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JEE MAIN 2016 PAPER

(HELD ON 3rd APRIL, 2016)


This Paper “JEE Main 2016 Paper” is taken from our:

ISBN : 9789386146373
JEE Main - 2016
(Held on 3rd April, 2016)

Time : 3 Hours • Each correct answer has + 4 marks • Each wrong answer has – 1 mark. Max. Marks : 360

(1) OR (2) NAND


Section - 1 (3) NOT (4) AND
5. A particle of mass m is moving along the side of a square of
side 'a', with a uniform speed v in the x-y plane as shown in
the figure :
1. A particle performs simple harmonic mition with amplitude y
A. Its speed is trebled at the instant that it is at a distance
D a C
2A V
from equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the a V
3 V a
A V
motion is : B
a
7A V
(1) A 3 (2) 45° R
3 a
O
Which of the following statements is false for the angular
A ur
(3) 41 (4) 3A momentum L about the origin?
3
ur éR ù$
2. For a common emitter configuration, if a and b have their (1) L = mv êê + a úú k when the particle is moving from B
usual meanings, the incorrect relationship between a and ë 2 û
b is : to C.
ur mv
b b2 (2) L = Rk$ when the particle is moving from D to A.
(1) a= (2) a= 2
1 +b 1 +b2 ur mv $
(3) L = – Rk when the particle is moving from A to B.
1 1 b 2
(3) = +1 (4) a= 1 -b
a b ur éR ù
(4) L = mv êê - a ú k$ when the particle is moving from C
3. A student measures the time period of 100 oscillations of a ë 2 úû
simple pendulum four times. The data set is 90 s, 91 s, 95 s, to D.
and 92 s. If the minimum division in the measuring clock is 1 6. Choose the correct statement :
s, then the reported mean time should be: (1) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high
(1) 92 ± 1.8 s (2) 92 ± 3s frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the amplitude of the audio signal.
(3) 92 ± 2 s (4) 92 ± 5.0 s (2) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high
4. If a, b, c, d are inputs to a gate and x is its output, then, as per frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the following time graph, the gate is : the frequency of the audio signal.
(3) In amplitude modulation the amplitude of the high
d frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the amplitude of the audio signal.
(4) In amplitude modulation the frequency of the high
c frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the amplitude of the audio signal.
b 7. Radiation of wavelength l, is incident on a photocell. The
fastest emitted electron has speed v. If the wavelength is
a 3l
changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron
4
x will be:
2016-2 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper
1 1 9P0 V0 9P0 V0
æ 4 ö2 æ 3 ö2 (1) (2)
(1) = v çç ÷÷ (2) = v çç ÷÷ 2nR nR
è3 ø è4 ø
1 1 9P0 V0 3P0 V0
æ 4 ö2 æ 4 ö2 (3) (4)
(3) > v çç ÷÷ (4) < v çç ÷÷ 4nR 2nR
è3ø è3ø 13. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of
8. Two identical wires A and B, each of length 'l', carry the 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times. Assume that the
same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle of radius R and potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is
wire B is bent to form a square of side 'a'. If BA and BB are dissipated. How much fat will he use up considering the
the values of magnetic field at the centres of the circle and work done only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies
BA 3.8 × 107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical
square respectively, then the ratio B is: energy with a 20% efficiency rate. Take g = 9.8 ms–2 :
B
(1) 9.89 × 10–3 kg (2) 12.89 × 10–3 kg
p2 p2 (3) 2.45 × 10 kg–3 (4) 6.45 × 10–3 kg
(1) (2)
16 8 2 14. A point particle of mass m, moves long the uniformly rough
track PQR as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction,
p 2 p2
(3) (4) between the particle and the rough track equals m. The
8 16 2 particle is released, from rest from the point P and it comes to
9. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in rest at a point R. The energies, lost by the ball, over the
air. The pipe is dipped vertically in water so that half of it is parts, PQ and QR, of the track, are equal to each other, and
in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is
now : no energy is lost when particle changes direction from PQ to
(1) 2f (2) f QR.
The value of the coefficient of friction m and the distance x
f 3f
(3) (4) (= QR), are, respectively close to :
2 4
10. The region between two concentric spheres of radii 'a' and P
'b', respectively (see figure), have volume charge density
A h=2m
r= , where A is a constant and r is the distance from the
r 30°
centre. At the centre of the spheres is a point charge Q. The R
value of A such that the electric field in the region between Horizontal Q
the spheres will be constant, is :
Surface
(1) 0.29 and 3.5 m (2) 0.29 and 6.5 m
(3) 0.2 and 6.5 m (4) 0.2 and 3.5 m
a 15. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and
Q undoped Si in the temperature range 300-400 K, is best
b described by :
(1) Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease of Si.
(2) Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si.
2Q 2Q (3) Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si.
(1) p a 2 - b 2 (2)
( ) pa 2
16.
(4) Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si.
Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per
Q Q quantum in the order of increasing energy :
(3) (4) 2p b2 - a 2
11.
2pa 2 (
An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to
) A : Blue light
C : X-ray
B : Yellow light
D : Radiowave.
function. If it is connected to a 220 V (rms), 50 Hz AC supply, (1) C, A, B, D (2) B, A, D, C
the series inductor needed for it to work is close to : (3) D, B, A, C (4) A, B, D, C
(1) 0.044 H (2) 0.065 H 17. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 W gives a
(3) 80 H (4) 0.08 H full scale deflection, when a currect of 1 mA is passed through
12. 'n' moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A ® B as it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this
shown in the figure. The maximum temperature of the gas galvanometer into ammeter giving a full scale deflection for
during the process will be : a current of 10 A, is :
P (1) 0.1 W (2) 3W
(3) 0.01W (4) 2W
A 18. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes
2P0
and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples have equal
P0 B number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
number of A and B nuclei will be :
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 5 : 4
V0 2V0 V (3) 1 : 16 (4) 4 : 1
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-3

19. Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics 22. A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale
are given below, in the order (a), (b), (c), (d) : with 50 divisions is used to measure the thickness of a thin
sheet of Aluminium. Before starting the measurement, it is
I I found that wen the two jaws of the screw gauge are brought
in contact, the 45th division coincides with the main scale
line and the zero of the main scale is barely visible. What is
V V the thickness of the sheet if the main scale reading is 0.5 mm
and the 25th division coincides with the main scale line?
(1) 0.70 mm (2) 0.50 mm
(3) 0.75 mm (4) 0.80 mm
(a) (b) 23. A roller is made by joining together two cones at their
vertices O. It is kept on two rails AB and CD, which are
placed asymmetrically (see figure), with its axis perpendicular
I dark Resistance to CD and its centre O at the centre of line joining AB and Cd
(see figure). It is given a light push so that it starts rolling
with its centre O moving parallel to CD in the direction shown.
V As it moves, the roller will tend to :
Intensity
B D
Illuminated of light

(c) (d)

(1) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode,


simple diode O
(2) Zener diode, Solar cell, simple diode, Light dependent
resistance
(3) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent C
resistance A
(4) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance,
(1) go straight.
Solar cell
(2) turn left and right alternately.
20. A combination of capacitors is set up as shown in the figure.
(3) turn left.
The magnitude of the electric field, due to a point charge Q
(4) turn right.
(having a charge equal to the sum of the charges on the 4
24. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and B are
mF and 9 mF capacitors), at a point distance 30 m from it, given below :
would equal :
D B
3mF
4mF
9mF
H H

2mF
(A) (B)
+ –
These materials are used to make magnets for elecric
8V generators, transformer core and electromagnet core. Then
it is proper to use :
(1) 420 N/C (2) 480 N/C (1) A for transformers and B for electric generators.
(3) 240 N/C (4) 360 N/C (2) B for electromagnets and transformers.
21. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height 'h' from (3) A for electric generators and trasformers.
the earth's surface (radius of earth R; h < < R). The minimum (4) A for electromagnets and B for electric generators.
increase in its orbital velocity required, so that the satellite 25. The box of a pin hole camera, of length L, has a hole of
could escape from the earth's gravitational field, is close to : radius a. It is assumed that when the hole is illuminated by a
(Neglect the effect of atmosphere.) parallel beam of light of wavelength l the spread of the
spot (obtained on the opposite wall of the camera) is the
(1) gR / 2 (2) gR ( )
2 -1
sum of its geometrical spread and the spread due to
(3) 2gR (4) gR diffraction. The spot would then have its minimum size (say
bmin) when :
2016-4 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper

(1) a = lL and bmin = 4lL Section - 2

l2
(2) a= and bmin = 4lL
L
31. The area (in sq. units) of the region {(x, y) : y2 ³ 2x and
x2 + y2 £ 4x, x ³ 0, y ³ 0} is :
l2 æ 2l2 ö
(3) a= and bmin = ç
ç L ÷
÷
L è ø 4 2 p 2 2
(1) p- (2) -
3 2 3
æ 2l2 ö
a = ll and bmin = ç ÷ 4 8
(4) ç L ÷ (3) p- (4) p-
è ø 3 3
26. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid æ1 ö
support. A short wave pulse is introduced at its lowest end. 32. If f(x) + 2f ç
ç ÷÷ = 3x , x ¹ 0 and
èx ø
It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the
S = {x Î R : f(x) = f(–x)}; then S:
supports is :
(1) contains exactly two elements.
(take g = 10 ms–2) (2) contains more than two elements.
(1) 2 2s (2) 2s (3) is an empty set.
(4) contains exactly one element.
(3) 2p 2 s (4) 2 s
2x12 + 5x 9
27. An ideal gas undergoes a quasi static, reversible process in 33. The integral ò 3
dx is equal to :
x5 + x3 + 1
which its molar heat capacity C remains constant. If during
this process the relation of pressure P and volume V is given
( )
by PVn = constant, then n is given by (Here CP and CV are x5 - x10
molar specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume, (1) 2
+C (2) 2
+C
5 3 5 3
respectively) : (
2 x + x +1
) (
2 x + x +1
)
CP - C C - CV
(1) n= (2) n= -x5 x10
C - CV C - CP (3) 2
+C (4) 2
+C
x5 + x3 + 1 2 x5 + x3 +1
CP C – CP
( ) ( )
(3) n= (4) n= where C is an arbitrary constant.
CV C – CV
34. For x Î R, f(x) = |log2 – sinx| and g(x) = f(f(x)), then :
28. An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a (1) g'(0) = – cos(log2)
telescope of magnifying power of 20. To the observer the (2) g is differentiable at x = 0 and g'(0) = – sin(log2)
tree appears : (3) g is not differentiable at x = 0
(1) 20 times taller (2) 20 times nearer (4) g'(0) = cos(log2)
(3) 10 times taller (4) 10 times nearer 35. The centres of those circles which touch the circle,
29. In an experiment for determination of refractive index of glass x2 + y2 – 8x – 8y – 4 = 0, externally and also touch the x-axis,
of a prism by i – d, plot it was found thata ray incident at lie on:
angle 35°, suffers a deviation of 40° and that it emerges at (1) a hyperbola (2) a parabola
angle 79°. In that case which of the following is closest to (3) a circle (4) an ellipse which is not a circle
the maximum possible value of the refractive index? 36. The sum of all real values of x satisfying the equation
(1) 1.7 (2) 1.8 2
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.6 (x 2 - 5 x+ 5) x + 4x - 60
= 1 is :
30. A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day if the temperature is 40°C (1) 6 (2) 5
and gains 4 s a day if the temperature is 20° C. The (3) 3 (4) – 4
temperature at which the clock will show correct time, and nd th th
37. If the 2 , 5 and 9 terms of a non-constant A.P. are in
the co-efficient of linear expansion (a) of the metal of the G.P., then the common ratio of this G.P. is :
pendulum shaft are respectively :
7
(1) 30°C; a = 1.85 × 10–3/°C (1) 1 (2)
4
(2) 55°C; a = 1.85 × 10–2/°C
(3) 25°C; a = 1.85 × 10–5/°C 8 4
(3) (4)
(4) 60°C; a = 1.85 × 10–4/°C 5 3
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-5

38. The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose length of the latus


2 + 3i sinq
rectum is equal to 8 and the length of its conjugate axis is 45. A value ofqfor which is purely imaginary, is:
equal to half of the distance between its foci, is : 1 - 2i sinq

2 æ 3ö æ 1 ö
(1) (2) 3 (1) sin -1 ç ÷ (2) sin -1 çç ÷÷
3 ç 4 ÷
è ø è 3ø
4 4
(3) (4) p p
3 3 (3) (4)
3 6
æ 2 4 ön 46. If the sum of the first ten terms of the series
39. If the number of terms in the expansion of çç1 - + 2 ÷÷ ,
è x x ø æ 3 ö2 æ 2 ö2 æ 1 ö2 2 æ 4 ö2 16
x ¹ 0, is 28, then the sum of the coefficients of all the terms çç1 ÷÷ + çç2 ÷÷ + çç3 ÷÷ + 4 + çç4 ÷÷ + ......., is m,
è 5ø è 5ø è 5ø è 5ø 5
in this expansion, is :
(1) 243 (2) 729 then m is equal to :
(3) 64 (4) 2187 (1) 100 (2) 99
40. The Boolean Expression (p Ù : q) Ú qÚ (: p Ù q) is (3) 102 (4) 101
47. The system of linear equations
equivalent to:
x + ly – z = 0
(1) p Ú q (2) p Ú : q
lx – y – z = 0
(3) : p Ù q (4) p Ù q x + y – lz = 0
41. Consider has a non-trivial solution for:
æ 1 + sin x ö æ ö (1) exactly two values of l.
f (x) = tan -1 ç ÷, x Î ç0,p÷.
ç 1 - sin x ÷ ç
è 2ø
÷ (2) exactly three values of l.
è ø
(3) infinitely many values of l.
p (4) exactly one value of l.
A normal to y = f(x) at x = also passes through the point :
6 x -3 y+2 z+4
48. If the line, = = lies in the plane, lx + my – z = 9,
æp ö æp ö 2 -1 3
(1) çç , 0 ÷÷ (2) ç , 0÷
ç ÷
è6 ø è4 ø then l2 + m2 is equal to :
(1) 5 (2) 2
æ 2pö
(3) (0, 0) (4) çç0, ÷÷ (3) 26 (4) 18
è 3 ø 49. If all the words (with or without meaning) having five letters,
1 formed using the letters of the word SMALL and arranged
æ(n + 1) (n + 2)...3n ön as in a dictionary; then the position of the word SMALL is :
42. lim ç ÷ is equal to: (1) 52nd (2) 58th
n ®¥ ç
è n 2n
÷
ø th
(3) 46 (4) 59th
9 50. If the standard deviation of the numbers 2, 3, a and 11 is 3.5,
(1) (2) 3 log 3 – 2 then which of the following is true?
e2
(1) 3a2 – 34a + 91 = 0
18 27 (2) 3a2 – 23a + 44 = 0
(3) 4 (4) (3) 3a2 – 26a + 55 = 0
e e2
43. If one of the diameters of the circle, given by the equation, (4) 3a2 – 32a + 84 = 0
x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y – 12 = 0, is a chord of a circle S, whose centre 51. A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent
is at (–3, 2), then the radius of S is: respectively to form a square of side = x units and a circle of
(1) 5 (2) 10 radius = r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the
(3) 5 2 (4) 5 3 circle so formed is minimum, then:
(1) x = 2r (2) 2x = r
44. Let two fair six-faced dice A and B be thrown simultaneously.
If E1 is the event that die A shows up four, E2 is the event (3) 2x = (p + 4)r (4) (4 – p) x = pr
that die B shows up two and E3 is the event that the sum of 1
2
numbers on both dice is odd, then which of the following
statements is NOT true ?
52. (
Let p = lim+ 1 + tan x
x®0
) 2x then log p is equal to :
(1) E1 and E3 are independent.
(2) E1, E2 and E3 are independent. 1 1
(1) (2)
(3) E1 and E2 are independent. 2 4
(4) E2 and E3 are independent. (3) 2 (4) 1
2016-6 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper
53. y2
Let P be the point on the parabola, = 8x which is at a 59. Two sides of a rhombus are along the lines, x – y + 1 = 0 and
minimum distance from the centre C of the circle, 7x – y – 5 = 0. If its diagonals intersect at (–1, –2), then which
x2 + (y + 6)2 = 1. Then the equation of the circle, passing one of the following is a vertex of this rhombus?
through C and having its centre at P is: æ1 8 ö æ 10 7 ö
x
(1) ç ,- ÷
ç ÷ (2) çç- , - ÷÷
x 2 + y2 - + 2y - 24 = 0
è3 3 ø è 3 3ø
(1)
4 (3) (–3, –9) (4) (–3, –8)
(2) x2 + y2 – 4x + 9y + 18 = 0 60. If 0 £ x < 2p, then the number of real values of x, which
(3) x2 + y2 – 4x + 8y + 12 = 0 satisfy the equation
(4) x2 + y2 – x + 4y – 12 = 0 cos x + cos 2x + cos 3x + cos 4x = 0 is:
54. If a curve y = f(x) passes through the point (1, –1) and satisfies (1) 7 (2) 9
æ 1ö (3) 3 (4) 5
the differential equation, y(1 + xy) dx = x dy, then f ç
ç- ÷
÷ is
è 2ø Section - 3
equal to :
2 4
(1) (2)
5 5 61. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an ideal
2 4 gas initially at pressure pi and temperature T1 are connected
(3) - (4) - through a narrow tube of negligible volume as shown in the
5 5
figure below. The temperature of one of the bulbs is then
® ® ® raised to T2. The final pressure pf is :
55. Let a , b and c be three unit vectors such that
T1 T1 T1 T2
® æ® ® ö æ® ® ö ®
÷ = 3 ç b + c ÷. If b is not parallel to c , then
®
a ´ç b ´ c pf,V pf,V
ç ÷ 2 ç ÷
è ø è ø
® ®
the angle between a and b is: æ T ö æ T 1T2 ö
(1) 2 pi ç 2 ÷ (2) 2 pi ç T + T ÷
è T1 + T2 ø è 1 2ø
2p 5p
(1) (2)
3 6 æ T T ö æ T1 ö
(3) pi ç 1 2 ÷ (4) 2 pi ç T + T ÷
3p p T + T
è 1 2ø è 1 2ø
(3) (4)
4 2 62. Which one of the following statements about water is FALSE ?
(1) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding
é5a - b ù
56. If A = ê ú and A adj A = A AT, then 5a + b is equal in the condensed phase.
ë 3 2 úû
ê (2) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water.
to : (3) Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynthesis.
(1) 4 (2) 13 (4) Water can act both as an acid and as a base.
63. In the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number
(3) –1 (4) 5
57. A man is walking towards a vertical pillar in a straight path, of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole of amine produced
at a uniform speed. At a certain point A on the path, he are :
observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is (1) Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br 2.
30°. After walking for 10 minutes from A in the same direction, (2) Four moles of NaOH and one mole of Br 2.
at a point B, he observes that the angle of elevation of the (3) One mole of NaOH and one mole of Br 2.
top of the pillar is 60°. Then the time taken (in minutes) by (4) Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br 2.
him, from B to reach the pillar, is: 64. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization
(1) 20 (2) 5 energy?
(3) 6 (4) 10 (1) K (2) Sc
58. The distance of the point (1, –5, 9) from the plane x – y + z = 5 (3) Rb (4) Na
measured along the line x = y = z is : 65. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron in a water
sample from an underground lake was found to be 1000 ppb,
10 20
(1) (2) 40 ppb, 100 ppm and 0.2 ppm, respectively. This water is
3 3 unsuitable for drinking due to high concentration of :
(3) (4) 10 3 (1) Nitrate (2) Iron
3 10
(3) Fluoride (4) Lead
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-7

66. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide 75. Which of the following statements about low density
are –393.5 and –283.5 kJ mol–1, respectively. The heat of polythene is FALSE?
formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is : (1) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide initiator
(1) –676.5 (2) – 110.5 as a catalyst.
(3) 110.5 (4) 676.5 (2) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dust-bins etc.
(3) Its synthesis requires high pressure.
67. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A +B ƒ (4) It is a poor conductor of electricity.
C+D is 100. If the initial concentration of all the four species 76. Which of the following compounds is metallic and
were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol ferromagnetic?
L–1) will be : (1) VO2 (2) MnO2
(1) 1.818 (2) 1.182 (3) TiO2 (4) CrO2
(3) 0.182 (4) 0.818 77. The product of the reaction given below is:
68. The absolute configuration of
1. NBS/hv
CO2H 2. H 2O/K 2CO3
X

H OH
H Cl
O CO2H
CH3

is : (1) (2)
(1) (2S, 3S) (2) (2R, 3R)
(3) (2R, 3S) (4) (2S, 3R)
69. For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in a Freundlich OH
adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is
correct? (k and n are constants) (3) (4)
(1) Only 1 n appears as the slope.
78. The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in the figure
(2) log (1 n ) appears as the intercept. below is :
region 4
(3) Both k and 1 n appear in the slope term.
(4) 1 n appears as the intercept. region 3
70. The distillation technique most suited for separating glycerol region 2
from spent-lye in the soap industry is :
(1) Steam distillation. region 1
(2) Distillation under reduced pressure.
(3) Simple distillation
(4) Fractional distillation
71. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide. (1) region 3 (2) region 4
(2) Glyceryl oleate. (3) region 1 (4) region 2
(3) Sodium stearate. 79. At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate. 375 mL air containing 20% O2 by volume for complete
72. The species in which the N atom is in a state of sp combustion. After combustion the gases occupy 330 mL.
hybridization is : Assuming that the water formed is in liquid form and the
volumes were measured at the same temperature and
(1) NO-3 (2) NO2
pressure, the formula of the hydrocarbon is:
(3) NO+2 (4) NO-2 (1) C4H8 (2) C4H10
73. Thiol group is present in : (3) C3H6 (4) C3H8
80. The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a formal
(1) Cysteine (2) Methionine
oxidation state of + 3 is :
(3) Cytosine (4) Cystine
(1) Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
74. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by
(2) Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids
froth floatation method?
(3) Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids
(1) Galena (2) Malachite (4) Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
(3) Magnetite (4) Siderite
2016-8 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper
81. The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl 2 + H2O) proceeds 86. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid,
through the intermediate: respectively, produces:
(1) NO and N2O (2) NO2 and N2O
(1) CH 3 – CH ( OH ) - CH 2+ (3) N2O and NO2 (4) NO2 and NO
87. Decomposition of H2O2 follows a first order reaction. In
(2) CH3 – CHCl - CH 2+
fifty minutes the concentration of H2O2 decreases from 0.5
to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the
(3) CH3 – CH + - CH 2 – OH
concentration of H2O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation
(4) CH3 – CH + - CH 2 – Cl of O2 will be:
(1) 2.66 L min–1 at STP
82. 2-chloro-2-methylpentane on reaction with sodium methoxide
(2) 1.34 × 10–2 mol min–1
in methanol yields:
(3) 6.96 × 10–2 mol min–1
CH3 (4) 6.93 × 10–4 mol min–1
88. The pair having the same magnetic moment is:
(i) C2H5CH2C OCH3 (ii) C2H5CH2C = CH2
[At. No.: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27]
CH3 CH3 (1) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]2+
(2) [CoCl4]2– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(iii) C2H 5CH = C – CH3 (3) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2–
(4) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
CH 3
89. Galvanization is applying a coating of:
(1) (iii) only (2) (i) and (ii) (1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) All of these (4) (i) and (iii) (3) Pb (4) Cr
83. Which one of the following complexes shows optical 90. A stream of electrons from a heated filaments was passed
isomerism? two charged plates kept at a potential difference V esu. If e
(1) trans [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl and m are charge and mass of an electron, respectively, then
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (4) cis[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl the value of h/l (where l is wavelength associated with
(en = ethylenediamine) electron wave) is given by:
84. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in (1) (2)
meV 2meV
excess of air are, respectively:
(3) meV (4) 2meV
(1) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2 (2) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2
(3) Li2O, Na2O and KO2 (4) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O
85. 18 g glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g water. The vapour
pressure of water (in torr) for this aqueous solution is:
(1) 752.4 (2) 759.0
(3) 7.6 (4) 76.0
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-9

Hints and Solutions


SECTION-1 : PHYSICS In none of the cases, the perpendicular

æ R ö
1. (2) We know that V = w
A2 - x 2 distance r^ is çè - a÷
2 ø
2
w A2 æ 2A ö 6. (3) In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the high
Initially V= -ç ÷
è 3 ø frequency carrier wave made to vary in proportional to
the amplitude of audio signal.
2
w A' 2 æ 2A ö
Finally 3v = -ç ÷
è 3 ø Audio signal
2A
Where A'= final amplitude (Given at x = , velocity Carrier wave
3
to trebled)
2 Amplitude modulated wave
æ 2A ö
A' 2 - ç ÷
3 è 3 ø
On dividing we get =
1 æ 2A ö
2
A2 - ç ÷ 1
mv2
è 3 ø 7. (3) hn02 – hn0 =
2
é 2 4A 2 ù 4A 2 7A 4 1
9 ê A - 9 ú = A'2 – \ A' = \ hn 0 - hn 0 = mv ' 2
êë úû 9 3 3 2
Ic Ic
2. (2, 4)We know that a = and b = 4 4
Ie Ib n - n0 n - n0
v '2
3
Also Ie = Ib + Ic \ = \ v' = v 3
v2 n - n0 n - n0
Ic
Ic I b
\ a= = b = 4
I b + Ic Ic 1 + b \ v' > v
1+ 3
Ib
Option (2) and (4) are therefore correct.
| DT1 | + | DT2 | + | DT3 | + | DT4 | 8. (2) Case (a) :
3. (3) DT =
4
2 +1+ 3 + 0
= = 1.5 µ0 I µ I
4 bA = ´ 2p = 0 ´ 2p (2pR = l)
As the resolution of measuring clock is 1.5 therefore 4p R 4p l / 2p
the mean time should be 92 ± 1.5
4. (1) In case of an 'OR' gate the input is zero when all inputs µ0 I
= ´ (2p)2
are zero. If any one input is ' 1', then the output is '1'. 4p l
5. (1) We know that L = mvr^ Case (b) :
y
D V C 45°
a a a BB
V
a a V a/2
a
A V B
R/ 2
µ0 I
BB = 4 × [sin 45° + sin 45°]
4p a / 2
O a X
µ0 I 2 µ I
R = 4´ ´ ´ = 0 ´ 32 2 [4a = l]
4p l / 8 2 4p l
2
2016-10 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper

f - P0
9. (2) P = V V + 3P
0

l l -P0
[slope = , c = 3P0]
V0
(a) (b) PV0 + P0V = 3P0V0 ...(i)
But pv = nRT
v nRT
The fundamental frequency in case (a) is f =
2l \p= ...(ii)
v
The fundamental frequency in case (b) is
nRT
v u From (i) & (ii) V0 + P0V = 3P0V0
f ' = 4(l / 2) = 2l = f v
\ nRT V0 + P0V2 = 3P0V0 ...(iii)
10. (3) Applying Gauss's law
dT
uur uur Q For temperature to be maximum =0
Ñò S E. ds = Î0 dv
Differentiating e.q. (iii) by 'v' we get

Q + 2par 2 - 2pAa 2 dT
\ E × 4pr2 = nRV0 + P0(2v) = 3P0V0
Î0 dv
dr r dr dT
r= \ nRV0 = 3P0V0 – 2 P0V
dv Q a Gaussiam dv
Q = r4pr2 surface
b dT 3P0 V0 - 2P0 V
.
A = =0
dv nRV0
ò r 4pr
2
Q= dr =2pA [r2 – a2]
a 3V0 3P0
V= \ p= [From (i)]
1 é Q - 2pAa 2 ù 2 2
E= ê + 2pA ú
4p Î0 êë r 2
úû 9Po Vo
\ Tmax = [From (iii)]
For E to be independent of 'r' 4nR
Q – 2pAa2 = 0 W mgh ´ 1000 10 ´ 9.8 ´ 1 ´ 1000
13. (2) n = = =
Q input input input
\ A=
2pa 2 98000
11. (2) Here Input = = 49 × 104J
0.2
e e e
i= = = 49 ´ 10 4
R 2
+ X 2L 2
R +w L 2 2 2 2 2 2
R + 4p v L Fat used = = 12.89 × 10–3kg.
3.8 ´ 107
220 V 80 14. (1) Loss in P.E. = Work done against friction from p ® Q
10 = [Q R = = = 8] + work done against friction from Q ® R
64 + 4p (50) L 2 2 I 10
mgh = m(mgcosq) PQ + mmg (QR)
On solving we get h = m cos q × PQ + m(QR)
L = 0.065 H
12. (3) The equation for the line is 3 2
2= m× × + mx
2 sin 30°
P
2 = 2 3 m + mx --- (i)
3Po
2
c [sin 30° = ]
PQ
2Po q
Also work done P ® Q = work done Q ® R
Po
q \ 2 3 m = mx
Po
Vo
\ x » 3.5m
V
Vo 2Vo
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-11

From (i) 2 = 2 3 m + 2 3 m = 4 3 m 4
The voltage across CP is VP = ×8 = 2v
2 1 4 + 12
m= = = 0.29 \ Voltage across 9mF is also 2V
4 3 2 ´ 1.732
\ Charge on 9mF capacitor = 9 × 2 = 18mC
r P \ Total charge on 4 mF and 9mF = 42mc
15. (1)
KQ 42 ´ 10-6
\E = = 9 × 109 × = 420 Nc–1
r2 30 ´ 30
T T
Semiconductor 21. (2) For h << R, the orbital velocity is gR
Metal (for limited –Eg
range of temperature) KT
Escape velocity =
B

2gR
E, Decreases \ The minimum increase in its orbital velocity
16. (3)
g-rays X-rays uv-rays Visible rays IR rays Radio = 2gR – gR = gR ( 2 – 1)
VIBGYOR Microwaves waves
Radio wave < yellow light < blue light < X-rays 0.5
(Increasing order of energy) 22. (4) L.C. = = 0.01 mm
50
17. (3) Ig G = ( I – Ig)s
Zero error = 5 × 0.01 = 0.05 mm (Negative)
\ 10–3 × 100 = (10 – 10–3) × S
\ S » 0.01 W Reading = (0.5 + 25 × 0.01) + 0.05 = 0.80 mm
18. (2) For At½ = 20 min, t = 80 min, number of half lifes n = 4
23. (3) As shown in the diagram, the normal reaction of AB on
No
\ Nuclei remaining = . Therefore nuclei decayed roller will shift towards O.
24 This will lead to tending of the system of cones to turn
No left.
= N0 - B D
24
For Bt½ = 40 min., t = 80 min, number of half lifes n = 2
No
\ Nuclei remaining = . Therefore nuclei decayed
22 O
No
= N0 -
22
A C
No 1 24. (2) Graph [A] is for material used for making permanent
No - 4 1-
2 16 15 4 5 magnets (high coercivity)
\Required ratio = No = 1 = ´ = Graph [B] is for making electromagnets and
No - 2 1- 16 3 4
2 4 transformers.
19. (3) Graph (a) is for a simple diode. 25. (1) Given geometrical spread = a
Graph (b) is showing the V Break down used for zener l lL
diode. Diffraction spread = ´L=
Graph (c) is for solar cell which shows cut-off voltage a a
and open circuit current. lL
Graph (d) shows the variation of resistance h and hence The sum b = a +
a
current with intensity of light.
db d æ lL ö
3µF C1 = 4µF 12µF = CP For b to be minimum =0 ça + ÷=0
20. (1) 4µF da da è a ø

9µF a = lL
Þ
2µF b min =
lL + lL = 2 lL = 4lL
8v 26. (1) We know that velocity in string is given by
8v
T
é æ 12 ö ù v= ...(I)
Charge on C1 is q1 = ê ç
è ÷ø ´ 8 ú ´ 4 = 24mc m
ë 4 + 12 û
2016-12 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper

m mass of string 1
where m = = 4 = a (q – 20) ´ 86400 ....(ii)
l length of string 2
40 – q
The tension T =
m
´ x´g On dividing we get, 3 =
..(II) q – 20
l
3q – 60 = 40 – q
4q = 100 Þ q = 25°C
From (1) and (2)
l
dx SECTION-2 : MATHEMATICS
= gx T
dt A (2, 2)
x
l l
x -1/2 dx = g dt \ ò x -1/2dx - g ò dt
0 0 31. (4)
O B

l 20
2 l = g´t \ t = 2 =2 =2 2
g 10
(2, –2)
27. (4) For a polytropic process
Points of intersection of the two curves are (0, 0), (2, 2)
R R and (2, –2)
C = Cv + \ C - Cv =
1- n 1- n Area = Area (OAB) – area under parabola (0 to 2)
2
\ 1- n =
R
\ 1-
R
=n p ´ (2) 2
= - ò 2 x dx
C - Cv C - Cv 4
0

C - C v - R C - C v - Cp + C v 8
\ n= = =p-
C - Cv C - Cv 3

C - Cp æ1ö
= (Q C p - C v = R ) 32. (1) f (x) + 2f ç ÷ = 3x .......(1)
C - Cv èxø

28. (2) A telescope magnifies by making the object appearing 1 3


f ( ) + 2f (x) = .......(2)
closer. x x
29. (3) We know that i + e - A = d æ1ö 1
35° + 79° – A = 40° \ A = 74° Adding (1) and (2) Þ f (x) + f ç ÷ = x +
èxø x

æ A + dm ö æ 74 + d m ö æ1ö 3
sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ Substracting (1) from (2) Þ f (x) - f ç ÷ = - 3x
è 2 ø= è 2 ø èxø x
But m =
sinA / 2 74 On adding the above equations
sin
2
2
Þ f (x) = -x
5 æ d ö x
= sin ç 37° + m ÷
3 è 2 ø 2 -2 2
f (x) = f (- x) Þ -x= +xÞx =
x x x
5 5
m max can be . That is m max is less than = 1.67 x2 = 2 or x = 2, - 2 .
3 3
But dm will be less than 40° so 2x12 + 5x9
33. (4) ò (x 5 + x3 + 1)3 dx
5 5
m< sin 57° < sin 60° Þ m = 1.45 Dividing by x15 in numerator and denominator
3 3
2 5
1 + 6 dx
30. (3) Time lost/gained per day = µ Dq ´ 86400 second 3
2 ò æ x 1 x 1 ö3
1 ç1 + 2 + 5 ÷
12 = a (40 – q) ´ 86400 .... (i) è x x ø
2
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-13

1 1 2
+ 4x - 60
Substitute 1+ 2 + 5 = t 36. (3) (x 2 - 5x + 5) x =1
x x Case I
æ –2 5 ö x2 – 5x + 5 = 1 and x2 + 4x – 60 can be any real number
Þ ç – dx = dt
è x 3 x 6 ÷ø Þ x = 1, 4
Case II
æ2 5 ö x2 – 5x + 5 = –1 and x2 + 4x – 60 has to be an even
Þ ç ç 3+ 6÷ ÷ dx = - dt number
èx x ø
This gives, Þ x = 2, 3
where 3 is rejected because for x = 3, x2 + 4x – 60 is odd.
2 5 Case III
3
+ 6 dx
– dt
ò x 1 x 1 3 = ò t3 x2 – 5x + 5 can be any real number and x2 + 4x – 60 = 0
Þ x = –10, 6
æ ö
çè1 + 2 + 5 ÷ø Þ Sum of all values of x = –10 + 6 + 2 + 1 + 4 = 3
x x
37. (4) Let the GP be a, ar and ar 2 then a = A + d; ar = A + 4d;
1 ar2 = A + 8d
= +C
2t 2 ar 2 - ar (A + 8d)-(A + 4d)
Þ =
1 ar - a (A + 4d)-(A + d)
= +C
æ 1 1 ö2 4
2 çç1+ + ÷÷ r=
è x 2 x5 ø 3

x10 2b 2 1
= +C 38. (1) =8 and 2b = (2ae)
5 3 2 a 2
2( x + x +1)
34. (4) g (x) = f (f (x)) Þ 4b2 = a 2 e2 Þ 4a 2 (e 2 - 1) = a 2e 2
In the neighbourhood of x = 0,
f(x) = | log2 – sin x| = (log 2 – sin x) 2
\ g (x) = |log 2 – sin| log 2 – sin x || Þ 3e2 = 4 Þ e =
3
= (log 2 – sin(log 2 – sin x))
39. (2) Total number of terms = n+2C2 = 28
\ g (x) is differentiable
(n + 2) (n + 1) = 56
and g'(x) = – cos(log 2 – sin x) (– cos x)
x= 6
Þ g'(0) = cos (log 2) Sum of coefficients = (1 – 2 + 4)n = 36 = 729
40. (1) (pÙ : q) Ú q Ú (: p Ù q)
35 (2)
Þ {(p Ú q) Ù (: q Ú q)} Ú (: p Ù q)
C(4, 4)
Þ {(p Ú q) Ù T} Ú (: p Ù q)
6 Þ (p Ú q) Ú (: p Ù q)
k Þ {(p Ú q) Ú : p} Ù (p Ú q Ú q)
P(h, k) Þ TÙ (p Ú q)
Þ pÚq
k

X' X æ 1 + sin x ö
f ( x ) = tan –1 ç
è 1– sin x ÷ø
41. (4)
For the given circle,
centre : (4, 4)
æ 2ö
radius = 6 æ x xö æ xö
ç çè sin + cos ÷ø ÷ 1 + tan
2 2 ÷ ç 2÷
6+ k =
2
+ (k - 4) 2 = tan –1 ç –1
2 ÷ = tan ç
(h - 4) ç æ x xö x÷
ç çè sin – cos ÷ø ÷ ç 1 – tan ÷
(h – 4)2 = 20k + 20 è è 2ø
x 2 ø
\ locus of (h, k) is
(x – 4)2 = 20(y + 1),
æ æ p xö ö
which is a parabola. = tan –1 ç tan ç + ÷ ÷
è è 4 2ø ø
2016-14 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper

p x Centre of S : O (–3, 2) centre of given circle A(2, –3)


Þ y= + Þ OA = 5 2
4 2
Also AB = 5 ( Q AB = r of the given circle)
dy 1
Þ = Þ Using pythagoras theorem in DOAB
dx 2
r=5 3
–1
Slope of normal = = –2
1 1 1
æ dy ö
çè ÷ø 44. (2) P(E1) = ; P(E 2 ) = ; P(E 3 ) =
dx 6 6 2

æp p pö 1 1 1
P(E1Ç E 2 ) =, P(E 2 Ç E3 ) = , P(E1Ç E3 ) =
At çè , + ÷ø 36 12 12
6 4 12
And P(E1 Ç E2 Ç E 3) = 0 ¹ P (E1) . P(E2) . P(E3)
æp pö æ pö Þ E1, E2, E3 are not independent.
y – ç + ÷ = –2 ç x – ÷
è 4 12 ø è 6ø 45. (2) Rationalizing the given expression
4p 2p (2 + 3isin q)(1 + 2isin q)
y– = –2 x +
12 6 1 + 4sin 2 q
p p For the given expression to be purely imaginary, real
y– = –2 x + part of the above expression should be equal to zero.
3 3
2p 2 - 6 sin 2 q 1
y = –2 x + Þ =0 Þ sin 2 q =
2 3
3 1 + 4 sin q
æ 2p ö 1
This equation is satisfied only by the point ç 0, ÷ Þ sin q = ±
è 3ø
3
1
æ (n + 1)(n + 2)...3n ön æ 8 ö2 æ12 ö2 æ16 ö2 æ 20 ö2 æ 44 ö2
42. (4) y = lim çç ÷
÷ 46. (4) çç ÷÷ + çç ÷÷ + çç ÷÷ + çç ÷÷ ... + çç ÷÷
n ®¥ è 2n
n ø è5 ø è 5 ø è 5 ø è 5 ø è5ø
16 2 2 2
ln y = lim
1 æ 1 öæ 2 ö æ 2n ö
ln ç
ç1 + ÷ç
n ®¥ n è n ø è
÷ç1 + n ÷
÷.... ç
ç1 + ÷
ø è n ø
÷
S=
25 (
2 + 3 + 4 + ... + 112 )
1 é æ 1ö æ 2ö æ 2n öù 16 æ11(11 + 1)(22 + 1) ö
ln y = lim êln çç1 + ÷÷ + ln çç1 + ÷÷ + .... + ln çç1 + ÷
÷ú = ç
ç - 1÷
÷
n ®¥ n ë è
ê nø è nø è n ø úû 25 è 6 ø

1 2n æ r ö 16 16
= ´505 = ´101
= lim å ln çç1 + n ÷÷ø =ò02 ln(1+ x)dx
n ®¥ n r =1 è
25 5

Let 1 + x = t Þ dx = dt 16 16
Þ m = ´101
when x = 0, t = 1 5 5
x = 2, t = 3
Þ m = 101.
3
æ 33 ö æ 27 ö 47. (2) For trivial solution,
3
ln y =ò 1
ln t d t = [t ln t – t]1 = ln ç ÷
ç 2 ÷ = ln çç 2 ÷÷
èe ø èe ø 1 l -1
27 l - 1 -1 = 0
Þ y=
e 2 1 1 -l

( 1)(l- 1) = 0
Þ -ll+
43. (4) S
(–3, 2) Þl= 0, +1, –1
O
48. (2) Line lies in the plane Þ (3, –2, –4) lie in the plane
Þ 3l – 2m + 4 = 9 or 3l – 2m = 5 ..... (1)
5 2 Also, l, m,–1 are dr's of line perpendicular to plane and
5
B A 2, –1, 3 are dr's of line lying in the plane
(2, –3) Þ 2l – m – 3 = 0 or 2l – m = 3 .....(2)
Solving (1) and (2) we get l = 1 and m = –1
Þ l2 + m2 = 2.
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-15

49. (2) ALLMS 53. (3) Minimum distance Þ perpendicular distance


No. of words starting with Eqn of normal at p(2t2, 4t)
y = –tx + 4t + 2t3
4! It passes through C(0, –6)
A: A
_____ = 12
2! Þ t3 + 2t + 3 = 0 Þ t = – 1
L : L
_ _ _ _ _ 4! = 24
4!
M: M
_____ = 12
2!
3!
S : S
_A_____ =3
2!
: S_ L_ _ _ _ 3! = 6 2
P (2t , 4t)
SMALL ® 58 th word C

2 + 3 + a + 11 a Centre of new circle = P(2t2, 4t)


50. (4) x= = +4 = P(2, – 4)
4 4
Radius = PC
x i2
() = (2 – 0) 2 + (–4 + 6)2
2
s= ån-x
=2 2
2 \ Equation of circle is :
4 + 9 + a 2 +121 æ a ö
Þ3.5= ç + 4÷
-ç ÷ 2
4 è4 ø ( )
(x –2)2 + (y + 4) = 2 2
Þ x2 + y2 – 4x + 8y + 12 = 0
49 4(134 + a 2 ) - (a 2 + 256 + 32a)
Þ =
4 16 54. (2) y (1 + xy)dx = xdy
xdy - ydx
Þ 3a 2 - 32a + 84 = 0 = xdx
y2
51. (1) 4x + 2pr = 2 Þ 2x + pr = 1 æx ö
Þò- d çç ÷÷ =òxdx
S = x2 + pr2 èyø
x x2
2 - = + C as y(1) = –1 Þ C = 1
æ 1 - pr ö 2 y 2 2
S =ç ÷ + pr -2x æ -1 ö 4
è 2 ø Hence, y = Þ f ç
ç ÷ ÷ =
x2 + 1 è2ø 5
r r r 3 r r
dS æ 1 - pr öæ -p ö 55. (2) a ´ (b ´ c) = (b + c)
= 2ç ÷ç ÷ + 2pr 2
dr è 2 øè 2 ø r r r r r r 3r 3r
Þ (a × c)b - (a × b)c = b+ c
-p p2 r 1 2 2
Þ + + 2pr = 0 Þr=
2 2 p+ 4 On comparing both sides
r r 3 3
2 a ×b = - Þ cosq= -
Þx= Þ x = 2r 2 2
p+ 4 r r
[Q a and b are unit vectors]
1
52. (1) ln P = lim+ ln (1 + tan 2 x ) r r
x ®0 2x where q is the angle between a and b
5p
1 q=
lim
x ®0 + x (
ln sec x ) 6
56. (4) A(adj A) = A AT
Applying L hospital's rule :

sec x tan x Þ A–1A (adj A) = A–1A AT


= lim
x ® 0+ sec x × 2 x adj A = AT
é 2 b ù é5a 3 ù
tan x 1 Þê ú=ê ú
= lim = êë-3 5a úû êë- b 2 úû
x ® 0+ 2 x 2
2016-16 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper
2
Þa= and b = 3 59. (1) D x – y +1= 0
5 C

0
Þ 5a + b = 5

5=0
+m=
h
57. (2) tan 30° = O (–1,–2)


x+a

7x – y

7x – y
1 h
Þ = Þ 3h = x + a ...(1)
3 x +a
h h
tan 60° = Þ 3 = A x–y +l=0 B
a a
Let other two sides of rhombus are
Þ h = 3a ...(2) x – y+ l=0
and 7x –y + m = 0
then O is equidistant from AB and DC and from AD and BC
\ -1 + 2 + 1 = -1 + 2 +l Þl= – 3
h
and -7 + 2 - 5 = -7 + 2 +m Þm= 15
30° 60°
A \ Other two sides are x – y – 3 = 0 and 7x – y + 15 = 0
x B a On solving the eqns of sides pairwise, we get
From (1) and (2) æ 1 -8 ö æ -7 -4 ö
ç , ÷÷ , (1, 2), çç , ÷÷ , (-3, -6)
the vertices as ç
è3 3 ø è3 3ø
3a = x + a Þ x = 2a 60. (1) cos x + cos 2x + cos 3x + cos 4x = 0
Þ 2 cos 2x cos x + 2 cos 3x cos x = 0
Here, the speed is uniform
æ 5x xö
Þ 2cos x ç
ç2 cos cos ÷
÷= 0
So, time taken to cover x = 2 (time taken to cover a) è 2 2ø
10 5x x
\ Time taken to cover a = minutes = 5 minutes cos x = 0, cos = 0 , cos = 0
2 2 2
58. (4) p 3p p 3p 7p 9p
x =p, , , , , ,
2 2 5 5 5 5
P(1, –5, 9)
SECTION-3 : CHEMISTRY
x=y=z
61. (1) For a given mass of an ideal gas, the volume and amount
(moles) of the gas are directly proportional if the
temperature and pressure are constant. i.e
Vµn
Hence in the given case.
Q Initial moles and final moles are equal (nT)i = (n T)f

O Pi V Pi V Pf V Pf V
+ = +
RT1 RT1 RT1 RT2
Pi Pf Pf
x -1 y + 5 z - 9 2 = +
eqn of PO : = = =l T1 T1 T2
1 1 1
2 Pi T2
Þ x =l+ 1; y =l- 5;z =l+ 9. Pf =
T1 + T2
Putting these in eqn of plane :-
62. (1) There is extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding
l+ 1 -l+ 5 +l+ 9 = 5 in the condensed phase instead of intramolecular
Þl= -10 H-bonding.
Þ O is (–9, –15, –1) 63. (2) 4 moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2 is required during
production of one mole of amine during Hoffmann's
Þ distance OP = 10 3 bromamide degradation reaction.
O
||
R–C–NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH ® R–NH2 + K2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-17

64. (2) Alkali metals have the lowest ionization energy in each Thus if a graph is plotted between log(x/m) and log P, a
period on the other hand Sc is a d - block element. straight line will be obtained
Transition metals have smaller atomic radii and higher
nuclear charge leading to high ionisation energy.
n
65. (1) The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is 50 1/
=
ppm. Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause disease pe
s lo

log x/m
such as methemoglobinemia ('blue baby' syndrome).
66. (2) Given
C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g); DH = –393.5 kJ mol–1 …(i)
Intercept = log K
1
CO(g) + O2(g) ® CO2(g); DH = –283.5 kJ mol–1…(ii)
2 log P
\ Heat of formation of CO = eqn(i) – eqn(ii)
= –393.5 – (–283.5) The slope of the line is equal to 1/n and the intercept
= –110 kJ on log x/m axis will correspond to log K.
67. (1) Given, 70. (2) Spent-lye and glycerol are separated by distillation
under reduced pressure.
ˆˆ† C + D
A + B ‡ˆˆ Under the reduced pressure the liquid boil at low
temperature and the temperature of decomposition will
No. of moles initially 1 1 1 1
not r each. e.g. glycerol boils at 290°C with
At equilibrium 1–a 1–a 1+a 1+a
decomposition but at reduced pressure it boils at
2 180° C without decomposition.
æ 1+ a ö
\ Kc = ç ÷ = 100 71. (4) Sodium lauryl sulphate (C11H23CH2OSO3– Na+) is an
è 1- a ø
anionic detergent. Glyceryl oleate is a glyceryl ester of
1+ a oleic acid. Sodium stearate (C17H35COO–Na+) is a soap.
\ = 10
1- a Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
On solving é + ù -
a = 0.81 ê CH3 (CH 2 )15 N(CH 3 )3 ú Br is a cationic detergent.
[D]At eq = 1 + a = 1 + 0.81 = 1.81 ë û
68. (4) CO2H 1
72. (3) Hybridization (H) = [no. of valence electrons of central
H 1 OH 2
atom + no. of Monovalent atoms attached to it + (–ve
2
H Cl charge if any) – (+ve charge if any)]
CH3 1
NO2+ = [5 + 0 + 0 - 1] = 2 i.e. sp hybridisation
2
At (1),
1
3 S 1 NO–2 = [5 + 0 + 1 - 0] = 3 i.e. sp2 hybridisation
2
4 1 2 3 1
NO–3 = [5 + 0 + 1 - 0] = 3 i.e. sp2 hybridisation
2
2 4 The lewis structure of NO2 shows a bent molecular
It is 'S'configurated geometry with trigonal planar electron pair geometry
hence the hybridization will be sp2
At. (2),
N
2 1 R

4 1 3 2 O O
73. (1) Among 20 naturally occuring amino acids "Cysteine"
3 4 has '– SH' or thiol functional group.
It is 'R' configurated. Þ General formula of amino acid ® R–CH–COOH
69. (1) According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm |
NH2
x 1
log = log K + log P Þ Value of R = –CH2–SH in Cysteine.
m n
2016-18 JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper
74. (1) Froth floatation method is mainly applicable for 80. (3) Phosphorous acid contain P in +3 oxidation state.
sulphide ores. Acid Formula Oxidation state of
(1) Malachite ore : Cu(OH)2 . CuCO3 Phosphorous
(2) Magnetite ore : Fe3O4 Pyrophosphorous acid H4P2O5 +3
(3) Siderite ore : FeCO3 Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7 +5
(4) Galena ore : PbS (Sulphide Ore) Orthophosphorous acid H3PO3 +3
75. (2) High density polythene is used in the manufacture of Hypophosphoric acid H4P2O6 +4
housewares like buckets, dustbins, bottles, pipes etc. 81. (4)
Low density polythene is used for insulating electric CH2 – CH – CH3
wires and in the manufacture of flexible pipes, toys, Å Cl More stable intermediate
coats, bottles etc. CH2 = CH – CH3 + Cl –
Å
76. (4) Out of all the four given metallic oxides CrO2 is attracted CH2 – CH – CH3
by magnetic field very strongly. The effect persists Cl
even when the magnetic field is removed. Thus CrO2 is
metallic and ferromagnetic in nature Å
6

77. (4) N – bromosuccinimide results into bromination at allylic CH2 – CH – CH3 OH CH2 – CH – CH3
and benzylic positions Cl Cl OH
82. (1) When tert -alkyl halides are used in Williamson
synthesis elimination occurs rather than substitution
resulting into formation of alkene. Here alkoxide ion
abstract one of the b-hydrogen atom along with acting
NBS/hv
as a nucleophile.

CH3
+– CH3OH
CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3 + Na OCH3

More stable Cl
2-Chloro-2-methylpentane
Br HO
NBS H2O/K2CO3
H CH3
CH OH
CH3CH2 C C CH3 + CH3OH + NaBr
2-Methyl-pent-2-ene

78. (4) Region 2 (blue flame) will be the hottest region of


Bunsen flame shown in given figure 83. (3) Optical isomerism occurs when a molecule is non-
super imposable with its mirror image hence the complex
æ 4x + y ö y cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl is optically active.
79. (4) CxHy(g) + ç ÷ O ® xCO2(g) + H2O(l)
è 4 ø 2(g) 2
20
Volume of O2 used = 375 ´ = 75 ml
100
\ From the reaction of combustion
4x + y
1 ml CxHy requires = ml O 2
4
æ 4x + y ö
15 ml = 15 ç ÷ = 75
è 4 ø 84. (2) On heating with excess of air Li, Na and K forms
So, 4x + y = 20 following oxides
x= 3 4 Li + O2 2Li2O
y= 8 Lithium monoxide
575 K
C3H8 2Na + O2 Na2O2
Sodium peroxide
K + O2 KO2
Potassium superoxide
JEE MAIN 2016 Solved Paper 2016-19

85. (1) According to Raoult's Law Now


P° - Ps WB ´ M A d [ H 2 O2 ] d [H2 O] 2d [O2 ]
= …(i) - = =
Ps M B ´ WA dt dt dt
Here P° = Vapour pressure of pure solvent, 2d [O2 ] d [ H 2 O2 ]
Ps = Vapour pressure of solution \ =-
dt dt
WB = Mass of solute, WA = Mass of solvent
MB = Molar mass of solute, MA = Molar Mass of d [ O2 ] 1 d[H 2 O 2 ]
solvent \ = ´
dt 2 dt
Vapour pressure of pure water at 100° C (by assumption
= 760 torr) 1.386 ´10-3
By substituting values in equation (i) we get, = = 6.93 ´ 10–4 mol min–1
2
760 - Ps 18 ´18 88. (4)
= …(ii) Complex Metal ion Configuration Magnetic moment
Ps 180 ´178.2
On solving (ii) we get m= n(n + 2)
Ps = 752.4 torr (a) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ Cr+2 d4 24
86. (3) Reaction of Zn with dil. HNO3
4Zn + 10HNO3(dil) 4Zn(NO3)2 + 5H2O + N2O (b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ Fe2+ d6 24
(Zn reacts differently with very (c) [CoCl4]2– Co2+ d7 15
dilute HNO3)
Reaction of Zn with conc. HNO3 (d) [Mn(H2O)6 ]2+ Mn2+ 35 d5
Zn + 4HNO3(conc.) Zn(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2 Since (a) and (b), each has 4 unpaired electron they
1 will have same magnetic moment
87. (4) H2O2(aq) ® H2O(aq) + O (g) 89. (2) Galvanization is the process by which zinc is coated
2 2
over corrosive (easily rusted) metals to prevent them
For a first order reaction from corrosion.
2.303 a 90. (2) As electron of charge 'e' is passed through 'V' volt,
k= log kinetic energy of electron will be eV
t (a - x)
Given a = 0.5, (a – x) = 0.125, t = 50 min h
Wavelength of electron wave (l) =
2.303 0.5 2m.K .E
\ k= log
50 0.125 h h
= 2.78 ´ 10–2 min–1 l= Þ\ = 2meV
2meV l
r = k[H2O2] = 2.78 ´ 10–2 ´ 0.05
= 1.386 ´ 10–3 mol min–1
NCERT
t
Forma
29
JEE MAIN ONLINE - 2016
(Held on 9 April 2016)

Time : 3 Hours • Each correct answer has + 4 marks • Each wrong answer has – 1 mark. Max. Marks : 360

PHYSICS 5. In Young's double slit experiment, the distance between


slits and the screen is 1.0 m and monochromatic light of 600
1. Three capacitors each of 4 mF are to be connected in such a nm is being used. A person standing near the slits is looking
way that the effective capacitance is 6mF. This can be done at the fringe pattern. When the separation between the slits
by connecting them : is varied, the interference pattern disappears for a particular
(a) all in series
distance d0 between the slits. If the angular resolution of
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and one in series 1°
the eye is , the value of d0 is close to :
(d) two in series and one in parallel 60
(a) 1 mm (b) 3mm
R (c) 2 mm (d) 4mm
2.
R 6. A car of weight W is on an inclined road that rises by 100 m
over a distance of 1 Km and applies a constant frictional
W
r force on the car. While moving uphill on the road at a
20
speed of 10 ms–1, the car needs power P. If it needs power
P
while moving downhill at speed v then value of v is:
2
In the circuit shown, the resistance r is a variable resistance. (a) 20 ms–1 (b) 5 ms–1
(c) 15 ms –1 (d) 10 ms–1
If for r = fR, the heat generation in r is maximum then the
value of f is : 7. Two particles are performing simple harmonic motion in a
straight line about the same equilibrium point. The amplitude
1
(a) (b) 1 and time period for both particles are same and equal to A
2 and T, respectively. At time t=0 one particle has
1 3 -A
(c) (d) displacement A while the other one has displacement
4 4 2
3. The ratio of work done by an ideal monoatomic gas to the and they are moving towards each other. If they cross
heat supplied to it in an isobaric process is : each other at time t, then t is:
2 3 5T T
(a) (b) (a) (b)
5 2 6 3
3 2
(c) (d) T T
5 3 (c) (d)
4 6
4. A rocket is fired vertically from the earth with an acceleration
8. Figure shows elliptical path abcd of a planet around the
of 2g, where g is the gravitational acceleration. On an inclined
plane inside the rocket, making an angle q with the 1
sun S such that the area of triangle csa is the area of the
horizontal, a point object of mass m is kept. The minimum 4
coefficient of friction mmin between the mass and the inclined ellipse. (See figure) With db as the semimajor axis, and ca as
surface such that the mass does not move is : the semiminor axis. If t1 is the time taken for planet to go
(a) tan2q (b) tanq over path abc and t2 for path taken over cda then:
(c) 3 tanq (d) 2 tan q
P1- 2 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]

c ground has a shape like a funnel as shown in the figure. If


the radius of the cross–section of water stream when it hits
d b the ground is x. Then :
S 1
æ H ö4 æ H ö
x = rç
a (a) x = rç
è H + h ÷ø
(b) è H + h ÷ø
(a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2
(c) t1 = 3t2 (d) t1 = t2 2 1
9. An unknown transistor needs to be identified as a npn or æ H ö æ H ö2
(c) x = rç x = rç
è H + h ÷ø
(d)
pnp type. A multimeter, with +ve and –ve terminals, is used è H + h ÷ø
to measure resistance between different terminals of 14. Two engines pass each other moving in opposite directions
transistor. If terminal 2 is the base of the transistor then with uniform speed of 30 m/s. One of them is blowing a
which of the following is correct for a pnp transistor? whistle of frequency 540 Hz. Calculate the frequency heard
(a) +ve terminal 2, –ve terminal 3,resistance low by driver of second engine before they pass each other.
(b) +ve terminal 2, –ve terminal 1, resistane high Speed of sound is 330 m/sec:
(c) +ve terminal 1, –ve terminal 2, resistance high (a) 450 Hz (b) 540 Hz
(d) +ve terminal 3, –ve terminal 2, resistance high (c) 270 Hz (d) 648 Hz
10. An experiment is performed to determine the 1–V 15. An audio signal consists of two distinct sounds: one a
characteristics of a Zener diode, which has a protective human speech signal in the frequency band of 200 Hz to
resistance of R = 100 W, and a maximum power of dissipation 2700 Hz, while the other is a high frequency music signal in
rating of 1W. The minimum voltage range of the DC source the frequency band of 10200 Hz to 15200 Hz. The ratio of
in the circuit is : the AM signal bandwidth required to send both the signals
(a) 0 – 5V (b) 0 – 24 V together to the AM signal bandwidth requried to send just
(c) 0 – 12 V (d) 0 – 8V the human speech is :
11. A uniformly tapering conical wire is made from a material of (a) 2 (b) 5
Young's modulus Y and has a normal, unextended length L. (c) 6 (d) 3
The radii, at the upper and lower ends of this conical wire, 16. To know the resistance G of a galvanometer by half
have values R and 3R, respectively. The upper end of the deflection method, a battery of emf VE and resistance R is
wire is fixed to a rigid support and a mass M is suspended used to deflect the galvanometer by angle q. If a shunt of
from its lower end. The equilibrium extended length, of this resistance S is needed to get half deflection then G, R and S
wire, would equal : related by the equation:
æ 2 Mg ö æ 1 Mg ö (a) S (R + G) = RG (b) 2S (R + G) = RG
L ç1 + L ç1 +
(a) è 9 pYR 2 ÷ø (b) è 9 pYR 2 ÷ø (c) 2G = S (d) 2S = G
17. A hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1 and
æ 1 Mg ö æ 2 Mg ö emits a photon. This photon strikes a doubly ionized lithium
L ç1 + L ç1 + atom (z = 3) in excited state and completely removes the
(c) è 3 pYR 2 ÷ø (d) è 3 pYR 2 ÷ø
orbiting electron. The least quantum number for the excited
12. In the following 'I' refers to current and other symbols have state of the ion for the process is :
their usual meaning, Choose the option that corresponds (a) 2 (b) 4
to the dimensions of electrical conductivity : (c) 5 (d) 3
(a) M–1 L–3T 3 I (b) M–1 L–3 T3 I2 18. 200g water is heated from 40°C to 60°C. Ignoring the slight
–1
(c) M L T I 3 3 (d) ML–3 T–3 I2 expansion of water, the change in its internal energy is close
to (Given specific heat of water = 4184 J/kgK):
13. R (a) 167.4 kJ (b) 8.4 kJ
(c) 4.2 kJ (d) 16.7 kJ
H 19. When photons of wavelength l1 are incident on an isolated
2r sphere, the corresponding stopping potential is found to
be V. When photons of wavelength l2 are used, the
corresponding stopping potential was thrice that of the
h above value. If light of wavelength l3 is used then find the
stopping potential for this case :
hc é 1 1 1ù hc é 1 1 1ù
2x (a) ê + - ú (b) ê + - ú
e ë l 3 l 2 l1 û e ë l3 2l 2 l1 û
Consider a water jar of radius R that has water filled up to
height H and is kept on a stand of height h (see figure). hc é 1 1 1ù hc é 1 1 3 ù
(c) ê - - ú (d) ê + - ú
Through a hole of radius r (r << R) at its bottom, the water e ë l 3 l 2 l1 û e ë l3 2l 2 2l1 û
leaks out and the stream of water coming down towards the
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 3

20. A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields 23. The potential (in volts) of a charge distribution is given by
which are inclined to each other at an angle of 75°. One of V(z) = 30 – 5z2 for |z| £ 1m
the fields has a magnitude of 15 mT. The dipole attains V(z) = 35 – 10 |z| for |z| ³ 1 m.
stable equilibrium at an angle of 30° with this field. The V(z) does not depend on x and y. If this potential is generated
magntidue of the other field (in mT) is close to : by a constant charge per unit volume r0 (in units of e0)
(a) 1 (b) 11 which is spread over a certain region, then choose the correct
(c) 36 (d) 1060 statement.
21. Which of the following option correctly describes the (a) r0 = 20 e0 in the entire region
variation of the speed v and acceleration 'a' of a point mass (b) r0 = 10 e0 for |z| £ 1 m and p0 = 0 elsewhere
falling vertically in a viscous medium that applies a force F (c) r0 = 20 e0 for |z| £ 1 m and p0 = 0 elsewhere
= –kv, where 'k' is a constant, on the body? (Graphs are (d) r0 = 40 e0 in the entire region
schematic and not drawn to scale) 24. Microwave oven acts on the principle of :
(a) giving rotational energy to water molecules
a (b) giving translational energy to water molecules
(c) giving vibrational energy to water molecules
(d) transferring electrons from lower to higher energy
levels in water molecule
(a) 25. To find the focal length of a convex mirror, a student records
v the following data :
t
Object Pin Convex Lens Convex Mirror Image Pin
22.2cm 32.2cm 45.8cm 71.2 cm
v
The focal length of the convex lens is f1 and that of mirror is
f2. Then taking index correction to be negligibly small,
f1 and f2 are close to :
(b)
(a) f1 = 7.8 cm f2 = 12.7 cm
a
(b) f1 = 12.7 cm f2 = 7.8 cm
t (c) f1 = 15.6 cm f2 = 25.4 cm
(d) f1 = 7.8 cm f2 = 25.4 cm
v 26. A 50 W resistance is connected to a battery of 5V. A
galvanometer of resistance 100 W is to be used as an ammeter
to measure current through the resistance, for this a
resistance rs is connected to the galvanometer. Which of
(c) a the following connections should be employed if the
measured current is within 1% of the current without the
t ammeter in the circuit ?
(a) rs = 0.5 W in series with the galvanometer
(b) rs = 1 W in series with galvanometer
v (c) rs = 1W in parallel with galvanometer
(d) rs = 0.5 W in parallel with the galvanometer.
27. A simple pendulum made of a bob of mass m and a metallic
(d) wire of negligible mass has time period 2s at T = 0°C. If the
a temeprature of the wire is increased and the corresponding
t change in its time peirod is plotted against its temperature,
the resulting graph is a line of slope S. If the coefficient of
22. The truth table given in fig. represents : linear expansion of metal is a then the value of S is :
a
A B Y (a) (b) 2a
2
0 0 0
1
0 1 1 (c) a (d)
a
1 0 1
28. A cubical block of side 30 cm is moving with velocity
1 1 1 2 ms–1 on a smooth horizontal surface. The surface has a
bump at a point O as shown in figure. The angular velocity
(a) OR – Gate (b) NAND– Gate (in rad/s) of the block immediately after it hits the bump, is :
(c) AND– Gate (d) NOR– Gate
P1- 4 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]

a = 30 cm (a) 60 cm from the convex lens


(b) 60 cm from the concave lens
(c) 70 cm from the convex lens
(d) 70 cm from the concave lens
O
(a) 13.3 (b) 5.0 CHEMISTRY
(c) 9.4 (d) 6.7
29. A series LR circuit is connected to a voltage source with 31. The gas evolved on heating CH3MgBr in methanol is :
V(t) = V0 sinwt. After very large time, current l(t) behaves as (a) Methane (b) Ethane
æ Lö (c) Propane (d) HBr
çè t 0 >> ÷ø : 32. The total number of orbitals associated with the principal
R
quantum number 5 is :
I(t) (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 10 (d) 5
33. BOD stands for :
(a) Biochemical Oxidation Demand
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand
(a) (c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
t (d) Bacterial Oxidation Demand
t = t0
34. Identify the incorrect statement regarding heavy water :
(a) It reacts with SO3 to form deuterated sulphuric acid
I(t)
(D2SO4).
(b) It is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors.
(c) It reacts with CaC2 to produce C2D2 and Ca(OD)2.
t (d) It reacts with Al4C3 to produce CD4 and Al(OD)3.
(b) t = t0 35. Which one of the following complexes will consume more
equivalents of aqueous solution of AgNO3?
(a) Na2[CrCl5(H2O)] (b) Na3[CrCl6]
I(t) (c) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 (d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
36. A particular adsorption process has the following
characteristics : (i) It arises due to van der Waals forces and
(ii) it is reversile. Identify the correct statement that describes
(c) the above adsorption process :
(a) Adsorption is monolayer.
t = t0 t
(b) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature.
(c) Enthalpy of adsorption is greater than 100 kJ mol–1
I(t) (d) Energy of activation is low.
37. Bouveault–Blanc reduction reaction involves :
(a) Reduction of an acyl halide with H2/Pd
(b) Reduction of an anhydride with LiAlH4
t
(d) t0 (c) Reduction of an ester with Na/C2H5OH
(d) Reduction of a carbonyl compound with Na/Hg and
HCl.
30. A convex lens, of focal length 30 cm, a concave lens of focal 38. At very high pressures, the compressibility factor of one
length 120 cm, and a plane mirror are arranged as shown. mole of a gas is given by :
For an object kept at a distance of 60 cm from the convex pb Pb
lens, the final image, formed by the combination, is a real (a) 1+ (b)
image, at a distance of : RT RT

pb b
(c) 1- (d) 1 -
RT (VRT)
39. The non–metal that does not exhibit positive oxidation state
is :
(a) Chlorine (b) Iodine
|Focal length| |Focal length| (c) Fluorine (d) Oxygen
= 30 cm = 120 cm 40. 5 L of an alkane requires 25 L of oxygen for its complete
60cm 20cm combustion. If all volumes are measured at constant
temperature and pressure, the alkane is :
(a) Isobutane (b) Ethane
70 cm (c) Butane (d) Propane
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 5

41. The correct order of the solubility of alkaline–earth metal 48. The hydrocarbon with seven carbon atoms containing a
sulphates in water is : neopentyl and a vinyl group is :
(a) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (b) Mg > Sr > Ca > Ba (a) 2, 2–dimethyl–4– pentene
(c) Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba (d) Mg < Sr < Ca < Ba (b) 4, 4– dimethyl pentene
42. The group of molecules having identical shape is : (c) Isopropyl–2–butene
(a) PCl5, IF5, XeO2F2 (b) BF3, PCl3, XeO3 (d) 2, 2–dimethyl–3–pentene
(c) SF4, XeF4, CCl4 (d) ClF3, XeOF2, XeF3+ 49. The plot shows the variation of – ln KP versus temperature
43. Consider the following sequence for aspartic acid : for the two reactions.
CO H2 CO–2
1 1
M(s) + O2 (g) ® MO(s) and C(s) + O2 (g) ® CO(s)
+ pK1 + pKR 2 2
H3N H H3N H
1.88 3.65 M® MO
CH2CO2H CH2CO2H
– ln KP
CO2– CO2– C® CO
20
+ pK2
H 3N H H2N H
9.60
CH2CO–2 CH2CO2– 0 1200 T(K)
Identify the correct statement:
The pI (isoelectric point) of aspartic acid (a) At T < 1200 K, oxidation of carbon is unfavourable.
(a) 3.65 (b) 2.77 (c) 5.74 (d) 1.88 (b) Oxidation of carbon is favourable at all temperatures.
44. What will occur if a block of copper metal is dropped into a (c) At T < 1200 K, the reaction
beaker containing a solution of 1M ZnSO4? MO(s) + C(s) ® M(s) + CO(g) is spontaneous.
(a) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of (d) At T > 1200 K, carbon will reduce MO(s) to M(s).
oxygen gas 50. An organic compound contains C, H and S. The minimum
(b) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of molecular weight of the compound containing 8% sulphur
hydrogen gas is :
(c) No reaction will occur (atomic weight of S = 32 amu)
(d) The copper metal will dissolve and zinc metal will be (a) 600 g mol–1 (b) 200 g mol–1
(c) 400 g mol –1 (d) 300 g mol–1
deposited.
45. Which intermolecular force is most responsible in allowing 51. The most appropriate method of making egg–albumin sol is :
xenon gas to liquefy? (a) Break an egg carefully and transfer the transparent
(a) Instantaneous dipole–induced dipole part of the content to 100 mL of 5% w/V saline solution
(b) Ion–dipole and stir well.
(c) Ionic (b) Keep the egg in boiling water for 10 minutes. After
(d) Dipole – dipole removing the shell, transfer the yellow part of the
46. Assertion : Rayon is a semisynthetic polymer whose content to 100 mL of 5% w/V saline solution and
properties are better than natural cotton. homogenize with a mechanical shaker.
Reason : Mechanical and aesthetic properties of cellulose (c) Keep the egg in boiling water for 10 minutes. After
can be improved by acetylation. removing the shell, transfer the white part of the
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason content to 100 mL of 5% w/V saline solution and
is not the correct explantion for the assertion homogenize with a mechanical shaker
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason (d) Break an egg carefully and transfer only the yellow
is the correct explantion for the assertion part of the content to 100 mL of 5% w/V saline solution
(c) Assertion is incorrect statement, but the reason is and stir well.
correct. 52. The amount of arsenic pentasulphide that can be obtained
(d) Both assertion and reason are incorrect. when 35.5 g arsenic acid is treated with excess H2S in the
47. Match the items in Column I with its main use listed in presence of conc. HCl (assuming 100% conversion) is :
Column II: (a) 0.25 mol (b) 0.50 mol
Column I Column II (c) 0.333 mol (d) 0.125 mol
(A) Silica gel (i) Transistor 53. The reaction of ozone with oxygen atoms in the presence of
(B) Silicon (ii) Ion–exchanger chlorine atoms can occur by a two step process shown
(C) Silicone (iii) Drying agent below :
(D) Silicate (iv) Sealant
O3(g)+ Cl*(g) ® O2(g) + ClO* (g) ...(i)
(a) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii)
[Ki = 5.2 × 109 L mol–1 s–1]
(b) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)
(c) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii) ClO*(g)+ O*(g) ® O2(g) + Cl* (g) ...(ii)
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii) [Kii = 2.6 × 1010 L mol–1 s–1]
P1- 6 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]
The closest rate constant for the overall r eaction 62. If m and M are the minimum and the maximum values of
O3(g) + O*(g) ® 2O2(g) is : 1
(a) 1.4 × 1020 L mol–1 s–1 (b) 3.1 × 1010 L mol–1 s–1 4 + sin 2 2x - 2 cos 4 x, x Î R, then M – m is equal to :
2
(c) 5.2 × 109 L mol–1 s–1 (d) 2.6 × 1010 L mol–1 s–1
54. The artificial sweetener that has the highest sweetness value 9 15
(a) (b)
in comparison to cane sugar is : 4 4
(a) Sucralose (b) Aspartane 7 1
(c) Saccharin (d) Alitame (c) (d)
4 4
55. Which one of the following species is stable in aqueous 63. If the equations x + bx – 1 = 0 and x2 + x + b = 0 have a
2
solution ? common root different from –1, then |b| is equal to :
(a) Cr2+ (b) MnO 24- (c) MnO34- (d) Cu+ (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 3 (d) 2
56. The test to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary
amines is : 64. A circle passes through (–2, 4) and touches the y-axis at
(a) Sandmeyer's reaction (b) Carbylamine reaction (0, 2). Which one of the following equations can represent
a diameter of this circle ?
(c) Mustard oil test (d) C6H5SO2Cl
(a) 2x – 3y + 10 = 0 (b) 3x + 4y – 3 = 0
57. The solubility of N2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr partial
(c) 4x + 5y – 6 = 0 (d) 5x + 2y + 4 = 0
pressure is 0.01 g L–1.The solubility (in g L–1)at 750 torr 65. If a variable line drawn through the intersection of the lines
partial pressure is :
(a) 0.0075 (b) 0.005 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.015 x y x y
+ = 1 and + = 1 , meets the coordinate axes at A
58. For the reaction, 3 4 4 3
A(g) + B(g) ® C(g) + D(g), DH° and DS° are, respectively, and B, (A ¹ B) , then the locus of the midpoint of AB is :
–29.8 kJ mol–1 and –0.100 kJ K–1 mol–1 at 298 K. The (a) 7xy = 6 (x + y)
equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298 K is : (b) 4 (x + y)2 – 28 (x + y) + 49 = 0
(a) 1.0 × 10–10 (b) 10 (c) 6xy = 7 (x + y)
(c) 1 (d) 1.0 × 1010 (d) 14 (x + y)2 – 97 (x + y) + 168 = 0
59. A reaction at 1 bar is non–spontaneous at low temperature 1 -1 1 -1
but becomes spontaneous at high temperature. Identify the 66. If 2 ò tan xdx = ò0 cot (1 - x + x 2 )dx , then
0
correct statement about the reaction among the following :
1 -1
(a) DH is negative while DS is positive ò0 tan (1 - x + x 2 )dx is equal to :
(b) Both DH and DS are negative
(c) DH is positive while DS is negative p
(a) + log 2 (b) log2
(d) Both DH and DS are positive. 2
60. Identify the correct trend given below :
p
(Atomic No. = Ti : 22, Cr : 24 and Mo : 42) (c) - log 4 (d) log4
2
(a) D o of [Cr(H2 O)6 ]2+ > [Mo(H2 O)6 ]2+ and D o of
67. The number of x Î [0, 2p] for which
[Ti(H2O)6]3+ > [Ti(H2O)6]2+
(b) Do of [Cr(H2O)6]2+ > [Mo(H2O)6]2+ and D o of
2sin 4 x + 18cos 2 x - 2cos 4 x + 18sin 2 x = 1 is
[Ti(H2O)6]3+ < [Ti(H2O)6]2+
(c) D o of [Cr(H2 O)6 ]2+ < [Mo(H2 O)6 ]2+ and D o of (a) 2 (b) 6
[Ti(H2O)6]3+ > [Ti(H2O)6]2+ (c) 4 (d) 8
(d) D o of [Cr(H2 O)6 ]2+ < [Mo(H2 O)6 ]2+ and D o of 68. The distance of the point (1, –2, 4) from the plane passing
through the point (1, 2, 2) and perpendicular to the planes
[Ti(H2O)6]3+ < [Ti(H2O)6]2+
x – y + 2z = 3 and 2x – 2y + z + 12 = 0, is :
MATHEMATICS (a) 2 (b) 2
x y z 1
61. The shortest distance between the lines = = and (c) (d)
2 2 1 2 2 2
x + 2 y -4 z -5 x 2 y2
= = lies in the interval : 69. If the tangent at a point on the ellipse + = 1 meets
-1 8 4 27 3
(a) (3, 4] (b) (2, 3] the coordinate axes at A and B, and O is the origin, then the
(c) [1, 2) (d) [0, 1) minimum area (in sq. units) of the triangle OAB is :
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 7

76. The area (in sq. units) of the region described by


9
(a) 3 3 (b) A = {(x, y)| y ³ x2 – 5x + 4, x + y ³ 1, y £ 0} is:
2
19 17
9 (a) (b)
(c) 9 (d) 6 6
3
7 13
70. If f(x) is a differentiable function in the interval ( (0, ¥) such (c) (d)
2 6
t 2 f (x) - x 2f (t) 77. In a triangle ABC, right angled at the vertex A, if the position
that f(1) = 1 and lim = 1 , for each x > 0,
t ®x t-x vectors of A, B and C are respectively 3iˆ + ˆj - k,
ˆ -iˆ + 3jˆ + pkˆ
æ3ö and 5iˆ + qjˆ - 4kˆ , then the point (p, q) lies on a line :
then f ç ÷ is equal to :
è2ø
(a) making an obtuse angle with the positive direction of
23 13 x–axis
(a) (b)
18 6 (b) parallel to x–axis
(c) parallel to y–axis
25 31
(c) (d) (d) making an acute angle with the positive direction of
9 18 x–axis
71. If the mean deviation of the numbers 1, 1 + d, ..., 1 + 100d
from their mean is 255, then a value of d is : dx
(a) 10.1 (b) 5.05
78. If ò cos3 x 2sin 2x
= (tan x) A + C(tan x) B + k , where k

(c) 20.2 (d) 10 is a constant of integration, then A + B + C equals :


2 16 27
72. If A and B are any two events such that P(A) = and (a) (b)
5 5 10
3 7 21
P(A Ç B) = , then the conditional probability,, (c) (d)
20 10 5
P(A | A¢ È B¢)) , where A' denotes the complement of A, is 79. Consider the following two statements :
equal to : P : If 7 is an odd number, then 7 is divisible by 2.
11 5 Q : If 7 is a prime number, then 7 is an odd number.
(a) 20 (b) 17 If V1 is the truth value of the contrapositive of P and V2 is
8 1 the truth value of contrapositive of Q, then the ordered pair
(c) 17 (d) 4 (V1, V2) equals:
(a) (F, F) (b) (F, T)
15 æ 15 C r ö
The value of å r2 ç ÷ (c) (T, F) (d) (T, T)
73. ç 15 C ÷ is equal to :
r =1 è r -1 ø 80. The point represented by 2 + i in the Argand plane moves 1
unit eastwards, then 2 units northwards and finally from
(a) 1240 (b) 560
(c) 1085 (d) 680 there 2 2 units in the south–westwards direction. Then
74. The point (2, 1) is translated parallel to the line L : x – y = 4 its new position in the Argand plane is at the point
by 2 3 units. If the new points Q lies in the third quadrant, represented by :
then the equation of the line passing through Q and (a) 1 + i (b) 2 + 2i
perpendicular to L is : (c) –2 – 2i (d) –1 – i

(a) x +y =2- 6 (b) 2x + 2y = 1 - 6 1


81. For x Î R, x ¹ 0 , let f0(x) = and fn+1 (x) = f0(fn(x)),
1- x
(c) x + y =3- 3 6 (d) x + y =3- 2 6
æ 2ö æ 3ö
75. The minimum distance of a point on the curve y = x2 – 4 n = 0, 1, 2, .... Then the value of f100(3) + f1 çè ÷ø + f 2 çè ÷ø is
3 2
from the origin is :
equal to :
15 19
(a) (b) 8 4
2 2 (a) (b)
3 3
15 19
(c) (d) 5 1
2 2 (c) (d)
3 3
P1- 8 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]
82. If the function
é 3 1 ù
ìï- x, x <1 ê ú
f(x) = í -1 is differentiable at ê 2 2 ú é1 1ù
ïîa + cos (x + b), 1 £ x £ 2 87. If P = ê 1 APT , then
3 ú , A = êë 0 1úû and Q = PAP
ê- ú
ë 2 2 û
a
x = 1, then is equal to : PT Q2015 P is ;
b
p+2 p-2 é 0 2015ù é 2015 0 ù
(a) (b) (a) ê0 0 úû (b) ê 1 2015 ú
2 2 ë ë û

-p - 2 é1 2015ù é 2015 1 ù
(c) (d) –1 – cos–1(2) ê0
2 (c)
ë 1 úû (d) ê 0
ë 2015úû

æ a 4ö
2x 88. For x Î R, x ¹ -1 , if (1 + x)2016 + x (1 + x)2015 + x2
83. If lim ç1 + - 2 ÷ = e3, then 'a' is equal to :
x ®¥ è x x ø 2016
(1 + x)2014 + .... + x2016 = å ai xi , then a17 is equal to :
3 i =0
(a) 2 (b)
2
2017! 2016!
1 2 (a) (b) 17! 1999!
(c) (d) 17!2000!
2 3
84. Let x, y, z be positive real numbers such that x + y + z = 12 2016! 2017!
(c) (d)
and x3y4z5 = (0.1) (600)3. Then x3 + y3 + z3 is equal to : 16! 2000!
(a) 342 (b) 216 89. If the four letter words (need not be meaningful) are to be
(c) 258 (d) 270 formed using the letters from the word
85. The number of distinct real roots of the equaiton, "MEDITERRANEAN" such that the first letter is R and the
fourth letter is E, then the total number of all such words is :
cos x sin x sin x (a) 110 (b) 59
sin x cos x sin x é p pù
= 0 in the interval ê - , ú is : 11!
sin x sin x cos x ë 4 4û (c) (d) 56
(2!)3
(a) 1 (b) 4 90. If the tangent at a point P, with parameter t, on the curve
(c) 2 (d) 3 x = 4t2 + 3, y = 8t3 – 1, t Î R, meets the curve again at a point
86. Let a aand b respectively be the semitransverse and semi- Q, then the coordinates of Q are :
conjugate axes of a hyperbola whose eccentricity satisfies (a) (16t2 + 3, –64t3 – 1) (b) (4t2 + 3, –8t3 – 2)
the equation 9e2 – 18e + 5 = 0. If S(5, 0) is a focus and (c) (t2 + 3, t3 – 1) (d) (t2 + 3, – t3 – 1)
5x = 9 is the corresponding directrix of this hyperbola, then
a2 – b2 is equal to :
(a) –7 (b) –5
(c) 5 (d) 7
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 9

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 11. (c) 21. (c) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (a) 81. (c)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (a) 32. (b) 42. (d) 52. (d) 62. (b) 72. (b) 82. (a)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (c) 73. (d) 83. (b)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (b) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (a) 74. (d) 84. (b)
5. (c) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (d) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (a) 75. (a) 85. (c)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (d) 46. (a) 56. (d) 66. (b) 76. (a) 86. (a)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (d) 67. (d) 77. (d) 87. (c)
8. (c) 18. (d) 28. (b) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (c) 68. (c) 78. (a) 88. (a)
9. (c) 19. (None) 29. (d) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (d) 69. (c) 79. (a) 89. (b)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (d) 50. (c) 60. (d) 70. (d) 80. (a) 90. (d)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


PHYSICS At equilibrium, mass does not move so,
3mg sinq = m3mg cosq
1. (d) To get effective capacitance of 6 mF two capacitors of
4 mF each connected in sereies and one of 4 mF [ μ min < tan θ
capacitor in parallel with them. 5. (c) Given D = 1.0m, wavelength of monochromatic light l
= 600 nm.
4mF 4mF
p 1
d : Dθ < 1≥ ≥
180 60

d0 < 2≥10,3 < 2 mm


4mF
6. (c) While moving downhill power
Two capacitances in series
æ wö
1 1 1 1 1 1 P < çç w sin q ∗ ÷÷÷10
\ = + = + = çè 20 ø
C C1 C2 4 4 2
æw w ö 3w
1 capacitor in parallel P < çç ∗ ÷÷÷10 <
çè10 20 ø
[ Ceq < C3 ∗ C < 4 ∗ 2 < 6 mF 2
q
os
2. (c) Heat energy will be maximum when resistance will be P 3w æç w w ö÷ wc 1
minimum. < < ç , ÷÷ V tanq = 10
2 4 èç10 20 ø
3. (a) Efficiency of heat engine is given by
w C R R 2 3 v
h< < 1, V < < < < Þ v < 15 m / s
Q CP Cp 5R 5 4 20
2 \ Speed of car while moving downhill v = 15 m/s.
(Q Cp – Cv = R) Equilibrium point A
5 7. (d)
For monoatomic gas CP < R . A O
2
2
4. (b) Let m be the minimum coefficient of friction
(at time t = 0)
m3mgcosq

12 0°

60°
3mgsinq 3g
P1- 10 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]

p At equilibrium change in length of the wire


Angle covered to meet q = 60° = rad.
3 1
Mg dx
If they cross each other at time t then ò dL < ò é 2R ù2
q p T 0 pê x ∗ Rú y
t< < T< ëê L ûú
2p 3≥2p 6
8. (c) Let area of ellipse abcd = x Taking limit from 0 to L
x x
Area of SabcS = ∗ (i.e., ar of abca ∗ SacS) é ù
2 4 ê ú
ê ú
(Area of half ellipse + Area of triangle) Mg ê 1 L ú MgL
ΧL < ê, ≥ ú<
3x p y ê é 2Rx ù L 2R ú 3p R 2 y
< ê ê ∗ Rú ú
ê êë L úû 0 ú
4 ë û
c
The equilibrium extended length of wire = L + DL
d b MgL æ 1 Mg ö÷
S < L∗ < L çç1 ∗ ÷
3p R Y 2 çè 3 p YR 2 ø÷

a 12. (b) We know that resistivity


3x x
Area of SadcS = x , <
θ<
RA
4 4
l
Area of SabcS 3x / 4 < t1
= x/4 1 l
Area of SadcS t2 Conductivity = resistivity < RA
t1
< 3 or, t = 3t lI
t2 1 2
< ( Q V = RI)
9. (c) Connecting circuit according to question, it is clear VA

P P [L][I]
<
E C é [ML2 T,2 ù W W
n ê ú ≥[L2 ] Q V < <
ê [I][T] ú q it
1 B êë úû
2
< [M,1L,3T 3 ][I2 ] < [M,1L,3T3I 2 ]
13. (a) According to Bernoulli's Principle,
+ve terminal 1, –ve terminal 2, resistance high.
1 2 1
10. (c) The minimum voltage range of DC source is given by r v1 ∗ r gh < r v22
V2 = PR Q P = 1 watt, R = 100W 2 2
= 1×100
\ V = 10 volt. v12 ∗ 2gh < v22
11. (c) Consider a small element dx of radius r,
2gH ∗ 2gh < v 22 ...(i)
2R
r< x∗R a1v1 = a2v2
L
R p r 2 2gh < p x 2 v 2

r2
x 2gh < v 2
x2
r
dx Substituting the value of v2 in equation (i)
1
r4 é ù
2gH ∗ 2gh < 2gh or, x < r ê H ú 4
L x4 êë H ∗ h úû
14. (d) We know that the apperent frequency
æ v , v0 ö÷
f ' < ççç ÷f
çè v , vs ø÷÷
3R from Doppler's effect
Mg
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 11

where v0 = vs = 30 m/s, velocity of observer and source 17. (b) A hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = 2 to
Speed of sound v = 330 m/s n=1
330 ∗ 30 n2
\ f '< ≥ 540 = 648 Hz.
330 , 30
Q Frequency of whistle (f) = 540 Hz.
15. (c) Ratio of AM signal Bandwidths n1
15200 , 200 15000
< < < 6. é
2700 , 200 2ê 1 1 ùú 2é 1ù
Then wavelength = Rcz ê 2 , 2 ú < Rc(1) êê1, úú
2500
ëê n1 n 2 ûú ë 4û
V
16. (a) According to Ohm's Law, I =
R é 3ù
l < Rc ê ú ...(1)
V êë 4 úû
Ig <
R ∗G For ionized lithium
where, Ig - Galvanometer current, G - Galvonometer é 1 ù é 1ù
resistance l < Rc(3) 2 ê ú < Rc 9 ê ú ...(2)
êë n úû
2 êë n 2 úû
R IG
G é 3ù é 1 ù
Rc ê ú = Rc9 ê 2 ú
4
ë û ën û
V
3 9
Þ < Þ n < 12 < 2 3
When shunt of resistance S is connected parallel to 4 n2
GS \ The least quantum number must be 4.
the Galvanometer then G < 18. (d) Volume of water does not change, no work is done on
G ∗S
or by the system (W = 0)
V According to first law of thermodynamics
\ I<
GS Q < ΧU ∗ W
R∗
G ∗S For Isochoric process Q < ΧU
DU = mcdT = 2 × 4184 × 20 = 16.7 kJ.
IG
R 19. (None)
2
G From Einstein's photoelectric equation, we have
hc hc
S < ∗ eV ...(1)
l1 l0

Equal potential difference is given by hc hc


< ∗ eV ...(2)
I'g G < (I , I'g )S l2 l0

I 'g (G ∗ S) < IS hc hc
< ∗ 3eV ' ...(3)
l3 l0
Ig IS From equation (1) & (2)
Þ <
2 G ∗S
3 2 1
, <
V V S 2l1 2l2 l0
Þ < ≥
2(R ∗ G) GS G ∗S
R∗ hc é 3 1 ùú
G ∗S , hc ê , < eV '
l1 ê ú
ë 2l1 2l2 û
1 S
Þ <
2(R ∗ G) R(G ∗ S) ∗ GS hc éê 1 3 1 ùú
, ∗ < V'
Þ R(G ∗ S) ∗ GS < 2S(R ∗ G) e ë l3 2l1 2l2 úû
ê

20. (b) We know that, magnetic dipole moment


Þ RG ∗ RS ∗ GS < 2S(R ∗ G)
M = NiA cosθ i.e., M µ cosθ
Þ RG < 2S(R ∗ G) , S(R ∗ G)
When two magnetic fields are inclined at an angle of
[ RG < S(R ∗ G) 75° the equilibrium will be at 30°, so
P1- 12 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]

1 100S V
cos θ < cos(75↓, 30↓) < cos 45↓ < R eq < 50 ∗ <
2 100 ∗ S I

x 15 100S 5
< [ x » 11 Þ < , 50
2 2 100 ∗ S 0.099

21. (c) When a point mass is falling vertically in a viscous 100S 100S
Þ < 50.50 , 50 Þ < 0.5
medium, the medium or viscous fluid exerts drag force 100 ∗ S 100 ∗ S
on the body to oppose its motion and at one stage Þ 100S = 50 + 0.55 Þ 99.5S = 50
body falling with constant terminal velocity.
50
22. (a) It represents OR-Gate. S< < 0.5 W
99.05
So, shunt of resistance = 0.5W is connected in parallel
A B A + B =Y with the galvanometer.
A 0 0 0
27. (c) If coefficient of linear expansion is a then
B Y 0 1 1
1 0 1 1
1 1 1 DT = T a d q
2
,dv ΧT T
23. (b) Ρ1 < < 10 | z | Þ < a
dr dq 2
But T = 2s
,dv
Ρ2 < < 10 (constant : E) DT
dr \ Line of slope S = =a.

\ The source is an infinity large non conducting thick
plate of thickness 2 m. 28. (b) Angular momentum, mvr = Iw
Moment of Inertia (I) of cubical block is given by
r×A × Z
[ 10Z ×10A < æ 2 æ ö2 ÷ö
e0 çR
∗ ç ÷÷ ÷÷
R
I < m çç
çç 6 çèç 2 ø÷ ÷÷÷
r0 < 10e0 for | z |′1m . è ø

24. (c) Microwave oven acts on the principle of giving


R
vibrational energy to water molecules. m.2
2
25. (a) Taking f2 = 12.07 \ w< é 2ù
2 æ
R ö
m êê ∗ çç ÷÷÷ úú
Using Mirror's formula R
êë 6 èç 2 ø úû
1 1 1
< ∗
f v u
12 3 10
Þw< < < < 5 rad / s .
1 1 1 1 1 1 8R 2 ≥ 0.3 2
Þ < ∗ Þ , <
12.7 25.4 u 12.7 25.4 u
v æ pö
u = 25.4 = v' 29. (d) Current I = çè wt - ÷ø
wL 2
Now using Len's formula 30. (a) Len's formula is given by
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
< , Þ < ∗ < ,
f v u f1 25.4 ∗ 13.6 10 f v u
For convex lens,
1 1 1 390
Þ < ∗ Þ f1 < < 7.96 1 1 1 1 1
f1 39 10 49 < ∗ Þ <
30 v 60 60 v
The closest answers is (a) as option (c) and (d) are not
Similarly for concave lens
possible.
1 1 1 1 1
V 5 < , Þ <
26. (d) As we know, I = = = 0.1 ,120 v 40 v 60
R 50 Virtual object 10 cm behind plane mirror.
I' = 0.099 Hence real image 10 cm infront of mirror or, 60 cm from
When Galvanometer is connected convex lens.
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 13

CHEMISTRY Volume × mole

OCH3 [n æ 2 ÷ö
alkane<çç ≥ n O2
çè 3n ∗1÷÷ø
31. (a) CH3 MgBr ∗ CH3OH ¾¾
↑ Mg ∗ CH 4 ←
Methane
Br 2
5< ≥ 25
32. (b) Number of orbitals in a shell = n = (5)2 = 25.
2 3n ∗ 1
33. (c) BOD stands for Biochemical Oxygen Demand. [n <3
34. (b) Heavy water acts as moderator. This is used in nuclear
Hence alkane is propane (C3H8).
reactors to slow down the speed of fast moving
neutrons. More will be the ionisable Cl– in complex. 41. (a) The solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals
35. (d) More equivalents of AgNO3 aqueous solution will be decreases as we move down the group from Be to Ba
consumed if complex will furnish more Cl– ions in due to the reason that ionic size increases down the
solution. Hence complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 will consume group. The lattice energy remains constant because
more equivalents of aqueous solution of AgNO3. sulphate ion is so large, so that small change in cationic
36. (d) The characteristics given suggests that this should sizes do not make any difference. Thus the order will
be physical adsorption. be
Physical adsorption usually takes place at low Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
temperature and decreases with increase in
1
temperature. The force of attraction holding the 42. (d) ClF3 ¾¾
↑ Hybridisation < 3 ∗ [7 , 3] < 5(sp3d)
adsorbate are van der Waal's forces. Heat of adsorption 2
is low. It is reversible and forms multimolecular layer. It
1
does not acquire any activation energy. XeOF2 ¾¾
↑ Hybridisation < 3 ∗ [8 , 4] < 5(sp3d)
37. (c) The Bouveault reduction is a reaction in which an ester 2
is reduced to primary alcohol using absolute ethanol 1
and sodium. XeF3∗ ¾¾
↑ Hybridisation < 3 ∗ [8 , 3 ,1] < 5(sp 3d)
2
O All molecules have sp3d hybridization and 2 lone pairs.
||
Na / C2H5OH
R , C, OR ¾¾¾¾¾¾
↑ RCH 2OH ∗ ROH Hence all have identical (T-shape).
Bouveault-Blanc reduction. 43. (b) In the given reaction sequence
38. (a) According to van der Waal's equation for one mole of pK1 ∗ pK R 1.88 ∗ 3.65 5.53
gas pH < < <
2 2 2
æ a ö = 2.765 » 2.77.
çççP ∗ 2 ÷÷÷ (V , b) < RT
è V ø At isoelectric point of aspartic acid both carboxylic as
well as amino form co-exist.
a
at very high pressure P == 44. (c) No reaction will occur as the Zn is placed above Cu in
V2 electrochemical series. Hence there will be no
displacement reaction.
a
So, is negligible. 45. (a) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces are most
V2 responsible in allowing xenon gas to liquify.
P (V – b) = RT 46. (a)
PV – Pb = RT
47. (a) A - Silica gel packets are used to absorb moisture and
on dividing RT on both sides.
keep things dry i.e. as drying agent.
Pb B - Silicon is a semiconductor and is used in transistors.
[ Z < 1∗ compressibility factor..
RT C - Silicone is used as sealant.
39. (c) Fluorine is most electronegative element in periodic D - Silicates are widely used in ion-exchange beds in
table and exhibits O.S. value of –1 only. domestic and commercial water purification, softening,
40. (d) Since the compound undergoing combustion is an and other applications.
alkane. Hence the combustion reaction can be written
as CH3
|
æ 3n + 1 ö
Cn H 2n + 2 + ç H3C , C , CH 2 , CH < CH 2
÷ O 2 ¾¾
® nCO 2 + (n + 1)H 2O 48. (b) |
è 2 ø CH3
5L 25L
Since volumes are measured at constant T & P. Hence This is the hydrocabon with 7 carbon atoms containing
according to Avogadro's law a neopentyl and a vinyl group.
P1- 14 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]

55. (b) In MnO 24, manganese is in +6 oxidation state which


49. (c) M® MO is having highest stability.
MnO 24, disproportionates in neutral or acidic
– ln KP solution.
C® CO
20 3MnO 24, ∗ 4H ∗ ¾¾ ↑ 2MnO 42, ∗ MnO 2 ∗ 2H 2 O .
56. (d) Primary, secondary and tertiary amines are
distinguished by Hinsberg reagent test. The Hinsberg
reagent is benzene sulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl).
0 1200 57. (d) According to Henry law
T(K)
P1 S1
<
At T < 1200K, carbon will reduce MO(s) to M(s) hence, P2 S2
chemical reaction 500 0.01
<
MO(s) ∗ C(s) ¾¾
↑ M(s) ∗ CO(g) is spontaneous. 750 S2

750 ≥ 0.01
wt. of Sulphur [ S2 < < 0.015 g / L
50. (c) % of Sulphur = wt. of Organic Compound ≥100 500
58. (c) Given DH° = –29.8 kJ mol–1
32 DS° = –1.00 kJ K–1
8< ≥100 From the equation
Wt. of compound
DG = DH° – TDS° = – 29.8 – (298 × –0.100)
32 = – 29.8 + 29.8 = 0
[ Wt. of compound = ≥100 < 400 g mol,1 Now, DG° = –2.303 RT log Keq
8
0 = –2.303 RT log Keq
51. (a) Preparation of egg albumin sol. is done in following \ Keq = 1.
two steps. 59. (d) DG = DH – TDS
(i) Prepare 100 mL of 5% (w/V) solution of NaCl in For a spontaneous reaction DG = –ve
water in a 250 mL beaker. which is possible when both DH and DS are positive at
(ii) Break one egg in a porcelain dish and pipette out high temperature and hence the reaction becomes
the albumin and pour it in sodium chloride spontaneous.
60. (d) The splitting is affected by the oxidation state of the
solution. Stir well to ensure the preparation of sol.
central metal ion. A higher oxidation state leads to larger
Conc. HCl splitting hence
52. (d) 2H3AsO4 ∗ 5H 2S ¾¾ ¾¾¾
↑ As2S5 ∗ 8H 2O
2 moles 1 mole Χo of[Ti(H 2 O)6 ]3∗ ; Χo of[Ti(H 2 O)6 ]2∗
1 moles ½ mole Further Do also depends of Zeff. and Zeff. of 4d series is
more than 3d series.
35.5 Hence
\ number of moles of H3AsO4 = < 0.25 .
142 Χo of [Cr(H 2 O)6 ]2∗ ; Χ o of [Mo(H 2 O)6 ]2∗
0.25
\ number of moles of As2S5 = < 0.125 mol. MATHEMATICS
2
53. (a) On adding eq. (i) and eq. (ii) we get 61. (b) Shortest distance between two lines
x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
O 3 (g) ∗ O(g) ¾¾
↑ 2O 2(g) = = and
a1 b1 c1
Hence overall rate constant = Ki × Kii
= 5.2 × 109 × 2.6 × 1010 » 1.4 × 1020 mol–1 L s–1 x - x2 y - y2 z - z2
= = is given by,,
a2 b2 c2
O3 (g) ∗ Clg (g) ¾¾
↑ O 2 (g) ∗ ClOg (g), K i
x2 - x1 y2 - y1 z2 - z1
g g g
ClO (g) ∗ O (g) ¾¾
↑ O 2 (g) ∗ Cl (g), K ii a1 b1 c1
a2 b2 c2
O3 (g) ∗ Og (g) ¾¾
↑ 2O 2 (g), K Rate < K i ≥K ii
(b1c2 - b2 c1 )2 + (c1a2 - c2 a1 )2 + (a1b2 - a2b1 )2
54. (d) Alitame is an artificial sweetner that is 2,000 times as
sweet as sugar.
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 15

\ The shortest distance between given lines are (b + 1)2 + (b + 1) (b – 1) + b (b – 1)2 = 0


-2 4 5 b2 + 1 + 2b + b2 – 1 + b (b2 – 2b + 1) = 0
2b2 + 2b + b3– 2b2 + b = 0
2 2 1
b3 + 3b = 0
-1 8 4 b(b2 + 3) = 0
(8 - 8)2 + ( -1 - 8) 2 + (16 + 2) 2 b2 = – 3
b = ± 3i
|b| = 3
0 - 36 + 90 54
= = = 2.68
405 20.1 64. (a) Y

1
62. (b) 4+ sin2 2x – 2 cos4 x
2
4 + 2 (1 – cos2 x) cos2 x – 2 cos4 x –2,4
A
E
ìï cos2 x 1 1 üï
- 4 ícos 4 x - -1+ - ý
2 16 16 þï D
îï G B (0, 2)
C
ìïæ 1ö
2
17 üï F
- 4 íç cos 2 x - ÷ - ý X¢ X
è 4ø 16 ïþ O
îï
0 < cos2 x < 1
1 1 3
- £ cos2 x - £ Y¢
4 4 4
2 EF = perpendicular bisector of chord AB
æ 1ö 9
0 £ ç cos2 x - ÷ £ BG = perpendicular to y-axis
è 4ø 16
Here C = centre of the circle
2 mid-point of chord AB, D = (– 1, 3)
17 æ 2 1 ö 17 9 17
- £ ç cos x - ÷ - £ - 4-2
16 è 4 ø 16 16 16 slope of AB = =–1
-2 - 0
17 ìïæ 1ö
2
17 üï 1 Q EF ^ AB
³ -4 íç cos 2 x - ÷ - ý ³ \ Slope of EF = 1
4 ïîè 4ø 16 ïþ 2
Equation of EF, y – 3 = 1(x +1)
Þ y=x+4 ...(i)
17
M= Equation of BG
4 y=2 ...(ii)
1 From equations (i) and (ii)
m= x = – 2, y = 2
2
since C be the point of intersection of EF and BG,
17 2 15 therefore centre, C = (–2, 2)
M–m= - =
4 4 4 Now coordinates of centre C satisfy the equation
2x – 3y + 10 = 0
63. (c) x 2 + bx - 1 = 0 common root Hence 2x – 3y + 10 = 0 is the equation of the diameter
65. (a) L1 : 4x + 3y – 12 = 0
x2 + x + b = 0 L2 : 3x + 4y – 12 = 0
- - - L1 + lL2 = 0
b +1 (4x + 3y – 12) + l (3x + 4y – 12) = 0
x= x (4 + 3l) + y (3 + 4l) – 12 (1 + l) = 0
b -1
æ 12(1 + l) ö
b +1 Point A ç , 0÷
Put x = in equation ...(2) è 4 + 3l ø
b -1
12(1 + l) ö
2 Point B æç 0, ÷
æ b + 1 ö æ b +1 ö è 3 + 4l ø
ç ÷ +ç ÷+b =0
è b - 1 ø è b -1 ø
P1- 16 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]
Area bounded by line and co-ordinate axis
6 (1 + l )
mid point Þ h = ..... (i)
4 + 3l 1 27 3 9
D= . . =
2 cos q sin q sin 2q
6 (1 + l )
k= ..... (ii) D = will be minimum when sin 2q = 1
3 + 4l
Dmin = 9
Eliminate l from (i) and (ii), then
6(h + k) = 7hk t 2 f ( x ) - x 2 f (t )
6(x + y) = 7xy 70. (d) Let L = lim =1
t® x t-x
1 1æ p ö Applying L.H. rule
66. (b) 2ò tan -1 x dx = ò ç - tan -1 (1 - x + x 2 ) ÷ dx
0 0è 2 ø
2t f ( x) - x 2 f ¢ (t )
1 1p 1
L = lim =1
2 ò tan -1 x dx = ò dx - ò tan -1 (1 - x + x 2 ) dx t® x 1
0 0 2 0
2x f (x) – x2 f ¢(x) = 1
1 -1 p 1 solving above differential equation, we get
ò0 tan (1 - x + x 2 ) dx = - 2 ò tan -1 xdx .....(1)
2 0 2 2 1
f (x) = x +
Let 3 3x
1 -1
I1 = ò0 tan xdx
Put x =
3
2
1 1 1
-1
= ëé (tan x ) x ûù - ò0 x dx æ3ö 2 æ3ö 1 2
2
0 1 + x2 f ç ÷ = ´ç ÷ + ´
è2ø 3 è2ø 3 3
p 1 x
4 ò0 1 + x 2
= - dx 3 2 27 + 4 31
= + = =
2 9 18 18
p 1
= - log 2 1
4 2 71. (a) x= [1 + (1 + d) + (1 + 2d)] ..... (1 + 100d)]
101
By equation (1)
p ép 1 ù 1 101
- 2 ê - log 2ú = log 2 = ´ [1 + (1 + 100d)] = 1 + 50d
2 ë4 2 û 101 2
mean deviation from mean
4 2 4 2
67. (d) 2sin x + 18cos x - 2cos x + 18sin x = 1 1
= [|1 – (1 + 50d) | + | (1 + d) – (1 + 50d) |.....|
101
2sin 4 x + 18cos2 x - 2 cos 4 x + 18sin 2 x = ± 1 [1 + 100d] – (1 + 50d)|]

2sin 4 x + 18cos 2 x = ±1 + 2cos4 x + 18sin 2 x 2|d |


= (1 + 2 + 3..... + 50)
101
by squaring both the sides we will get 8 solutions
68. (c) Let equation of plane be 2 | d | 50 ´ 51 2550
a (x – 1) + b (y – 2) + c (z – 2) = 0 .....(1) = ´ = |d|
101 2 101
(1) is perpendicular to given planes then
a – b + 2c = 0 2550
= | d | = 225 Þ| d | = 10.1
2a – 2b + c = 0 101
Solving above equation c = 0 and a = b
2 8 3
equation of plane (1) can be 72. (b) P(A) = = ; P(A Ç B) =
x +y–3=0 5 20 20
distance from (1, – 2, 4) will be 3
| 1- 2 - 3 | 4
(
P AÇ B = 1 – ) 20
D= =2 2 = A B
1+ 1 2 17
69. (c) Equation of tangent to ellipse Þ (
P AÈ B =
20
) 5 3

x y A Ç (A' È B')
cos q + sin q = 1
27 3 = A – (A Ç B)
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 17

5 75. (a) D = a 2 + (a 2 - 4)2


\ P (A – (A Ç B)) =
20 D2 = a2 + a4 + 16 - 8a2
= a4 - 7a2 + 16
P ( A - ( A Ç B) ) 5
\ P (A / (A' Ç B')) = =
(
P AÈ B ) 17 dD 2
= 4a3 - 14a = 0
da
15 æ 15C ö 2a(2a2 - 7) = 0
73. (d) å r 2 ç 15 r
÷ 7
r =1 è Cr -1 ø a2 =
2
15 1
15 - r r 15 - r r - 1
15Cr 15 1 O
= =
15Cr -1 r - 1 16 - r r - 1| 15 - r .(16 - r )
2
(a , a – 4)
16 - r
=
r
49 49 49 15
D2 = - + 16 = - + 16 =
15 15 4 2 4 4
æ 16 - r ö
= å r 2 çè r ø=
÷ å r (16 - r )
r =1 r =1 15
D=
15 15
2
= 16å r - å r
2

r =1 r =1 76. (a) y = x2 – 5x + 4

16 ´ 15 ´ 16 15 ´ 31 ´ 16
= -
2 6
= 8 × 15 × 16 – 5 × 8 × 31 = 1920 – 1240 = 680 (3,0)
74. (d) x – y = 4 A1 (4,0)
To find equation of R
slope of L = 0 is 1 (3,–2)
Þ slope of QR = – 1 x + y =1
Let QR is y = mx + c
Required area = A1 + A2
y=–x+c
x+y–c=0 1 4
ò3 ( x
2
= ×2×2+ - 5 x + 4) dx
distance of QR from (2, 1) is 2 3 2
7 19
| 2 +1- c | = 2+ = sq. units
2 3 = 6 6
2
77. (d) AB = -4$i + 2 $j + ( p + 1)k$

P(2,1) AC = 2$i + (q - 1) $j – 3k$


L=0
(4,0) AB ^ AC
Þ AB. AC = 0
2 3
x–y=4
C
Q
R
2 6 = |3 – c|
c – 3 = ±2 6 c = 3 ± 2 6
Line can be x + y = 3 ± 2 6
x+y=3– 2 6 A B
P1- 18 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]
– 8 + 2 (q – 1) – 3 (p + 1) = 0
1
3p – 2q + 13 = 0 f3 (x) = f2 + 1 (x) = f0 (f2 (x)) = f0 (x) =
1- x
(p, q) lies on 3x – 2y + 13 = 0
3 x -1
slope = f4 (x) = f3 + 1 (x) = f0 (f3 (x)) =
2 x
\ Acute angle with x-axis
1
\ f0 = f3 = f6 = .......... =
dx dx 1- x
78. (a) ò cos3 x 4sin x cos x
= ò 2 cos4 x tan x
x -1
Let tan x = t2 Þ sec2 x=1+ t4 f1 = f4 = f7 = .......... =
x
sec2 x dx = 2t dt
f2 = f5 = f8 = .......... = x
sec 4 x dx sec 2 x (sec2 x dx )
= ò2 tan x
= ò 2 tan x 2
3 -1 2 æ 2 ö 3 -1 1
f100 (3) = = f1 ç ÷ = =-
(1 + t 4 )2t dt 3 3 è 3ø 2 2
= ò 2t
= ò (1 + t 4 ) dt 3

t5 æ 3ö 3
= t+ +k f2 ç ÷ =
5 è 2ø 2
1
= tan x + tan 5 / 2 x + k ét = tan x ù æ 2ö æ 3ö 5
5 ë û \ f100 (3) + f1 ç ÷ + f2 ç ÷=
è 3ø è 2ø 3
1 5 1
A= ,B= ,C= ìï- x
2 2 5 x <1
82. (a) f (x) = í -1
ïîa + cos ( x + b) 1 £ x £ 2
16
A+B+C=
5 f (x) is continuous
79. (a) Contra positive of P : Þ lim f (x) = lim a + cos–1 (x + b) = f (x)
T is not divisible by 2 Þ T is not odd number x ®1- x ®1+
T Þ F : F (V1) Þ –1 = a + cos–1 (1 + b)
Contra positive Q :
cos–1 (1 + b) = – 1 – a .....(1)
T is not odd number Þ T is not a prime number
f (x) is differentiate
F Þ F : T (V2)
Þ LHD = RHD
(3,3) -1
Þ –1=
80. (a) 2 2 1 - (1 + b) 2
(1,1)
Final Þ 1 – (1 + b)2 = 1
(3,1) Þ b=–1 .....(2)
position (2,1) 1
From (1) Þ cos–1(0) = – 1 – a

p
\ –1–a=
2
So new position is at the point 1 + i p
a = –1 –
2
1 x -1
81. (c) f1 (x) = f0 + 1 (x) = f0 (f0 (x)) = = -p - 2
1 x a= .....(3)
1- 2
1- x

1
a p+2
f2 (x) = f1 + 1 (x) = f0 (f1 (x)) = =x \ =
x -1 b 2
1-
x
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April] P1- 19

2x 86. (a) S(5, 0) is focus Þ ae = 5 (focus) ––––– (1)


æ a 4 ö
83. (b) lim ç 1 + - 2 ÷ (1¥ form) a a 9
x ®¥ è x x ø x= Þ = (directrix) ––––– (2)
5 e 5
é æ a 4 ö ù
= e ê lim ç 1 + - 2 - 1÷ 2 x ú
ë x®¥ è x x ø û (1) & (2) Þ a2 = 9

æ 8ö 5
= e lim ç 2a - ÷ = e2a (1) Þ (e) =
x ®¥ è xø 3

\ 2a = 3 Þ a = 3/2 b2 = a2 (e2 – 1) Þ b2 = 16
84. (b) x + y + z = 12 a2 – b2 = 9 – 16 = – 7
AM > GM
é 3 1 ù é 3 -1 ù
æ xö æ yö æ zö ê ú ê ú
3ç ÷ + 4 ç ÷ + 5 ç ÷ (c) P = ê 2 2 ú T 2 2 ú
3 4 5
æ xö æ yö æ zö 87. P = ê
è3ø è 4ø è5ø > 12 ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷ ê 1 3ú ê 1 3ú
12 è3ø è 4ø è5ø ê- ú ê ú
ë 2 2 û ë 2 2 û
x3 y 4 z 5 PPT = PTP = I
3 4 5 <1
34 5 Q2015 = (PAPT) (PAPT) ––––– (2015 terms)
x3 y4 z5 < 33 .44 .55 = PA2015PT
x3 y4 z5 < (0.1) (600)3 PTQ2015P = A2015
But, given x3 y4 z5 = (0.1) (600)3
\ all the number are equal é1 1 ù é1 1 ù é 1 2ù
A2 = ê 0 1 ú ê 0 1 ú = ê 0 1 ú
ë ûë û ë û
x y z
\ = = (= k)
3 4 5 é 1 2ù é1 1ù é1 3 ù
x = 3k; y = 4k; z = 5k A3 = ê 0 1 ú ê 0 1 ú = ê 0 1 ú
ë ûë û ë û
x + y + z = 12
3k + 4k + 5k = 12 é 1 2015 ù
k=1 \ A2015 = ê 0 1 úû
ë
\ x = 3; y = 4; z = 5
\ x3 + y3 + z3 = 216 88. (a) S = (1 + x)2016 + x (1 + x)2015 + x2(1 + x)2014
+.....+ x2015 (1 + x) + x2016 ...(i)
cos x sin x sin x
85. (c) sin x cos x sin x = 0 æ x ö
ç ÷ S = x (1 + x)2015 + x2 (1 + x)2014 + ..... +
sin x sin x cos x è 1+ x ø

R1 ® R1 – R2 x 2017
x2016 + ...(ii)
R2 ® R2 – R3 1+ x

cos x - sin x sin x - cos x 0 Subtracting (i) from (ii)


0 cos x - sin x sin x - cos x = 0 S x 2017
sin x sin x cos x = (1 + x)2016 –
1+ x 1+ x
C2 ® C2 + C3 \ S = (1 + x)2017 – x2017
cos x - sin x sin x - cos x 0 2017!
a17 = coefficient of x17 = 2017C17 =
0 0 sin x - cos x = 0 17!2000!
sin x sin x cos x 89. (b) M, EEE, D. I, T, RR, AA, NN
Expanding using second row R––E
2 sin x (sin x – cos x)2 = 0 Two empty places can be filled with identical letters
sin x = 0 or sin x = cos x [EE, AA, NN] Þ 3 ways
Two empty places, can be filled with distinct letters
p [M, E, D, I, T, R, A, N] Þ 8P2
x = 0 or x =
4 \ Number of words 3 + 8P2 = 59
P1- 20 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [9 April]
90. (d) P (4t2 + 3,8t3 – 1) Þ t3 – 3l2t + 2l3 = 0
(t – l) . (t2 + tl – 2l2) = 0
dy / dt dy
= = 3t (slope of tangent at P) (t – l)2 . (t + 2l) = 0
dt / dt dx
Let Q = (4l2 + 3,8l3 – 1) -t
t = l (or) l =
slope of PQ = 3t 2
\ Q [t2 + 3, – t3 – 1].
8t 3 - 8l 3
= 3t
4t 2 - 4l 2
JEE MAIN ONLINE - 2016
(Held on 10 April 2016)

Time : 3 Hours • Each correct answer has + 4 marks • Each wrong answer has – 1 mark. Max. Marks : 360

PHYSICS 4. Concrete mixture is made by mixing cement, stone and sand


in a rotating cylindrical drum. If the drum rotates too fast,
1. A conducting metal circular–wire–loop of radius r is placed the ingredients remain stuck to the wall of the drum and
perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies with time as proper mixing of ingredients does not take place. The
-t maximum rotational speed of the drum in revolutions per
B = B0 e t , where B0 and t are constants, at time t = 0. If minute (rpm) to ensure proper mixing is close to :
the resistance of the loop is R then the heat generated in (Take the radius of the drum to be 1.25 m and its axle to be
horizontal):
the loop after a long time (t ® ¥) is ;
(a) 27.0 (b) 0.4
(c) 1.3 (d) 8.0
p 2 r 4 B04 p 2 r 4 B02 5. The ratio (R) of output resistance r 0, and the input
(a) (b)
2tR 2tR resistance r i in measurements of input and output
characteristics of a transistor is typically in the range :
p 2 r 4 B02 R p 2 r 4 B02 (a) R ~ 102 – 103 (b) R ~ 1 – 10
(c) (d)
t tR (c) R ~ 0.1 – 1.0 (d) R ~0.1 – 0.01
2. Within a spherical charge distribution of charge density 6. Consider an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum.
r(r), N equipotential surfaces of potential V0, V0 + DV, V0 + Choose the correct statement :
(a) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in +y
2DV, .........V0 + NDV (DV > 0), are drawn and have increasing
radii r0, r1, r2,......... rN, respectively. If the difference in the r 1
direction the electric field is E = E yz (x, t)zˆ and
radii of the surfaces is constant for all values of V0 and DV 2
then :
r 1
1 the magnetic field is B = Bz (x, t)yˆ
(a) r(r) = constant (b) r(r) µ 2 2
r (b) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in +y
1 r 1
(c) r(r) µ (d) r(r) µ r direction the electric field is E = E yz (x, t)yˆ and
r 2
3. A thin 1 m long rod has a radius of 5 mm. A force of 50 pkN r 1
is applied at one end to determine its Young's modulus. the magnetic field is B = Byz (x, t)zˆ
Assume that the force is exactly known. If the least count in 2
the measurement of all lengths is 0.01 mm, which of the (c) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in
following statements is false ? r 1
(a) The maximum value of Y that can be determined is +x direction the electric field is E = E yz (y, z, t)
2
1014N/m2.
( yˆ + zˆ ) and the magnetic field is
DY
(b) gets minimum contribution from the uncertainty r
Y 1
B= Byz (y, z, t) ( yˆ + zˆ )
in the length 2
(d) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in +x
DY
(c) gets its maximum contribution from the r 1
Y direction the electric field is E = E yz (x, t) ( yˆ - zˆ )
uncertainty in strain 2
(d) The figure of merit is the largest for the length of the r 1
rod. and the magnetic field is B = B yz (x, t) ( yˆ + zˆ )
2
P2- 2 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
7. Velocity–time graph for a body of mass 10 kg is shown in (a) VB = 40 mV; VW = 135 mV with left side of pilot at
figure. Work–done on the body in first two seconds of the higher voltage
motion is : (b) VB = 45 mV; VW = 120 mV with right side of pilot at
higher voltage
v (m/s) (c) VB = 40 mV; VW = 135 mV with right side of pilot at
-1 higher voltage
50 ms
(d) VB = 45 mV; VW = 120 mV with left side of pilot at
higher voltage
12. A hemispherical glass body of radius 10 cm and refractive
index 1.5 is silvered on its curved surface. A small air bubble
is 6 cm below the flat surface inside it along the axis. The
position of the iamge of the air bubble made by the mirror is
seen :

(0,0) 10 cm
10s t(s)
6cm
(a) – 9300 J (b) 12000 J
O
(c) –4500 J (d) –12000 J
8. In the figure shown ABC is a uniform wire. If centre of mass Silvered

BC (a) 14 cm below flat surface


of wire lies vertically below point A, then is close to :
AB (b) 20 cm below flat surface
(c) 16 cm below flat surface
A
(d) 30 cm below flat surface
13. Figure shows a network of capacitors where the numbers
indicates capacitances in micro Farad. The value of
60°
capacitance C if the equivalent capacitance between point
B C A and B is to be 1 mF is :
(a) 1.85 (b) 1.5
(c) 1.37 (d) 3 C 1
9. A particle of mass m is acted upon by a force F given by the A
R 8 6 4
empirical law F = 2 v(t). If this law is to be tested
t
experimentally by observing the motion starting from rest,
the best way is to plot : 2 2 12

1 B
(a) log v(t) against
t
(b) v(t) against t2
1 32 31
(a) mF (b) mF
(c) log v(t) against 2 23 23
t
(d) log v(t) against t 33 34
(c) mF (d) mF
10. To determine refractive index of glass slab using a travelling 23 23
microscope, minimum number of readings required are : 14. A particle of mass M is moving in a circle of fixed radius R in
(a) Two (b) Four such a way that its centripetal acceleration at time t is given
(c) Three (d) Five by n2R t2 where n is a constant. The power delivered to the
11. A fighter plane of length 20 m, wing span (distance from tip particle by the force acting on it, is :
of one wing to the tip of the other wing) of 15m and height
5m is lying towards east over Delhi. Its speed is 240 ms–1. 1
(a) M n2 R2t2 (b) M n2R2t
The earth's magnetic field over Delhi is 5 × 10–5T with the 2
2 (c) M n R2t2 (d) M n R2t
declination angle ~0° and dip of q such that sin q =. If the 15. A, B, C and D are four different physical quantities having
3
different dimensions. None of them is dimensionless. But
voltage developed is VB between the lower and upper side
we know that the equation AD = C ln (BD) holds true. Then
of the plane and VW between the tips of the wings then VB
which of the combination is not a meaningful quantity ?
and VW are clsoe to :
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 3

20. A Carnot freezer takes heat from water at 0°C inside it and
C AD 2 rejects it to the room at a temperature of 27°C. The latent
(a) - (b) A2 –B2C2
BD C heat of ice is 336 × 103 J kg–1. If 5 kg of water at 0°C is
A (A - C) converted into ice at 0°C by the freezer, then the energy
(c) -C (d) consumed by the freezer is close to :
B D
(a) 1.51 × 105 J (b) 1.68 × 106 J
16. A modulated signal Cm(t) has the form Cm(t) = 30 sin 300pt 7
(c) 1.71 × 10 J (d) 1.67 × 105 J
+ 10 (cos 200pt – cos 400pt). The carrier frequency fc, the
21. A galvanometer has a 50 division scale. Battery has no
modulating frequency (message frequency) fw and the
internal resistance. It is found that there is deflection of 40
modulation indix m are respectively given by :
divisions when R = 2400 W. Deflection becomes 20 divisions
1 when resistance taken from resistance box is 4900 W. Then
(a) fc = 200 Hz; fw = 50 Hz; m =
2 we can conclude:
2
(b) fc = 150 Hz; fw = 50 Hz; m = R
3
1
(c) fc = 150 Hz; fw = 30 Hz; m =
3 G
1
(d) fc = 200 Hz; fw = 30 Hz; m =
2
17. In an engine the piston undergoes vertical simple harmonic
motion with amplitude 7 cm. A washer rests on top of the
piston and moves with it. The motor speed is slowly 2V
increased. The frequency of the piston at which the washer
no longer stays in contact with the piston, is close to : (a) Current sensitivity of galvanometer is 20 mA/ division.
(a) 0.7 Hz (b) 1.9 Hz (b) Resistance of galvanometer is 200W.
(c) 1.2 Hz (d) 0.1 Hz (c) Resistance required on R.B. for a deflection of 10
18. To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the divisions is 9800W.
input must be : (d) Full scale deflection current is 2 mA.
22. A bottle has an opening of radius a and length b. A cork of
a length b and radius (a + Da) where (Da < < a) is compressed
b to fit into the opening completely (see figure). If the bulk
Y modulus of cork is B and frictional coefficient between the
c bottle and cork is m then the force needed to push the cork
into the bottle is :
(a) a = 0, b = 0, c = 1 (b) a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
(c) a = 1, b = 0, c = 1 (d) a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
a
19. Consider a thin metallic sheet perpendicular to the plane of
the paper moving with speed 'v' in a uniform magnetic field
B going into the plane of the paper (See figure). If charge
b
densities s1 and s2 are induced on the left and right
surfaces, respectively, of the sheet then (ignore fringe
effects):
v

s1 s2 (a) (pmB b) a (b) (2pmBb) Da


- Î0 vB Î vB (c) (pmB b) Da (d) (4 pmB b) Da
(a) s1 = , s2 = 0 23. A toy–car, blowing its horm, is moving with a steady speed
2 2
of 5 m/s, away from a wall. An observer, towards whom the
(b) s1 = Î0 vB, s 2 = - Î0 vB toy car is moving, is able to hear 5 beats per second. If the
Î0 v B - Î0 vB velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, the frequency of the
(c) s1 = , s2 = horn of the toy car is close to :
2 2
(a) 680 Hz (b) 510 Hz
(d) s1 = s 2 = Î0 vB (c) 340 Hz (d) 170 Hz
P2- 4 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
24. A realistic graph depicting the variation of the reciprocal of
input resistance in an input characteristics measurement in
a common emitter transistor configuration is : P

(a)
1 -1 (a)
(W )
ri
0.01 O r

0 0.6 1
P
VBE (V)

(b)
(b) 1 -1
(W ) O r
ri
0.01

P
0 0.6 1
VBE (V)
(c)

O r
(c) 1 -1
(W )
ri

P
10

0 0.6 1
(d)
VBE (V)
O r

(d) 1 -1 27. The resistance of an electrical toaster has a temperature


(W ) dependence given by R(T) = R0 [1 + a(T – T0)] in its range
ri
of operation. At T0 = 300K, R = 100 W and at T = 500 K, R =
0.1 120 W. The toaster is connected to a voltage source at 200
V and its temperature is raised at a constant rate from 300 to
500 K in 30 s. The total work done in raising the temperature
is :
0 0.6 1
VBE (V) 5 2
(a) 400ln J (b) 200ln J
6 3
25. A neutron moving with a speed 'v' makes a head on collision 1.5
(c) 300 J (d) 400 ln J
with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state. The 1.3
minimum kinetic energy of the neutron for which inelastic 28. Two stars are 10 light years away from the earth. They are
collision will take place is : seen through a telescope of objective diameter 30 cm. The
(a) 20.4 eV (b) 10.2 eV wavelength of light is 600 nm. To see the stars just resolved
by the telescope, the minimum distance between them
(c) 12.1 eV (d) 16.8 eV
should be (1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m) of the order of :
26. Which of the following shows the correct relationship
(a) 108 km (b) 1010 km
between the pressure 'P' and density r of an ideal gas at 11
constant temperature ? (c) 10 km (d) 106 km
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 5

29. An astronaut of mass m is working on a satellite orbiting 37. The "N" which does not contribute to the basicity for the
the earth at a distance h from the earth's surface. The radius compound is :
of the earth is R, while its mass is M. The gravitational pull
FG on the astronaut is : 6 7
5 N
(a) Zero since astronaut feels weightless 1N
GMm GMm 8
(b) < FG <
(R + h)2 R2 2
N 4 N 9
3 H
GMm
(c) FG = (a) N 9 (b) N 3
(R + h) 2 (c) N 1 (d) N 7
GMm 38. The commercial name for calcium oxide is :
(d) 0 < FG < (a) Quick lime (b) Milk of lime
R2 (c) Slaked lime (d) Limestone
30. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by 39. Which one of the following reagents is not suitable for the
l elimination reaction ?
monochromatic light of wavelengths l and . If the
2 Br
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in
(a) NaI (b) NaOEt/ EtOH
the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work
function of the surface is : (c) NaOH / H2O (d) NaOH / H2O – EtOH
40. Which one of the following substances used in dry cleaning
hc hc is a better strategy to control environmental pollution ?
(a) (b)
2l l (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide
hc 3hc (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Tetrachloroethylene
(c) (d) 41. The transition metal ions responsible for colour in ruby and
3l l
emerald are, respectively :
CHEMISTRY (a) Co3+ and Cr 3+ (b) Co3+ and Co3+
3+
(c) Cr and Cr 3+ (d) Cr3+ and Co3+
31. Which of the following polymers is synthesized using a 42. The bond angle H–X–H is the greatest in the compound :
free radical polymerization technique ?
(a) PH3 (b) CH4
(a) Terylene (b) Melamine polymer
(c) NH3 (d) H2O
(c) Nylon 6, 6 (d) Teflon
43. An aqueous solution of a salt MX2 at certain temperature
32. The volume of 0.1 N dibasic acid sufficient to neutralize 1 g
has a van't Hoff factor of 2. The degree of dissociation for
of a base that furnishes 0.04 mole of OH– in aqueous solution
this solution of the salt is :
is :
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.33
(a) 400 mL (b) 600 mL
(c) 200 mL (d) 800 mL (c) 0.67 (d) 0.80
33. Aqueous solution of which salt will not contain ions with 44. Oxidation of succinate ion produces ethylene and carbon
the electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6? dioxide gases. On passing 0.2 Faraday electricity through
(a) NaF (b) KBr an aqueous solution of potassium succinate, the total
(c) NaCl (d) CaI2 volume of gases (at both cathode and anode) at STP (1 atm
34. Fluorination of an aromatic ring is easily accomplished by and 273 K) is :
treating a diazonium salt with HBF4. Which of the following (a) 8.96 L (b) 4.48 L
conditions is correct about this reaction? (c) 6.72 L (d) 2.24 L
(a) NaF/Cu (b) Cu2O/H2O 45. Observation of "Rhumann's purple" is a confirmatory test
(c) Only heat (d) NaNO2/Cu for the presence of :
35. Gold numbers of some colloids are : Gelatin : 0.005 – 0.01, (a) Starch (b) Reducing sugar
Gum arabic : 0.15 – 0.25; Oleate : 0.04 – 1.0; Starch : 15 – 25. (c) Protein (d) Cupric ion
Which among these is a better protective colloid ? 46. The correct statement about the synthesis of erythritol
(a) Gelatin (b) Starch (C(CH2OH)4) used in the preparation of PETN is :
(c) Oleate (d) Gum arabic (a) Thy synthesis requires three aldol condensations and
36. Sodium extract is heated with concentrated HNO3 before one Cannizzaro reaction.
testing for halogens because : (b) Alpha hydrogens of ethanol and methanol are
(a) Ag2S and AgCN are soluble in acidic medium involved in this reaction.
(b) Silver halides are totally insoluble in nitric acid (c) The synthesis requires two aldol condensations and
(c) S2– and CN–, if present, are decomposed by conc. two Cannizzaro reactions.
HNO3 and hence do not interfere in the test. (d) The synthesis requires four aldol condensations
(d) Ag reacts faster with halides in acidic medium. between methanol and ethanol.
P2- 6 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
47. Which of the following is a bactericidal antibiotic ? 56. Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given below
(a) Ofloxacin (b) Tetracycline yields :
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) Erythromycin
48. Identify the incorrect statement : Br2/hv
(a) The S–S–S bond angles in the S8 and S6 rings are the
same.
(b) Rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8 molecules. Br Br
(c) S2 is paramagnetic like oxygen
(d) S8 ring has a crown shape. (a) (b)
49. Extraction of copper by smelting uses silica as an additive Br Br
to remove :
Br
(a) Cu2O (b) FeS
(c) FeO (d) Cu2S Br
50. Identify the reaction which does not liberate hydrogen :
(a) Reaction of lithium hydride with B2H6.
(b) Electrolysis of acidified water using Pt electrodes
(c) Reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali (c) (d)
(d) Allowing a solution of sodium in liquid ammonia to
stand
51. The rate law for the reaction below is given by the Br
expression k [A][B] 57. Assertion : Among the carbon allotropes, diamond is an
A + B ® Product insulator, whereas, graphite is a good conductor of
electricity.
If the concentration of B is increased from 0.1 to 0.3 mole,
Reason : Hybridization of carbon in diamond and graphite
keeping the value of A at 0.1 mole, the rate constant will be
are sp3 and sp2, respectively.
:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason
(a) 3k (b) 9k is not the correct explanation for the assertion
(c) k/3 (d) k (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason
52. The following statements concern elements in the periodic is the correct explanation for the assertion.
table. Which of the following is true ? (c) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
(a) For Group 15 elements, the stability of +5 oxidation (d) Assertion is incorrect statement, but the reason is
state increases down the group correct.
(b) Elements of Group 16 have lower ionization enthalpy 58. Consider the reaction sequence below :
values compared to those of Group 15 in the OCH3
corresponding periods.
(c) The Group 13 elements are all metals Succinic anhydride Clemmenson 's
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® A ¾¾¾¾¾¾® X is
(d) All the elements in Group 17 are gases. AlCl3 reduction
53. A solid XY kept in an evacuated sealed container undergoes
decomposition to form a mixture of gases X and Y at OH
OCH3
temperature T. The equilibrium pressure is 10 bar in the
vessel. Kp for this reaction is :
(a) 25 (b) 100 (a)
(c) 10 (d) 5
54. If 100 mole of H2O2 decomposes at 1 bar and 300 K, the
work done (kJ) by one mole of O2(g) as it expands against 1
bar pressure is : OH
2H2O2(l) ƒ H2O(l) + O2(g) OH
(R = 83 JK mol–1)
–1

(a) 124.50 (b) 249.00 H3CO


(c) 498.00 (d) 62.25 (b)
55. Which of the following is an example of homoleptic complex?
(a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
OH
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 7

OCH3 (a) ( - 2,1 - 3) (b) ( 2, -1 + 3)

(c) ( 2,1 - 3) (d) ( - 2,1 + 3)


64. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a
(c) point A, due east of it is 45°. The angle of elevation of the
top of the same tower from a point B, due south of A is 30°.
If the distance between A and B is 54 2 m, then the height
H3CO of the tower (in metres), is :
(a) 108 (b) 36 3
(d)
(c) 54 3 (d) 54
65. P and Q are two distinct points on the parabola, y2 = 4x,
59. Initially, the root mean square (rms) velocity of N2 molecules
with parameters t and t1 respectively. If the nromal at P
at certain temperature is u. If this temperature is doubled
and all the nitrogen molecules dissociate into nitrogen passes through Q, then the minimum value of t12 is :
atoms, then the rms velocity will be :
(a) 8 (b) 4
(a) 2u (b) 14 u
(c) 6 (d) 2
(c) 4u (d) u/2
60. Identify the correct statement : 66. ABC is triangle in a plane with vertices A (2, 3, 5), B (–1, 3, 2)
(a) Corrosion of iron can be minimized by forming a and C (l, 5, m). If the median through A is equally inclined to
contact with another metal with a higher reduction the coordinate axes, then the value of (l3 + m3 + 5) is :
potential (a) 1130 (b) 1348
(b) Iron corrodes in oxygen free water (c) 1077 (d) 676
(c) Corrosion of iron can be minimized by forming an 67. The solution of the differential equaiton
impermeable barrier at its surface dy y tan x p
(d) Iron corrodes more rapidly in salt water because its + sec x= , where 0 £ x < , and y(0) = 1, is
electrochemical potential is higher dx 2 2y 2
given by :
MATHEMATICS
x x
61. For x Î R, x ¹ 0, if y(x) is a differentiable function such that (a) y2 = 1 + (b) y = 1 +
sec x + tan x sec x + tan x
x x
x x
x ò y(t)dt = (x + 1)ò ty(t)dt , then y(x) equals : (c) y= 1 – (d) y2 = 1 –
sec x + tan x sec x + tan x
1 1
(where C is a constant) 68. The value of the integral
10
-
1 [x 2 ]dx
(a) 3 x
Cx e
1
(b)
C
e x ò é x 2 - 28x + 196ù + [x 2 ] , where [x]
x2 4 ë û
1
-
1 denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is :
C -x C x
(c) e (d) e
x x3 1
(a) (b) 6
3
10
(c) 7 (d) 3
62. The sum å (r 2 + 1) × (r!) is equal to : 69. Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix such that A2 – 5A + 71 = 0.
r =1
(a) 11 × (11!) (b) 10 × (11!) -1 1
(c) (11!) (d) 101 × (10!) Statement–I : A = (51 - A) .
7
63. Let a, b Î R, (a ¹ 0) . if the function f defined as Statement II : the polynomial A3 – 2A2 – 3A + 1 can be
reduced to 5 (A – 4I).
ì 2x 2 Then :
ï , 0 £ x <1
ï a (a) Both the statements are true.
ï (b) Both the statements are false.
ía , 1£ x < 2
f(x) = ï 2 (c) Statement–I is true, but Statement-II is false.
ï 2b - 4b , 2£x<¥ (d) Statement I is false, but Statement-II is true.
ïî x 3 70. Let a1, a2, a3, ...., an, be in A.P. If a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72,
then the sum of its first 17 terms is equal to :
is continuous in the interval [0, ¥) , then an ordered pair (a) 306 (b) 204
(a, b) is : (c) 153 (d) 612
P2- 8 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
79. A hyperbola whose transverse axis is along the major axis
é -4 -1ù
71. If A = ê3 1 ú , then the determinant of the matrix
ë û x 2 y2
of the conic, + = 4 and has vertices at the foci of this
(A2016 – 2A2015 – A2014) is : 3 4
(a) –175 (b) 2014
3
(c) 2016 (d) –25 conic. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is , then which
72. Let ABC be a triangle whose circumcentre is at P. If the 2
r r r of the following points does NOT lie on it ?
r r r a +b+c
position vectors A, B, C and P are a, b, c and (a)
4 ( 5, 2 2) (b) (0, 2)
respectively, then the position vector of the orthocentre of
this triangle, is : (c) (5, 2 3) (d) ( 10, 2 3)
r r r 80. An experiment succeeds twice as often as it fails. The
æ a + b + cö r
(a) - ç 2 ÷ø (b) ar + b + cr probability of at least 5 successes in the six trials of this
è experiment is :
r r r
æ a + b + cö r 496 192
çè (a) (b)
(c) 2 ÷ø (d) 0 729 729
73. Let z = 1 + ai be a complex number, a > 0, such that z3 is areal 240 256
number. Then the sum 1 + z + z2 + .... + z11 is equal to : (c) (d)
729 729
(a) 1365 3i (b) -1365 3i 81. The contrapositive of the following statement,
(c) -1250 3i (d) 1250 3i "If the side of a square doubles, then its area increases four
74. Equation of the tangent to the circle, at the point (1, –1) times", is :
whose centre is the point of intersection of the straight (a) If the area of a square increases four times, then its
lines x – y = 1 and 2x + y = 3 is : side is not doubled.
(a) x + 4y + 3 = 0 (b) 3x – y – 4 = 0 (b) If the area of a square increases four times, then its
(c) x – 3y – 4 = 0 (d) 4x + y – 3 = 0 side is doubled.
75. A straight line through origin O meets the lines 3y = 10 – 4x (c) If the area of a square does not increases four times,
and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0 at points A and B respectively. Then O
then its side is not doubled.
divides the segment AB in the ratio :
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (d) If the side of a square is not doubled, then its area
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 3 : 4 does not increase four times.

dx 82. Let P = {q : sinq – cosq = 2 cosq} and Q = {q : sinq + cosq


76. The integral ò is equal to : = 2 sinq} be two sets. Then :
(1 + x ) x - x 2
(where C is a constant of integration) (a) P Ì Q and Q - P ¹ f

1+ x 1- x (b) QËP
(a) -2 +C (b) - +C
1- x 1+ x (c) P= Q
(d) PËQ
1- x 1+ x
(c) -2 +C (d) 2 +C n +2
1+ x 1- x C6
83. If n -2 = 11, then n satisfies the equation :
P2
p
77. If A > 0, B > 0 and A + B = , then the minimum value of
6 (a) n2 + n – 110 = 0 (b) n2 + 2n – 80 = 0
tanA + tanB is : (c) n2 + 3n – 108 = 0 (d) n2 + 5n – 84 = 0
(a) 3- 2 (b) 4-2 3 84. If x is a solution of the equation,

2 æ 1ö
2x + 1 - 2x - 1= 1, ç x ³ ÷ , then
(c) (d) 2 - 3 è 2ø 4x 2 - 1 is equal
3
78. A ray of light is incident along a line which meets another to :
line, 7x – y + 1 = 0, at the point (0, 1). The ray is then 3 1
reflected from this point along the line, y + 2x = 1. Then the (a) (b)
4 2
equation of the line of incidence of the ray of light is :
(a) 41x – 25y + 25 = 0 (b) 41x + 25y – 25 = 0 (c) 2 2 (d) 2
(c) 41x – 38y + 38 = 0 (d) 41x + 38y – 38 = 0
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 9

4x - 3, x >
3 ù 5p 3p ù ù p 5p ù
85. Let C be a curve given by y(x) = 1 +
4
. If P is (a) úû 8 , 4 úû (b) úû 2 , 8 úû

2
a point on C, such that the tangent at P has slope , then ùp pù ù pù
3 (c) úû 4 , 2 úû (d) úû 0, 4 úû
a point through which the normal at P passes, is :
(a) (1, 7) (b) (3, –4) (1 - cos 2x) 2
(c) (4, –3) (d) (2, 3) 89. lim is :
x ®0 2x tan x - x tan 2x
86. The number of distinct real values of l for which the lines
1
x -1 y - 2 z + 3 x - 3 y - 2 z -1 (a) 2 (b) -
= = 2 and = = are 2
1 2 l 1 l2 2
coplanar is : 1
(c) –2 (d)
(a) 2 (b) 4 2
(c) 3 (d) 1 90. If the coefficients of x–2 and x–4 in the expansion of
87. The mean of 5 observations is 5 and their variance is 124. If
18
three of the observations are 1, 2 and 6; then the mean æ 1 ö
deviation from the mean of the data is : çx3 + 1 ÷ m
ç 1÷ , (x > 0), are m and n respectively, then is
(a) 2.5 (b) 2.6 çè ÷ n
2x 3 ø
(c) 2.8 (d) 2.4
88. 4 4
Let f(x) = sin x + cos x. Then f is an increasing function in equal to :
the interval : (a) 27 (b) 182
5 4
(c) (d)
4 5
P2- 10 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (d) 21. Inc. 31. (d) 41. (c) 51. (d) 61. (d) 71. (d) 81. (c)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (b) 52. (b) 62. (b) 72. (c) 82. (c)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (d) 33. (a) 43. (a) 53. (a) 63. (c) 73. (b) 83. (c)
4. (a) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (c) 44. (a) 54. (a) 64. (d) 74. (a) 84. (a)
5. (c) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (a) 45. (c) 55. (a) 65. (a) 75. (c) 85. (a)
6. (d) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (a) 56. (d) 66. (b) 76. (c) 86. (c)
7. (c) 17. (b) 27. None 37. (a) 47. (a) 57. (a) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (c)
8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (a) 38. (a) 48. (a) 58. (d) 68. (d) 78. (c) 88. (c)
9. (a) 19. (b) 29. (c) 39. (a) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (a) 79. (c) 89. (c)
10. (c) 20. (d) 30. (a) 40. (d) 50. (a) 60. (c) 70. (a) 80. (d) 90. (b)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


PHYSICS 4. (a) For just complete rotation

1. (b) Electric flux is given by v < Rg at top point


f = B.A The rotational speed of the drum

f = B0 pr 2 e - t / t ∋Q B < B0e,t/ t ( Þω<


v
<
g
<
10
R R 1.25
df B0 pr 2 - t / t The maximum rotational speed of the drum in
Induced E.m.f. e = = e revolutions per minute
dt t2
60 10
¥ 2
e p 2r 4B 2 ω(rpm) < < 27 .
Heat = ò = 0 2p 1.25
R 2tR
0
ri
,dv 5. (c) For C.B. configuration r ? 0.1ς
2. (c) As we know electric field, E < o
dr
For CE and CC-configuration
E = constant \ dv and dr same
ri
Kf » 1ς .
E= =c r0
r2 v0 v0 + v v0 + 2D v
6. (d) Wave in X-direction means E and B should be function
Þ f µ r2 r r of x and t.
) ) ) )
r y,z ] y∗z
\ f = ò r4 pr 2 dr
v – 4 (0 , 50) < ,5 m / s 2
0 7. (c) Acceleration (a) = = (10 , 0)
t
1
Þrµ u = 50 m/s
r \ v = u + at = 50 – 5t
F Dl Veocity in first two seconds t = 2
3. (a) Young's modulus Y = /
A l v(at t <2) < 40 m / s
Fl
Y< From work-energy theorem,
pr 2Χl
1
Given, radius r = 5mm, force F = 50pk N, ΧK.E. < W < (40 2 , 50 2 ) ≥10 < ,4500 J
2
l
< 0.01 mm
Χl æxö1
(r x) çç ÷÷÷ ∗ r y y / 2
x çè 2 ø 2
l F 8. (c) Centre of mass x cm <
\ Y= 14 2
2 Dl = 2 × 10 N / m . 2 r (x ∗ y)
pr
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 11

1 y y2 1 8
∗ 1 Þ mF
Þ ∗ < 8mF in series with 1mF =
2 x x2 8 9

8 8 32
A Now Ceq = ∗ <
9 3 9

32
x Ceq of circuit =
9

1 1 9 32
y
C With C - C < C ∗ 32 < 1 Þ C < 23
B (0,0) eq

14. (b) Centripetel acceleration ac = n2Rt2


Bc y 1 ∗ 3
[ < < 1.37 v2
AB x 2 ac < < n 2 Rt 2
R
R dv R
9. (a) From F < 2 v(t) Þ m < 2 v(t) v2 < n2 R 2 t2
t dt t
v = nRt
dv Rdt
Integrating both sides ò dt ò mt 2
<
ac <
dv
< nR
dt
R Power = matv = m nR nRt = Mn 2R2t.
In v < ,
mt 15. (d) Dimension of A ¹ dimension of (C)
1 Hence A – C is not possible.
[ ln v ×
t 16. (b) Comparing the given equation with standard
10. (c) Reading one Þ without slab mA c
modulated signal wave equation, m = Ac sin wc t +
Reading two Þ with slab 2
Reading three Þ with saw dust mA c
Minimum three readings are required to determine cos (wc – ws) t – cos (wc + ws) t
2
refractive index of glass slab using a travelling
microscope. Ac 2
m < 10 Þ m < (modulation index)
11. (d) VB = VBHl = 240 × 5 × 10–5 cos(q) × 5 = 44.7 mv 2 3
By right hand rule, the charge moves to the left of Ac = 30
pilot. wc – ws = 200p
12. (b) Given, radius of hemispherical glass R = 10 cm wc + ws = 400p
10 Þ fc < 150, fs < 50 Hz .
\ Focal length f = = –5 cm
2 17. (b) Washer contact with piston Þ N = 0
u = (10 – 6) = –4 cm. Given Amplitude A = 7 cm = 0.07 m.
By using mirror formula, amax = g = w2A
1 1 1 1 1 1 The frequency of piston
∗ < Þ ∗ < Þ v = 20 cm.
v u f v ,4 ,5
ω g 1 1000 1
f< < < < 1.9 Hz.
m 1 2π A 2π 7 2p
Apparent height, h a < h r 1 < 30≥ < 20 cm
m2 1.5 18. (c) Truth table for given logical circuit
below flat surface.
a b (a + b ) c Y = (a + b) .c
13. (a) Capacitors 2mF and 2mF are parallel, their equivalent =
4 mF 0 0 0 0 0
6mF and 12 mF are in series, their equivalent = 4 mF 0 1 1 1 1
1 0 1 1 1
3
Now 4mF (2 and 2 mF) and 8mF in series = mF 1 1 1 0 0
8
And 4mF (12 & 6 mF) and 4mF in parallel = 4 + 4 Output of OR gate must be 1 and c = 1
= 8mF So, a = 1, b = 0 or a = 0, b = 1.
P2- 12 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
19. (b) Q F = qE and F = qvB
I
\ E = vB
s slope = 1/r
And Gauss's law in Electrostatics E <
e0
24. (c)
s
E< < vB Þ s < e vB
e0 0 V

σ1= – σ 2
20. (d) DH = mL = 5 × 336 × 103 = Qsink
Qsink T
< sink 1/r
Qsource Tsource
Þ
T
[ Qsource < source ≥ Qsink
Tsink VBE
Energy consumed by freezer
m1
æ Tsource ö÷ 25. (a) For inelastic collision v ' < v
ç ,1÷÷ (m1 ∗ m 2 )
[ w output < Qsource , Qsink < Qsink çç
çè T
sink ø÷
1 v
< v<
Given: Tsource < 27↓C ∗ 273 < 300K, (1 ∗ 1) 2

Tsink < 0↓C ∗ 273 < 273 k n ↑ v(H) Before


v
3 æ 300 ö (n)(H) ↑
Woutput = 5≥336≥10 èççç ,1÷÷÷ < 1.67≥105 J 2
After
273 ø
1 2 1 æ v ö÷2 1 2
21. (Incomplete question) mv , (2m) çç ÷ < mv
èç 2 ø÷
Loss in K.E. =
2 2 4
Normal force N N
22. (d) Stress < < < K.E. lost is used to jump from 1st orbit to 2nd orbit
Area A (2p a)b DK.E. = 10.2ev
Stress = B×strain 1
Þ mv 2 < 10.2
N 2paΧa ≥ b 4
<B Minimum K.E. of neutron for inelastic collision
(2pa)b pa 2 b
1
mv 2 < 2≥10.2 < 20.4 eV
(2pa) Χab
2 2
2
ÞN<B
pa 2 b 26. (d) As we know for an ideal gas at constant temperature,
Force needed to push the cork. r RT
pressure P <
M
f < m N < m 4pbΧaB = (4pmBb)Da
Pµρ
23. (d) From Doppler's effect
Q R,T & M are constant, so pressure (P) varies linearly
æ 340 ö÷ with density (r).
f (direct) < f ççç ÷< f
è 340 , 5 ø÷ 1 30
V2
27. (None) Work done in 30s, W = ò R
dt
æ 340 ö÷
f (by wall)=f çç
0
çè 340+5 ø÷÷ = f2
30 30
(200)2 (200)2 dt
Beats = (f1 – f2) or, W= ò 20t
dt =
100 ò 20a
0 100(1 + a ) 0 1+ t
æ 340 340 ö÷ 3 3
5 < f ççç , ÷
è 340 , 5 340 ∗ 5 ø÷
æ 1 + 20a ö
´ 30 ÷ æ 6ö
Þ f < 170 Hz. 400 ´ 3 ç 3
= lnç ÷ = 60,000 ln çè 5 ÷ø
20a è 1 ø
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 13

32. (a) Applying law of equivalence


Q 120 = 100 éë1 + a ( 200 ) ùû
Equivalence of acid = Equivalence of base
1 0.1 × v = 0.04 × 1
\ a= v = 0.4 L = 0.4 × 1000 = 400 ml.
1000
33. (a) NaF is composed of Na+ and F–.
0.61l l
28. (a) We know that Χq < < Na ∗ ¾¾
↑ [He]2 s 2 2 p6
4 R
The minimum distance between them F, ¾¾
↑ [He]2s 2 2 p6
R 9.46≥1015 ≥10≥ 0.61≥ 600≥10,9 Hence do not match with the configuration given in
l< 0.61≥l < the question.
9 0.3
= 1.15 × 1011 m Å
N2Cl N2BF4
Þ 1.115 × 108 km. HBF4
29. (c) According to universal law of Gravitation, 34. (c)

GMm
Gravitational force F = F
(R ∗ h)2 D
–N2, –BF 3

Astronaut
1
35. (a) Gold number × Protective power
h
i.e., The smaller the value of gold number of lyophilic
sol, the greater is the protective action. Hence, gelatin
will be better protective colloid.
R 36. (c) Sodium extract is heated with conc. HNO3 to convert
any NaCN formed during fusion into HCN and sulphide
Earth into H2S. This is, done when the compound contains
N or S both along with halogens. HCN, H2S formed
escape as they are volatile. Otherwise they interfere
30. (a) From Einstein's photoelectric equation with the test for halogens as they also form a precipitate
with AgNO3.
hc
K.E.l < ,f ...(i) NaCN ¾¾¾¾¾ ↑ HCN ←
conc. HNO
l 3

(for monochromatic light of wavelength l)


Na 2S ¾¾ ¾¾¾ ↑ H 2S ←
conc. HNO
3
where f is work function
37. (a) Lone pair of N is involved in aromaticity.
hc 38. (a) Quick lime is commercial name of CaO.
K.E.l / 2 < ,f ...(ii)
l/2 39. (a) Alkyl chloride or bromide undergo substitution and
(for monochromatic light of wavelength l/2) get converted to an alkyl iodide on treatment with a
From question, solution of sodium iodide in acetone. e.g.

hc æ hc ö CH 3CH 2 CH 2 Br ∗ NaI ¾¾ ¾¾

acetone
K.E.l / 2 < 3(K.E.l ) Þ , f < 3çç , f÷÷÷
l/2 ç
èl ø CH3CH2CH2I + NaBr
This reaction is also known as Finkelstein Reaction.
2hc hc
, f < 3 , 3f 40. (d) Tetrachloroethylene is widely used for dry-cleaning
l l fabrics and metal degreasing operations.
hc hc 41. (c) A ruby is a crystal of alumina, aluminum oxide (Al2O3)
Þ 2f < \f= containing a trace of chromium (III) ions replacing some
l 2l
of the aluminum ions. In ruby, each Al3+ ion and Cr 3+
CHEMISTRY ion is surrounded by six oxide ions in an octahedral
arrangement. The origin of the color of emeralds is
31. (d) Teflon or polytetrafluoroethene is an addition polymer similar to that of the color of rubies. However, the bulk
and its monomer is alkene derivative (CF2 = CF2) whereas of an emerald crystal is composed of beryl, beryllium
terylene, melamine and nylon-6, 6 are condensation aluminum silicate (Be3Al 2 (SiO3 )6 ) instead of the
polymers. alumina which forms rubies. The color is produced by
chromium (III) ions, which replace some of the
P2- 14 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
aluminum ions in the crystal. In emeralds, the Cr3+ is O
surrounded by six silicate ions, rather than the six oxide
ions in ruby. Therefore, the color (green) of emeralds OH
OH + RCH(NH2)COOH
is different from that of ruby.
42. (b) More the number of lone pairs on central atom, the
O
greater is the contraction caused in the angle between
bond pairs. In PH3 the bond pairs of electrons are so O
much farther away from the central atom due to larger
size. Thus the lone pair cause greater distortion in PH3. H
OH + RCHO + CO2 + NH3
Hence the bond angle decreases to 98°.
43. (a) Van't Hoff factor (i) O

No. of particles after association or dissociation


Ninhydrin then condenses with ammonia and
< hydrindantin to produce an intensely blue or purple
No. of particles before association or dissociation
pigment, sometimes called Ruhemann's purple:

For ˆˆ† M ∗ ∗ 2X,


MX 2 ‡ˆˆ O O

t<0 1 0 0 OH H
OH + NH2 + HO
at eq. 1, a a 2a

Total no. of particles = 1 – a + a + 2a = 1 + 2a O O


ninhydrin partially reduced form
1 ∗ 2a
[ i< < 2.
1
O
\ a = 0.50 or 50%.

ˆˆ† M ∗∗ ∗ 2X,
MX 2 ‡ˆˆ N
a 2a O
1,a

1 – a + a + 2a = 1 + 2a OO
2 = 1+ 2a
2a = 1 blue purple
pigment
a = 0.50.
44. (a) 46. (a) The pentaerythritol is typically produced via a base-
, catalyzed reaction of acetaldehyde with excess
CH 2 COO CH 2 –
| + 2H2O || + 2CO2 + H2 + 2OH formaldehyde. The aldol condensation of three moles
CH 2COO, CH2 of formaldehyde with one mole of acetaldehyde is
anode cathode followed by a crossed Cannizzaro reaction between
pentaerythritol, the intermediate product, and
Total equivalent of
formladehyde to give the final pentaerythritol product
C2 H 4 ∗ CO 2 ∗ H 2 < 0.2 ∗ 0.2 ∗ 0.2 < 0.6 and sodium formate as a byproduct. These reactions
are shown below
0.2 0.2 0.2
Total moles of gases = ∗ ∗ < 0.4
2 1 2 CH 3 CHO ∗ 3HCHO ¾¾
↑ C(CH 2 OH)3 CHO
(three Aldol condensation)
nRT 0.4≥ 0.0821≥ 273
v< < < 8.96L. C(CH 2 OH)3 CHO ∗ HCHO ∗ NaOH
P 1
45. (c) Ninhydrin is often used to detect µ – amino acids and
¾¾
↑ C(CH 2 OH) 4 ∗ HCOONa
also free amino and carboxylic acid groups on proteins
and peptides. When about 0.5 mL of a 0.1% solution (Cannizaro's reaction)

of ninhydrin is boiled for one or two minutes with a 47. (a) Bactericidal are the drugs that kills bacteria. Ofloxacin
few mL of dilute amino acid or protein solution, a blue works by stopping the growth of bacteria. This
color develops. Ninhydrin degrades amino acids into antibiotic treats only bacterial infections.
aldehydes, ammonia, and CO2 through a series of 48. (a) The S6 molecule has a chair-form hexagon ring with
reactions; the net result is ninhydrin in a partially the same bond length as that in S8, but with some what
reduced form hydrindantin; smaller bond angles i.e. bond lengths are same but
bond angles are different.
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 15

geometry. Each C-atom in graphite is sp2-hybridized.


S Three out of four valence electrons of each C-atom are
used in bond formation while the fourth electron is
S S
free to move in the structure of graphite. Due to this
reason graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
S 58. (d)
S S
S6 S8
OCH3 O OCH3
49. (c) FeO is gangue and SiO2 is flux to form slag FeSiO3.
AlCl 3
FeO ∗ SiO ¾¾
↑ FeSiO3 + O
2 Friedal-craft
Basic impurity acidic flux slag acetylation
COOH
50. (a) Lithium hydride react with diborane to produce O
lithiumborohydride. Succinic O
anhydride
2LiH ∗ B2 H 6 ¾¾ ↑ 2Li[BH 4 ] Zn – Hg
51. (d) Rate constant is independent of concentration. conc. HCl
52. (b) Due to extra stable half-filled p-orbital electronic
configurations of Group 15 elements, larger amount of OCH3
energy is required to remove electrons compared to
Group 16 elements.
53. ˆˆ† X(g)∗ Y(g)
(a) XY(s) ‡ˆˆ
P P
At eq.,
Total pressure = 2P = 10 bar
\ P = 5; Now KP = (Px) (Py) = P2 = 25. (Clemenson's reduction)

54. (a) ˆˆ† 2H 2 O( l) ∗ O 2 (g)


2H 2 O2 (l ) ‡ˆˆ

W = –Pext (DV) = ,∋n O2 ( RT 59. (a) rms (N 2 ) <


3RT
28
Q 100 mole H2O2 on decomposition give 50 mol O2.
\ W = –(50) (8.3) (300) = –124500 J = –124.5 kJ. 3R ≥ 2T
55. (a) Complexes having only one type of ligands are After dissociation, v ' <
14
examples of homoleptic complex.
56. (d) In presence of sunlight alkenes undergo free radical
v 1
substitution. <
v' 4
H
v 1
<
Br 2 /hv v' 2
+ HBr
Br v ' < 2v
60. (c) Corrosion of iron can be minimized by forming an
Br impermeable barrier at its surface.

MATHEMATICS
Br 2
+ Br
x x x

57. (a) In diamond, each C-atom is covalently bonded to four


61. (d) x ò y (t) dt = x ò ty (t) dt + ò ty (t) dt
1 1 1
other C-atoms to give a tetrahedral unit. In diamond
each C-atom is sp3-hybridized. Therefore each C-atom Differentiate w.r. to x.
forms four sigma bonds with neighbouring C-atoms. x
In diamond each C-atom utilizes its four unpaired
electrons in bond formation. These bonding electrons
ò y(t )dt + x[ y( x) - y(1)]
1
are localized. Due to this reason diamond is a bad
conductor of electricity. In graphite each C-atom is x
covalently bonded to three C-atoms to give trigonal = ò ty (t )dt + x[ xy ( x) - y (1)] + xy( x) - y(1)
1
P2- 16 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
64. (d) Let AP = x
x x
2 BP = y
ò y(t )dt = ò ty(t )dt + x y ( x ) -y (1)
1 1 H
tan 45° = ÞH=x
Diff. again w.r. to x x
y (x) – y (1) = xy (x) – y (1) + 2x y (x) + x2y1 (x)
H
(1 – 3x) y (x) = x2y1 (x) tan 30° = Þy= 3H
y
y1 ( x) 1 - 3x
= x2 + (54 2)2 = y2
y ( x) x2
H2 + (54 2)2 = 3H2
1dy 1 - 3x 1
y dx
= 2 Þ ln y = – – 3 ln x
x x (54 2)2 =2H2

ln (y x3) = –
1 54 2 = 2H
x
54 = H
yx3 = – e–1/x
2
1
65. (a) t1 = – t –
- t
- 1x
e x ce
y= or y = 4
x3 x3 t12 = t 2 + +4
t2
10
62. (b) å (r 2 + 1) | r t2 +
4
³ 2 t 2.
4
R -1 2 =4
t t2
T1 = (r2 + 1 + r – r) |r = (r2 + r) |r – (r – r) |r
T1 = r |r + r – (r – 1) |r Minimum value of t12 = 8
T1 = 1 |2 – 0
l -1 m+2
T2 = 2 |3 – 1|2 66. (b) DR's of AD are – 2, 4 – 3, –5
2 2
T3 = 3 |4 – 2|3
T10 = 10 |11 – 9|10 l -5 m -8
i.e. ,1,
10 2 2
å (r 2 + 1) | r = 10|11 Q This median is making equal angles with coordinate
R -1 axes, therefore,
A (2,3,5)
2x2 2b 2 - 4b
a x3
63. (c)
0 1 2
Continuity at x = 1 B C
(–1,3,2) (l,5,m)
2 æ l -1 m + 2ö
=a Þa= ± 2 çè , 4, ÷
a 2 2 ø
Continuity at x = 2 a= 2 l -5 m -8
=1=
2 2
2b 2 - 4b
a= Þ l = 7 & m = 10
2 2 \ l3 + m3 = 5 = 1348
Put a = 2 dy y tan x
67. (d) + sec x =
2= b2 – 2b Þ b2 – 2b – 2 = 0 dx 2 2y
2 ± 4 + 4.2 1 ± 3 dy
b= = 2y + y2 sec x = tan x
2 dx
So, (a, b) = ( 2,1 - 3) dy dt
Put y2 = t Þ 2y =
dx dx
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 17

dt é -4 -1ù é -4 -1ù é -4 -1ù


+ t sec x = tan x
dx 71. (d) A = ê 3 1 ú Þ A2 = ê 3 1 úê 3 1 ú
ë û ë ûë û
I.f = e ò
sec xdx In(sec x + tan x )
=e = sec x + tan x
é13 3 ù
dt = ê ú and |A| = 1.
(sec x + tan x) + t sec x (sec x + tan x) ë -9 -2 û
dx
Now, A2016 – 2A2015 – A2014 = A2014 (A2 – 2A – I)
= tan x(sec x + tan x)
Þ |A2016 – 2A2015 – A2014 | = | A2014 ||A2 – 2A –I|
ò d (t (sec x + tan x)) = ò tan x (sec x + tan x) dx
20 5
t (sec x + tan x) = sec x + tan x – x = | A|2014 -15 -5 = – 25
x x r r r
t=1– y2 = 1 – a+b+c
sec x + tan x sec x + tan x ur
72. (c) Position vector of centriod G =
3
10 é x2 ù r r r
ë û
68. (d) I= ò é x2 - 28 x + 196ù + é x2 ù dx .....(1) ur a + b + c
Position vector of circum centre C =
4 ë û ë û 4
ur r
ur 2C + r
b b G=
3
Use òf (a + b – x) dx = ò f (x) dx ur ur r
a a 3G = 2C + r
r r r
10 é( x - 14) 2 ù r ur ur r r r æ a +b + c ö
I= ò ë û dx r = 3G - 2C = (a + b + c) – 2çç ÷÷
é 2ù é 2ù .....(2) è 4 ø
x
4 ë û ë + ( x - 14) r r r
û
a+b+c
(1) + (2) =
2
2 1
10 é ( x - 14) 2 ù + é x 2 ù
ë û ë û
2I = ò é x2 ù + é( x - 14)2 ù dx O
G
C
4 ë û ë û
R C
10
2I = ò dx 2I = 6 I=3 P
4
73. (b) z = 1 + ai
69. (a) A2 – 5A = – 7I z2 = 1 – a2 + 2ai
AAA–1 – 5AA–1 = –7I A–1 z2. z ={(1 – a2) + 2ai} {1 + ai}
AI – 5I = –7A–1 = (1 – a2) + 2ai + (1 – a2) ai – 2a2
A – 5I= –7A–1 Q z3 is real Þ 2a + (1 – a2) a = 0
1 a (3 – a2) = 0 Þ a =
A–1 = (5I – A) 3 (a > 0)
7
12
A3 – 2A2 – 3A + I z12 - 1 (1 + 3i) - 1
1 + z + z2 .......... z11 = =
= A (5A – 7I) – 2A2 – 3A + I z -1 1 + 3i - 1
= 5A2 – 7A – 2A2 – 3A + I
(1 + 3i)12 - 1
= 3A2 – 10A + I =
= 3 (5A – 7I) – 10A + I 3i
12
= 5A – 20I æ1 3 ö
12 = 212 ç +
= 5(A – 4I) (1 + 3i ) i
ç 2 2 ÷÷
è ø
70. (a) a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72
(a3 + a15) + (a7 + a11) = 72 12
a3 + a15 + a7 + a11 = 2 (a1+ a17) æ p pö
= 212 ç cos + i sin ÷ = 212 (cos 4p + i sin 4p) = 212
a1 + a17 = 36 è 3 3ø

17 212 - 1 4095 4095


S17 = [a + a ] = 17 × 18 = 306 Þ = =– 3i = – 1365 3i
2 1 17 3i 3i 3
P2- 18 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
74. (a) Point of intersection of lines
Þ tan A tan B = 1 – 3y
æ 4 1ö Also AM > GM
x – y = 1 and 2x + y = 3 is ç , ÷
è 3 3ø
tan A + tan B
Þ ³ tan A tan B
1 4 2
+1
3 = 3 =4
Slope of OP = Þ
4 1 y ³ 2 1- 3y
-1
3 3
1 Þ y2 ³ 4 - 4 3y
Slope of tangent = -
4
Þ y2 + 4 3y - 4 ³ 0
Equation of tangent y + 1 = – 1 (x – 1)
4 Þ y £ -2 3 - 4 or y ³ -2 3 + 4
4y + 4 = – x + 1
x + 4y + 3 = 0 ( y £ -2 3 - 4 is not possible as tan A tan B > 0)
78. (c) Let slope of incident ray be m.
\ angle of incidence = angle of reflection

=1
O æ 4 1ö

2x
(1,–1) P ç ÷

y+
è 3, 3 ø q q
a a
7x–y+1=0
75. (c) Length of ^ to 4x + 3y = 10 from origin (0, 0)
m-7 -2 - 7 9
10 \ = =
P1 = =2 1 + 7m 1 - 14 13
5
Length of ^ to 8x + 6y + 5 = 0 from origin (0, 0) m-7 9 m-7 9
Þ = or =-
5 1 1 + 7 m 13 1 + 7m 13
P2 = =
10 2 Þ 13m – 91 = 9 + 63m or 13m – 91 = – 9 – 63m
Q Lines are parallel to each other Þ ratio will be 4 : 1 or 1 Þ 50m = –100 Þ 76m = 82
:4 1 41
dx Þ m=– m=
(c) I = ò 2 38
76.
(1 + x ). x 1 - x
1 41
1 Þ y– 1= – (x – 0) Þ y–1= (x – 0)
Put 1 + x =tÞ dx = dt 2 38
2 x i.e x + 2y – 2 = 0 Þ 38y – 38 – 41x = 0
2dt Þ 41x – 38y + 38 = 0
Þ 1= ò
t 2t - t 2 x2 y 2
79. (c) + =1
1 -1 12 16
Again put t = Þ dt = 2 dz
z 2 12 1
e = 1- =
-1 16 2
dz Foci (0, 2) & (0, – 2)
z2 - dz
Þ I=2 ò = 2ò = – 2 2 z -1 + c So, transverse axis of hyperbola = 2b = 4 Þ b = 2
1 2 1 2z - 1
- & a2 = 12 (e2 – 1)
z z z2
æ9 ö
Þ a2 = 4 ç - 1÷
2 2-t 1- x è4 ø
=– 2 -1 + c = – 2 +c =– 2 +c
t t 1+ x Þ a =5
2

tan A + tan B x2 y 2
77. (b) tan (A + B) = \ It's equation is - =–1
1 - tan A tan B 5 4
1 y The point (5, 2 3 ) does not satisfy the above
Þ = where y = tan A + tan B
3 1 - tan A tan B equation.
JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April] P2- 19

80. (d) Let p(F) = p Þ p(S) = 2p Equation of normal at P (3, 4) is


1 3
Q p + 2p = 1 Þ p = y–4=– (x – 3)
3 2
p(x > 5) = p(x = 5) + p(x = 6) i.e. 2y – 8 = – 3x + 9
5 1 6 0 Þ 3x + 2y – 17 = 0
6 æ2ö æ1ö 6 æ 2ö æ1ö This line is satisfied by the point (1, 7)
= C5 ç ÷ ç ÷ + C5 ç ÷ ç ÷
è 3ø è 3ø è 3ø è 3ø 86. (c) Lines are coplanar
5
æ 2ö æ 1 2ö 256 3 -1 2-2 1 - (-3)
= ç ÷ ç6 ´ + ÷ =
è 3ø è 3 3 ø 729
1 2 l2 =0
81. (c) Contrapositive of p ® q is given by ~ q ® ~ p
2
So (c) is the right option. 1 l 2
82. (c) sinq – cosq = 2 cosq
Þ sinq = cosq + 2 cosq 2 0 4

æ 2 -1 ö Þ 1 2 l2 = 0
= ( 2 + 1) cosq = ç ÷ cosq
è 2 -1 ø 1 l2 2
Þ ( 2 - 1) sinq = cosq
Þ 2(4 – l4) + 4(l2 – 2) = 0
Þ sinq + cosq = 2 sinq Þ 4 – l4 + 2l2 – 4 = 0
\ P= Q Þ l2 (l2 – 2) = 0
n +2
C6 Þ l = 0, 2, - 2
83. (c) = 11
n-2 87. (c) n = 5
P2
x =5
(n + 2)(n + 1) n (n - 1)(n - 2)( n - 3) variance = 124
Þ 6.5.4.3.2.1 = 11 x1 = 1, x2 = 2, x3 = 6
(n - 2)( n - 3)
2.1 x =5
Þ (n + 2) (n + 1) n (n – 1) = 11 . 10. 9. 4 x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 +x5
Þ n=9 =5
5
n2 + 3n – 108 = (9)2 + 3(9) – 108 Þ x4 + x5 + 9 = 25
= 81 + 27 – 108
Þ x4 + x5 = 16
= 108 – 108 = 0
Þ x4 + x5 + 10 – 10 = 16
84. (a) 2x + 1 - 2 x -1 = 1 .....(1) Þ (x4 – 5) + (x5 – 5) = 16 – 10
Þ (x4 – 5) + (x5 – 5) = 6
Þ 2x + 1 + 2x – 1 – 2 4 x 2 - 1 = 1
S | xi - x |
Þ 4x – 1 = 2 4 x 2 - 1 Mean deviation =
N
Þ 16x2 – 8x + 1 = 16x2 – 4
= |x1 – 5| + |x2 – 5| + |x3 – 5|
Þ 8x = 5
+ | x4 - 5 | + | x5 - 5 |
5
Þ x= which satisfies equation (1) 5
8
4 + 3 + 1 + 6 14
3 = = = 2.8
So, 4 x2 - 1 = 4 5 5
88. (c) f (x) = sin4 x + cos4 x
dy 1 2 f '(x) = 4sin3 x cos x + 4cos3 x (– sin x)
85. (a) = ´4=
dx 2 4 x - 3 3 = 4sin x cos x (sin2 x – cos2 x)
= – 2sin 2x cos 2x
Þ 4x – 3 = 9 = – sin 4x
Þ x=3 f (x) is increasing when f '(x) > 0
So, y = 4 Þ – sin 4x > 0
P2- 20 JEE MAIN Online - 2016 [10 April]
Þ sin 4x < 0
4
æ x 2 x4 ö
Þ x Î æç p , p ö÷ 4 ç1 -
ç
+ - ..... ÷
÷
3! 5!
è4 2ø = lim è ø
x ®0 æ 60 ö
- 2 + x 2 ç - ÷ + .....
è 15 ø
y = sin 4x
(dividing numerator & denominator by x4)
= –2
p p
r
4 2 æ 1ö
18 - r æ ö 6-
2r
ç 1 ÷ = 18 3 1
90. (b) Tr + 1 = 18 Cr ç x 3 ÷ Cr x
çè ÷ø ç 1÷ 2r
çè 3 ÷ø
2x

ì 2r ü
2 ïï 6 - 3 = -2 Þ r = 12 ïï
(1 - cos 2 x) í ý
89. (c) lim
x ®0 2 x tan x - x tan 2 x ï & 6 - 2r = -4 Þ r = 15 ï
îï 3 þï
(2 sin 2 x ) 2
= lim
x® 0 æ x3 2 x5 ö æ 23 x 3 25 x 5 ö 181
2xç x +
ç
+ + ..... ÷ - x ç 2 x +
÷ ç
+2 + ..... ÷
÷ -2 C12 12
è 3 15 ø è 3 15 ø coefficient of x 2 = 182
Þ =
coefficient of x -4 18 1
C15 15
æ ö
4 2
x 3 x5
4ç x - + - ..... ÷
ç 3! 5! ÷
= lim è ø
x ®0 4 æ 2 8 ö 6æ 4 64 ö
x ç - ÷+ x ç - ÷
è 3 5ø è 15 15 ø