean off mechanical
1. Select the primary risk factor for the development of MBD ventilation because of excessive chest wall compliance
in this infant:
3. Choose the most appropriate management once a diagno- reviews the importance of supplementing breast-fed infants
sis of MBD of prematurity has been established: with Vitamin D. Next, he discusses that breast-fed infants have
lower vitamin K levels when compared with infants receiving
A. Ask the infants mother to double her intake of multivi-
cows milk.
tamins if she is breast-feeding
B. Give preterm or transitional formula and human milk 4. Choose the additional neonatal risk factor(s) that
fortification, consider supplementation with calcium predispose(s) the newborn to vitamin K deficiency:
and phosphorus, and avoid administration directly to
A. An immature newborn liver
milk to prevent precipitation
B. Initial lack of gastrointestinal (GI) microorganisms that
C. Offer breast milk at a higher volume
synthesize vitamin K
D. All of the above
C. Maternal medications (e.g. anticonvulsants, warfarin,
The medical student rotating in the Neonatal Intensive Care and antituberculosis medications)
Unit (NICU) this month presents a talk about breast milk. He D. All of the above
CASE 6
Breast-feeding
A primigravida 26-year-old woman is wondering if she should 2. For the clinical scenarios below (AD), select the most ap-
breast-feed or formula-feed her newborn. The pediatrician propriate choice (iiii). You may use each selection more
rounding in the nursery explains the differences between than once or not at all:
breast milk and infant formula. He also describes the benefits
A. Mother continues to take i. Breast milk is
of breast milk and the limited contraindications.
lithium. contraindicated.
1. Match each description below (AJ) with the most appro- B. Mother had an oral herpes ii. Breast milk is
priate type of milk (iiv): simplex virus (HSV) infec- recommended.
A. Contains bile salt-dependent lipase i. Breast milk tion 2 weeks prior to deliv- iii. There is no American
ery, was treated with Valtrex, Academy of Pediat-
B. Contains consistent caloric density ii. Formula
and the lesion has healed. rics (AAP) guideline
C. Contains secretory IgA iii. Both She took Lithium for 5 for this clinical
D. Increases lactobacilli growth iv. Neither years as a teenager and she scenario.
E. Has consistent protein content has no symptoms of active
F. Has fewer long-chain unsaturated tuberculosis with a negative
fatty acids chest radiograph.
3. Refer to the table below and fill in the correct heading i. Cows milk
(iiv) for the columns listed A, B, and C: ii. Human colostrum
iii. Mature breast milk
A B C iv. None of the above
Protein (g/L) 22.9 10.6 32.5
Whey:casein 80:20 55:45 20:80
Lactalbumin (g/L) 3.6 2.4
Na (mg/dL) 48 15 58
K (mg/dL) 74 55 138
Cl (mg/dL) 85 43 103
Ca (mg/dL) 39 35 130
Fe (g/dL) 70 100 70
Modified from: Behrman RE, Kliegman RM, Arvin AM, eds. Nelson
Textbook of Pediatrics. 15th ed. Philadelphia, PA: WB Saunders;
1996:158 and Lawrence RA, Lawrence RM. Breastfeeding: A
Guide for the Medical Profession. 5th ed. St. Louis, MO: Mosby;
1999:128129
CASE 7
Formula-feeding
A full-term male infant was born to a 19-year-old woman ounce was based on carbohydrate source, protein source, iron
with a family history of asthma, allergies, and colic. The in- fortification, mineral content, and caloric density.
fants mother decided that she did not want to breast-feed and
sought out advice from family and friends to help guide her 2. Identify the carbohydrate source (iiii), protein source (iv
on what to feed her newborn infant. Her neighbor told her to vii), fat source (viiiix), and iron fortification (xxii) for
give fresh goats milk from the familys farm; her aunt said to Neocate:
use cows milk; her sister told her to use soy formula, while her A. Carbohydrate source _____ i. Lactose
uncle, who is a phlebotomist in the local community hospital, ii. Sucrose and g lucose
said to use protein hydrolysate infant formula. polymers
At 3 months of age, the infant was brought to the Emer- iii. Glucose polymers
gency Department with failure to thrive (FTT), pallor, and
B. Protein source_____ iv. Cows milk protein
lethargy. His laboratory values revealed megaloblastic anemia,
v. Soy protein
severe hypernatremia, and azotemia.
vi. Hydrolysate
1. Which feeding regimen would be most likely to lead to the vii. Free amino acids
above laboratory findings? C. Fat source_____ viii. Long-chain
triglycerides
A. Cows milk
ix. Medium-chain
B. Fresh goats milk
and long-chain
C. Protein hydrolysate infant formula
triglycerides
D. Soy formula
D. Iron fortification_____ x. Low dose
After being hospitalized for a week with normalization of his xi. High dose
physical examination and laboratory values, the infant was xii. Formula without
discharged to home on Neocate 24 calories per ounce. The any iron
neonatologists decision to choose Neocate 24 calories per
At age 3 months, the infant reaches the 15th percentile for 3. Select true or false (iii) for the following statements
weight on the growth chart, after having been at less than the related to MPA in infants:
3rd percentile. He tolerates this new formula well.
i. True
His cousin, now 3 weeks old, is having frequent episodes
ii. False
of regurgitation, followed by crying, after his feedings of Enfa-
mil. By 4 weeks of life, the regurgitation and crying after feed- A. An infant with MPA may appear healthy but have a history
ings continues and his stools have become more frequent and of fussiness, regurgitation, increased frequency of stools,
watery. His weight is 4,150 g, and he is gaining only 10 g per and presence of blood-tinged and/or mucous stools.
day over the past week. He has also developed a rash on his B. Some infants demonstrate extreme irritability as the
cheeks and buttocks. His pediatrician suspects milk protein al- only symptom of MPA.
lergy (MPA). C. The prevalence of MPA in infants is low.
D. Skin prick testing and in vitro immunoassays (com-
monly called RAST tests) are recommended.
E. It is not recommended that an infant with cows MPA be
changed to soy formula as the initial next step, as a signif-
icant percentage of infants are sensitive to both proteins.
F. Up to 50% of infants with cows MPA or soy-induced proc-
titis are intolerant to hydrolysated cows milk formula.
G. Lactose intolerance is the same as MPA, as both involve
the immune system.
H. Almost all infants will be able to tolerate cows milk and
soy products by 1 year of age.
SECTION VIII
Answers
70
CASE 1 ANSWERS
60
1. C. 100 mL/kg/day and 60 mL/kg/day
Knowledge of a neonates insensible water losses (IWLs) is re-
50
quired to provide the appropriate maintenance fluid. IWL in-
IWL (mL/kg/day)
creases as gestational age decreases because immature infants 40
have a high surface area to body mass ratio and water-permeable
skin. Table 1 summarizes the mechanisms of IWL in neonates. 30
Table 1. Mechanisms of IWL
20
Neonatal evaporative 1/3 via respiratory tract,
water loss 2/3 via skin 10
The formula for calculating a metabolic acidosis anion gap is: 3. D. Chronic respiratory alkalosis with compensation
Anion gap = [Na+] ([Cl] + [HCO3]) There are many causes of respiratory alkalosis, including:
Hypoxia
2. A i
Parenchymal lung disease
B ii
Medications (salicylate, xanthine, catecholamine)
C ii Mechanical ventilation
D i Central nervous system disorders
E ii Metabolic disorders
Hyperventilation syndrome
F i
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Kenner C. Comprehensive Neonatal Care: An Interdisciplinary Approach.
ST. Louis, MO: Saunders (Elsevier); 2007.
CASE 4 ANSWERS
1. B. Copper
The neonate in the scenario has copper deficiency, which can
manifest with findings of: B C
FIGURE 1. Menkes JH, Sarnat HB, Maria, BL. Child Neurology. 7th ed.
FTT Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 1.32
Pallor/decreased pigmentation
Hypothermia 2. A iv
Apneic events
B iv
Hypotonia
Poor feeding C iii
Skeletal changes D ii
Abnormal elastic connective tissue
Anemia Chromium deficiency in an infant is most often caused by long-
Hypoceruloplasminemia term parenteral nutrition and may manifest with impaired
Hepatosplenomegaly glucose tolerance, weight loss, peripheral neuropathy, and
Diarrhea confusion.
Copper deficiency is described in Answer 1.
Most fetal accretion of copper occurs during the third trimes-
Magnesium deficiency in a neonate is often a manifestation
ter. Thus, preterm infants are born deficient. The exact neona-
of late-onset hypocalcemia and can cause hypokalemia, vom-
tal requirements are unknown, but reasonable guidelines have
iting, arrhythmia, tremor, muscle spasm, and tetany.
been made on the basis of current evidence.
Similar to copper, Zinc is mostly accumulated in the fetus
Almost all cases of copper deficiency in neonates result
during the third trimester when liver stores are established.
from a nutritional deficiency or genetic disorder of copper
Typical manifestations of zinc deficiency are:
metabolism. The X-linked recessive lethal multisystem disor-
der is called Menkes disease, which consists of neurodegen- Dermatitis
eration, connective tissue disturbances, and peculiar kinky Alopecia
hair. The levels of copper and ceruloplasmin are low, and FTT
the confirmatory test is presence of mutation analysis of the Oral candidiasis
ATP7A gene. Irritability
Manifestations later in life may include delayed sexual matu- Thickening of the skull
ration, reduced taste sensitivity, poor night vision, immune Delayed anterior fontanelle closure
compromise, and impaired wound healing. Long-bone abnormalities with cupping or flaring of the
metaphyses because of uncalcified osteoid formation
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS Infants with severe hypocalcemia may present with seizures.
CONTENT SPECIFICATION Children older than 2 years of age may succumb to greenstick
fractures, kyphoscoliosis, and short stature. They may also be
Know the diseases that are associated with trace mineral at increased risk for autoimmune disease as vitamin D is a
deficiency (zinc, copper, magnesium, chromium) modulator for B- and T-lymphocyte function.
Figure 1 demonstrates some radiographic features of MBD,
including profound demineralization, frayed, irregular cup-
ping of the end of the metaphysis, and poorly defined cortex.
SUGGESTED READINGS
The chest radiograph (Figure 2) shows an 11-month with rick-
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; ets, evident by demineralization and cupping of the distal end
2010. of ribs and humerus.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
Giles E, Doyle L. Copper in the extremely low-birthweight or very pre-
term infants. NeoReviews. 2007;4: e159e164.
Giles E, Doyle L. Zinc in the extremely low-birthweight or very preterm
infants. NeoReviews. 2007;4: e165e171.
CASE 5 ANSWERS
1. C. Prematurity
Prematurity is the single most important risk factor for the
development of MBD. There is an inverse relationship to ges-
tational age and birth weight and the frequency of MBD. Ad-
ditional risk factors for MBD are:
2. C. Nonpainful fractures
MBD typically manifests between 6 and 12 weeks of age. Rap-
idly growing premature infants with low intake of either cal-
cium or phosphorus are at high risk. The primary nutritional
reason for MBD in preterm infants is a deficiency of vitaminD.
Vitamin D is a prohormone essential for normal absorption
of calcium from the intestines. When vitamin D deficiency
occurs, growing children may develop MBD or rickets while
adults may develop osteomalacia.
Infants may demonstrate poor weight gain, failure to thrive,
and can have respiratory difficulties with potential for difficulty
weaning off mechanical ventilation as a result of excessive chest
wall compliance. Physical findings may include the following:
Generalized hypotonia
Pain in spine, pelvis, and legs FIGURE 2. From Fleisher GR, Ludwig S, Baskin MN. Atlas of Pediatric
Painful fractures Emergency Medicine. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
Bowing of the legs 2004. Figure 7.15
2. A i
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
B ii CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
C i
D ii Breast milk
Content
Understand the qualitative and quantitative differences
Table 1 summarizes breast-feeding contraindications in the
between human milk and infant formulas
United States.
Recognize that human and cow milk proteins differ in
Table 1. Contraindications to Breast-Feeding in the United States quality and quantity
Know that breast milk is deficient in vitamin D
Infection Maternal human immunodeficiency
virus Benefits
Mother with herpes simplex lesions Know that human milk contains antibodies against cer-
on breast tain bacteria and viruses, including high concentrations
Symptomatic mother with positive PPD of secretory IgA antibodies
and chest radiograph Know that ingested antibodies from human colostrum
Active breast abscess and milk provide local gastrointestinal immunity against
Relative infection contraindications organisms entering the body via this route
Premature very-low-birth-weight infant Understand that human milk provides protection
and cytomegalovirus-seropositive against many gastrointestinal and respiratory infections
mother, maternal oral HSV lesion Know that there is a lower incidence of gastrointestinal
Galactosemia Caused by lactose being the infections in infants fed with human milk
predominant carbohydrate in breast milk
Contraindications
Drugs Cocaine Know the drugs that are contraindicated in breast-feeding
Cyclosporine Know that maternal ingestion of drugs with sedative
Lithium properties has the potential to cause sedation in breast-
Methotrexate feeding infants
Phencyclidine Know the disorders of the breast that may interfere with
Radioactive agents breast-feeding
Judge for which maternal breast infections breast-feeding
Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. should be interrupted
Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:306
Know for which maternal chronic viral infections breast-
3. A ii feeding is not recommended
B iii
C i
SUGGESTED READINGS
Human Mature Cows
Component Colostrum Breast Milk Milk Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Lulu. 2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neona-
Protein (g/L) 22.9 10.6 32.5 tal Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins;
2011.
Whey:casein 80:20 55:45 20:80
Lactalbumin 3.6 2.4
(g/L)
CASE 7 ANSWERS
Na (mg/dL) 48 15 58
K (mg/dL) 74 55 138 1. B. Fresh goats milk
False and potentially dangerous information can lead parents
Cl (mg/dL) 85 43 103
to select an inappropriate feeding regimen for their newborn.
Ca (mg/dL) 39 35 130 It is important for pediatricians and neonatologists to dispel
Fe (g/dL) 70 100 70 any myths about unsafe feeding practices. Fresh goats milk is
not an appropriate selection for enteral feedings in a newborn.
Obtained from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. Goats milk contains 50 mg sodium and 3.56 g of protein per
2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010. Modified from: Behrman RE, 100 ml, which is almost three times that in breast milk. A new-
Kliegman RM, Arvin AM, eds. Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics. 15th born requires 100 mg/day to 200 mg/day of sodium and 9 g/day
ed. Philadelphia, PA: WB Saunders; 1996:158 and Lawrence RA,
Lawrence RM. Breastfeeding: A Guide for the Medical Profession.
to 11 g/day of protein. The laboratory values for the infant in
5th ed. St. Louis, MO: Mosby; 1999:128129
Table 2. Proteins
Sucrose and Alimentum Obtained from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed.
glucose polymers Isomil Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:307. Modified from: Gunn VL, Nechyba
C, eds. The Harriet Lane Handbook: A Manual for Pediatric House
Portagen, Monogen
Officers. 16th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby; 2002:472
The quality of fat content in preterm and full-term infant MPA, an amino acid-based formula may be trialed. In the set-
formula is important to recognize. Formulas are designed to ting of cows MPA, soy protein-based formulas are generally
attempt to mimic the fat content in gestationally appropriate not recommended as there is a 10% or greater allergen cross-
breast milk. There are greater amounts of long-chain unsatu- reactivity. However, almost all infants will be able to tolerate
rated fatty acids in breast milk compared with cows milk. In cows milk and soy products by1 year of age.
addition, there are increased amounts of arachidonic acid and Lactose intolerance is a separate entity from MPA, as the
docosahexaenoic acid in breast milk; infant formulas now also later involves the immune system and causes intestinal mu-
contain arachidonic acids. The minimum fat content of infant cosal injury. Lactose is a disaccharide comprised of glucose
formulas is 3.4g/100 kcal. Most infant formulas contain at and galactose. Lactose requires lactase to be absorbed in the
least 10% of their total fatty acids as linoleic acid. small intestine. Lactose intolerance most often presents with
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends iron sup- abdominal pain, diarrhea, gas, and bloating. Milk intolerance
plementation in breast-fed infants and the use of iron-fortified may be attributed to lactose or protein components.
infant formula when a mother chooses not to breast-feed. The
rate of iron-deficiency anemia in infancy has decreased to a
great extent as a result of iron fortification. Low-iron formulas AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
should not be used, since they do not provide enough iron to CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
provide optimal support to the growing infant.
Formula feeding
3. A i True Content
B i True Recognize that infants fed with goat milk exclusively are
C i True prone to megaloblastic anemia due to folate deficiency
D ii False Know which infant formulas contain lactose
Know the indications for the use of protein hydrolysate
E ii False
formulas
F ii False Know the indications for the use of soy formula
G ii False Recognize the importance of the quality of fat content in
H i True preterm and full-term infants formulas
Understand the rationales for the use of iron-fortified
MPA is a problem in infancy that may affect up to 15% of new- formulas and recognize the misuse of low-iron formulas
borns. MPA manifests as an immunologic reaction to dietary Allergy
proteins via IgE-mediated and nonIgE-mediated pathways. Recognize the signs and symptoms of milk protein
The IgE-mediated pathway is also known as a type I hypersen- allergy
sitivity reaction occurring when an antigen binds to mast cells. Understand the difference between milk protein allergy
NonIgE-mediated MPA is likely multifactorial and involves and lactose intolerance
immune complexes (IgA or IgG antibodies) and T cells. The Recognize soy as a potential allergen in gastrointestinal
distinction is important because IgE-mediated MPA is associ- protein allergy
ated with multiple food allergies and atopic conditions. Skin
prick testing and in vitro immunoassays are not recommended
in infants as this testing will fail to diagnose the infants with
nonIgE-mediated immunologic reaction and testing is usu- SUGGESTED READINGS
ally negative in protein-induced proctitis/proctocolitis.
An infant with MPA may appear healthy but have a his- Basnet S, Schneider M, Gazit A, et al. Fresh goats milk for infants:
Myths and realitiesa review. Pediatrics. 2010;125:e973e977.
tory of fussiness, regurgitation, increased frequency of stools, Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
and presence of blood-tinged and/or mucous stools. How- 2010.
ever, some infants demonstrate extreme irritability as the only Committee on Nutrition, American Academy of Pediatrics. Hypoal-
lergenic infant formulas. Pediatrics. 2000;106:346348.
symptom of MPA. An elevated serum eosinophil count as well Heyman MB. Lactose intolerance in infants, children, and adolescents.
as presence of eosinophils in stool may be detected. Protein Pediatrics. 2006;18:12791286.
hydrolysate formula or strict diet modification in mothers Lake A. Food protein-induced proctitis/colitis and enteropathy of
infancy. UpToDate (Subscription required). http://www.uptodate.
who continue to breast-feed is recommended for infants with com/contents/food-protein-induced-proctitis-colitis-and-
MPA. If the infant continues to have signs and symptoms of enteropathy-of-infancy. Accessed July 10, 2013.
CASE1
Anuria in a newborn
A nurse in the Newborn Nursery pages the pediatric resident 2. Of the following, the most helpful noninvasive test to diag-
because she is concerned that an 18-hour-old term newborn nose the cause of this babys renal failure is:
has not voided.
A. Complete blood cell count
1. Of the following, the most appropriate initial response to B. Urinalysis
this nurses concern is to: C. Urinary biomarkers
D. Urine specific gravity
A. Meet with the babys parents and obtain a family history
B. Obtain a blood sample to test the babys serum creati- The neonatologist discontinues potassium in the babys intra-
nine concentration venous fluids and orders several blood tests, urine tests, and
C. Recommend continued observation and an evaluation an imaging study. While waiting for the results of these initial
if the baby does not void by 24 hours of age studies, the neonatologist speaks with the pediatric interns to
D. Review the babys prenatal ultrasonographic findings review the potential etiology of the babys renal failure, divid-
ing the cause into three possible categories:
The newborn is admitted to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Prerenal failure as a result of decreased renal perfusion
at 48 hours of age with the following data: Intrinsic renal disease, such as renal vascular thrombosis
Benign family history, normal prenatal ultrasonog- or congenital renal disorders
raphy, normal prenatal course, and normal physical Postrenal failure as a result of an obstructive uropathy
examination 3. Of the following, the finding that is most consistent with
Rising serum creatinine concentration with most intrinsic renal disease is:
recent measurement at 48 hours of age of 2.0 mg/dL
(177mol/L) A. Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) = 6%
Urine output = 0.4 mL/kg/hr B. High urine osmolality
C. Lack of urination following a fluid challenge of 5 mL/kg
The neonatologist suspects that this infant has acute renal D. Presence of a metabolic acidosis
failure.
CASE 2
Multicystic dysplastic kidney
A pregnant woman undergoes routine fetal ultrasonography at The womans obstetrician reviews the possible causes of
17 weeks gestation. The study reveals an abnormal left kidney cystic renal disease, including the following:
(see Figure 1) with cysts and abnormal renal parenchyma. The
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
fetal right kidney, pancreas, and liver appear normal.
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Medullary cystic kidney disease
Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK)
1. Of the following, the characteristic(s) most consistent with The neonate is transferred to the Newborn Nursery and
MCDK is: discharged at 2 days of life with a follow-up nephrology
appointment.
A. Abnormal renal parenchyma of the involved kidney
B. Early intrauterine detection of cysts 3. Of the following, possible outcome(s) in this neonate with
C. Isolated, unilateral renal involvement MCDK is:
D. All of the above
A. Compensatory growth of the unaffected kidney
The rest of the pregnancy is uncomplicated, and the woman B. Involution of the affected kidney
delivers the baby at 39 weeks gestation. A neonatologist ex- C. Vesicoureteral reflux in the unaffected kidney
amines the newborn soon after birth. D. All of the above
2. Of the following, the most likely clinical finding in this
newborn is:
CASE 3
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
A 15-year-old girl has an elevated blood pressure on routine After obtaining the laboratory and radiographic results, the
examination. Her father reports that he has cysts in his kid- pediatrician meets with the girl and her parents to discuss the
neys that have not impacted his health. The pediatrician or- outcome of her renal disease.
ders some laboratory and radiographic tests.
3. Of the following, possible extrarenal manifestation(s) for
1. Of the following, the preferred diagnostic procedure in the child in this vignette is:
children suspected of having a cystic renal disease is: A. Cyst formations in the liver, spleen, and/or pancreas
A. Magnetic resonance imaging B. Intracranial aneurysms
B. Radionuclide scintigraphy C. Mitral valve ballooning
C. Ultrasonography D. All of the above
D. Voiding cystourethrogram
The pediatrician also reviews the childs fetal records and finds
a late second-trimester fetal ultrasound that had noted some
echogenicity of the renal cortices but no evidence of renal
cysts.
CASE 4
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
A 36-year-old pregnant woman with diabetes mellitus is mon- The neonate is born at 39 weeks gestation by cesarean deliv-
itored closely by her obstetrician. She has a first-trimester fetal ery. The neonatology team is present in the delivery room to
ultrasonography and a second-trimester fetal echocardiogra- assess the baby.
phy that are normal. Because the woman has a uterine size
that is greater than anticipated by dating, she has a second 2. Of the following, the most likely associated clinical abnor-
fetal ultrasound at 29 weeks gestation. This fetal ultrasound mality in this neonate is/are:
reveals the following: A. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
Multiple small cysts in both kidneys that are confined to B. Hemolytic anemia
the collecting ducts C. Tracheoesophageal abnormalities
Enlarged kidneys with increased echogenicity D. Vertebral anomalies
Decreased corticomedullary differentiation A neonatologist discusses possible outcomes of ARPKD.
The obstetrician is concerned about autosomal recessive poly-
3. Of the following, the most likely outcome in this neonate is:
cystic kidney disease (ARPKD).
A. Absence of clinical manifestations in the neonatal
1. Of the following, the renal finding(s) consistent with period
ARPKD in a fetus is: B. Development of renal vein thromboses in the neonatal
A. Renal cysts visible by fetal ultrasonography before period
20weeks gestation C. Early renal failure with hypertension in the neonatal
B. Small cysts that are usually confined to the collecting ducts period
C. Unilateral renal involvement D. Resolution of renal abnormalities by the second decade
D. All of the above of life
CASE 5
Renal agenesis
A 28-year-old gravida 6 para 0 woman is now pregnant. Be- The woman is admitted to the hospital for close observation.
cause of her prior pregnancy complications, she is being moni- A high-risk obstetrician meets with the couple and discusses
tored extremely closely by her obstetrician with frequent fetal possible pregnancy outcomes. Specifically, the obstetrician is
ultrasounds. A fetal ultrasound at 26 weeks gestation reveals concerned that the woman is at higher risk of acquiring cho-
severe oligohydramnios. rioamnionitis, which would prompt immediate delivery of
the baby. The couple also meets with a neonatologist who re-
1. Of the following, a possible mechanism of severe oligohy- views the potential associated complications after birth.
dramnios is:
2. Of the following, a potential complication for this fetus
A. A complete intestinal obstruction
with severe oligohydramnios is:
B. Continuous leakage of amniotic fluid
C. Deep implantation of the placenta A. Esophageal atresia
D. Poor fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid B. Pulmonary hypoplasia
C. Severe hearing loss
D. Visual deficits
Follow-up fetal ultrasounds show that the severe oligohy- 3. Identify the two renal disorders that can be associated with
dramnios persists. However, the fetus remains active with this infants physical examination findings:
appropriate growth and the woman does not have any signs
A. Bilateral renal agenesis
of labor. At 35 weeks gestation, the woman develops a high
B. Bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidneys
fever, abdominal tenderness, and an elevated white blood
C. Medullary cystic renal disease
cell count. Because of the concern for chorioamnionitis, the
D. Unilateral renal agenesis
high-risk obstetrician delivers the infant by cesarean. The neo-
natology team is present at the delivery. The infant requires Postnatal ultrasounds reveal that the infant has normal kid-
initial resuscitation with bag-mask ventilation and then needs neys, and laboratory findings show that the infant has normal
an endotracheal tube because of persistent severe respiratory renal function. The neonatologist is uncertain about the cause
distress. A thorough examination reveals the following: of the prenatal oligohydramnios but focuses on managing the
infants lung disease.
Clubbed feet
Distinctive facial features: flattened facies, parrot-beak
nose, skin fold of tissue from medial canthus across the
cheek
Multiple flexion contractures of the hands, feet, arms,
and legs
Severe respiratory distress
CASE 6
Abnormalities of the collecting system,
kidney, and bladder
At 20 weeks gestation, a pregnant woman has an ultrasound 2. Match the potential causes of prenatal hydronephrosis
that reveals fetal hydronephrosis and oligohydramnios. There with the prenatal ultrasonographic findings:
are no other fetal abnormalities. The obstetrician discusses
A. Isolated mild i. Cystic mass in
these findings with the expectant parents.
hydronephrosis the bladder with
1. Of the following, the current approach to characterizing B. Posterior urethral hydroureteronephrosis
fetal hydronephrosis is based on the: valves ii. Hydronephrosis and di-
C. Ureterocele lated ureter to the level
A. Appearance of the intrarenal collecting system
of the bladder
B. Degree of oligohydramnios D. Ureteropelvic junc-
C. Gestational age at which the hydronephrosis is initially tion obstruction iii. Moderately or severely
observed radiographically dilated renal pelvis with-
E. Ureterovesical junc-
D. Underlying cause of the hydronephrosis out dilation of ureter or
tion obstruction
bladder
Because the findings are consistent with severe hydronephro-
iv. Physiologic, transient
sis, the obstetrician refers the expectant parents to a pediatric
finding
urologist. The urologist reviews the potential causes of the hy-
v. Posterior urethral dila-
dronephrosis with the parents.
tion, a full bladder with
thickened wall, de-
creased amniotic fluid
Follow-up fetal ultrasounds reveal the following: 3. Of the following, the most likely additional finding in this
Bilateral hydroureter and hydronephrosis infant is:
Distended, thin-walled bladder A. Bilateral cryptorchidism
Severe oligohydramnios B. Choanal atresia
Because of the concern for renal injury, the urologists decom- C. Hypertonia
press the fetal urinary system by inserting a vesicoamniotic D. Neural tube defect
shunt. This procedure was successful and the oligohydramnios
improved. The male infant is born by cesarean delivery at 35
weeks gestation. His abdominal findings are shown in Figure 1.
CASE 7
Posterior urethral valves
A 28-year-old pregnant woman with chronic hypertension has The neonatology team then contacts the consulting urologist
a fetal ultrasound performed at 32 weeks gestation to monitor to establish a plan.
fetal growth. The radiologist is concerned about a new diag-
3. Of the following, the most definitive test to diagnose PUV
nosis of posterior urethral valves (PUV). A neonatologist and
postnatally is:
urologist then meet with the family to discuss this diagnosis.
A. Abdominal radiography
1. Of the following, the ultrasonographic finding(s) most B. Magnetic resonance imaging
consistent with PUV is (are): C. Renal ultrasonography
A. Unilateral hydroureteronephrosis D. Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)
B. Polyhydramnios After confirming the diagnosis of PUV, the urologist places a
C. Thickened bladder wall catheter into the neonates bladder to relieve the urinary tract
D. All of the above obstruction and decrease pressure on the proximal urinary
The rest of the prenatal course is stable, and the baby boy is tract. The neonatology team closely monitors the babys serum
born at term gestational age. He is then evaluated by the neo- electrolytes and renal function. The baby is also given antibi-
natology team soon after birth. otics to prevent of a urinary tract infection. By day of life 5,
the infants creatinine concentration and degree of hydrone-
2. Of the following, the most likely clinical symptom(s) in phrosis has decreased and the baby undergoes transurethral
this newborn is (are) (a): ablation of the valves.
SECTION IX
Answers
MCDK Most common Cysts are Noncommunicating Palpable flank mass Unilateralvery
cystic renal visible by large cysts good prognosis
disease of ultrasound Dysplastic renal with affected
infancy prior to tissue kidney involuting
0.3 to 1 in 20 weeks Most are unilateral months to years,
1,000 live gestation Usually no some contralateral
births (>50%) involvement of changes can
No familial contralateral kidney, occur (reflux,
recurrence pancreas, or liver obstruction,
compensatory
growth)
SUGGESTED READINGS
American Academy of Pediatrics. Renal cystic disorders. NeoReviewsP
lus. March 2011, Question 10.
Waters AM, Rosenblum ND. Evaluation of congenital anomalies of
the kidney and urinary tract. UpToDate (Subscription required).
http://www.uptodate.com/contents/evaluation-of-congenital-
anomalies-of-the-kidney-and-urinary-tract-cakut. Accessed May
18, 2013.
CASE 6 ANSWERS
3. A. Bilateral cryptorchidism
The abdominal findings shown in the figure are consistent
with EagleBarrett syndrome, also known as prune belly syn-
drome. Antenatal findings in this rare syndrome include:
Bilateral hydroureter and hydronephrosis
Distended, thin-walled bladder
Severe oligohydramnios
After birth, affected infants typically have a low-pressure di-
lated urinary tract from the renal pelvis to the urethra. The ure-
ters are often elongated and tortuous because smooth muscle
has been replaced by collagen and fibrous tissue. Most affected
FIGURE 2. From MacDonald MG, Mullett MD, Seshia MM, eds. Averys
infants also have vesicoureteral reflux.
Neonatology: Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 43.13
Affected individuals also have the following clinical
findings:
Bilateral cryptorchidism
In both the approaches described earlier, there is a corre- Deficient or absent abdominal wall musculature
lation between the degree of prenatal involvement and the Hypotonia
risk of persistent postnatal uropathy. Although the earlier in Less commonly, patients can have pulmonary hypoplasia
gestation that the hydronephrosis is found has been shown (60%), structural heart disease (25%), gastrointestinal abnor-
to correlate with clinically significant postnatal pathology, the malities (25%), and/or musculoskeletal findings (25%). The
gestational age at the time of diagnosis is not used to deter- neurologic system is typically not impacted in patients with
mine the severity of fetal hydronephrosis. prune belly syndrome.
The pathogenesis of prune belly syndrome is uncertain.
2. A. Isolated mild iv. Physiologic, transient One possible theory is that prune belly syndrome results
hydronephrosis finding from urethral obstruction, leading to bladder distention
B. Posterior urethral v. Posterior urethral di- and urinary tract dilation. This distention may then prevent
valves lation, a full bladder appropriate muscularization of the abdominal wall and lead
with thickened wall, to inadequate testicular descent. However, because infants
decreased amniotic with posterior urethral valves have a normal abdominal wall
fluid musculature, other theories have been suggested. It is possible
C. Ureterocele i. Cystic mass in the that prune belly syndrome results from a failure of mesoder-
bladder with hydro- mal development, although only some mesodermal tissues
ureteronephrosis are affected.
D. Ureteropelvic junction iii. Moderately or se-
obstruction verely dilated renal
pelvis without dila- AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
tion of ureter or CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
bladder
Know that hydronephrosis is one of the causes of ab-
E. Ureterovesical junc- ii. Hydronephrosis and dominal masses in infants
tion obstruction dilated ureter to the Know the ultrasonographic findings of fetal
level of the bladder hydronephrosis
Know the differential diagnosis of urinary tract
Fetal hydronephrosis is most often a result of a physiologic, obstruction
transient finding, accounting for 50% to 70% of cases. An ure- Know that a ureterocele may lead to urinary tract
teropelvic junction obstruction, caused by an adynamic seg- obstruction
ment, polyp, or crossing of lower pole vessels, is found in 10% Know the urologic findings associated with prune belly
to 30% of patients with fetal hydronephrosis. Approximately (EagleBarrett) syndrome
10% to 40% of cases are attributable to primary vesicoureteral
SUGGESTED READINGS tool. In neonates with PUV, a VCUG will reveal a dilated pos-
terior urethra, a trabeculated bladder, vesicoureteral reflux (in
Hassett S, Smith GHH, Holland AJA. Prune belly syndrome. Pediatr some cases), and valve leaflets (in some cases). Figure 1 shows
Surg Int. 2012;28:219228. the spinnaker-sail sign of the valve (arrow), consistent with
Kennedy WA. Assessment and management of fetal hydronephrosis.
NeoReviews. 2002;3:e214e219. PUV.
Yamacake KGR, Nguyen HT. Current management of antenatal hydro-
nephrosis. Pediatr Nephrol. 2013;28:237243.
CASE 7 ANSWERS
CASE1
Stooling pattern in neonates
A pediatric resident is asked by a nurse in the Newborn Nurs- At 48 hours of age, the baby has still not had a bowel
ery to examine a 24-hour-old term female infant because she movement and her abdomen is now distended.
has not yet had a stool. That baby has been breast-feeding ex-
3. Of the following, a possible cause(s) of this newborns
clusively. The resident reviews the normal stooling pattern of
delay in stooling is (are):
newborns with the medical students rotating in the Nursery.
A. Hirschsprung disease
1. Of the following, early passage of stool is associated with:
B. Intestinal atresia
A. Birth by vaginal delivery C. Meconium plug
B. First feeding consisting of breast milk D. All of the above
C. Passage of meconium in utero
Diagnostic studies, including a contrast enema and rectal
D. Younger birth gestational age
biopsy, reveal aganglionosis in the distal intestine. The neo-
2. Match the stool color, consistency, and frequency in neo- natologist meets with the parents to discuss the management.
nates receiving breast milk vs. formula:
4. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this
A. Green-colored stools more i. Breast-feeding infant is:
frequent than yellow-colored neonates
A. Anorectal manometry
stools ii. Formula-fed B. Dilation of the anal sphincter
B. Larger stools in the first week neonates C. Multiple hypertonic contrast enemas
oflife D. Resection of the aganglionic segment and pull-through
C. More frequent stools in the of the ganglionic bowel to the anus
first week of life
D. More pronounced decrease in
stool frequency after 3weeks
ofage
CASE2
Scaphoid abdomen
The neonatology team is asked to attend a delivery of a term in- 1. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is:
fant because of fetal distress and meconium-stained amniotic
A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), left-sided
fluid. The infant cries immediately after birth and is brought
B. Meconium aspiration syndrome
to the warmer. The team dries the baby and then observes that
C. Pneumothorax, left-sided
the infant has significant respiratory distress with moderate
D. Structural cyanotic heart disease
to severe intercostal retractions, tachypnea, and cyanosis. The
team begins bag-mask ventilation with minimal improvement. The neonatology fellow then places an endotracheal tube and
The amount of oxygen supplementation is increased, but the provides positive pressure ventilation.
infant remains cyanotic. The rest of the infants physical exami-
nation reveals a scaphoid abdomen, barrel-shaped chest, and
decreased breath sounds appreciated over the left chest. The
heart sounds are loudest over the right side of the chest.
2. Of the following, the resuscitation step that retrospectively After being treated in the hospital, the baby is ready for dis-
should have been avoided in this infant is: charge to home. The family meets with the neonatal team to
discuss monitoring for potential long-term outcomes.
A. Bag-mask ventilation
B. Endotracheal intubation 4. Of the following, a possible long-term outcome(s) in this
C. Use of supplemental oxygen infant is:
D. All of the above steps were appropriate in this infant
A. Developmental delay
The infant is then brought to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit B. Poor growth
for further management. C. Sensorineural hearing loss
D. All of the above
3. Of the following, the most appropriate next step in the
management of this infant is to:
CASE 3
Necrotizing enterocolitis
A nurse in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit asks the neona- An anteroposterior abdominal radiograph shown in Figure 1
tology fellow to evaluate an infant because she is concerned confirms the diagnosis of NEC.
about a new diagnosis of necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). The
male patient was born at 26 weeks gestational age and is now
2 weeks of age. His clinical course has been complicated by:
1. Of the following, early clinical finding(s) consistent with a 2. Of the following, the radiographic finding in this film most
diagnosis of NEC is (are): consistent with the diagnosis of NEC is:
A. Abdominal distention A. Ascites
B. Grossly bloody stools B. Fixed dilated loop of bowel
C. Increased gastric residuals C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. All of the above D. Portal venous air
The neonatology fellow then contacts the family about the 5 days of refeeding, the infants nurse asks the neonatology
infants critical status and discusses the initial management. fellow to again evaluate the infant because of feeding intoler-
ance. The nurse relays that the infant has slowly advanced to
3. Of the following, the most appropriate next steps in the
60 mL/kg/day of expressed breast milk and has been having
management of this infant are:
gastric residuals with a recent bilious spit. The infant has not
A. Monitor for apneic spells and try to avoid intubation by had any spells in the past 12 hours. On examination, the in-
giving additional caffeine boluses fant appears well with normal vital signs. The fellow examines
B. Start intravenous antibiotics if the infants white blood the infants abdomen and appreciates normal bowel sounds,
cell or platelet counts are low but the abdomen is distended.
C. Stop enteral feedings and place an orogastric or nasogas-
4. Of the following, the diagnosis most likely in this infant is:
tric replogle catheter connected to continuous suction
D. All of the above A. Isolated malrotation
B. Recurrent NEC
The infant remains stable and the family is relieved that his
C. Stricture
medical NEC does not progress to surgical NEC. Feedings are
D. Volvulus
slowly restarted 2 weeks after the initial presentation. After
CASE 4
Intestinal obstruction
A nurse in the Newborn Nursery asks a pediatric resident to 2. Of the following, the most appropriate initial radiographic
evaluate a term infant with bilious emesis. The 12-hour-old study to obtain in this infant is a(n):
infant was born by vaginal delivery and has been breast-
A. Abdominal radiography, anteriorposterior view
feeding every 3 hours. The baby has voided but has not yet
B. Abdominal ultrasound
passed any stool. On physical examination, the resident finds
C. Contrast enema
that the infant is active but has an extremely distended abdo-
D. Upper gastrointestinal series
men with infrequent bowel sounds. The blanket next to the
baby has a large amount of green-colored fluid. The pediat- The infant has several radiographic tests, and one of the i mages
ric resident is concerned about an intestinal obstruction and is shown in Figure 1.
discusses the possible locations of an obstruction with the
infants parents.
1. Match the specific finding (AD) with the location of the
intestinal obstruction (iiv):
The pediatric resident then brings the baby to the Neonatal FIGURE 1. From Eisenberg RL. An Atlas of Differential Diagnosis. 4th ed.
Intensive Care Unit for evaluation and management. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2003. Figure 23.6
3. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is: 4. Of the following, the most appropriate next step(s) in the
management of this infant is to:
A. Duodenal atresia
B. Gastric atresia A. Consult with a pediatric surgeon
C. Hirschsprung disease B. Evaluate for cystic fibrosis
D. Meconium ileus C. Perform a Gastrografin enema
D. All of the above
The neonatal nurse inserts an orogastric replogle connected to
continuous suction. Following, she places an intravenous line
and administers continuous intravenous fluid.
CASE 5
Anterior abdominal wall defects
A 25-year-old pregnant woman from Ghana is visiting her rela- The neonatology fellow focuses on several issues in the initial
tives in the United States. At 34 weeks gestation, she develops management of this infant.
severe back pain and goes to the local hospital. The obstetric
3. Of the following, a potential complication that is least
evaluation reveals that the woman is in preterm labor. Despite
likely to occur in this infant is:
tocolysis, labor progresses and the infant is born. In the deliv-
ery room, the neonatology team observes that the infant has A. Fluid loss
an abdominal mass that is consistent with a gastroschisis. B. Hyperthermia
C. Infection
1. Of the following, the characteristic most often found in an
C. Injury to the exposed bowel
infant with a gastroschisis is:
CASE 6
Biliary atresia
A term male infant is born by vaginal delivery and appears The pediatrician is concerned about a possible diagnosis of
well. His bilirubin at 40 hours of age is normal. His parents biliary atresia and consults with a pediatric surgeon. The sur-
visit the pediatrician for a routine appointment 2 days after geon performs a percutaneous liver biopsy that confirms this
discharge and the mother reports that he is breast-feeding well. diagnosis. The surgeon then meets with the family to discuss
His examination is normal. At 16 days of age, the infant has this disease.
another pediatric appointment. Although the baby appears
2. Of the following, the most accurate statement about biliary
well, he is jaundiced. The mother recalls that the infants urine
atresia is:
has become dark in color. The infant passes a stool during the
visit, and this stool is shown in Figure 1. A. Biliary atresia is an uncommon cause of cholestasis in
neonates.
B. Biliary atresia is the most common reason for a liver
transplant in children.
C. The majority of infants with biliary atresia appear
unhealthy, with poor growth at 3 to 6 weeks of age.
D. The majority of infants with biliary atresia have other
congenital malformations.
A. Abdominal ultrasonography
B. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen
C. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy
D. Magnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen
SECTION X
Answers
1. Prematurity
2. Formula feeding
3. Intestinal ischemia
4. Bacterial colonization
bowel loops, while newborns with low-intestinal obstructions Duodenal atresia results from failure of recanalization of
have multiple diffusely dilated loops of bowel. A neonate the duodenal region at 9 to 11 weeks gestational age. An in-
with gastric atresia will have a markedly distended stomach fant with a duodenal atresia will have a double-bubble sign
bubble without distal intestinal air, leading to the single- on abdominal radiograph that consists of a gas-filled dilated
bubble sign. Newborns with duodenal atresia have a dilated stomach and the duodenal bulb, as shown in Figure 3. With
stomach and dilated duodenal bulb, leading to the classic complete duodenal obstruction, there is no bowel gas distal to
double-bubble sign. Dilation of the stomach, duodenum, the proximal duodenum.
and proximal jejunum leads to the triple-bubble sign in pa-
tients with jejunal atresia.
below shows the results of a contrast enema in an infant with SUGGESTED READINGS
Hirschsprung disease. A dilated colon ending in a small,
tapered atonic segment at the rectum (black arrow) is evident Carlyle BE, Borowitz DS, Glick PL. A review of pathophysiology and
in Figure 5. management of fetuses and neonates with meconium ileus for the
pediatric surgeon. J Pediatr Surg. 2012;47:772781.
Kimura K, Loening-Baucke V. Bilious vomiting in the newborn:
Rapid diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. Am Fam Physician.
2000;61:27912798.
Vinocur DN, Lee EY, Eisenberg RL. Neonatal intestinal obstruction.
Am J Roentgenol. 2012;198:W1W10.
CASE 5 ANSWERS
Absence of a sac
A defect that is located adjacent to the umbilical cord
(usually to the right of the umbilicus)
Rare to have additional anomalies
More than 50% of infants with an omphalocele are at risk The long-term prognosis in an infant with an omphalo-
for anomalies, including congenital heart defects, holopros- cele depends on the infants associated anomalies. In contrast,
encephaly, and VACTERL defect. Chromosomal abnormalities, the prognosis of an infant with a gastroschisis is determined
such as trisomies 13, 18, and 21, and BeckwithWiedemann by the degree of intrauterine intestinal injury and presence/
syndrome may be found in many infants with an omphalo- absence of an intestinal atresia.
cele. A large omphalocele has also been associated with pul-
3. B. Hyperthermia
monary hypoplasia. Thus, after a fetus is diagnosed with an
Infants with gastroschisis are at risk for the following:
omphalocele, further evaluations with fetal echocardiography
and chromosomal assessment are recommended. The pres- Fluid loss
ence of the liver within the sac of infants with an omphalo- Hypothermia
cele has been associated with a lower risk of chromosomal Infection
anomalies. Injury to the exposed bowel (of note, this injury can occur
in utero as well)
2. A iv, v, vii
B ii As a result of these potential complications, initial manage-
ment focuses on prompt intravenous fluid administration,
C i
placement of the bowel contents in a plastic bag to help retain
D iii, vi
heat and protect the bowel, prophylactic antibiotic adminis-
The vast majority of pregnancies complicated by a gastroschi- tration, and nasogastric tube placement to decompress the
sis or omphalocele are diagnosed prenatally. An early indicator bowel. Pediatric surgeons need to assess the bowel for atre-
of a gastroschisis is an elevated maternal serum -fetoprotein. sia, necrosis, and/or perforation and, based on these findings,
Less commonly, a fetus with an omphalocele may also be determine the approach and timing of the repair.
associated with a maternal serum -fetoprotein. Late first-
trimester or early second-trimester fetal ultrasonography will
identify both abdominal wall abnormalities. AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
An omphalocele is caused by failure of the intestines to re- CONTENT SPECIFICATION
turn to the abdominal cavity after herniation. It is believed
Know the difference between gastroschisis vs
that this results from a folding defect in the abdominal wall
omphalocele
instead of a disruption of genes important for intestinal rota-
tion. The pathogenesis of a gastroschisis is still uncertain but is
likely attributable to an intrauterine vascular accident.
The optimal mode of delivery for a fetus with gastroschisis SUGGESTED READINGS
or omphalocele is controversial. Although some clinicians are
Christison-Lagay ER, Kelleher CM, Langer JC. Neonatal abdominal
proponents of elective cesarean delivery to avoid bowel injury wall defects. Semin Fetal Neonatal Med. 2011;16:164172.
during a vaginal delivery, studies have failed to demonstrate a Davis AS, Blumenfeld Y, Rubesova E, et al. Challenges of giant omphalo-
difference in benefit of cesarean delivery. Thus, the mode of cele: from fetal diagnosis to follow-up. NeoReviews. 2008;9:e338e347.
Waldhausen JHT. Surgical management of gastroschisis. NeoReviews.
delivery is typically decided by the obstetrician in discussion 2005;6:e500e507.
with the family.
Pregnant women younger than 20 years of age are at higher
risk of having a fetus with a gastroschisis. Maternal age does
not impact the risk of having a fetus with an omphalocele. For CASE 6 ANSWERS
unknown reasons, there has been a 10- to 20-fold increase in
1. A. Abdominal ultrasonography
the incidence of gastroschisis in all age groups over the past
The infant in this vignette appears healthy but has conjugated
20years.
jaundice beyond 14 days of age, acholic stool, and dark urine.
Although more than half of infants with an omphalocele
Any infant with these findings requires immediate evaluation
will have an associated anomaly, anomalies are uncommon
to assess for biliary atresia because infants with biliary atresia
in infants with gastroschisis. However, ~10% of infants with a
have better outcomes if surgery is performed prior to 45 days
gastroschisis are at risk of an intestinal atresia.
of life. An abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next
Although preterm delivery is more frequent in infants with
step in the evaluation of this infant to exclude other possible
gastroschisis (50%60%) or omphalocele (10%20%), there
reasons for the cholestasis. During this study, radiologists will
is no advantage to deliver an infant with a gastroschisis or om-
assess the following:
phalocele prior to term gestational age. Some clinicians ad-
vocate selective preterm delivery in fetuses with gastroschisis Presence or absence of an extrahepatic obstruction lesion,
if fetal ultrasonography demonstrates intestinal compromise, such as a choledochal cyst, mass, inspissated bile, gallstones
such as increased bowel wall thickness and/or significant Liver structure, size, and composition
bowel distention. Presence or absence of ascites
Patients with biliary atresia may have the following ultrasono- Affected infants require a Kasai portoenterostomy proce-
graphic findings: dure to reestablish bile flow. If this procedure is performed
prior to 45 days of age, it is more likely to be successful. Most
Triangular cord sign, which is a solid biliary remnant in
patients with biliary atresia have progressive disease. Indeed,
front of the bifurcation of the portal vein
biliary atresia is the most common reason for a pediatric liver
Absent or atrophic gallbladder
transplant, accounting for ~50% of pediatric liver transplant
Polysplenia or asplenia
recipients.
Interrupted inferior vena cava
Preduodenal portal vein 3. D. All of the above
Situs inversus Studies have shown that if the Kasai portoenterostomy proce-
dure is performed in neonates with biliary atresia at less than
However, while these findings may be present in infants with
age 45 days, there is an 80% rate of success in achieving bile
biliary atresia, they are neither sensitive nor specific in the di-
drainage. In contrast, if the procedure is performed in infants
agnosis of biliary atresia.
older than 90 days, bile flow can be established only in less
Following an abdominal ultrasound study, most centers
than 20% of patients. If the surgery is effective and the infants
rely on a percutaneous liver biopsy to diagnose biliary atresia.
jaundice resolves, then the 10-year transplant-free survival
However, the interpretation of the results may be challenging.
rate has been reported at 75% to 90%. However, if jaundice
The best predictors of biliary atresia include the following:
is still present after the procedure, the 3-year transplant-free
Bile duct proliferation survival rate is 20%. The degree of liver damage also impacts
Portal fibrosis the outcome in infants with biliary atresia, and thus, early rec-
Absence of sinusoidal fibrosis ognition and timely surgery, followed by appropriate medical
management post-surgery, are critical.
If the biopsy is not diagnostic, some infants may require chol-
angiography by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreato
graphy or laparoscopy and possibly a hepatobiliary scan. AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
2. B. Biliary atresia is the most common reason for a liver CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
transplant in children.
Recognize the signs and symptoms of biliary atresia
Biliary atresia is the most common cause of neonatal cholesta-
Know the diagnostic tests for biliary atresia
sis. Most clinicians categorize biliary atresia into two types
Know the management of biliary atresia
the acquired form and the embryonic form. The acquired form
is more common (~85%) and is associated with a significant
inflammatory response involving the intra- and extrahepatic
SUGGESTED READINGS
bile ducts, resulting in replacement of the ducts with fibrous
scar tissue and eventual obliteration of the bile duct lumen. Brumbaugh D, Mack C. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in children.
Affected infants with this form typically appear healthy with Peds Rev. 2012;33:291302.
a normal growth pattern and present in the first few weeks of Davenport M. Biliary atresia: Clinical aspects. Sem Ped Surg. 2012;
21:175184.
life with jaundice, acholic stool, and dark urine. The embry- Feldman AG, Sokol RJ. Neonatal cholestasis. NeoReviews. 2013;
onic form is less common (~15%) and is associated with other 14:e63e73.
congenital malformations, such as heterotaxy syndrome and
polysplenia. This group of neonates typically appears jaun-
diced soon after birth.
CASE1
Hematocrit and anemia of prematurity
A nurse is caring for two infants admitted to the Neonatal 2. Match the following red blood cell (RBC) indices (AE)
Intensive Care Unit (NICU). The pediatric resident orders a with the appropriate response (iiii):
complete blood count (CBC) with differential and a blood A. RBC number i. Decreases with increas-
culture on both the babies. After the nurse receives the results, ing birth gestational age
B. Hematocrit
she pages the resident.
ii. Increases with increas-
C. Mean corpuscular
1. Match the findings below (AD) with the appropriate ing birth gestational age
volume
gestational age (iii): iii. Peaks at 26 to 27 weeks
D. Nucleated RBCs
gestation, then declines
A. Hematocrit at birth typically i. 25 weeks gestation E. Reticulocytes
ranges between 45% to 55% at birth
B. Hematocrit at birth usually ii. 40 weeks gestation
is lower than described in A at birth
C. Physiologic nadir of hema-
tocrit occurs around 8 weeks
of life
D. Physiologic nadir of hema-
tocrit occurs around 10 to
12 weeks of life
CASE2
Polycythemia
3 weeks
A large-for-gestational-age (LGA) male infant born at 41 2. Given the following values, select the appropriate blood
7
gestation is brought to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU) volume for an exchange transfusion:
because the infants mother had a fever of 100.6F (38.1C) dur-
Birth weight = 4 kg
ing labor. Following the Group B Streptococcus sepsis algorithm,
Observed hematocrit = 72%
the nurse sends a complete blood count (CBC) with differential
Desired hematocrit = 55%
and blood culture. Other than LGA status and a ruddy complex-
Infant blood volume:
ion, the infants examination is unremarkable. His laboratory
Full-term infant, 80 mL/kg
values are notable only for a hematocrit of 72%.
Preterm infant, 100 mL/kg
1. Of the following, the risk(s) associated with polycythemia A. 30 mL
in a newborn is: B. 75 mL
A. Hypoglycemia C. 100 mL
B. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia D. 750 mL
C. Respiratory distress The neonatal fellow then teaches a group of medical students
D. All of the above about polycythemia in a newborn. He presents a case of an
The infant in this vignette develops clinical symptoms consis- infant with trisomy 21, polycythemia, and cyanotic congenital
tent with polycythemia. The neonatology fellow reviews the heart disease (CCHD).
management of an infant with symptomatic polycythemia and
calculates the blood volume for a partial exchange transfusion.
i. True
ii. False
CASE3
Bilirubin metabolism
A term female infant is born via repeat cesarean delivery and Her total bilirubin concentration is 10 mg/dL with a direct
appears well. She has a picture taken at 48 hours of age, which component of 0.4 mg/dL
is shown in Figure 1.
1. Of the following, the most common factor(s) contributing
to indirect hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn is:
2. Match the choices (iv) to the proper label (AE) in the One of the medical students asks if there is a difference
pathway shown in Figure 2: between bilirubin metabolism in the fetus versus the neonate.
The Chief Pediatric Resident concludes his lecture by describ-
ing the mechanism for clearance of bilirubin in the fetus.
A
3. Select True or False (iii) for the following statements
regarding fetal bilirubin metabolism:
i. True
ii. False
B A. Can be conjugated by maternal exposure to sunlight
B. Can be removed by transfer across the placenta into the
C maternal circulation
C. Can be transferred into and removed from the amniotic
fluid
D. Can pass through the fetal liver and be excreted into
fetal bile
E
A. ____ i. Bilirubin
B. ____ ii. Biliverdin
C. ____ iii. Biliverdin reductase
D. ____ iv. Glucuronyl transferase
E. ____ v. Heme oxygenase
CASE4
Physiologic jaundice
A nurse in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU) reviews On day three of life, the bilirubin values for the term infant are
the bilirubin results of two infants. One infant is male and 10mg/dL (total bilirubin) and 0.4 mg/dL (direct bilirubin),
born at 40 weeks gestation, while the other infant is female and the preterm infant has a total bilirubin concentration of
and born at 34 weeks gestation. 6 mg/dL and a direct bilirubin concentration of 0.3 mg/dL.
1. Select the correct statement(s) about physiologic jaundice 2. Select the one strategy below that is not consistent with the
in the newborn. More than one selection may be correct: recommendations by the American Academy of Pediat-
rics (AAP) for the prevention and management of indirect
A. Clinical jaundice develops in 10% of all newborns.
hyperbilirubinemia in newborns of 35 or more weeks
B. Direct hyperbilirubinemia reflects a neonatal adapta-
gestation:
tion to bilirubin metabolism and is termed physiologic
jaundice. A. Early and focused follow-up based on the risk assessment
C. Peak bilirubin occurs around 3 days old at a value of 6 B. Promotion and support of successful breast-feeding
to 8 mg/dL in the term infant. C. Serum bilirubin testing only for infants who appear
D. Peak bilirubin occurs around 5 days old at a value of 10 jaundiced
to 12 mg/dL in the preterm infant. D. Utilization of phototherapy or exchange transfusion,
when indicated, to prevent severe hyperbilirubinemia
By day of life 5, the term infant is breast-feeding well and his The term infant is now 2 weeks old. He returns to the pediatri-
weight is 3% below his birth weight. His total bilirubin value cian because his mother thinks he looks yellow. He is breast-
is 8 mg/dL. However, the preterm infant is not latching well; feeding exclusively and is above his birth weight. Overall, he is
her mothers breast milk is not in yet; and the babys weight doing well. The pediatrician checks his bilirubin level, which
is 10% below birth weight. The infants total bilirubin value is is 15 mg/dL (total) and 0.6 mg/dL (direct). The pediatrician
12 mg/dL with a direct bilirubin concentration of 0.4 mg/dL, suspects breast milk jaundice.
and the pediatrician begins phototherapy.
4. Select appropriate step(s) for the management of this
3. Select additional step(s) appropriate for the management infants breast milk jaundice. More than one answer may
of this preterm infants indirect hyperbilirubinemia. More be selected:
than one answer may be selected:
A. Avoid interruption of breast-feeding
A. Continue breast-feeding and supplement with formula B. Monitor the bilirubin and if the value is >20 mg/dL,
B. Continue with exclusive breast-feeding as mothers milk consider phototherapy
should come in soon C. Rule out other causes of prolonged jaundice
C. Discontinue breast-feeding and give only formula D. Supplement with formula as a routine, even if the infant
D. Discontinue breast-feeding and start intravenous fluids is taking in adequate breast milk volumes
CASE5
Nonphysiologic jaundice
A male infant is born via spontaneous vaginal delivery to a 2. Select the most appropriate step(s) in the management of
27-year-old woman with prenatal screens as follows: blood the infant in this vignette:
typeO positive, Antibodynegative, Hepatitis B surface
A. Immediately start intensive phototherapy and provide
antigennegative, Rubellaimmune, RPRnonreactive,
adequate hydration
HIVnegative, and Group B Streptococcusnegative. When
B. Prepare for potential use of intravenous immunoglobu-
the baby is 12 hours old, the nurse notices that he is signifi-
lin (IVIG)
cantly jaundiced. He is otherwise well-appearing. The pediatri-
C. If phototherapy fails to prevent rise in bilirubin to toxic
cian agrees with the nurses assessment and orders a bilirubin
levels, prepare for exchange transfusion
level, which is 11 mg/dL (total) and 0.5 mg/dL (direct).
D. All of the above
1. Select the appropriate study (or studies) in the evaluation The infant was managed appropriately, and the jaundice
of this infant. More than one answer may be selected: improved. Prior to his discharge from the hospital at 1 week of
A. Blood type and Coombs test age, the pediatrician reviews potential future symptoms with
B. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential, reticulo- the family.
cyte count, and peripheral smear
3. Of the following, possible symptom(s) that the infant in
C. Lumbar puncture to assess for meningitis
this vignette may develop is:
D. No studies required as ~60% of all newborn will develop
jaundice A. Cyanosis and sweating during feedings
B. Extreme pallor, tachycardia, and decreased activity
The infants laboratory results are as follows:
C. Light-colored stools
Blood type: B positive with direct Coombs test positive D. Recurrence of jaundice
Hematocrit: 37%
Reticulocyte count: 13%
CASE6
Kernicterus
A 3-kg male infant is born at 37 weeks gestation via uncom- The babys admission bilirubin level is 38 mg/dL. The
plicated spontaneous vaginal delivery. His Apgar scores are 8 ediatrician emergently admits the infant to the hospital for
p
and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. His mothers blood further care, including intensive phototherapy, intravenous
type is O positive and the infants blood type is A positive, hydration, and a double volume exchange transfusion. The
Coombs negative. He is discharged home at age 2 days after an pediatrician reviews the distinction between acute bilirubin
uncomplicated course in the Newborn Nursery. encephalopathy and kernicterus.
At 11 days old, his family brings him to the pediatricians
office because they are concerned by the yellow color to his 1. Select the statement(s) that describe(s) the appropri-
skin and his extreme sleepiness. The pediatrician finds that he ate use of the terms acute bilirubin encephalopathy and
has a glowing orange color to his skin, a weight loss of 18% kernicterus:
from birth, and has opisthotonus. Figure 1 depicts an infant A. Acute bilirubin encephalopathy is seen in the first few
with this diagnosis. weeks of life.
B. Acute bilirubin encephalopathy represents acute mani-
festations of bilirubin toxicity.
C. Kernicterus is a term that describes the chronic and per-
manent clinical sequelae of bilirubin toxicity.
D. All of the above
A. Dental dysplasia
FIGURE 1. From MacDonald MG, Seshia MK, et al. Averys Neonatology:
Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed. Philadelphia, B. Hearing loss
PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure35.10 C. High-pitched cry
D. All of the above
CASE7
Thrombocytopenia
A 1.9-kg female infant is born at 39 weeks gestation by cesar- 1. Select all of the appropriate laboratory studies that should
ean delivery because of fetal distress. Her mother is a 42-year- be requested with the admission orders. More than one
old woman with unremarkable prenatal screens aside from answer may be selected:
positive Group B Streptococcus status. Spontaneous rupture of
A. Chest radiograph
membranes occurred 24 hours prior to delivery, and the maxi-
B. Complete blood count (CBC) with differential and
mum maternal temperature was 100.6F (38.1C). The babys
blood culture
Apgar scores are 7 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. She
C. Urine for cytomegalovirus (CMV) early antigen
is small for gestational age (SGA) for an unknown reason and
D. None
otherwise appears well and has no additional findings.
A. Bacterial sepsis
B. Congenital CMV
C. Maternal idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
D. All of the above
CASE8
Coagulation disorders
A well-appearing full-term male infant has a circumcision at The infants laboratory findings suggest the possibility of
36 hours of age. Immediately after the procedure, the new- hemophilia A.
born has an excessive amount of bleeding. The obstetrician
is able to stop the bleeding and then consults with the babys 3. Based on the inheritance of hemophilia A, which of the
pediatrician because she is concerned that the infant might following statements is true?
have a hematologic disorder. A. An affected father cannot transmit the disease to a son
but can transmit the carrier state to a son.
1. Of the following, the most likely hematologic cause of this
B. An affected father will transmit the carrier state to 50%
infants excessive bleeding is:
of his daughters.
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. A heterozygote mother who is phenotypically normal
B. Factor XII deficiency has a 50% chance of transmitting the disease to a son.
C. Hemophilia A D. A heterozygote mother has a 50% chance of transmit-
D. Von Willebrand disease ting the disease to a daughter.
CASE9
Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
A full-term male infant is born by vaginal delivery after an The mother is still concerned that her infant might develop
uncomplicated intrauterine course. The mother is concerned hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and asks the pediatrician
that her baby might be at risk for early hemorrhagic disease about clinical signs and symptoms of this disease.
of the newborn because of intrauterine exposure to her medi-
cations. Although she is planning on breast-feeding, she asks 3. Of the following, the most accurate statement about
the nurse in the Labor & Delivery Room to first administer the clinical presentation of hemorrhagic disease of the
vitamin K to the baby. newborn is:
SECTION XI
Answers
Deprivation of third-trimester hematopoiesis and iron Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
transport Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:341
Shorter life span of RBCs
Hemodilution caused by rapidly increasing body mass Normal levels of RBCs at birth are higher in term infants
Phlebotomy (as preterm infants are more likely to require compared to preterm infants. Nucleated RBCs are immature
frequent blood draws) erythrocytes that are rarely found in the circulating blood of an
adult but common in a newborn because of stress of delivery or
Both term and preterm infants experience a progressive
elevated erythropoietin levels in the presence of the relatively
decline in hemoglobin concentration over time. This normal
hypoxemic intrauterine environment. Nucleated RBC counts
decline in hemoglobin is referred to as physiologic anemia.
decrease with increasing gestational age. The reticulocyte count
However, the expected postnatal decline in hemoglobin for
at birth peaks at 26 to 27 weeks gestation when in utero erythro-
preterm infants is more pronounced than for term infants.
poiesis is most active and then declines as gestation progresses.
Table 1 shows the physiologic hemoglobin nadir in preterm
versus term newborns.
Table 1. Physiologic Hemoglobin Nadir in Preterm vs. Term Newborns AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Nadir Hemoglobin
Level (mg/dL) Postnatal Age Know the normal range of the hematocrit value for a
newborn infant
Term 9 10 to 12 weeks
Recognize that preterm infants have lower hematocrit
Preterm 7 if <1 kg Earlier, age values than full-term infants
8 if 1 to 1.5 kg 8weeks Distinguish between the timing of physiologic anemia
of the full-term infant and of the preterm infant
Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:348
2. A ii SUGGESTED READINGS
B ii
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC:
C i Lulu; 2010.
D i Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
E iii Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
Obladen M, Diepold K, Maier RF. Venous and arterial hemato-
Table 2 depicts the changes in RBC indices as birth gestational logic profiles of very low birth weight infants. Pediatrics. 2000;
106(4):707711.
age increases. Widness J. Pathophysiology of anemia during the neonatal period,
including anemia of prematurity. NeoReviews. 2008;9(11):e520e525.
MACROPHAGE
B U
4 Bilirubin is taken
up via facilitated 9 The remainder of the urobilinogen
is transported by the blood to the
B diffusion by the liver kidney, where it is converted to yellow
and conjugated with urobilin and excreted, giving urine its
B
glucuronic acid. characteristic color.
U
3 Unconjugated bilirubin
is transported through
B LIVER
BG U
GALLBLADDER
KIDNEY
5 Conjugated bilirubin
is actively secreted
INTESTINE Some of the urobilinogen
into bile and then
the intestine.
BG
U
7 is reabsorbed from the gut
and enters the portal blood. To urine
Ub
In the intestine,
6 glucuronic acid is
removed by bacteria.
B
The resulting bilirubin B
U
U
10 Urobilinogen is oxidized
is converted to S by intestinal bacteria to
urobilinogen. the brown stercobilin.
To feces
FIGURE 4. Harvey R, Ferrier D. Lippincotts Illustrated Reviews: Biochemistry. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins; 2010. Figure 21.10
Antibody
commonly now that Rhogam is routinely utilized. During
this procedure, bilirubin and antibodies are removed from
cells
Minor (non the infants blood and replaced with fresh irradiated whole
A,B,O) blood blood or reconstituted packed red blood cells with fresh fro-
Red
group antigen zen plasma. The hematocrit of the replacement blood should
equal 40% to 55%. Close monitoring of the infants heart
rate, blood pressure, pH, serum potassium, glucose, calcium,
A Direct Coombs
and magnesium is necessary during the procedure. This
Wash RBC to remove antibody exchange removes and replaces 87% of the infants blood
volume.
The American Academy of Pediatrics provides guidelines
for bilirubin values reaching threshold for performing an
exchange transfusion (see Figure 2).
Plas
ma
Reagent red
Guidelines for Exchange Transfusion in Infants 35 Weeks
Red
blood cell Note: These guidelines are based on limited evidence and the levels
with many shown are approximations. During birth hospitalization exchange
cells
B Indirect Coombs
Coombs anti-
human antibody
(made in a non-
human animal)
The dashed lines for the first 24 hours indicate uncertainty due to a wide
range of clinical circumstances and a range of responses to phototherapy.
Immediate exchange transfusion is recommended if infant shoes sign of acute
bilirubin encephalopathy (hypertonia, arching, retrocollis, opisthotonos,
fever, high pitched cry) or if TSB5mg/dL (85mol/L) above these lines.
Positive test: RBC clumping (aggregation) Risk factors - isoimmune hemolytic disease, G6PD deficiency, asphyxia,
significant lethargy, temperature instability, sepsis, acidosis
Measure serum albumin and calculate B/A ratio (See legend)
A Direct Coombs: B Indirect Coombs: Use total bilirubin. Do not subtract direct reacting or conjugated bilirubin
indicates antibodies indicates antibodies If infant is well and 3537 6/7 wk (median risk) can individualize TSB
present on specimen present in specimen levels for exchange based on actual gestational age.
red blood cell plasma FIGURE 2. From MacDonaldMG, Seshia MK, et al. Averys Neonatology:
FIGURE 1. McConnell TH. Nature of Disease: Pathology for the Health Pathophysiology & Management of the Newborn. 6th ed. Philadelphia,
Professions. 1st ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 35.23
2007. Figure 8.2
3. B. Extreme pallor, tachycardia, and decreased activity Emergent management of an infant with acute bilirubin
Infants with ABO or Rh incompatibility may have progressive toxicity is essential because it may evolve into chronic biliru-
and severe anemia at 4 to 8 weeks of age. Affected infants may bin toxicity or kernicterus.
present with extreme pallor, tachycardia, and decreased activ- Kernicterus describes the chronic and permanent clinical
ity. With increased age of life, liver and intestinal processes are sequelae that might occur in an infant with bilirubin toxicity.
more mature and will be able to help infants excrete bilirubin
2. D. All of the above
and the risk for late-onset jaundice is low. An infant with cho-
The infant in the vignette is at risk for developing kernicterus
lestasis may present with light-colored stools, but this is not a
in the first several years of life. Fortunately, this disease is far
common finding in an infant with ABO incompatibility. An
less common than centuries ago. Johannes Orth was the first
infant with congenital heart disease may present with sweating
to describe the pathologic findings of this disease in 1975. He
during feedings and/or cyanosis at 1 to 3 months of age.
observed anatomic deposition of bilirubin in brain tissue with
yellow staining found in the basal ganglia and hippocampus.
Classic findings of kernicterus or chronic and permanent
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS sequelae of bilirubin toxicity are:
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Abnormal motor control, movements, and muscle tone
Recognize that diagnostic studies to detect hemolytic An auditory processing disturbance and potential
diseases are necessary in a full-term infant who becomes hearing loss
clinically icteric during the first day after birth Oculomotor impairments, most commonly an upward
Know the appropriate diagnostic tests to establish the vertical gaze impairment
cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia Dysplasia of the enamel of deciduous teeth
Review diagnosis and management of ABO and Rh in- Cognitive function is usually spared in children with kernicterus.
compatibility (direct vs. indirect Coombs test)
Know other causes of isoimmunization, such as minor
antigens AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Formulate a differential diagnosis of infectious causes of CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
jaundice in an infant
Plan the management of a patient with hyperbilirubinemia Recognize the clinical manifestations of acute bilirubin
Know that progressive and severe anemia may occur at 4 to encephalopathy
8 weeks of age in infants with ABO or Rh incompatibility Recognize the permanent clinical sequelae of bilirubin
toxicity (kernicterus)
SUGGESTED READINGS
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010. Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal 2010.
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011. Brown A. Kernicterus: Past, present, and future. NeoReviews. 2003;
Subcommittee on Hyperbilirubinemia, American Academy of Pediat- 4:e33e39.
rics. Management of hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn infant 35 Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
or more weeks of gestation. Pediatrics. 2004;114:297316. Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
CASE 6 ANSWERS
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
FIGURE 1. Fleisher GR, Ludwig S, Henretig FM, et al. Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Medicine. 5th ed.
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005. Figure 65.1
vitamin K deficiency compared with formula-fed infants. Population studies have found that the late form of
Thus, vitamin K prophylaxis is extremely important in the v itaminK deficiency is approximately twice as likely to occur
prevention of classic hemorrhagic disease of the newborn in in male infants compared with female infants. The reason for
breast-feeding newborns. this discrepancy is unknown.
Type Features
CASE 1
Hypothyroidism
A pediatrician receives a call from the newborn state laboratory The pediatrician then consults with an endocrinologist, and
about a full-term infant with an elevated thyroid-stimulating further blood testing reveals that the infant has congenital
hormone (TSH) concentration. The pediatrician wonders if hypothyroidism. The infants thyroid gland is not visible by
the value could be falsely elevated. ultrasonography, and the endocrinologist suspects that the
infant has thyroid dysgenesis, the most common cause of con-
1. A falsely elevated TSH concentration is most likely in the
genital hypothyroidism. The endocrinologist meets with the
following scenario:
family to review the diagnosis. He discusses that thyroid dys-
A. The blood sample was obtained when the newborn was genesis is attributable to thyroid aplasia, hypoplasia, or ectopy,
less than 24 hours of age. and he recommends starting Synthroid supplementation.
B. The newborn does not have any symptoms consistent
4. Synthroid supplementation in an infant with congenital
with hypothyroidism.
hypothyroidism has been shown to decrease the incidence
C. The newborns mother has been taking supplemental
and severity of:
thyroid hormone during the pregnancy.
D. The state laboratory ran the test 12 hours after the sam- A. Cognitive deficits
ple was drawn. B. Delays in motor development
C. Poor growth
Repeat testing confirms that the infants TSH level is elevated.
D. All of the above
The state laboratory performs additional testing on the infants
blood sample. The parents recognize the importance of hormonal treatment
and want to know how the endocrinologist will determine the
2. Of the following, the most likely additional state newborn
appropriate dosage.
screening test is:
5. Of the following, the most helpful approach to guide hor-
A. Thyroxine (T4)
monal treatment in this infant is to:
B. T4-binding globulin
C. Triiodothyronine (T3) A. Measure the size of the thyroid gland by ultrasonography
D. T3 resin uptake B. Monitor for clinical signs/symptoms of hypothyroidism
C. Obtain serial TSH concentrations
The pediatrician contacts the family with these laboratory
D. All of the above
results and asks the family to come to the office. When the
family arrives, the pediatrician examines the baby and does The endocrinologist reviews the approach to guide treatment
not find any findings consistent with congenital hypothyroid- and discusses the importance of follow-up into adulthood.
ism. The pediatrician informs the family that newborns with
congenital hypothyroidism are usually asymptomatic. How-
ever, symptoms may appear later if newborns with congenital
hypothyroidism are not treated.
A. Diarrhea
B. Enlarged posterior fontanel
C. Hyperthermia
D. Hypertonia
CASE 2
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
A Labor & Delivery Room nurse pages the pediatric resident The resident also orders a pelvic ultrasound, which reveals that
because she is uncertain about the sex of a newborn. The new- the newborn has a uterus. The consultants are concerned that the
borns genitalia are shown in Figure 1. baby has classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) and sug-
gest sending a state newborn screen.
A. Cortisol
B. 11-deoxycortisol
C. 11-deoxycorticosterone
D. 17-hydroxyprogesterone
CASE 3
Abnormal male genitalia
A term infant is born by vaginal delivery after an uncompli- On the day of this infants discharge, the pediatrician exam-
cated prenatal course. After the baby is held by his mother ines another term male infant and is unable to palpate the
and father, the obstetrical nurse places the infant on the radi- right testicle.
ant warmer. She places identification bands on the infant and
3. Of the following, the most accurate statement(s) about
mother. She then applies erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
cryptorchidism is:
and gives the infant a vitamin K injection. As she is placing a
diaper on the baby, she notices that the babys genitalia have A. Cryptorchidism is thought to have a multifactorial
not formed appropriately. She contacts the covering pediatri- etiology
cian who examines the infants genitalia. The ventral side of B. Neural tube defects may be associated with
the infants genitalia is shown in Figure 1. cryptorchidism.
C. Pathologic bladder enlargement may be associated with
cryptorchidism.
D. All of the above
A. Abdominal testicle
B. Hydrocele
C. Inguinal hernia
FIGURE 1. Courtesy of Warren Snodgrass, MD, UTSouthwestern D. Retractile testicle
Medical Center at Dallas
The pediatrician is unable to palpate any structure using this
technique.
1. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis in this infant is:
5. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this
A. Ambiguous genitalia
infant with unilateral cryptorchidism is to:
B. Chordee
C. Epispadias A. Evaluate for intersex disorders
D. Hypospadias B. Refer the infant to a urologist by 6 months of age
C. Postpone the planned circumcision
The pediatrician discusses the genital findings with the babys
D. Wait for the child to reach puberty to allow testosterone
parents. The family has a lot of questions about the approach
to have an effect
to treatment.
The infant is managed appropriately. However, the family is
2. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this
aware that their child might still have long-term complications.
infant is to:
6. Of the following, potential long-term complication(s) in
A. Consult with a urologist for surgery prior to discharge
an infant with cryptorchidism is:
B. Ensure that the family postpones the planned
circumcision A. Increased incidence of testicular tumors
C. Order an abdominal ultrasound because of the high risk B. Infertility
of associated renal anomalies C. Inguinal hernia
D. All of the above D. All of the above
Later in the week, a pediatric resident rotating in the New- The infant meets the criteria for a diagnosis of micropenis.
born Nursery asks this pediatrician to evaluate an infant who
8. Of the following, the most appropriate study/studies in
appears to have a small-sized penile length (see Figure 2).
this infant is (are):
CASE 4
Female genital findings
A medical student is performing the initial examination on 1. Of the following, the most likely clinical finding in this
a female baby who is 2 hours old. During his assessment, he newborn is:
astutely notes an abnormality on the vaginal exam, as shown
A. Absence of symptoms
in Figure 1.
B. Hematuria
C. Leukorrhea
D. Menstrual bleeding
FIGURE 1. Used with permission from: Emans SJ, Laufer MR, Goldstein
DP, eds. Pediatric and Adolescent Gynecology. 5th ed. Philadelphia,
PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005:plate 21
SECTION XII
Answers
3. B. Enlarged posterior fontanel hypothyroidism are not helpful to guide hormonal treatment.
A newborn with congenital hypothyroidism typically is often Ultrasonographic size of the thyroid gland in an infant with
asymptomatic. Subtle, nonspecific signs may include: congenital hypothyroidism is also not helpful for guiding hor-
monal therapy.
Constipation
For infants with transient hypothyroidism, endocrinologists
Distended abdomen
may recommend discontinuing hormonal therapy after age
Dry, mottled skin
3years and monitor thyroid studies to determine if treatment is
Enlarged posterior fontanel (>1 cm diameter)
still warranted. Infants with a diagnosis of permanent congeni-
Feeding difficulty
tal hypothyroidism will require hormonal treatment for life.
Hoarse cry
Hypothermia
Lethargy AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Macroglossia CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Prolonged jaundice (>7 days)
Know the possible causes of a decreased serum thyrox-
Umbilical hernia
ine concentration in a term and preterm neonate with or
If a newborn has hypothyroidism as a result of an iodide without illness
transport defect, organification defect, thyroglobulin abnor- Know the varying causes of congenital and acquired
malities, or deiodinase deficiency, the clinician may be able hypothyroidism
to palpate a goiter. Recognize the signs and symptoms of congenital and ac-
quired hypothyroidism
4. D. All of the above
Know how to manage and treat congenital and acquired
Congenital hypothyroidism occurs in 1 in 3,500 live births.
hypothyroidism and the use of thyroid-stimulating hor-
The causes of this disease are summarized below:
mone to guide treatment
1. Primary congenital hypothyroidism Know the consequences of untreated hypothyroidism in
a. Thyroid dysgenesis (75%) as a result of developmental the neonate
defects of the thyroid gland Know the prognosis for a patient with congenital or ac-
b. Thyroid dyshormonogenesis (10%) as a result of dis- quired hypothyroidism
ruptions in thyroid hormone synthesis
2. Secondary congenital hypothyroidism as a result of a
hypothalamicpituitary abnormality (5%) SUGGESTED READINGS
3. Transient congenital hypothyroidism (10%) as a result of
Belfort MB, Brown RS. Hypothyroidism in the preterm infant. In:
maternal antithyroid medications, maternal antibodies, or
Brodsky D, Ouellette MA. Primary Care of the Premature Infant.
neonatal iodine exposure Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier; 2007:207213.
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu
Possible long-term effects of an infant with untreated congeni- Press; 2010.
tal hypothyroidism include: Gruters A, Krude H. Detection and treatment of congenital hypothy-
roidism. Nat Rev Endocrinol. 2012;8:104113.
Cognitive deficits
Delay in motor development
Poor growth CASE 2 ANSWERS
Early diagnosis and hormonal treatment has been shown to 1. B. Virilization of a genetic female
decrease the risk of these long-term complications. At pres- Ambiguous genitalia are usually caused by virilization of a
ent, there is a lack of follow-up data of adults with congenital genetic female or undervirilization of a genetic male. Clinical
hypothyroidism. Most adults are reported to lead normal lives. findings in a virilized female vary from mild clitoromegaly to
Studies from Italy and Switzerland have found that young complete labial fusion and depend on differences in timing,
adults with congenital hypothyroidism are at greater risk for amount, and duration of testosterone exposure. Etiologies of
obesity, impaired diastolic function, and increased intima virilization in a female infant include:
media thickness, but the impact and significance of these find-
Increased androgen production caused by congenital
ings are unknown.
adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), which results from
5. C. Obtain serial TSH concentrations 21-hydroxylase deficiency, 11-hydroxylase deficiency, or
After hormonal therapy is initiated, most endocrinologists 3-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
monitor the infants TSH and T4 levels weekly for the first Abnormal androgen metabolism as a result of placental
month to ensure that TSH levels decrease to normal. After the aromatase deficiency
TSH normalizes, serial TSH and T4 monitoring at longer inter- Excessive maternal androgen exposure as occurs with in-
vals is recommended. Because most newborns with congenital creased production from a luteoma, adrenal tumor, or
hypothyroidism are asymptomatic, clinical signs/symptoms of untreated CAH
Because the resident was unable to palpate gonads in this new- 1. Classical CAH
born, the diagnosis of a virilized female is most likely. Incidence is 1 in 15,000 to 20,000
Incomplete masculinization of a genetic male can be Categorized into two types based on degree of aldoste-
caused by: rone deficiency:
a. Salt-wasting (67% of classical CAH)
Abnormal testosterone production from Leydig cell
b. Non-salt-wasting or simple virilizing (33% of CAH)
abnormalities or defects in testicular and adrenal ste-
Females typically present in the newborn period with
roidogenesis such as 3-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
ambiguous genitalia because of excessive androgen ex-
deficiency, 17-hydroxylase deficiency, 17,20-lyase defi-
posure prenatally
ciency, or 17-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
Affected males have normal genitalia except for hyper-
Abnormal testosterone metabolism as a result of
pigmentation and are usually diagnosed by the new-
5-reductase deficiency
born screening test
Defect of testosterone action due to androgen insensitiv-
2. Nonclassical CAH
ity syndrome
Lower incidence than classical CAH
Exogenous estrogen or progestin exposure
Milder virilization
Ambiguous genitalia can also result from genetic disorders of Late onset
sexual differentiation, such as gonadal dysgenesis, true her- Affected males and females present with premature
maphroditism, or SmithLemliOpitz syndrome. pubarche prior to age 8 and tall stature
Some patients are asymptomatic
2. D. All of the above
Not usually detected by the newborn screening test
As recognized by the resident, urgency and sensitivity are
necessary in the evaluation and management of a newborn Approximately 75% of patients with classical salt-wasting
with ambiguous genitalia. The pediatric team should consult CAH have 0% 21-hydroxylase activity. Patients with classical
with an endocrinologist and a geneticist to assist with the simple virilizing CAH have 1% enzymatic activity. In con-
evaluation. The following laboratory tests should be obtained trast, children with later-onset nonclassical CAH have 20% to
urgently in a newborn with ambiguous genitalia: 50% enzymatic activity.
Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase leads to:
Electrolytes to assess for mineralocorticoid deficiency
Karyotype Decreased mineralocorticoids, including 11-deoxycorti-
Testosterone concentration costerone, corticosterone, and aldosterone
Decreased glucocorticoids, including 11-deoxycortisol
Additional testing can include measurements of renin, 17-
and cortisol
hydroxyprogesterone, 17-hydroxypregnenolone, progesterone,
Increased sex steroids, such as testosterone, androstenedi-
androstenedione, dehydroepiandrosterone, deoxycorticoste-
one, and dehydroepiandrosterone
rone, 11-deoxycortisol, testosterone, and cortisol, as well as an
Increased anterior pituitary hormones, such as hypo-
adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test.
thalamic corticotropic releasing hormone and pituitary
3. D. 17-hydroxyprogesterone ACTH (this occurs because low cortisol amounts decrease
The most common type of CAH is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, the negative feedback on corticotroph cells)
which is associated with two forms:
Feedback inhibition
ACTH
Cholesterol
Pregnenolone
21
21
Corticosterone 11-deoxycortisol
FIGURE 2. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Steroid 21-hydroxylase deficiency, the most common
cause of CAH, results in impaired biosynthesis of aldosterone and cortisol (dashed lines).
Therefore, steroid hormone synthesis in the adrenal cortex is shunted toward increased production
of sex steroids (thick lines). The lack of cortisol production decreases the negative feedback on
corticotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland (dashed line), causing increased ACTH release
(thick blue arrow). Increased levels of ACTH induce adrenal hyperplasia and further stimulate the
synthesis of sex steroids. This pathway can be interrupted by administering exogenous cortisol.
The deficient enzyme is shown as a number: 21, steroid 21-hydroxylase. Adapted from: Cotran
RS, Kumar V, Collins T, eds. Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th ed. Philadelphia, PA: WB
Saunders, 1999. Figure 26.27, with permission from Elsevier
Figure 2 shows the 21-hydroxlase pathway (dotted arrow). 4. D. All of the above
All newborn screening programs in the United States mea- Untreated newborns with classical 21-hydroxylase deficiency
sure 17-hydroxyprogesterone from whole blood collected can present in an adrenal crisis with the following findings:
on filter paper. Newborns with classical 21-hydroxylase defi-
Hypoglycemia
ciency will have elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone concentra-
Hyponatremia
tions. While females with classical 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Hyperkalemia
usually present with ambiguous genitalia, males with classi-
Hypotension
cal 21-hydroxylase deficiency are usually identified by new-
Lethargy
born state screening. Prior to this newborn screening testing,
Vomiting
affected males typically presented with an adrenal crisis in the
first few weeks of life. Males with a milder form of classical Treatment focuses on electrolyte replacement, glucocorticoid
21-hydroxylase deficiency may present with symptoms during administration, and hydration.
their toddler years. To prevent adrenal crises, newborns with classical salt-
Newborns with nonclassical 21-hydroxylase deficiency are wasting CAH require supplementation of mineralocorticoids
not usually diagnosed by the newborn state screening test (fludrocortisone tablets), glucocorticoids (crushed hydrocorti-
because their 17-hydroxyprogesterone concentrations are sone tablet), and sodium chloride. During times of increased
closer to normal. stress (e.g., febrile illness, gastroenteritis with dehydration,
2. B. Ensure that the family postpones the planned The pediatrician in this vignette placed one hand over the
circumcision affected scrotal region and moved the other hand along the
After an infant is diagnosed with hypospadias, it is important to inguinal canal, starting at the superolateral region of the canal.
defer a planned circumcision because some of the foreskin can This technique will help to determine if the infant has a retrac-
be used during the repair. There is no need to obtain an abdom- tile testicle, evident by palpation of the moveable testicle into
inal ultrasound as hypospadias is rarely associated with renal the scrotum. Sometimes, it is difficult to distinguish between
anomalies. However, because hypospadias may be associated an undescended and a retractile testicle, and a consultation
with a genetic syndrome, further studies are warranted if the with a urologist may be warranted.
infant has additional abnormalities. If an infant has hypospa-
5. B. Refer the infant to a urologist by 6 months of age
dias, the diagnosis of an endocrinopathy should be considered
If an infant has isolated unilateral cryptorchidism, the pedia-
if the infant also has micropenis, cryptorchidism (unilateral
trician should refer the infant to a urologist by 6 months of age
or bilateral), or scrotal abnormalities. Surgery to repair the
for evaluation and management. Some affected infants may
hypospadias is recommended within the first year of life.
respond to hormonal therapy. If the infant has persistent crypt-
3. D. All of the above orchidism, surgical repair is warranted by age 1 year. Delay in
An undescended testis, or cryptorchidism, is caused by a defect surgical repair beyond age 1 year may lower the surgical suc-
in the regulation or anatomical blockage of the normal descent cess rate and may impair spermatogenesis. A urologist should
of the testis from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum. Crypt- evaluate the infant prior to age 6 months if the infant has bilat-
orchidism is found in 3% to 5% of term male infants and in as eral cryptorchidism or if the infant also has hypospadias.
many as 30% of preterm infants. The precise etiology of cryptor- Evaluation for intersex disorders is indicated if an infant
chidism is unknown but is believed to be multifactorial. Infants has either of the following:
with neural-tube defects are at increased risk of having cryptor-
Bilateral cryptorchidism
chidism, possibly because of disruption of the thoracolumbar
Unilateral cryptorchidism with hypospadias
nerve. In addition, cryptorchidism is more common in infants
with extremely large bladders (e.g., prune belly syndrome, pos- An infant with unilateral or bilateral cryptorchidism in the
terior urethral valves), possibly because of interference of the absence of hypospadias can still have a circumcision prior to
inguinal ring or altered intra-abdominal pressure. discharge home.
Growth hormone
Prolactin
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
9. B. Processus vaginalis
During normal male development, the testes descend between
25 and 35 weeks gestation from the retroperitoneal intra-
abdominal space through the inguinal canal. As the testes
descend, they bring an extension of the peritoneal lining,
which is the processus vaginalis. This structure then involutes
so that there is no communication between the peritoneal cav- FIGURE 5. Mulholland MW, Maier RV, et al. Greenfields Surgery:
ity and the inguinal canal and scrotum. If the processus vagina- Scientific Principles and Practice. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott
lis remains patent, this can lead to a communicating hydrocele, Williams & Wilkins; 2006. Figure110.6
noncommunicating hydrocele, or an inguinal hernia.
Figure 5 shows the result of different degrees of oblitera-
tion of the processus vaginalis. Figure 5A indicates normal
with complete involution of the processus vaginalis. F igure5B
shows a proximal hernia with distal obliteration of the pro-
cessus vaginalis. Figure 5C illustrates a hernia extending into
the scrotum with complete patency of the processus vaginalis.
Figure5D shows proximal and distal obliteration of the proces-
sus vaginalis with a hydrocele of the cord. Figure 5E represents
a noncommunicating hydrocele with an obliterated processus
vaginalis. Figure 5F shows a communicating hydrocele with a
patent processus vaginalis.
Pelvic mass
Translucent bulge from an imperforate hymen
Acute renal failure and/or urinary ascites
SUGGESTED READINGS
Some newborns may develop a secondary infection within the Ameh EA, Mshelbwala PM, Ameh N. Congenital vaginal obstruction
in neonates and infants: Recognition and management. J Pediatr
vagina or uterus and have signs of sepsis. Adolesc Gynecol. 2011;24:7478.
The management of hydrometrocolpos focuses on vaginal American Academy of Pediatrics. Vaginal obstruction. NeoReviewsPlus.
drainage and relief of the vaginal obstruction, typically with 2011; July: 8:Q9.
Nepple KG, Cooper CS, Alagiri M. Labial adhesions. Emedicine. http://
bedside incision and drainage. In some cases, a laparotomy emedicine.medscape.com/article/953412-overview. Accessed on
may be needed. July 18, 2013.
CASE1
Newborn screening
The nurse caring for a term infant tells the covering pediat- The infants screen comes back at day 4 of life with an
ric resident that the parents have questions about metabolic ut-of-range result for 17-hydroxyprogesterone. The infant
o
screening. The resident reviews the expanded metabolic was discharged home from the hospital at day 3 of life and
screening offered to families. has not yet been seen in follow-up.
1. Select True or False (iii) for the following statements 2. Select the appropriate initial response to a positive neona-
(AD) regarding metabolic screening: tal screening test for metabolic diseases:
A. A venipuncture is done to obtain 2 ml i. True A. Call the parents and tell them to go the emergency room
of blood for the expanded metabolic ii. False (ER) immediately
screening. B. Consult the ACT sheet and the Newborn Screening
B. If diagnosed early, these disorders Program
can often be treated to prevent severe C. Do nothing as there are many false-positive results
developmental delay, intellectual and D. Have the administrative assistant call the family to
physical disabilities, and death. arrange for an appointment in 2 weeks
C. The expanded newborn screening
uses technology such as tandem mass
spectrometry to screen babies for >24
rare metabolic and genetic disorders.
D. The goal of newborn screening is
to identify infants with treatable
congenital conditions before they
become symptomatic.
CASE2
Phenylketonuria
A 3,600-g female is born by spontaneous vaginal delivery to circumference that only measures 10%, fair skin, and blue
a 39-year-old gravida 4 para 3 now 4 Caucasian woman with eyes. After a lengthy workup, the baby is diagnosed with phe-
normal prenatal screens. The infant and mother are initially nylketonuria (PKU).
doing well. The mother requests early discharge at 16 hours
1. Select the limitations recognized in the newborn screening
as all of her prior deliveries were home births and she prefers
for PKU:
being home as soon as possible.
Soon after discharge, the infant develops frequent vomiting A. Accurate testing needs to be done after feedings have been
and has a peculiar smell to her urine. In response, her mother established (i.e., not within the first 24 hours of life).
changes her diet thinking that her breast milk was not agree- B. The screening will determine elevated phenylalanine
ing with her infant. On her third day of life, the infant has a levels but does not distinguish between potential pre-
3-minute generalized seizure and is brought via ambulance to maturity (immature enzymes), laboratory error, or
the emergency room (ER). The infant is stable upon arrival to actual disease.
the ER. C. The type of PKU cannot be determined by the screening.
A pediatric resident obtains the history and performs a D. All of the above
physical exam. He notes that the infant has blond hair, a head
sectio n XIII
Answers
Aldosterone
For the infant described in the vignette, the recommenda- The specific enzymatic defect determines the clinical effect
tions, per the ACT sheet, are to: on the infant. Table 1 describes the three types of PKU.
Contact the family to inform them of the newborn screen- Table 1. Types of PKU
ing result and ascertain clinical status
Consult with a pediatric endocrinologist, having the fol- Classic More common, Urine detection
lowing information available (sex, age at sampling, birth secondary of phenylpyruvic
weight) and refer, if needed to complete acid (add 10%
phenylalanine ferric chloride to
Examine the newborn (assess for ambiguous genitalia or hydroxylase urine; if positive,
nonpalpable testes, lethargy, vomiting, poor feeding) deficiency, elevated urine will turn
Initiate timely confirmatory/diagnostic testing as recom- phenylalanine blue-green)
mended by the specialist with normal or low
Emergency treatment as indicated (e.g. intravenous flu- tyrosine; requires low
phenylalanine diet
ids, hydrocortisone)
Educate the family about signs, symptoms, and need for Allelic May require dietary
variants of restriction
urgent treatment of adrenal crisis
phenylalanine
Report findings to newborn screening program hydroxylase
Pterin defect Defect of Measure
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS tetrahydrobiopterin dihydrobiopterin
(important for reductase in red
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS phenylalanine, blood cells and
tyrosine, and in urine
Review expanded metabolic screening tryptophan
Plan the appropriate initial response to a positive neona- hydroxylase
tal screening test for metabolic diseases reactions); requires
low phenylalanine
diet and must replace
tetrahydrobiopterin;
SUGGESTED READINGS less successful
therapy than classic
ACT resource: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK55827/. form
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed.
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:402
Newborn Screening Authoring Committee, American Academy of
Pediatrics. Newborn screening expands: Recommendations for
pediatrician and medical homesImplications for the system. 2. A i True
Pediatrics. 2008;121:192210. B ii False
C ii False
CASE 2 ANSWERS D i True
1. D. All of the above Early diagnosis and treatment is essential for patients with
Newborn screening for PKU relies on the detection of elevated PKU. Most patients will be able to lead productive lives.
levels of PKU. During pregnancy, the pregnant woman is able The graph (Figure 2) represents the typical intellectual abil-
to metabolize fetal phenylalanine; therefore, a newborn will ity in untreated patients with PKU at different ages.
not have elevated phenylalanine levels until protein feedings
are established. Newborn screening is not recommended prior 120
to 24 hours; if the testing is done prior to 24 hours, a repeat
100
sample must be obtained.
Figure 1 shows the pathway for the breakdown of 80
phenylalanine.
60
IQ
CASE 1
Ophthalmologic prophylaxis
A term female infant is born to a mother who does not want 1. Select True or False (iii) for the following statements
vitamin K and ophthalmologic prophylaxis to be administered (AD):
to her newborn. The infants nurse pages the pediatric resident
i. True
to discuss the importance of these routine newborn therapies.
ii. False
After explaining that vitamin K prevents hemorrhagic dis-
ease of the newborn (HDN), the mother agrees to vitamin K A. Multiuse tubes of ophthalmic ointment containing
administration. Next, the resident explains the importance of erythromycin or tetracycline may be used.
ophthalmologic prophylaxis. B. Ophthalmologic prophylaxis is given to newborns to
prevent ocular gonorrheal infection and chlamydial
conjunctivitis.
C. Silver nitrate solution may be used as an option to
prevent ocular gonorrheal infection and chlamydial
conjunctivitis.
D. The risk of not providing ophthalmologic prophylaxis
can be devastating and may lead to blindness.
CASE 2
Congenital glaucoma and cataracts
1,700g. He is admitted to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit The infant in vignette B starts to seize, and the papulovesicular
(NICU) for further care. On day of life 4, he becomes l ethargic, skin lesions spread throughout his mucous membranes and
febrile, and irritable. His skin examination now shows papu- areas of friction.
lovesicular lesions. The ophthalmologic exam is abnormal.
Figure 3 represents findings consistent with the infant in this 3. From the list below, select the most likely infectious organ-
vignette. ism leading to the congenital ocular condition in the infant
in vignette B:
A. Cleft lip
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Erythema toxicum neonatorum
D. Port-wine stains involving the upper and lower eyelids
CASE 3
Retinoblastoma
The pediatrician is concerned and obtains a more detailed 1. Although not definitive, based on the information from this
family history. There is no reported family history of congeni- vignette, select the Inheritance Pattern (A or B) (Figure 2)
tal abnormalities of the eye on either the maternal or paternal that would be most representative of this infants inheri-
side. tance pattern and why:
Chromosome 13
Somatic
mutation
Somatic Somatic
mutation mutation
FIGURE 2. From Rubin E, Rubin R, Aaronson S. Neoplasia. In: Rubin E, Gorstein F, Rubin R, et al., eds. Rubins
Pathology: Clinicopathologic Foundations of Medicine. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins:
2005:171
CASE 4
Retinopathy of prematurity
The Resource Nurse in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit 1. Which of the following neonates require an ophthalmo-
(NICU) receives a phone call from the office of a Pediatric logic examination to screen for ROP? More than one an-
Ophthalmologist who is available to perform ophthalmologic swer may be appropriate:
examinations the following day. The nurse then asks the pedi-
A. Neonate born at 26 weeks gestation
atric resident to prepare a list of infants who need initial eye
B. Neonate born at 29 weeks gestation with a birth weight
examinations for evaluation for retinopathy of prematurity
of 1,000 g
(ROP).
C. Neonate born at 36 weeks gestation with a birth weight
of 1,499 g
D. Neonate born at 40 weeks gestation with hypoxic
ischemic encephalopathy
The pediatric resident recognizes that the current American The neonate born at 29 weeks gestation is now 2 months old
Academy of Pediatric guidelines for ROP screening recom- and has ROP. He has threshold disease.
mend that ophthalmologic examinations be performed based
on postmenstrual age (i.e., gestational age [GA] at birth plus 3. Select the description that is an accurate statement about
chronologic age). threshold disease:
CASE 5
Hearing screening
Vignette A: A term male infant is admitted to the Neonatal The infant in vignette B fails the OAE but passes the automated
Intensive Care Unit (NICU) with lethargy and poor perfusion brainstem response (ABR) neonatal hearing screen.
at 12 hours of life. He then has a seizure and is subsequently
diagnosed with Escherichia coli (E. coli) sepsis and meningitis. 2. Match the findings below (AD) with the type of neonatal
Vignette B: A preterm female infant with a postmen- hearing screen (iiii):
strual age (i.e., birth gestational age plus chronologic age) of i. OAE
36weeks gestation fails the otoacoustic (OAE) neonatal hear- A. Acceptable for newborn
screening ii. ABR
ing screen.
Vignette C: A 37-week-gestation male infant is readmitted B. Measures acoustic feedback iii. Both OAE
to the hospital with an indirect bilirubin of 25 mg/dL for severe from the cochlea and ABR
hyperbilirubinemia and receives prolonged phototherapy. C. Measures EEG waves generated
Vignette D: A 30-week-gestation male is status-post surfac- by the infants auditory system
tant administration for respiratory distress syndrome. in response to clicks
Vignette E: A 38-week-gestation female infant is born to a D. Takes longer time to complete
father with hearing loss.
SECTION XIV
Answers
Chromosome 13
Inherited
retinoblastoma Somatic
mutation
Sporadic
retinoblastoma Somatic Somatic
mutation mutation
FIGURE 3. The two-hit origin of RB. (A) A child with an inherited form of RB is born with a germline mutation
in one allele of the RB gene located on the long arm of chromosome 13. A second somatic mutation in the retina
leads to inactivation of the normally functioning RB allele and subsequent development of RB. (B) In sporadic
(noninherited) cases of RB, the child is born with two normal RB alleles. It requires two independent somatic
mutations to inactivate RB gene function and allow for appearance of a neoplastic clone. (From Rubin E, Rubin
R, Aaronson S. Neoplasia. In: Rubin E, Gorstein F, Rubin R, et al., eds. Rubins Pathology: Clinicopathologic
Foundations of Medicine. 4th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2005:171)
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2. A ii 6 weeks of life
2010.
Canzano J, Handa J. Utility of papillary dilation for detecting leukoco- B i 4 weeks of life
ria in patients with retinoblastoma. NeoReviews. 1999;104(4):e44. C i 4 weeks of life
D i 4 weeks of life
Table 1. Guidelines on Timing for ROP Screening Table 2. Other Descriptive Terms of ROP disease
2. A iii Both OAE and ABR Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
B i OAE Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:184
C ii ABR
D ii ABR
Table 2 provides a comparison of the two newborn hearing AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
screen methods. CONTENT SPECIFICATION
Table 2. Newborn Hearing Screening Methods Understand the use of otoacoustic emission (OAE)
devices for neonatal hearing screening
Evoked
Otoacoustic
ABR Emissions (EOAE)
SUGGESTED READINGS
Newborn Acceptable Acceptable
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
Screening for newborn for newborn 2010.
screening screening Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of Neonatal
Threshold Threshold of Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
of 35 db 35 db suggests Cunningham M, Cox E. Hearing assessment in infants and children:
suggests abnormal screen Recommendations beyond neonatal screening. Pediatrics. 2003;
abnormal 111:436439.
screen
CASE 1
Pigmentary and vascular lesions
A term female infant is born by spontaneous vaginal delivery. 2. Refer to Figure 2. Select the dermatologic distribution that
The infants Apgar scores are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, re- is most consistent with SturgeWeber syndrome:
spectively. The mothers prenatal course was uncomplicated,
and her family history is unremarkable.
Figure 1 is a photograph of the infant shortly after birth.
V1
Trigeminal nerve (V)
V2
V3
FIGURE 2. Smeltzer SC, Bare BG, Hinkle JL, et al. Brunner & Suddarths
Textbook of Medical Surgical Nursing. 11th ed. Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins; 2008. Figure 64.7
A. V1
FIGURE 1. From ODoherty N. Atlas of the Newborn. Philadelphia,
B. V2
PA: JB Lippincott; 1979
C. V3
1. Select the term that describes this babys vascular skin lesion: D. V2 and V3 but not V1
A. Infantile hemangioma The infant in this vignette undergoes treatment for cosmetic
B. Port-wine stain palliation.
C. Salmon patch
3. Select the treatment below that offers effective cosmetic
D. Venous malformation
palliation for this infants skin lesion:
This infants pediatrician is considering the possible diagnosis
A. Compression
of SturgeWeber syndrome.
B. Excision
C. Pulsed dye laser
D. There are no current effective treatments for port-wine
stains
CASE 2
Benign pustular lesions
2. Select the investigative study that can be used to confirm The pediatric resident rotating in the Newborn Nursery
the diagnosis chosen above in question 1. More than one discusses the clinical differences between transient neonatal
answer may be selected: pustular melanosis and staphylococcal skin infection with the
medical students.
A. If necessary, confirmation by presence of numerous eo-
sinophils by Wright stain of the pustule 3. Select True or False (iii) for the following statements
B. If necessary, confirmation by presence of numerous (AD) about staphylococcal skin infections and transient
neutrophils by Wright stain of the pustule neonatal pustular melanosis:
C. If necessary, confirmation by presence of sparse squa-
mous cells and lymphocytes by Wright stain of the lesion i. True
D. Usually diagnosed by clinical features ii. False
Another infant in the Newborn Nursery has a rash. She is born A. Staphylococcal skin infections are characterized by pus-
at term to a woman with normal prenatal screens. At birth, she tules, erythematous papules, and honey-crusted lesions.
is noted to have a rash as depicted in Figure 2. B. Staphylococcal skin infections can be confirmed by
gram-positive cocci in clusters and neutrophils on gram
stain of vesicular fluid; transient neonatal pustular mel-
anosis can be confirmed by the presence of numerous
neutrophils by Wright stain or gram stain, but there is
no presence of bacteria.
C. Staphylococcal skin infections can be found in the dia-
per area and the axilla.
D. Transient neonatal pustular melanosis is more common
in dark-skinned infants.
SECTION XV
Answers
2. A. V1
SturgeWeber syndrome is a leptomeningeal angiomatosis
that is characterized by the classic triad:
FIGURE 5. Fletcher M. Physical Diagnosis in Neonatology. The V2 and V3 distribution may also be seen in port-wine
Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott-Raven Publishers; 1998 stains associated with SturgeWeber syndrome, but patients
with V2 and V3 without V1 involvement are not at risk for
SturgeWeber syndrome.
SUGGESTED READINGS
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of N eonatal
Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
Option B shows an infant with transient neonatal pustular The image in option D reveals an infant with milia, and
melanosis with the findings noted in Table 2. Table 4 summarizes the characteristics of this lesion.
CASE 1
Temperature control
A 600-g male infant is born at 25 weeks gestation by vaginal A. Higher evaporative heat loss because of insensible water
delivery after unstoppable preterm labor. He cries immedi- loss with greater skinair temperature differences
ately and appears vigorous. The neonatal team is particularly B. Leads to a large difference in skin temperature between
focused on preventing hypothermia. Thus, he is placed on a exposed and unexposed areas
radiant warmer and his body is wrapped in a plastic material. C. Servocontrol of forced air by using skin or air tempera-
He requires intubation at 2 minutes of life because of moder- ture as a temperature control
ate respiratory distress and intermittent apnea. D. Servocontrol of skin temperature by using infrared radi-
ant warming
1. Select the reason(s) why newborns are more likely to have E. Still has evaporative heat loss
heat loss:
The pediatric resident leads a discussion with the medical stu-
A. Decreased epidermal and dermal thickness leading to dents about four types of heat loss in the neonate.
increased radiant and conductive heat loss
B. Immature nervous system leading to decreased response 3. Match the type of heat loss (AD) with the appropriate
to cooling row(iiv) as shown in Table 1:
C. Increased surface area to body weight ratio (three times A. Conductive C. Evaporative
greater than adult ratio) B. Convective D. Radiant
D. Minimal subcutaneous fat causing decreased response Another infant is admitted to the NICU soon after the
to cooling 25-week-gestational-age infant admission. This new admis-
After the parents meet their baby, the team places him in a sion is a term female born to a mother with diabetes mellitus.
transport isolette. Upon admission to the Neonatal Intensive The baby is large for gestational age (LGA) who presents to the
Care Unit (NICU), he is again placed on a radiant warmer. NICU with hypoglycemia after her first bath.
2. Match the statements (AE) with the type of warmer (iiii): 4. Select all of the potential etiologies of this infants
hypoglycemia:
i. Convective incubator
A. Cold stress
ii. Radiant warmer
B. Infant of a diabetic mother (IDM)
iii. Both
C. LGA
D. Sepsis
Table 1. Match Type of Heat Loss
i Transfer of heat from neonate to a Cold blanket or mattress Place infant on warm blanket or
contacting solid object mattress
ii Transfer of heat from neonate to Cool air Limit air currents, plastic cover
surrounding gas Air currents will lead to more May require environmental
The heated air expands and then turbulence and displacement of temperature to be greater than skin
travels upwards heated gas temperature to maintain a normal
40% to 50% of nonevaporative core temperature
neonatal heat loss
iii Transfer of heat from skin and Prematurity leading to immature Plastic cover
respiratory tract to a drier environment stratum corneum and poor Increase incubator humidity
epidermal barrier function
Younger postnatal age
High velocity of surrounding air
iv Transfer of heat between neonate and Incubator walls, windows, chairs, Protect incubator walls from excess
surface that is not in contact with neonate light bulbs, other people cooling
Heat loss is in the form of Double-walled isolette
electromagnetic waves Plastic cover
SECTION XVI
Answers
Table 2. Incubators
Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed.
Convective Servocontrol of forced air by using skin Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:425
incubators or air temperature as a temperature
control 3. A i Conductive
If infant placed inside, still has a large
B ii Convective
amount of radiant heat loss and some
evaporative heat loss C iii Evaporative
If increase humidity or swaddle infant, D iv Radiant
will decrease evaporative heat loss
Types of Neonatal
Heat Loss Definition Examples Prevention
Conductive Transfer of heat from neonate Cold blanket or mattress Place infant on warm blanket or
to a contacting solid object mattress
Convective Transfer of heat from neonate Cool air Limit air currents, plastic cover
to surrounding gas Air currents will lead to more May require environmental
The heated air expands and turbulence and displacement temperature to be greater than
then travels upwards of heated gas skin temperature to maintain a
40% to 50% of normal core temperature
nonevaporative neonatal
heatloss
Evaporative Transfer of heat from skin and Prematurity leading to Plastic cover
respiratory tract to a drier immature stratum corneum and Increase incubator humidity
environment poor epidermal barrier function
Younger postnatal age
High velocity of surrounding air
Radiant Transfer of heat between Incubator walls, windows, Protect incubator walls from
neonate and surface that is not chairs, light bulbs, other excess cooling
in contact with neonate people Double-walled isolette
Heat loss is in the form of Plastic cover
electromagnetic waves
Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:425
4. A, B, C, D SUGGESTED READINGS
All of the selections are possible etiologies for this infants hy-
poglycemia. A baby can develop cold stress after a bath and Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
rapidly deplete essential stores of fat and glycogen. The selec-
Cloherty J, Eichenwald EC, Hansen A, et al., eds. Manual of N eonatal
tions IDM and LGA are both risk factors for hypoglycemia as Care. 7th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
a result of hyperinsulinism. In addition to infants with IDM Costelow K, Hennessy E, Gibson AT, et al. The EPICure study: Out-
comes to discharge from hospital for infants born at the threshold
and/or LGA, hyperinsulinism can also develop in neonates
of viability. Pediatrics. 2000;106:659671.
with perinatal depression, BeckwithWiedemann syndrome, Ringer S. Core concepts: Thermoregulation in the newborn, part I:
pancreatic islet adenoma, and erythroblastosis fetalis. Sepsis Basic mechanisms. NeoReviews 2013;14;e161167.
is another risk factor for hypoglycemia as a result of increased
metabolic demand.
CASE 1
Aminoglycosides
A 29-week-gestation male infant is born by vaginal delivery 2. Select the major toxicity (toxicities) of aminoglycoside use
to a 32-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman with normal prena- in neonates. More than one answer may be selected:
tal screens. The pregnancy was complicated by unstoppable
A. Auditory/vestibular damage
preterm labor and spontaneous rupture of membranes. The
B. Cardiotoxicity
infant is critically ill with severe respiratory distress requiring
C. Nephrotoxicity
high ventilator settings and inotropic support for hypoten-
D. Reproductive organ toxicity
sion. His initial complete blood count (CBC) is as follows:
The infants laboratory results are as follows:
White blood cell count = 3.2 103/L (3.2 109/L)
Differential = 57% neutrophils, 32% bands Gentamicin peak: 14.7 mg/L
Hematocrit = 51% (0.51) Gentamicin trough: 1 mg/L
Platelets = 87 103/L (87 109/L) Final blood culture: Escherichia coli (E. coli)
CASE 2
-Lactam antibiotics
Four infants in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU) are 2. Match the mechanisms of action (iiv) with the antibiotic
being treated for different infections, as described below: types listed below (AD):
i. 32-week-gestation female 6-hour-old newborn with Group
B Streptococcus (GBS) sepsis i. Binds to 30S subunit of bac- A. Aminoglycoside
ii. 24-week-gestation male 6-hour-old newborn with gram- terial ribosomes and inhibits family
negative sepsis protein synthesis B. Cephalosporin
iii. Former 25-week-gestation male infant now at 30 weeks ii. Binds to penicillin-binding family
postmenstrual age with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococ- proteins and inhibits bacte- C. Penicillin family
cus aureus (MRSA) central-line infection rial cell wall synthesis D. Vancomycin
iv. Former 23-week-gestation male infant now at 29 weeks iii. Inhibits bactericidal enzymes
postmenstrual age requiring mechanical ventilation with a necessary for the synthesis
tracheal culture positive for Pseudomonas of peptidoglycan (important
component of cell wall)
1. Although many infections may benefit from double cover-
iv. Inhibits peptidoglycan syn-
age for synergism (i.e., not just a single antibiotic agent),
thesis in bacteria cell wall
match the above vignettes (iiv) with the single most ap-
propriate antibiotic selection below. Each antibiotic can Vignette ii in question 1 describes an infant born at 24 weeks
only be used once: gestation with Escherichia coli sepsis. When the infant is able to
A. Ampicillin ___ tolerate a lumbar puncture, the pediatric resident describes the
B. Ceftazidime ___ procedure to the parents and obtains consent. The infants ce-
C. Gentamicin ___ rebrospinal fluid (CSF) is grossly abnormal with >300 white
D. Vancomycin ___ blood cells per millimeter and a low glucose value, indicative
of meningitis (presumably E. coli meningitis). Because of the
potential for gentamicin-resistant E. coli organisms, the NICU
fellow discusses broadening the antibiotic coverage until anti-
biotic sensitivities are reported.
A. First-generation cephalosporin
B. Second-generation cephalosporin
C. Third-generation cephalosporin
D. None of the above
CASE3
Diuretics
Twins born at 24 weeks gestation are approaching their day Twin 1 is also receiving supplements due to electrolyte abnor-
of discharge from the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU). malities associated with furosemide.
They are now ~4 months old and are at term postmenstrual
age. They both have chronic lung disease. 3. Select the oral supplements commonly needed when an in-
fant is receiving chronic furosemide. Only one answer may
Twin 1 is receiving furosemide. be selected:
Twin 2 is receiving acetazolamide.
A. Bicarbonate
B. Calcium
1. Fill in the mode of action (iiv) corresponding to the drugs
C. NaCl and potassium chloride
listed (AD):
D. Magnesium
i. Blocks active chloride A. Acetazolamide
Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are potential adverse effects of
transport (Diamox)
chronic furosemide administration.
ii. Carbonic anhydrase B. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
inhibitor that inhibits C. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Select additional possible long-term adverse effects of
sodium bicarbonate chronic furosemide therapy. More than one answer may be
D. Spironolactone
(NaHCO3) reabsorption selected:
(Aldactone)
iii. Competitive antagonist A. Cardiotoxicity
of aldosterone B. Liver toxicity
iv. Inhibits sodium chloride C. Metabolic bone disease
(NaCl) reabsorption D. Renal calcifications
A. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
B. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
C. Furosemide (Lasix)
D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
SECTION XVII
Answers
Table 2. Model Compartment Comparisons Ampicillin is a -lactam antibiotic that covers most gram-pos-
itive organisms except for Staphylococcus. It is often used in the
Type of treatment for GBS and Listeria infections. Penicillin G covers the
Compartment
Model Characteristics majority of Streptococcus (pneumococcus coverage is variable),
Treponema pallidum, Bacteroides (except B. fragilis), Neisseria men-
One- Assumes that a drug distributes ingitides, and some Staphylococcus infections. A third-generation
compartment equally to all areas of the body cephalosporin, such as ceftazidime, is an ideal antibiotic choice
model Assumes that a drug rapidly for Pseudomonas (in combination with an aminoglycoside).
equilibrates with the peripheral
Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside that provides coverage for
tissues
Assumes first-order kinetics (linear if most gram-negative enteric bacilli. Third-generation cephalo-
log drug concentration plotted vs. sporins, such as cefotaxime and ceftriaxone, also provide excel-
time) lent coverage for gram-negative organisms. Vancomycin is used
Aminoglycosides rapidly equilibrate to treat coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and MRSA.
with tissues so that the one-
compartment model can be used 2. A i
Two- Assumes that a drug initially B ii
compartment rapidly equilibrates with the central C iii
model compartment and then more slowly D iv
equilibrates with the peripheral
compartment Table 1 depicts the mechanism of action for bactericidal and
Vancomycin slowly equilibrates with bacteriostatic medications.
tissues so that the two-compartment
model can be used Table 1. Mechanism of Action for Bactericidal and Bacteriostatic
Biphasic line if log drug Medications
concentration is plotted over time
with the initial phase = distribution
Mechanism of
phase (half-life = t) and the second
Action Antibiotics
phase = elimination phase
(half-life= t)
Bactericidal Penicillinsinhibit bacterial
Completely destroy enzymes (penicillin-binding
Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. bacteria proteins) necessary for the
Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:460 synthesis of peptidoglycan
(Ideal for
endocarditis, (important component of cell
meningitis, severe wall)
Staph and gram- Cephalosporinsbind to
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS negative infection) penicillin-binding proteins
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS and inhibit bacterial cell wall
synthesis
Aminoglycosidesbind to 30S
Know the appropriate use of aminoglycosides (i.e., seri-
subunit of bacterial ribosomes
ous aerobic gram-negative infections) and inhibit protein synthesis
Be aware of the major toxicity of aminoglycosides (audi- Vancomycininhibits
tory/vestibular damage, nephrotoxicity) peptidoglycan synthesis
Know how to modify aminoglycoside doses when peak in bacteria cell wall (note:
bacteriostatic against
or trough concentrations are too high
Enterococcus)
Quinolonesinhibit DNA
gyrase
SUGGESTED READING Bacteriostatic Erythromycinbinds reversibly
Inhibit growth and to the 50S subunit of bacterial
Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; reproduction of ribosomes and inhibit protein
2010. bacteria synthesis
Clindamycin
Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline (at therapeutic
CASE 2 ANSWERS concentrations)bind reversibly
to 30S subunit of bacterial
1. A i ribosome
B iv Sulfonamidesinhibit folate
synthesis
C ii
D iii Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:261
-Lactam antibiotics are a broad class of antibiotics with In this case, a third-generation cephalosporin is the most
a -lactam ring in their molecular structure. Examples of appropriate selection as it has good CSF penetration with
-lactam antibiotics include penicillin and its derivatives, excellent gram-negative coverage. Cephalosporins have a
cephalosporins, monobactams (e.g., aztreonam), and car- low toxicity profile when compared to the toxicity profile of
bapenems (e.g., imipenem and meropenem). Gentamicin without the need to monitor renal function and
drug concentrations. Importantly, however, widespread use of
3. C. Third-generation cephalosporin
cephalosporins can lead to antibiotic resistance and potential
A third-generation cephalosporin has better penetration into
for development of Clostridium difficile enterocolitis in older
the CSF than a first- or second-generation cephalosporin.
children and adults.
Table 2 describes the differences between first-, second-, and
third-generation cephalosporins.
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Table 2. Differences Between First-, Second-, and Third-Generation CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Cephalosporins
Know the appropriate use of ampicillin
Organism Know the appropriate use of penicillinase-resistant
Medication Coverage Comments penicillins
Know the mechanism of action of penicillin and other
Cephalosporin Most gram- e.g., cephalexin,
(-lactam) positive cefazolin beta-lactam antibiotics
(first cocci, E.coli, Treatment of Know that third-generation cephalosporins provide a
generation) Klebsiella and cellulitis broad spectrum of coverage and have excellent penetra-
Proteus Poor CSF tion into the cerebrospinal fluid
None of the penetration Understand the advantages of third-generation cepha-
cephalosporins
cover losporins over aminoglycosides (e.g., greater activity in
Enterococcus or deep-tissue infections, less toxicity, avoidance of need to
Listeria monitor renal function and drug concentrations)
Cephalosporin More gram- e.g., cefoxitin, Know the appropriate use of second-generation
(-lactam) negative cefuroxime, cephalosporins
(second coverage cefaclor, Know that first-generation cephalosporins do not pen-
generation) compared with cefotetan etrate well into the cerebrospinal fluid
first-generation
cephalosporin Recognize the problems that have resulted from the
widespread use of broad-spectrum cephalosporins (e.g.,
Cephalosporin Excellent e.g., cefotaxime,
antibiotic resistance, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis)
(-lactam) gram-negative ceftriaxone and
(third coverage ceftazidime
generation) Cefotaxime and Good CSF
ceftriaxone: penetration SUGGESTED READING
GBS, many Cefotaxime:
gram-negative routine use can Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
enteric bacilli; result in resistant 2010.
gonorrhea and gram-negative
Salmonella; organisms
some species Ceftriaxone:
of Citrobacter; possible CASE 3 ANSWERS
no coverage for increased risk
Staph of bilirubin 1. A ii
Ceftazidime: displacement
ideal for from albumin B iv
Pseudomonas Ceftazidime: C i
(in combination may yield
D iii
with false-positive
aminoglycoside) Coombs
reaction Table 1 describes the mode of action, site of action, and side
effects of four types of diuretics.
Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:259260
Table 1. Diuretics
Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:104
2. A. Acetazolamide (Diamox) Cardiotoxicity and liver toxicity are not recognized as adverse
Acetazolamide inhibits the reabsorption of NaHCO3, leading effects of chronic furosemide administration in neonates.
to a potential mild metabolic acidosis. Chlorothiazide and fu-
rosemide may lead to a metabolic alkalosis. Spironolactone
administration leads to decreased urinary losses of potassium,
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
resulting in increased serum potassium and hydrogen; use of
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
this diuretic is not typically associated with a predominant Know that chronic diuretic therapy can produce
alkalosis or acidosis in neonates. hyponatremia
3. C. NaCl and potassium chloride Know which diuretics produce a metabolic alkalosis
Furosemide use in neonates is often associated with urinary Know which diuretics produce a metabolic acidosis
losses of sodium, potassium, and chloride, leading to oral Recognize ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity as potential
supplementation of these electrolytes. Although furosemide adverse dose-related effects of Furosemide
administration may also lead to increased urinary losses of Understand the long-term complications of Furosemide
calcium and magnesium, supplements of calcium and mag- therapy
nesium are not commonly required. Furosemide may lead to
a metabolic alkalosis, so administration of bicarbonate would
not be an appropriate therapy. SUGGESTED READING
4. C. Metabolic bone disease Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
D. Renal calcifications 2010.
Adverse effects of chronic furosemide use in neonates include
the following:
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Renal calcifications
Metabolic bone disease
CASE 1
Maternalfetal conflicts
A 45-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician after a posi- 2. Match the definitions (ivii) with the ethical terms below
tive home pregnancy test within 2 weeks of a missed men- (AG):
strual cycle. Her unexpected but welcomed pregnancy occurs
i. Knowledge obtained A. Autonomy ____
just days after her last Papanicolaou (PAP) test. Her PAP test
about a patient will not B. Beneficence ____
shows malignant cells, and she is diagnosed with an advanced
be revealed to others ex-
stage of invasive cervical cancer. Treatment is recommended C. Competence ____
cept when it will benefit
immediately, which includes surgical resection of her cervix D. Confidentiality
the patient or if it would
and uterus. ____
override social good
The pregnant woman refuses treatment for her cancer and
ii. Obligation to help others E. Fidelity ____
wants to continue the pregnancy.
iii. Obligation to keep prom- F. Justice ____
1. Select True or False (iii) for the statements (AD) regard- G. Nonmaleficence
ises and contracts
ing ethical decision-making for the woman in this vignette: ____
iv. Obligation to not harm
i. True others, including not
ii. False treating them cruelly
A. Best medical evidence is the only factor that should be v. Obligation to treat peo-
considered. ple fairly
B. Cultural and social values play no role. vi. Respect for individuals
C. Gestational age bears no impact. plan of life; thus, must
D. No discussion is warranted, as the pregnant woman allow people to make de-
must undergo resection of her cervix and uterus; her cision for themselves
pregnancy must be terminated. vii. Sufficient mental ability
The obstetrician presents the case to the hospital ethics team. to understand the nature
Before the meeting, he reviews some important concepts of and consequences of
ethical decision-making. ones actions and thereby,
able to make a rational
decision
CASE 2
Imperiled newborns
A 19-year-old woman is rushed to the hospital with vaginal infant is born vigorous and is crying with a heart rate of 150
bleeding after a motor vehicle accident (MVA). Upon arrival, beats per minute. With this information of potential older ges-
the fetal heart rate pattern is nonreassuring. The pregnant tation and given the infants clinical status, the family decides
teenager has had only one prenatal visit, 3 days prior to the that they want resuscitation to be provided to their baby. The
MVA, with an estimated gestational age (GA) at the time of infant is intubated and given surfactant. There is no need for
22 weeks. A brief discussion takes place between the pregnant chest compressions or epinephrine administration.
teen, her mother, and the neonatologist. At 48 hours of age, the infant sustains a massive pulmonary
The neonatologist provides the family with the best medi- hemorrhage. She is placed on high-frequency oscillatory venti-
cal evidence about outcomes of infants born at the limits of lation. Her head ultrasound shows large bilateral intraventric-
viability. He informs the family that this evidence may be even ular hemorrhages with extremely dilated ventricles and large
more variable in the setting of an unclear estimated date of extensions of the hemorrhages into the adjacent parenchyma.
confinement. After the family is provided with more informa- The neonatologist sits down with the family to update them
tion, they decide on comfort care only unless there is a pro- on the infants status and to discuss potential options for care.
found discrepancy in estimated GA. After much discussion, the family decides to withdraw medi-
After the meeting, the neonatologist leads a discussion with cal treatment and to provide only comfort care. The infant dies
the pediatric residents and medical students rotating in the several hours later.
Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU) that month. He reviews The neonatologist reviews the concept of withholding ver-
four basic ethical principles. sus withdrawing medical treatment with the pediatric resi-
dents and medical students.
1. Match the basic ethical principles (AD) with the corre-
sponding definitions (iiv): 2. Select True or False (iii) for the following statements:
SECTIONXVIII
Answers
Gestational age must be weighed in light of potential options Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed.
and possible outcomes. Evidence shows that care and treat- Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:499
ment in a supportive fashion is far beneficial to coercion. The
most effective hospital guidelines support shared decision-
making in the setting of fetal/maternal conflict with the goal AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
of compassionate conflict resolution. CONTENT SPECIFICATION
2. A vi Recognize and apply ethical principles when dealing
B ii with a situation that involves maternalfetal conflicts
C vii
D i
SUGGESTED READINGS
E iii
F v Boyle R. Ethical issues in the care of the neonate: Overview. NeoReviews.
2004;11:e471e475.
G iv Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
Table 1 provides the basic definitions for concepts in ethics. McHaffie H, Laing I, Parker M, et al. Deciding for imperiled new-
borns: Medical authority or parental autonomy? J Med Ethics.
2001;27:104109.
Meadow W, Lantos J. Ethics at the limit of viability: A premies prog-
ress. NeoReviews. 2003; 4:e157e161.
Table 1 provides the definitions of the ethical concepts listed Only way to know if some Often easier to do
as options. infants may benefit from nothing then intervene
a treatment is to initiate and stop
therapy and then withdraw
Table 1. Basic Ethical Principles if ineffective
Presents more barriers for May prevent infant from
Respect for A norm of respecting the decision- clinicians and families having pain and suffering
persons making abilities of autonomous
persons/family members May increase chance of May be easier emotionally
obtaining more information because family has not
In research, this principle highlights that could impact outcome observed and interacted
the need for informed consent with infant
In clinical care, this principle
imparts the need for maintaining While may gather more
confidentiality clinical information
if withdraw medical
Nonmaleficence A norm of avoiding causing harm treatment, may take long
Respect for A group of norms for providing period of time; during this
beneficence benefits and balancing benefits with time, family has become
risks and costs more emotionally invested,
making decision about
Respect for A group of norms for distributing stopping more difficult
justice benefits, risks, and costs fairly or there may not be any
This principle can be divided into aggressive therapy to
three categories: withdraw
a. Fair distribution of scarce resources
b. Respect for peoples rights (despite Printed with permission from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology
disapproval of patients lifestyle) Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:504
c. Respect for morally acceptable
laws
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS
Adapted from: Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS
Raleigh, NC: Lulu; 2010:499
Discussions at the threshold of viability
Recognize and apply ethical principles regarding imper-
2. A i True
iled newborns and delivery room resuscitation issues
B ii False
Recognize and apply ethical principles involved in
C i True decision-making for imperiled newborns in the N
eonatal
D i True Intensive Care Unit
E i True
All of the statements are true except for B. The Born-Alive
SUGGESTED READINGS
Act of 2001 states that infants who are born alive, at any stage
in development, are persons who are entitled to the protec- Boyle R. Ethical issues in the care of the neonate: Overview. N
eoReviews.
tion of the law. Every liveborn infant needs to be evaluated 2004;11:e471e475.
to determine appropriate care. The interpretation of the Act is Brodsky D, Martin C. Neonatology Review. 2nd ed. Raleigh, NC: Lulu;
2010.
that appropriate care can include comfort measures and expla- McHaffie H, Laing I, Parker M, et al. Deciding for imperiled new-
nation alone, with no additional interventions. borns: Medical authority or parental autonomy? J Med Ethics.
2001;27:104109.
Meadow W, Lantos J. Ethics at the limit of viability: A premies prog-
ress. NeoReviews. 2003; 4:e157e161.
CASE 1
Newborn discharge from the hospital
A nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for the two patients 2. Select True or False (iii) for the following statements. Re-
described in the vignettes below. fer to vignettes A and B above when appropriate:
Vignette A: A 39-year-old gravida 5 para 5 now 6 woman
i. True
with experience breast-feeding all of her infants desires early
ii. False
discharge with her full-term newborn 24 hours after vaginal
delivery. The neonate has been breast-feeding adequately; A. Based on the information provided, patient A does not have
mothers milk is starting to come in; and the infants 24- risk factors to prevent early discharge.
hour bilirubin value is 3 mg/dL. B. Benefits of early discharge may include facilitation and
Vignette B: A 23-year-old Asian-American gravida 1 para 0 bonding, enhanced family interactions, increased fam-
now 1 woman planning to exclusively breast-feed her infant ily satisfaction, and increased breast-feeding.
desires early discharge with her late preterm male infant C. Neither patient should be granted early discharge due to
24 hours after vaginal delivery. The infants birth weight is the chance of readmission for hyperbilirubinemia.
2.1kg (4 pounds 10 ounces). He is not latching well; mothers D. Risk factors for unsafe discharge for patient B and her
milk is not in; and the infants bilirubin value is 8 mg/dL. newborn include primigravida, Asian ethnicity, late pre-
The nurse alerts the pediatrician rounding in the nursery term status, lack of established breast-feeding, and male
that both patients are requesting early discharge. gender.
E. The infant born to patient B must remain in the hospital
1. Select the criteria for safe discharge to home from the list for 1 week due to his low birth weight.
below (AI). More than one answer may be selected: F. The only benefit to early discharge is economic.
A. Access to health care G. The pediatrician must review the unique characteristics
B. Bilirubin less than 10 mg/dL of the infant only prior to deeming the infant ready for
C. Family readiness and competence discharge.
D. Full-term gestation H. The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) developed the
E. Gaining weight (from birth weight) Safe and Healthy Beginnings Newborn Discharge: A Readiness
F. High school diploma received by mother Checklist to aid clinicians with preparation of a newborn
G. Physiologic stability of mother and newborn for discharge.
H. Social support network availability
3. Select the potential complications of early discharge. More
I. Weight of more than 5 pounds at discharge
than one answer may be selected:
CASE 2
Sudden infant death syndrome prevention
A full-term male infant is born to a 37-year-old woman by 2. Select the accepted SIDS prevention guidelines from the list
uncomplicated vaginal delivery. The mothers prenatal screens below:
and pregnancy course were unremarkable except for daily to-
A. Infants should sleep in supine or side-lying positions.
bacco use. The family history is significant for a prior male
B. Infants should only sleep in a safety-approved crib and
child who died of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
never sleep in a portable crib, play yard, or bassinet.
2 years prior to this current pregnancy. The family is over-
C. Infants should not sleep routinely in their car seat at
whelmed with anxiety that their newborn might also die of
home.
SIDS.
D. Room-sharing and bed-sharing are recommended.
Before sitting down with the family, the pediatric resident
E. Cobedding of twins is recommended.
reviews the current information on SIDS and the expanded
F. Pillows, quilts, and comforters are not recommended
American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommendations for
for infant use during sleep.
a safe sleeping environment.
G. Wedges and positioning devices are approved for use by
The attending pediatrician supervises the pediatric resident
all infants during sleep.
as he leads the discussion on SIDS with the family.
H. Bumper pads are not recommended.
1. Select the accepted definition of SIDS: I. Smoking during pregnancy and in the infants environ-
ment should be avoided.
A. A cause assigned to infant deaths that cannot be ex- J. Breast-feeding is recommended.
plained after a thorough review of the clinical history, K. Pacifier use is recommended at nap time and bedtime.
case investigation, and autopsy. L. The use of a hat during sleep is recommended.
B. A cause assigned to death attributed to child abuse. M. Infants should be immunized according to the AAP and
C. A cause assigned to death attributed to a rare metabolic Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
disorder.
D. There is no accepted definition for SIDS. The parents in the vignette above want to use a home mon-
itor to prevent SIDS from happening to their baby.
SECTION XIX
Answers
2. A i True
CASE 1 ANSWERS
B i True
1. A, C, G, and H are all correct. C ii False
Safe discharge of a newborn from hospital to home requires: D i True
E ii False
Physiologic stability
F ii False
Family preparedness and competence
G ii False
Social support network
H i True
Access to health care
The AAP developed the Safe and Healthy Beginnings Newborn
Prior to discharge to home, the bilirubin level of the newborn
Discharge: A Readiness Checklist to aid clinicians with prepara-
needs to be appropriate for the babys age of life and gesta-
tion of a newborn for discharge. The categories in the check
tional age using established bilirubin nomograms. Depending
list include:
on a babys risk factors, a bilirubin over 10 mg/dL may be nor-
mal and would not hold up discharge. General health
Late preterm infants (34 07 weeks gestation to 36 67 weeks Hyperbilirubinemia assessment
gestation) who demonstrate physiologic stability may be able Breast-feeding assessment
to be discharged from home prior to reaching term gestational Transition to medical home
age. These infants need to have evidence of the following: Health and safety counseling
Psychosocial and referral
Normal respiratory pattern
Mature feeding ability Studies report potential risk factors for readmission of the
Maintenance of a normal temperature infant as:
Bilirubin level that is appropriate for age of life and
Asian ethnicity
gestation
Primiparity
Prior to discharge, late preterm infants also need to have a car Associated maternal morbidities
safety screening test to confirm cardiorespiratory stability in Shorter gestational age
an upright position. Low birth weight
Most newborns lose weight in the first week of age and Instrumented vaginal delivery
thus, are not required to be gaining weight to be discharged Male gender
from the hospital. Hospital clinicians must closely review an
The pediatrician must always view the infant as a maternal/
infants percent weight loss and more closely assess an infant
infant dyad to ascertain the unit is ready for a safe discharge
with greater than 10% weight loss, as it might be a sign of
to home.
dehydration and/or lack of established feeding.
Whether a mother has received a high school diploma has 3. B and C
no impact on a newborns discharge from the hospital. Rather, Potential complications of early discharge include:
the family needs to be prepared, be competent, have access to
Lack of established feeding (poor feeding ability or lack of
health care, and have a good social support network prior to
maternal supply)
discharge.
Dehydration
There is no specific weight required of a newborn prior
Significant jaundice
to discharge to home. However, babies who weigh less than
Inability to detect some metabolic disorders on the new-
5 pounds at discharge need to demonstrate normal tem-
born screening test as detection of some disorders re-
peratures and normal blood glucose concentrations. Most
quires an infant to have established feedings
infants will be close to 5 pounds or greater when ready for
discharge. Early discharge does not lead to failure to detect hearing loss
(even with early discharge, a hearing screen is required). There
is no association with early discharge and prolonged umbilical
stump adherence.
Failure to detect ductal-dependent cardiac lesions has been 2. The correct answers are C, F, H, I, J, K, and M.
reported as a potential complication of early discharge of a The following statements are accepted SIDS-prevention
newborn. The Critical Congenital Heart Disease Screening guidelines:
mandate should decrease this risk as all infants, even those
Infants should sleep supine; side-lying positions are not
being discharged early, will need to have an oxygen saturation
recommended.
screening test.
Infants should sleep in a safety-approved crib, portable
crib, play yard, or bassinet.
AMERICAN BOARD OF PEDIATRICS Infants should not sleep routinely in their car seat at
CONTENT SPECIFICATIONS home.
Room-sharing is recommended; bed-sharing is not
Know the qualifications for consideration of early dis- recommended.
charge of a newborn Cobedding of twins is not recommended.
Know the benefits and complications of early discharge Pillows, quilts, and comforters are not recommended for
of a newborn infant use during sleep.
Know the importance of follow-up after early discharge Wedges and positioning devices are not recommended.
of a newborn Bumper pads are not recommended.
Smoking during pregnancy and in the infants environ-
ment should be avoided.
SUGGESTED READINGS Breast-feeding is recommended.
Pacifier use is recommended at nap time and bedtime.
AAP online resource: http://www.aap.org/en-us/professional-resources/
practice-support/Vaccine-Financing-Delivery/Documents/New
Overheating and head covering of infants should be
born_Discharge_SAMPLE.pdf. Accessed August 30, 2013. avoided.
Committee on Fetus and the Newborn, American Academy of Infants should be immunized according to the AAP and
Pediatrics. Policy StatementHospital stay for the healthy term
newborn. Pediatrics. 2010;125(2):405409.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
Danielsen B, Castles AG, Damberg CL, et al. Newborn discharge tim-
ing and readmissions: California, 19921995. Pediatrics. 2000;106 3. i. True
(1,pt 1):3139.
Escobar GJ, Greene JD, Hulac P, et al. Rehospitalization after birth
The Task Force on SIDS and the AAP Committee on Fetus and
hospitalization: Patterns among infants of all gestations. Arch Dis Newborn agree that infant home monitors should not be used
Child. 2005;90(2):125131. as a strategy to prevent SIDS, although it can be useful for
Grupp-Phelan J, Taylor JA, Liu LL, et al. Early newborn hospital dis-
charge and readmission for mild and severe jaundice. Arch Pediatr
some infants who have had an apparent life-threatening event.
Adolesc Med. 1999;153(12):12831288.
Kotagal UR, Atherton HD, Eshett R, et al. Safety of early discharge for
Medicaid newborns. J Am Med Assoc. 1999;282(12):11501156. American Board of Pediatrics
Paul IM, Lehman EB, Hollenbeak CS, et al. Preventable newborn re- Content Specification
admissions since passage of the Newborns and Mothers Health
Protection Act. Pediatrics. 2006;118(6):23492358.
Know the SIDS-prevention guidelines and advise parents
CASE 2 ANSWERS
SUGGESTED READINGS
1. A. A cause assigned to infant deaths that cannot be
Committee on Fetus and Newborn, American Academy of Pediatrics.
explained after a thorough review of the clinical history, Apnea, sudden infant death syndrome, and home monitoring.
case investigation, and autopsy. Pediatrics. 2003;111(4, pt 1):914917.
Definitions: Task Force on Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, American Academy
of Pediatrics. SIDS and other sleep-related infant deaths: Expan-
SIDS: A cause assigned to infant deaths that cannot be sion of recommendations for a safe infant sleeping environment.
Pediatrics. 2011;128(5):e1341e1387.
explained after a thorough review of the clinical history,
case investigation, and autopsy
SUID, sudden unexpected infant death (or SUDI, sudden
unexpected death of infancy): a term used to describe any
sudden and unexpected death, whether explained or un-
explained (including SIDS), that occurs during infancy;
can be attributed to suffocation, asphyxia, entrapment,
infection, ingestions, metabolic diseases, and trauma
(accidental or nonaccidental)
Note: Page numbers followed by f refer to figures; page numbers followed by t refer to tables.
Edwards syndrome. See Trisomy 18 FISH. See Fluorescent in situ late-onset, 114, 123
EhlersDanlos syndrome, 107 hybridization management of, 114, 123
Electrocardiography Fluid requirement, 134, 140141 time period, 113, 122
for cardiogenic shock, 54, 6162 Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH), Growth hormone therapy, for Turner
for complete heart block, 7, 18 94, 102 syndrome, 97, 106
for congenital heart disease, Fluorescent treponemal antibody ab-
53, 56, 60, 63 sorption (FTA) test, for syphilis, 116 H
Electrolyte abnormalities, 135136, Focal clonic seizure, 75t Haemophilis influenza, 247
142143 Football sign, 172 HBV. See Hepatitis B virus
and diabetes mellitus, 6, 17 Formula-feeding, 138139, 146148 HC. See Head circumference
laboratory findings of, 136, 142 Fractional excretion of sodium, HDN. See Hemorrhagic disease of the
management of, 136, 142 150, 155 newborn
Ellisvan Creveld syndrome, 86, 91 Fragile X syndrome, 95, 103 Head circumference (HC), 68
Encephalitis (CNS involvement), 115, FTA test. See Fluorescent treponemal Head growth, 68, 7374
124, 124t antibody absorption test Hearing loss
Encephalopathy, 7172, 7879 Furosemide (Lasix), 246 autosomal trisomy syndromes,
acute bilirubin, 182, 191 adverse effects of, 246, 250 104105
hypoxic-ischemic, 70, 7677 mode of action, 250t cytomegalovirus infection and, 119, 130
Enemas NaCl and, 246, 250 etiologies of, 228, 228t
gastrografin, 167, 174 potassium chloride and, 246, 250 and kernicterus, 182, 191
multiple hypertonic contrast, 169 side effects of, 250t and osteogenesis imperfecta, 85, 90
Enterococcus, 112, 121, 247 site of action, 250t risk factors of, 223, 228
EOAE. See Evoked otoacoustic sensorineural, 165, 170171
emissions G toxoplasmosis, 117, 128129
ErbDuchenne palsy, 69, 74, 74f Galactokinase deficiency, and congenital Hearing screening, 223, 228
Erythema toxicum neonatorum, cataracts, 224 methods of, 228, 228t
231, 231f, 235t Galactosemia, 146t Heat loss, neonatal, 240, 241, 242t
Erythromycin, mechanism and congenital cataracts, 224 Hematocrit, 178, 185
of action, 248t Gastric residuals, increased, and Hemophilia A
Escherichia coli, 112, 121, 223, 244, necrotizing enterocolitis, 165, 171 and coagulation disorders, 183,
245, 247 Gastrografin enema, for intestinal 193194
Esophageal atresia obstruction, 167, 174 inheritance of, 183, 194
with distal tracheoesophageal fistula, Gastroschisis, 167, 175 Hemophilia B, 95, 103
37, 4849 GBS infection. See Group B Streptococcus Hemorrhage, intracranial, 7071, 7778
and pneumothorax, 32, 45 infection Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
Evaporative heat loss, 240, 241, 242t Genetic associations, 98, 107108 (HDN), 145, 184, 194195, 195t
Evoked otoacoustic emissions (EOAE), Genetic testing, postnatal, 94, 102 vitamin K for, 220
223, 228, 228t Genitalia, male, abnormal, 200201, Hepatitis B virus (HBV), 116, 126
Exchange transfusion, for nonphysi- 207210 and jaundice, 189
ologic jaundice, 181, 190, 190t Genitourinary abnormalities, and Hereditary factor VII deficiency, 183,
Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation limited neck movements, 86, 92 193194
(ECMO), 4041 Gentamicin, 244, 245, 247 Hernia
dosing management, 244, 247 congenital diaphragmatic (CDH),
F for neonatal encephalopathy, 71 38, 49, 164, 170
Fat source, 138139, 147t for sepsis, 112, 121 inguinal hernia, 201, 209210
Female genital findings, 201202, 211 Glaucoma, congenital, 220221, 220f, Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection,
Fertility, and Turner syndrome, 224225 114115, 123125
96, 106 primary, 224 and congenital cataracts, 221, 225
Fetal alcohol syndrome, 5253, secondary, 224 and congenital glaucoma, 221, 225
53f, 60 Goldenhar syndrome, features of, management of, 114115, 124
thin upper lip and, 9, 20 100f, 109t peripartum acquisition, timing of,
Fetal assessment, 5, 1516 Gonadal dysgenesis, 205 115, 124
Fetal hydantoin syndrome, 19 and Turner syndrome, 96, 106 risk factors of, 114, 124
Fetal ultrasonography, for sickle Gonorrheal infection, ocular, Heterotaxy syndrome, 176
cell disease, 45, 15. See also 224, 224f HIE. See Hypoxic-ischemic
Ultrasonography Group B Streptococcus (GBS) infection, encephalopathy
-Fetoprotein concentration throughout 56, 71, 113114, 122123, 134, 135, High-resolution chromosomal
pregnancy, 2, 13 178, 181, 182, 192, 245, 247 analysis, 102
Fidelity, 252, 254, 254t chemoprophylaxis for, 113, 122 Hirschsprung disease, 173174
Fifth day fits, 76 clinical description, 113114, 123 neonates stooling pattern and,
First-order kinetics, 244, 247t early-onset, 113, 122 164, 169
HIV transmission. See Human transient, 198, 204 nonphysiologic, 181, 189191
immunodeficiency virus untreated, long-term effects of, 204 physiologic, 180181
transmission etiologies of, 203, 203t and polycythemia, 178, 186
HLHS. See Hypoplastic left heart signs of, 204 Justice, 252, 254, 254t
syndrome Hypovolemic shock, 62, 62t63t respect for, 253, 255, 255t
HoltOram syndrome, 108 Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
HSV infection. See Herpes simplex virus (HIE), 70, 7677 K
infection end-organ injury and, 70, 76 Karyotype testing, for congenital adrenal
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) outcomes of, 70, 7677 hyperplasia, 199, 205
transmission, 118, 129130 seizure activity, timing of, 70, 76 Kasai portoenterostomy, for biliary
diagnosis of, 118, 130 atresia, 168, 176
intrapartum, 118, 129 I Kernicterus, 182, 191
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and, Idiopathic persistent pulmonary Kidney abnormalities, 153154,
118, 130 hypertension of the newborn, 54, 61 159161
risks associated with, 129t Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura Klinefelter syndrome, 97, 107
minimizing, 129130 (ITP), 183, 192 KlippelFeil syndrome, 86, 89, 91, 92
Hutchinson triad, 116, 127 Imipenem, 249 Klumpke palsy, 69, 74, 74f
Hydantoin use, during pregnancy, 18 Immunizations, 119120, 131132 -Lactam antibiotics, 245, 248249
Hydrocele timing of, 120, 132
communicating, 201, 209210 Imperiled newborns, 253, 255 L
noncommunicating, 201, 209210 Incubators, convective, 240, 241, 241t Laryngeal obstruction, 43
Hydrocephaly, 73 Indomethacin, and pulmonary Laryngomalacia, 30, 4243
Hydrometrocolpos, 211 hypertension, 8, 19 Lasix. See Furosemide
Hydronephrosis, fetal, 160 Infantile hemangiomas, 233t234t, Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio,
11-Hydroxylase deficiency, 204 233f elevated, 5, 15
17-Hydroxylase deficiency, 205 Inguinal hernia, 201, 209210 Listeria monocytogenes
21-Hydroxylase deficiency, 199, 204, Inheritance patterns, 9495, 102103 and patchy lung fields, 34, 4647
205206, 206f, 207, 216, 216f Intestinal atresia, neonates stooling and sepsis, 112, 121, 247
3-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase pattern and, 164, 169 Liver dysfunction, severe, 183, 193194
deficiency, 204, 205 Intestinal obstruction, 166167, Liver transplantation, for biliary atresia,
17-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 172174 168, 176
deficiency, 205 high-, 166, 172173 Lupus, maternal, effects of, 7, 18
17-Hydroxyprogesterone concentration, low-, 166, 172173 7,20-Lyase deficiency, 205
and congenital adrenal hyperplasia, Intestinal venous obstruction, 202, 211
199, 205206 Intracranial hemorrhage, 7071, 7778 M
Hyperammonemia, 79, 79f Intrathoracic obstruction, 43 Macrocephaly, 9, 2021, 68, 73
Hyperbilirubinemia, indirect. See Intratracheal suctioning, 33, 45 benign familial, 68, 73
Jaundice Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), Magnesium deficiency, 136, 143
Hypercalcemia, 142 distinguished from small-for-gesta- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), for
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, tional-age, 11, 24 intracranial hemorrhage, 71, 7778
acetazolamide and, 246, 250 Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), Malformation, 8, 19
Hyperkalemia, 135, 142, 143 for nonphysiologic jaundice, 181, 190 MAP. See Mean arterial blood pressure
Hyperoxia test, for congenital heart Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), Marfan syndrome, 95, 103, 107
disease, 53, 56, 60, 63 grades of, 77 Mass, neck, palpable, 84, 89
Hyperthermia, and anterior abdominal Intubation, 11, 23 Maternal medications, 8, 1820
wall defects, 167, 175 for cardiogenic shock, 55, 62 Maternal serum screening, 2, 13
Hypocalcemia, and congenital Invasive prenatal genetic testing, Maternalfetal conflicts, 252, 254
cataracts, 224 45, 1415 MBD. See Metabolic bone disease
Hypoglycemia, 12, 2425 Iron fortification, 138139, 147148 MCDK. See Multicystic dysplastic kidney
etiology of, 240, 242 ITP. See Idiopathic thrombocytopenic Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP),
pathogenesis of, 6, 17 purpura 52, 60
and polycythemia, 178, 186 IUGR. See Intrauterine growth Mechanical ventilation, for cardiogenic
Hypophosphatemia, 142 restriction shock, 55, 62
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome IVH. See Intraventricular hemorrhage Meconium aspiration syndrome,
(HLHS), 55, 56, 62, 64 IVIG. See Intravenous immunoglobulin 33, 4546
Hypospadias, 200, 207, 207f Meconium ileus, and intestinal
Hypothyroidism, 96, 104105, 198, J obstruction, 167, 173174
203204 Jaundice Meconium plug, neonates stooling
congenital breast-feeding, 181, 188 pattern and, 164, 169
primary, 198, 204 breast nonfeeding, 181, 188 Medullary cystic kidney disease, 156t
secondary, 198, 204 factors contributing to, 179, 186 Mendelian inheritance, 102t103t
Meningitis, 114, 123 Non-cardiogenic shock, 55, 6263 Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Mental deficiency, and toxoplasmosis, Nonmaleficence, 252, 253, 254, 254t, of the newborn (PPHN), 6566
117, 128129 255, 255t idiopathic, and central cyanosis,
Meropenem, 249 Nonphysiologic jaundice, 181, 189191 54, 61
Metabolic acidosis anion gap characteristics of, 189t indomethacin and, 8, 19
calculation of, 134, 141 diagnosis of, 189t maladaptation, 65
elevated, 134, 141t Nonstress test, 5, 1516 maldevelopment, 66
normal, 134, 141t Noonan syndrome, 105 and respiratory distress syndrome,
Metabolic bone disease (MBD) Nucleic acid amplification, for HIV, 39, 4950
furosemide and, 246, 250 118, 130 Pharmacokinetics, 244, 247t
management of, 137, 145 Nutritional requirement, 134, 140141 Phenobarbital
prematurity as risk factor to, 136, 144 for neonatal withdrawal symptoms,
signs and symptoms of, 136, 144 O 9, 20
Metabolic disorders O-negative blood administration, for use during pregnancy, 18
and congenital cataracts, 224 non-cardiogenic shock, 55, 63 Phenylalanine breakdown, pathway of,
neonatal screening test for, 214, Obstruction 217, 217f
216217 intestinal, 166167, 172174 Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Methadone, for neonatal withdrawal intestinal venous, 202, 211 newborn screening for, limitations of,
symptoms, 9, 20 intrathoracic, 43 214215, 217
Methamphetamine, and neonatal laryngeal, 43 treatment and sequelae of, 215, 217
withdrawal symptoms and, 9, 20 supraglottic, 43 types of, 217t
Mevalonic aciduria, and congenital ureteropelvic junction, 153, 160 Phototherapy, 181, 190
cataracts, 224 ureterovesical junction, 153, 160 Physical therapy, for brachial plexus
Microcephaly, 68, 73 urinary tract, 202, 211 injury, 75
acquired, 68, 73 Obstructive apnea, 29, 41 Physiologic jaundice, 180181,
progressive, 68, 73 OI. See Osteogenesis imperfecta 188189
Micropenis, 201, 208 Oligohydramnios characteristics of, 189t
Milia, 236t complications of, 152153, 158 diagnosis of, 189t
Miliaria, 236t mechanism of, 152, 158 management of, 180181, 188
Milk protein allergy (MPA), 139, 148 Omphalocele, 167, 175 preterm infant, 180, 188
Mineral deficiencies, 136, 143144 One-compartment model, 248t prevention of, 180181, 188
Mineralocorticoid deficiency, 205 Ophthalmologic prophylaxis, 220, 224 term infant, 180, 188
Morphine sulfate, for neonatal Ortolani test, 88 PIE. See Pulmonary interstitial
withdrawal symptoms, 9, 20 Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), 85, 90 emphysema
Morphogenesis, problems in, 8, 19 type I, 85, 90 PierreRobin sequence, 100101, 100f,
MPA. See Milk protein allergy type II, 85, 90 105, 109110
MRI. See Magnetic resonance imaging Oxygen saturations, pre- and postductal diagnosis of, 101, 110
Mucolipidoses, and congenital for cardiogenic shock, 54, 6162 features of, 109t
cataracts, 224 for congenital heart disease, 53, 60 Pigmentary lesions, 230, 233235
Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MCDK), Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, PKU. See Phenylketonuria
150151, 156157, 156t, 159 54, 61 Placental aromatase deficiency, 204
characteristics of, 151, 156 Plagiocephaly, 68, 73
clinical findings of, 151, 157 P Platelet dysfunction, 183, 193194
outcomes of, 151, 157 PA. See Pulmonary atresia Plus disease, retinopathy
Multicystic renal dysplasia. See PACs. See Premature atrial contractions of prematurity, 227t
Multicystic dysplastic kidney PAP test. See Papanicolaou (PAP) test Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia,
Multifocal clonic seizure, 75t Papanicolaou (PAP) test, 252 and HIV, 118, 130
Muscular system abnormalities, Patau syndrome. See Trisomy 13 Pneumomediastinum, 32, 45
and joint contractures, 84, 90 Patchy lung fields, 34, 4647 Pneumonia, congenital, and patchy lung
Myoclonic seizure, 75t diagnosis of, 34, 46 fields, 34, 46
Listeria monocytogenes and, 34, 4647 Pneumothorax
N pathophysiology of, 34, 46 bilateral, 31, 32, 45
NEC. See Necrotizing enterocolitis Peak inspiratory pressure, for scaphoid esophageal atresia and, 32, 45
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC), abdomen, 165, 170 left, 32, 45
165166, 171172 Penicillin G, 248 right, 32, 45
Neurologic immaturity, of premature for Group B Streptococcus infection, Polycythemia, 178179, 186
infant, 12, 25 113, 114, 122, 123 cyanosis and, 6, 17
Nevi flammeus simplex, 234, 234f mechanism of action, 245, 248t, 249 hypoglycemia and, 178, 186
Newborn screening, 203t, 214, 216217 for syphilis, 116 indirect hyperbilirubinemia and,
Nitric oxide, inhaled, for pulmonary Periumbilical blood sampling, 178, 186
flow, 58, 66 4, 1415 respiratory distress and, 178, 186
Stridor, 30 Thymus, Sail sign (Angels wings sign), 45 features of, 106f
biphasic, 43 Thyroid dysgenesis, 204 fertility and, 96, 106
expiratory, 43 Thyroid dyshormonogenesis, 204 karyotype, 97, 106
inspiratory, 43 Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Twins, deletion syndromes in,
SturgeWeber syndrome, 230, concentration, and hypothyroidism, 99, 100, 109
234235, 235f 198, 203, 204 Two-compartment model, 248t
Subglottic stenosis, 30, 43 Thyroxine (T4) level, and
Substance use, during pregnancy, hypothyroidism, 198, 203, 203t U
89, 2021 Tobacco, prenatal exposure to, 9, 21 Ultrasonography
Suctioning, 11, 23 TOF. See Tetralogy of Fallot abdominal, for biliary atresia, 168,
intratracheal, 33, 45 TORCH infections, and jaundice, 189 175176
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), Torticollis, 8384, 89 for autosomal dominant polycystic
9, 21 acquired, 83 kidney disease, 151
defined, 259, 261 congenital, 83, 84 fetal, 159
prevention guidelines for, 261 Total anomalous pulmonary venous for intracranial hemorrhage, 71, 7778
Sudden unexpected infant death return (TAPVR), cyanosis in, 56, 64 for posterior urethral valves, 154, 161
(SUID), 261 Toxoplasmosis, 117118, 128129 prenatal, 23, 1314
SUID. See Sudden unexpected infant clinical manifestation of, 118, 129 Umbilical arteries, Doppler flow
death congenital, 117, 128 studies of, 16
Sulfadiazine, for toxoplasmosis, and congenital cataracts, 224 Urea cycle defect, 72, 79
118, 129 mode of transmission, 117, 128 Ureterocele, 153, 160
Sulfonamides, mechanism Tracheoesophageal abnormalities, Ureteropelvic junction obstruction,
of action, 248t 37, 4849 153, 160
Supraglottic obstruction, 43 and autosomal recessive polycystic Ureterovesical junction obstruction,
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), kidney disease, 152, 158 153, 160
59, 66, 142 fistula, esophageal atresia with, Urinalysis, for renal failure, 150, 155
Surfactant deficiency, 23, 3031, 44, 37, 4849 Urinary tract obstruction, 202, 211
54, 61 Tracheomalacia, 30, 4243
SVT. See Supraventricular tachycardia Transabdominal chorionic villus V
Syphilis, 116117, 127128 sampling, 4, 15 Vaccination dose, for term/preterm
Transient neonatal pustular melanosis, infants, 119120, 131132
T 232, 236, 236t VACTERL association, 98, 107108
Tachypnea, 35, 4748 Transient tachypnea of the newborn Vagal maneuvers, for arrhythmias,
resolution within 48 hours, 35, 47 (TTN), 47 59, 66
retained fetal lung fluid and, 35, 47 Transposition of the great arteries Valproate use, during pregnancy, 18
supplemental oxygen for, 35, 47 (TGA), cyanosis in, 56, 64 Vancomycin, 245, 248
Talipes equinovarus, 82, 87 Transvaginal chorionic villus mechanism of action, 245, 248t
Tall stature syndromes, 97, 107 sampling, 4, 15 Varicella syndrome, and congenital
TAPVR. See Total anomalous pulmonary Treacher Collins syndrome, 100101, cataracts, 224
venous return 100f, 109110 Vascular lesions, 230, 233235
Task Force on SIDS and the AAP diagnosis of, 101, 110 VCUG. See Voiding cystourethrography
Committee on Fetus and Newborn, 261 features of, 110t Venous malformation, 234, 234t
TEF. See Tracheoesophageal fistula Tricuspid atresia, cyanosis in, 54, 56, Ventilator management, 2829, 4041
Temperature control, 240, 241242 61, 63 Ventricular septal defect, large, 3, 14
Testicle, retractile 200, 208, 208f Trigonocephaly, 68, 73 Ventricular tachycardia (VT), 59, 66
Testosterone testing, for congenital Triple-bubble sign, 173 Very low-birth-weight (VLBW) infant,
adrenal hyperplasia, 199, 205 Trisomy 13, 9596, 103104 12, 25
Tet spell, 57, 65 Trisomy 18, 18, 5253, 52f, 60, 9596, Visual impairment, and toxoplasmosis,
Tetracycline, mechanism of action, 248t 103104 117, 128129
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), cyanosis in, Trisomy 21, 2, 13, 5253, 52f, 60, Vitamin A deficiency, and congenital
54, 56, 61, 63 9596, 103104, 105, 178 cataracts, 224
TGA. See Transposition of the great and congenital cataracts, 221, 224, 225 Vitamin D deficiency, and congenital
arteries Trisomy syndromes, 9596, 103105 cataracts, 224
Thanatophoric dysplasia, 86, 9091, True hermaphroditism, 205 Vitamin deficiencies, 136137, 144145
9192 Truncus arteriosus, cyanosis in, 56, 64 Vitamin K administration, for
Thoracentesis, for pulmonary air leaks, TSH. See Thyroid-stimulating hormone hemorrhagic disease of the newborn,
32, 45 TTN. See Transient tachypnea of the 184, 194, 220
Threshold, retinopathy of prematurity, newborn Vitamin K deficiency, 137, 145, 184,
223, 227t Turner syndrome, 5253, 53f, 60, 194, 195t
Thrombocytopenia, 7, 18, 9697, 105106 VLBW infant. See Very low-birth-weight
182183, 192 clinical findings of, 105106 infant
Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG), Wheezing episodes, recurrent, and cystic Wormian bones, 85, 90
for posterior urethral valves, lung disease, 36, 48 Wright stain of pustule, 232, 236
154, 161 Withdrawal symptoms, neonatal
VT. See Ventricular tachycardia methadone for, 9, 20 X
methamphetamine use and, 9, 20 X-linked dominant inheritance, 94, 103t
W morphine sulfate for, 9, 20 X-linked recessive inheritance, 94, 103t
WAGR syndrome, and congenital phenobarbital for, 9, 20
cataracts, 221, 224, 225 Withholding vs. withdrawing Z
Warfarin exposure, during first trimester, medical treatment, benefits Zero-order kinetics, 247t
8, 19 of, 255t Zinc deficiency, 136, 143