 What Flight Director modes are activated by placing

a Flight Director Switch ON while on the ground with

no autopilots engaged?
 V/S and HDG SEL modes
 Takeoff mode
 V/S and HDG HOLD modes

 What occurs when the Autothrottle Switch is moved

to OFF?
 Autothrottle disconnects and cannot be re-engaged
 Autothrottle can be engaged in any mode
 Autothrottle can only be engaged in VNAV mode

 Which modes are affected by the Bank Limit

Selector?
 Only HDG SEL mode
 Only LOC and APP modes
 All roll modes

 When can the command bars be displayed in the

ADI during preflight?
 Permits A/Ps to be engaged by pushing a CMD switch
 All A/Ps disengage
 When the FD Switch is ON or an Autopilot (A/P) is engaged

 What indicates the FD is not supplying valid

commands?
 Flag in the ADI and/or disappearance of command bars
 Aural and/or caution lights
 Amber line through FD annunciation on ADI

 During takeoff, when is the THR HOLD mode

engaged?
 At lift off
 At 80 kt
 At 60 kt
 At 64 kt

 What does the THR HOLD mode accomplish?

 Moves throttles to hold takeoff thrust
 Moves throttles to hold selected speed
 Removes power from the autothrottle servo system

 What pitch mode is engaged by engaging the first

A/P in Command, with neither FD ON?
 SPD
 V/S
 ALT HOLD

 When the LEFT A/P is in Command and both FD

switches are ON, what modes will the FD use?
 Both FDs will use the same modes as the engaged A/P
 The LEFT FD will use the same modes as the A/P. The other will use whatever is selected for it
 Whatever modes are selected for them independently

 What factors limit thrust when the autothrottle is in

EPR/N1 mode & climb thrust is selected on the
Thrust Mode Selector Panel (TMSP)?
 Climb Limit EPR/N1, flap placard speeds, and 250 knots airspeed when below 10000 ft
 Climb Limit EPR/N1, flap placard speeds, and VMO/MMO
 Take off limit EPR/N1 and 250 knots airspeed when below 10000 ft

 IN FLCH mode, where is the commanded airspeed

bug displayed?
 Command airspeed cursors
 Reference Airspeed cursors
 HSI & CDU

 When Go-Around (G/A) mode is engaged, the

autothrottle:
 Advances the thrust levers to CLB thrust
 Controls thrust to maintain 2000 fpm climb
 Annunciates SPD in the ADI's

 When does the G/A mode arm for the AFDS &
Autothrottle system?
 At 2500 ft RA
 At 50 ft RA
 At Localizer capture
 At glideslope capture or Flaps Not UP
 During a crosswind ILS approach, at what
approximate radio altitude does the autopilot enter
the runway alignment mode?
 80 ft
 50 ft
 1000 ft
 500 ft

 How is the A/P flare engage mode annuniciated to

pilots?
 FLARE replacing G/S on the LEFT side of the ADI's
 FLARE appearing on the ADI's above G/S
 LAND 3 moving from the LEFT to the RIGHT side of the ADI's

 What is the ADI annunciation indicating the

autothrottle system is retarding the throttles during
the landing flare?
 THR HOLD
 RETARD
 IDLE

 Which of the following will prevent selection of the

G/A mode?
 Radio altitude greater than decision height
 Flaps not at landing position (25 or 30)
 Either engine in reverse thrust
 Flaps in transit

 What is the ADI mode annunciation for the roll axis

in the G/A mode?
 GA
 HDG
 TRK HOLD
 HDG HOLD

 Fail-Passive flight control system (LAND 2) : A flight

control system is fail-passive if, in the event of a
failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or
 deviation of flight path or altitude but the landing is
not completed automatically.
 For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the A/P's assume control of the aircraft after a failure
 For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the A/P's assume control of the aircraft after a single failure
 For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the pilot assumes control of the aircraft after a failure

 What is the ADI mode annunciation for the pitch axis

int he G/A mode?
 VNAV
 SPD
 G/A

 Above 400 ft RA, which action would deactivate the

G/A mode?
 Select a VOR frequency
 Push either GA switch a second time
 Select different roll and/or pitch mode

 When the G/A mode is deactivated, which A/P will

remain engaged?
 LEFT A/P
 Last in command
 First in command

 During an ILS approach, below which approximate

altitude is the G/A mode inhibited?
 10 feet RA
 5 feet RA
 50 feet RA
 15 feet RA

 Will the autoland flare mode activate with only the

FD turned on?
 Yes
 No

 What minimum number of A/P's must be engaged

before the autoland & rollout modes will activate?
 2 A/P's
 3 A/P's
 1 A/P

 How is rollout mode engagement annunciated?

 ROLLOUT appearing in the upper RIGHT side of the ADI's
 ROLLOUT appearing on the Autoland Status Indicator
 ROLLOUT appearing in the upper LEFT side of the ADI's

 Which controls do the A/P's operate to track the

localizer while in the rollout mode?
 Only nose wheel steering.
 Only rudder
 Rudder & nose wheel steering

 After an automatic landing, rollout guidance

continues until:
 The pilot applies manual braking
 The pilot disengages the A/P's
 The speedbrake lever is placed in the DOWN position
 60 kts

 Which of the following affects does pushing down on

the A/P Disengage Bar have?
 Disengages command modes, but permits A/P operation in CWS
 Disengages A/P's only if a control wheel disengage switch is pushed at the same time
 Disengages A/P's and prevents re-engagement

 After landing, which one of the following is required

to deactivate the operating AFDS mode?
 Disengage all A/P's & turn off both flight directors
 Disengage at least one A/P or turn off at least one flight director
 Turn off at least one flight director

 The takeoff mode is available to which of the

following?
 Autopilot only
 Flight director only
 Autopilot & flight director

 The Flare & rollout modes are available for which of

the following?
 Flight director only
 Multiple A/P's only
 Autopilot & flight director

 Below which radio altitude is disengaging the A/P

and A/T and turning off both FD's, the sole means
for deactivating the G/A mode?
 700 feet
 400 feet
 200 feet
 500 feet

 How is the autothrottle normally disengaged after an

automatic landing?
 A/P mode selection
 Automatically at touchdown (RIGHT main landing gear)
 Automatically at touchdown
 By selecting reverse thrust.

 Airplane will turn in the direction of turning the HDG

SEL knob even if turned more than 180°.
 True
 False.

 In wings-level flight with neither Flight Director ON

which roll mode is engaged by engaging the first
A/P in command?
 HDG HOLD
 HDG SEL
 LNAV

 A white LNAV annunciation in the ADI indicates:

 LNAV is engaged
 Cannot tell without reference to the LNAV switch
 LNAV is armed

 With LNAV armed, the A/P automatically turns the

aircraft to an intercept heading for the LNAV route.
 True
 False
 With an A/P in CMD, which of the following modes
can be used to turn the aircraft to an LNAV route
intercept heading?
 HDG SEL
 HDG HOLD
 FLCH

 When LNAV is selected, within which distance from

the active leg does the LNAV mode engage?
 4,2 NM
 Turning radius
 5 NM
 4 NM

 A FD failure in either pitch or roll causes the

respective command bar to disappear. If both axes
become unusable, both command bar disappear.
 False
 True

 Localizer capture cannot occur if the intercept angle

is more than how many degrees?
 150°
 100°
 120°
 140°

 What are the pitch & roll FMA's when the windshear
recovery guidance mode is engaged manually
during takeoff?
 TO & GA
 TO and TO
 GA
 FMA's disappear

 What happens if you engage the ALT HOLD mode

during a climb or a descent ?
 Pitch control brings the airplane back to the altitude at which the mode was engaged
 Pitch control causes the airplane to levell off at the altitude displayed in the ALT window (MCP)
 Nothing, the ALT HOLD mode cannot be engaged during a climb or a descent.
 Pitch control causes the airplane to levell off gradually


 How many A/P's can be engaged when the LOC

mode is engaged?
 Three
 One
 Two

 When the ALT HOLD mode is engaged, which

mode will fly the airplane away from the altitude set
in the ALT window?
 FLCH
 SPD
 VNAV
 V/S

 You are cleared for ILS approach. You have

selected inbound course. ILS receivers tuned to
appropriate frequencies. What happens when you
push the APP switch on the MCP ? (CENTER A/P is
already engaged)
 G/S & LOC scales appear, G/S is engaged roll mode
 LEFT & RIGHT A/P's engage, G/S is the armed pitch mode & LOC is the armed roll mode.
 Glideslope is engaged pitch mode, LEFT & RIGHT A/P's can be engaged.
 G/S is the armed pitch mode, LOC is the armed roll mode & the LEFT & RIGHT A/P's can be armed

 AUTOLAND self-test finds no fault. LEFT & RIGHT

A/P's engage. ROLLOUT is armed roll mode. What
is annunciated on the ASA's?
 NO LAND 3
 LAND 3
 NO AUTOLND
 LAND 2

 You are approaching 33000 ft in FLCH climb mode.

What changes will you see in the FMA's as the
airplane approaches & reaches 33000 ft?
 Pitch changes to ALT CAP then to ALT HOLD and A/T changes to SPD
 Pitch changes to ALT HLD and A/T changes to SPD then to IDLE
 Pitch changes to ALT CAP then to ALT HOLD and roll changes to HDG HLD
 Pitch changes to ALT CAP then roll mode changes to ALT HOLD and A/T changes to SPD

 At 200 ft RA, AC bus tie breakers lock open. What

happens if the 2 Autoland channels fail at this point?
 ASA annunciates NO AUTOLND
 A/P enters GA mode
 Landing continues normally
 ASA annunciates NO LAND3

 Which of the following is not a TMC function?

 Generate signals for the ADI
 Provide minimum & maximum speed protection.
 Engage reverse thrust during autoland
 Generate control signals for the A/T

 Which statement about the TMC is true?

 TMC operates A/T from pilot or FMC commands
 A/T can function with inoperative TMC
 TMC cannot detect A/T failures.
 TMC cannot operate with inoperative FMC

 If EEC mode fails, TMC computes limit EPR/N1 for

associated engine.
 True
 False

 Airplane descending in FLCH mode. You manually

stop throttle retardation. What happens when you
release the throttles?
 Servo disengages; A/T changes to THR HOLD mode
 Servo remains engaged; A/T changes to SPD mode.
 Throttles remain where you set them

 Airplane climbing on derated T/O thrust. A/T is in

THR HOLD. Windshear warning appears at 400 ft.
What is the first action you should take?
 Manually advance the throttles
 Push the go-around switch to cancel derated thrust.
 Push a go-around switch to enable recover guidance commands
 EPR / N1 mode is engaged to start takeoff roll. What
will the A/T do during the takeoff roll?
 Change to SPD mode at rotation.
 Arm GA thrust to be ready fo windshear recovery
 Change to THR HOLD mode at 80 kt
 Change to CLB mode at rotation

 The FLARE mode is a multi A/P mode. It is armed

when:
 LAND 3 is annunciated
 AUTOLND is annunciated
 LAND2 is annunciated
 LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated.

 When the FLARE mode is engaged:

 Between 60 & 40 ft RA (depending on sink rate prior to flare & True airspeed), the rate of descent is
approximately reduced to approximately 300 fpm
 Between 50 & 80 ft RA (depending on sink rate prior to flare), the rate of descent is approximately reduced to
approximately 100 fpm
 Between 50 & 80 ft RA (depending on sink rate prior to flare & True airspeed), the rate of descent is
approximately reduced to approximately 300 fpm
 Between 60 & 40 ft RA (depending on sink rate prior to flare), the rate of descent is approximately reduced to
approximately 100 fpm

 When Flare mode is engaged:

 At 20 ft RA, the A/T starts retarding thrust levers to idle and the A/P's start lowering the nose towards the
runway at 15 ft RA plus 2 seconds
 At 20 ft RA, the A/T starts retarding thrust levers to idle (the A/T annunciation changes from SPD to IDLE) and
the A/P's start lowering the nose towards the runway at 5 ft RA plus 2 seconds
 At 20 ft RA, the A/T starts retarding thrust levers to idle (the A/T annunciation changes from SPD to IDLE) and
the A/P's start lowering smoothly the nose towards the runway at 5 ft RA
 At 50 ft RA, the A/T starts retarding thrust levers to idle and the A/P's start lowering the nose towards the
runway at 5 ft RA plus 2 seconds

 NO AUTOLND indicates :
 Fault conditions exist which result in a single A/P landing
 Fault conditions exist which results in a LAND 2 condition
 Fault conditions exist which preclude the use of the A/P's for an automatic landing
 Validate

 After APP mode is selected, If NO AUTOLND is

displayed, it remains displayed until A/P's are
disengaged.
 False.
 True
 CAT 2 / CAT 3 approaches shall not be attempted
when windshear conditions are reported or may be
suspected to exist.
 Maximum headwing, tailwind and crosswind for an automatic approach are respectively : 35, 15 & 25 kt.
 Maximum headwing, tailwind and crosswind for an automatic approach are respectively : 35, 10 & 25 kt.
 Maximum headwing, tailwind and crosswind for an automatic approach are respectively : 25, 10 & 25 kt.
 Maximum headwing, tailwind and crosswind for an automatic approach are respectively : 25, 15 & 25 kt.

 After LOC and G/S captured (green) APP mode

may only be disengaged under one of the following
actions :
 Engage GA mode or disengage A/P(s) and turn at least one FD OFF
 Engage GA mode or disengage A/P(s) and turn both FD's OFF
 Engage GA mode or disengage A/P(s)

 When LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated and only

than, A/P control of the rudder is active. Note: If the
A/P's are disconnected or disconnect in an
asymmetric thrust condition, the rudder will return to
the trimmed position unless the pilot exerts the
rudder pedal force required to maintain the rudder
position.
 True
 Flase

 Remember below 500 ft RA : the NO LAND 3

annunciation & electrical power transfer are
inhibited, the ASA display cannot change except to
indicate a NO AUTOLND condition & the electrical
system auto power transfer is also inhibited .
 False
 True

 During a crosswind condition on an ILS approach

prior to an automatic landing:
 A/P systems initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab ang le exceeds 5 degrees
and wing leveling from the slip is initiated when the rollout mode is engaged
 A/P systems initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab ang le exceeds 7 degrees
and wing leveling from the slip is initiated when the rollout mode is engaged
 A/P systems initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 4 degrees when the crab ang le exceeds 7 degrees
 A/P systems initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 3 degrees when the crab ang le exceeds 5 degrees
and wing leveling from the slip is initiated when the FLARE mode is engaged

 During a CAT2/CAT3 approach, if one generator

fails above 200 feet :
 if APU operating, ASA will change to NO AUTOLND and if APU inoperative, ASA will change to LAND 2
 if APU operating, no ASA change and if APU inoperative, ASA will change to NO AUTOLND
 if APU operating, no ASA change and if APU inoperative, ASA will change to LAND 2

 During a CAT2/CAT3 approach, if one generator

fails below 200 feet :
 ASA will not change due to inhibition of the Bus Tie Breakers. (Loss of system will become apparent when
ROLLOUT mode is engaged.
 ASA will not change (even without APU) due to inhibition of the Bus Tie Breakers. (Loss of system will
become apparent when A/P's are disconnected on ground).
 ASA will not change (even without APU) due to inhibition of the Bus Tie Breakers. (Loss of system will
become apparent when A/P's are disconnected on ground).
 ASA will not change (even without APU) due to inhibition of the Bus Tie Breakers.

 The ILS DEVIATION WARNING (LOC or G/S

becoming amber and flashing ) is operative :
 Below 1000 ft RA when the deviation is respectively 1 dot for the G/S or 1.5 dot for the localizer .
 Below 500 ft RA when the deviation is respectively 1 dot for the G/S or 1.5 dot for the localizer .
 When the deviation is respectively 1 dot for the G/S or 1.5 dot for the localizer .
 Below 2500 ft RA when the deviation is respectively 1 dot for the G/S or 1.5 dot for the localizer .