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D. 0.394
43. _____ sets a limit on the maximum capacity
of a channel with a give noise level.
A. Hartley theorem
B. Shannon-Hartley theorem
Question 1 Question 4
Question 2
Question 5
Per ANSI/EIA/TIA 568, cat 5E twisted pair can
support up to this rate. Which statement is TRUE?
2. 100 MHz 1. SDH and PDH both interleave data bit by bit
How many octets can be sent out in 250 micro The capture area of an antenna is directly
seconds with SDH STM-1? proportional to the
Question 11
Question 12
Question 9
What is the carrier to interference power ratio
A communications channel has a bandwidth of expressed in dB for a mobile system with a
2MHz, what appropriate signal level should be propagation coefficient of 4.084, a frequency
used if the signal to noise voltage ratio of the reuse number of five and with four adjacent
channel is 26dB? interfering cells?
Select one: Select one:
1. 4 1. 63 ((3*5)^(4.084/2))/4
2. 5 2. 54
3. 6 3. 42
4. none of the choices 4. 18
3. Radiation
4. Emission
Question 13
Question 14
Question 17
Envelop detection is concerned with the
___ is the measurement of how fast data can
process of
pass through an entity.
Select one:
Select one:
1. mixing
1. Data rate
2. heterodyning
2. Propagation time
3. modulation
3. Propagation speed
4. rectification
4. Throughput
Question 15
Question 18
The transmission and reception of information
Of the following elements, which one is not
is known as
used as dopant for FOC amplifiers?
Select one:
Select one:
1. Modulation
1 . Iridium
2. Communications
2. Praseodymium
3. Thulium 3. Condenser
4. Erbium 4. Crystal
Question 19 Question 22
4. FCC modulation
Question 20
2. 1440
Question 21
3. 3780
Which of the following is not a low-impedance
microphone? 4. 3840
Select one:
1. Dynamic Question 24
1. 2.68 km
2. 3.98 km Question 27
1. 3.33 mA
Question 25 2. 3.55 mA
The bandwidth necessary to send an 8-QAM
3. 3.67 mA
signal is ___ when the input bit rate is 24kbps.
4. 55.56 mA
Select one:
1. 2kbps
Question 28
2. 3 kbps
The type of AM signal that is used in TV
3. 8 kHz
broadcasting is called
4. None of the choices
Select one:
2^3 =8 1. B8E
24 kbps/3 bits/symbol =8 kBaud or 8 kHz 2. C3F
3. R3E
Question 26 4. H3E
What is the equivalent noise temperature for a
noise figure of 3dB?
Question 29
Select one:
Select one:
1. 17 K
1. 372.28 mV 1. Three
2. 37.228 mV 2. Four
3. 36.228 mV 3. Five
4. 34.5 mV 4. Six
Question 30 Question 33
4. A and B
Question 31
3. chrominance 1. 89.21
4. contrast 2. 90.38
3. 91.54
Select one:
Determine the image frequency of a broadcast 1. Shot Noise
band receiver using a 455kHz IF tuned to
630kHz 2. External Noise
2. 1540 kHz
3. decoding
1. equal to the minimum step size The signal from a color camera has R = 0.75, G =
0.5, and B = 0.15, where 1 represents the
2. equal to half of the resolution maximum signal possible, find the value Q for
3. equal to twice the resolution the transmitted signal.
1. 0.5365
Question 41 2. 0.262
Select one:
Question 44
1. Doppler effect
Spacing: DWDM is by ____ while CWDM is by
2. Capture effect ____. Fill in the blanks by choosing the letter of
3. Faraday's rotation the appropriate word pair.
1. wavelength, frequency
1. 42.62 degrees
2. 32.62 degrees
3. 48.62 degrees A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a 4 kHz
signal. The modulation index is
4. 22.62 degrees
Select one:
1. 250
Question 46
2. 0.08
CDMA utilizes what type of wideband
technology? 3. 2
4. 12.5
Select one:
1. FDM Question 49
2. NRZ – I
Question 47
3. RZ
In _______ propagation, the beam of
propagated light is almost horizontal, and the 4. B8ZS
low-density core has a small diameter
compared to the cores of the other propagation
modes. Question 50
Question 48
1. For an earth station transmitter with an antenna 6. The zone between the point where the ground
input power of 50dBW, a back-off loss of 6dB, a wave becomes too weak for reception and the
total branching and feeder loss of 2dB, and a point where the sky wave is first returned to earth.
transmitter antenna gain of 30dB. Calculate the
EIRP. a. Twilight
b. Gray
a. 60dBW c. Neutral
b. 68dBW d. Skip
c. 70dBW
d. 72dBW 7. A narrow beam linear array of parallel alternating
dipoles all of which are energized, this fractal
2. What type of propagation is used by two 1kw antenna is broadband.
stations a few miles apart separated by a low hill
blocking their line-of-sight path and are a. LPDA
communicating on 3.725 MHz? b. Turnstile
c. Yagi-Uda
a. Evaporation ducting d. Marconi
b. Knife edge diffraction
c. Ground wave 8. Hours a LOS link can take as cumulative outage
d. Tropospheric scattering in a year and still meet a reliability objective of 97%.
a. V-series
b. D-series
c. X-cseries
d. I-series
11. A coherent BPSK transmitter operates at a bit 16. Determine the frequencies of the video and the
rate of 20Mbps.. For a C/No=81.81dB, determine audio carriers for channel 9 of the TV broadcast
the Eb/No ratio. system
12. What is the FSL, in dB, between two 100 meters 17. An analog pulse modulation technique in which
parabolic antenna 38.0 km apart operating at 7.0 the duration of each resulting pulse is varied in step
GHz? with the amplitude of the modulating signal at the
time. It is sampled and the sampled pulses have the
a. 140.90 same amplitude.
b. 75.0
c. 138.5 a. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
d. 145.6 b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Pulse Width Modulation
13. The EIRP at 7 GHz of a 10m parabolic antenna in d. Pulse Position Modulation
a 90 km hop when the median received signal is
zero dBm? 18. An AM broadcast station transmits 29.93-kW
PEP. With an average plate current of 1 A and a
a. 208dBm 75% plate efficiency, find the maximum audio
b. 148.4dB power
c. 148.4dBm
d. 55dB a. 5kW
b. 6kW
14. This is the minimum range of frequencies c. 11.25kW
required propagating the source information d. 7.5kW
through the system.
19. In a given network, there are 360 lines
a. None of the choices connected for services and 7 blocked calls during
b. Cut-off frequency busy hour, what is the grade of service?
c. Resonant frequency
d. Bandwidth a. 0.1910
b. 0.0911
15. How long does it take to dial the number 761- c. 0.9101
4832 using pulse dialing with 0.5s interdigit time? d. 0.0191
a. 6.1s 20. For an I=0.4 and Q=0.3, find the value of the C
b. 6.8s voltage and the approximate hue of this color
c. 5.8s
d. 5.1s a. 0.5V, blue
b. 0.5V, magenta
c. 0.5V, green
d. 0.5V, red
21. Wavelength at 14.52 GHz? 26. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet
multicast destination?
a. 16.4cm
b. 2.064cm a. 7B-AA-C1-23-45-32
c. 2.062cm b. B7-7B-6C-DE-10-00
d. 31.73cm c. 83-32-21-21-4D-34
d. 7C-56-21-1A-DE-F4
22. It is the reciprocal of the time of one output
signaling element. 27. When the code subfield in an S-frame is 10, it
means that
a. Baud
b. Frequency deviation a. The receiver sent an NAK frame
c. Bit rate b. The receiver is not ready to receive
d. Bandwidth information
c. The receiver is ready to receive information
23. The primary service area in AM broadcasting is d. The receiver sent an ACK frame
bounded by a field strength of
28. The diameters of the parabolic antennas of a
a. 1mmho/m radio link using space waves were changed from 7
b. 0dB to 9.8 feet, how much in dB did the fade margin
c. None of the choices change?
d. 1mV/m
a. 1.759
24. For frequency diversity system improvement is b. 4.681
directly proportional to the ______. Which choice is c. 2.923
wrong? d. 2.271
a. 10 raised to 1/10th of the fade margin 29. It is the measurement of how fast data can pass
b. Distance through an entity.
c. Frequency separation
d. Inverse of the square of the frequency a. Propagation time
b. Throughput
25. He set the following rules, lateral density of the c. Propagation speed
lines indicates intensity of the field, evenly spaced d. Data rate
arrows indicate field is evenly distributed, direction
is indicated by tangent line to the field and the 30. The sub-network address of 174.15.26.85/27 is
right hand rule
a. 174.15.26.0
a. Faraday b. 174.15.26.64
b. Maxwell c. 174.15.26.32
c. Fresnel d. 174.15.0.0
d. Einstein
31. Per ANSI/TIA 568 standards, the buffer color of
the 12th fiber in a fiber optic cable should be
a. Aqua
b. Red
c. Orange
d. Rose
37. This is a transmission line loss resulting wave
32. The minimum local station spacing is harmonics and interference among wavelengths
propagating in a single fiber
a. 10 kHz
b. 36 kHz a. four wave mixing
c. 9 kHz b. dielectric loss
d. None of the choices c. radiation loss
d. induction loss
33. A Pi-pad attenuator circuit is required to reduce
the level of an audio signal by 10dB while matching 38. All fast Ethernet LANs are connected using ___
the impedance of a 75Ω network. Calculate the topology
values of the three resistors required
a. Bus
a. 144.4Ω, 106.7Ω and 75Ω b. Ring
b. 144.4Ω, 106.7Ω and 144.4Ω c. Star
c. 144.4Ω, 106.7Ω and 106.7Ω d. Mesh
d. 144.4Ω, 75Ω and 75Ω
39. A service area served by ground waves but are
34. A 10GHz signal travelling in a rectangular subjected to some interference and fading
waveguide with an inner cross section of 22.86 x
10.16 mm. Calculate the characteristic impedance. a. Secondary
b. Primary
a. 589.5 Ω c. None of the choices
b. 499.5 Ω d. Intermittent
c. 488.5 Ω
d. 599.5 Ω 40. Find the frequency at slant range of 100 km that
yields approximately 146.4 dB line of sight (LOS)
35. A form of digital modulation where the path loss
amplitude of the modulating signal is converted
into binary coded pulses. a. 7.07 GHz
b. 15 GHz
a. Pulse Code Modulation c. 3.5 GHz
b. Pulse Position Modulation d. 5 GHz
c. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
d. Pulse Width Modulation
41. What is the wasted bandwidth when 100Base-T
36. A car horn outdoors, produces a sound intensity is transported in SONET STS3.
level of 90dB at 10-ft away. What is the sound
power at this distance? a. 37.5%
b. 73.5%
a. 0.20W c. 75.3%
b. 0.18W d. 35.7%
c. 0.15W
d. 0.12W
42. How long does it take to horizontally scan 20 47. When layers of warm air form above layers of
pixels? cold air, conduction ducts are formed. This is called
a. 2.3us a. subsidence
b. 2.5us b. advection
c. 3.2us c. temperature inversion
d. 1.5us d. radiative cooling
43. A satelite operates at 4.5GHz with a transmitter 48. What is the total power in dBm of a three
power of 7W and an antenna gain of 40dB, and the circuits having 6dBm, 3dBm and 8dBm respectively?
path length is 45,000km. Determine the signal
strength at the receiver. a. 10.891 dBm
b. 9.108 dBm
a. 89.19dBm c. 10.189 dBm
b. -89.19dBm d. 8.910 dBm
c. -90.18dBm
d. 90.18dBm 49. The fade margin was increased by 10 dB, by
how much did the reliablity, originally 99%,
44. He tested in 1894, the structure for guiding of increased?
waves proposed by the Nobel Lauriat who
discovered the electron a. 0.009%
b. 0.008%
a. AC Clarke c. 0.006%
b. JJ Thomson d. 0.007%
c. OJ Lodge
d. PH Smith 50. What is the spacing distance between adjacent
elements for a broadside array optimized for 29
45. The end-connector used by twisted pair cable is MHz?
a. SC Connector a. 2.271m
b. RG11 b. 0.833m
c. ST connector c. 5.16897m
d. RJ45 d. 5.686m
-
52. Convert 5W to dBm 57. Determine the input impedance of a T-pad with
a series arm of 100 Ω and shunt arm of 175 Ω and a
a. 36.99dBm terminating impedance of 450 Ω.
b. 6.99dBm
c. 73.98dBm a. 571.88 Ω
d. 13.98dBm b. 514.781 Ω
c. 581.748 Ω
53. What is the gain in dBd of a ten feet diameter d. 518.478 Ω
parabolic antenna operating at two GHz?
58. A Smith Chart cannot be used to solve problems
a. 21.37 involving
b. 23.37
c. 42 a. transients
d. 31.37 b. continuous waves
c. fields varying harmonically with time
54. Digital transmission basically requires the d. steady state conditions
following except
59. Three telephone circuits each having a S/N ratio
a. Multiplexing of 20dB are connected in tandem. Determine the
b. Precise time synchronization overall S/N ratio.
c. Large bandwidth
d. Encoding and decoding circuitry a. 15.23dB
b. 23.32dB
55. A piece of RG-59B/U coaxial cable has a 75-ohm c. 12.53dB
characteristic impedance. If the diameter of the d. 13.25dB
inner conductor is 0.584 mm, and the dielectric
constant of the insulation is 2.23, what is the outer 60. A figure of merit that determines the sharpness
conductor diameter? of the frequency response curve in filters.
a. six
b. five
c. four
d. three
1. Determine the bandwidth for an FSK signal with 7. MPEG video standards for video compression
a mark frequency of 32 KHz, a space frequency were introduced in
of 24 KHz and a bit rate of 4 Kbps. a. 1986
a. 22 KHz b. 1971
b. 20 KHz c. 1991
c. 16 KHz d. 1966
d. 12 KHz 8. When the terrain a large body of water, the
2. Indicate the three types of transmission line appropriate k-factor to use to account
energy losses. refractivity of the atmosphere is
a. Conductor heating, dielectric heating a. 4/3
and radiation resistance b. 2/3
b. Radiation, I ^2R, and dielectric heating c. 5/12
c. Dielectric separation, insulation d. 0.75
breakdown, and radiation 9. How many points in the constellation diagram
d. I^2R, RL, and temperature are there in a 16-QAM modulation?
3. Indicate which of the following frequencies a. 16
cannot be used for reliable beyond-the-horizon b. 8
terrestrial communication without repeaters. c. 24
a. 900MHz d. 32
b. 12GHz 10. It is an array of simple dipoles fed in phase and
c. 15MHz having a radiation pattern whose maximum
d. 20KHz directivity is along the axis normal to the plane
4. Which radio wave is primarily transmitted along of the array.
the surface of the earth? a. Broadside array
a. Direct Wave b. Yagi-uda
b. Ground Wave c. End-fire array
c. Space Wave d. Log-periodic
d. Sky Wave 11. In _______ propagation, the beam of
5. Sound is fastest in which of the following propagated light is almost horizontal, and the
media? low-density core has a small diameter
a. None of the choices compared to the cores of the other propagation
b. Solids modes.
c. Liquid a. Multimode single-index
d. Gas b. Single-mode
6. If the equivalent eart radius factor k c. Multimode step-index
deteriorates and the East station antenna is d. Multimode graded-index
lower that the West station antenna, the point 12. In the designation of bandwidth and emission,
of reflection shift to what direction of the what letter in the first symbol represent an ISB
compass? signal?
a. West a. C
b. South b. J
c. East c. B
d. North d. A
13. Which mobile system came first 19. A FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of
a. WiMax 806 16e 12kHz and a maximum modulation frequency of
b. AMPS 12kHz. The bandwidth by Carson’s rule is
c. GSM900 a. 24kHz
d. LTE b. 48kHz
14. VLF waves are used for some types of services c. 12kHz
because d. 36kHz
a. The transmitting antennas are of 20. What is the approximate frequency of the
convenient size modulating signal having a bandwidth (using
b. They penetrate the ionosphere easily Carson’s rule) of 15kHz and a frequency
c. They are very reliable deviation of 6kHz?
d. Of the low power required a. 3kHz
15. Find the input impedance of a transmission line b. 1.5kHz
4.3 lambda long when Zo=100Ω and Zl=200- c. 6kHz
j150Ω d. 4.5kHz
a. 41.09 + 54.64Ω 21. Most internal noise comes from
b. 41.09 + 56.64Ω a. thermal agitation
c. 54.64 + 41.09Ω b. skin effect
d. 56.64 + 41.09Ω c. shot noise
16. Using a TDR, a pulse is transmitted down a d. transmit time noise
cable with a velocity factor of 0.7c. The 22. Indicate which one of the following terms
reflected signal is received 1.2µs later. How far applies to troposcatter propagation.
down the cable is the impairment? a. Faraday rotation
a. 124m b. SIDs
b. 123m c. Fading
c. 126m d. Atmospheric storms
d. 125m 23. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
17. The modulation index of an AM wave is same carrier, it is necessary to use
changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is a. Carrier reinsertion
a. Unchanged b. SSB with pilot carrier
b. Halved c. Lincompex
c. Increase by 50% d. ISB
d. Doubled 24. The minimum voltage of a transmission line
18. 1000 Base-TX is mapped into and transported with a load of ZL = 100 – j200Ω is 6.39mV. An
by SONET STS-26, how much bandwidth is input impedance of magnitude of 44.721 and an
wasted? angle of 63.435Ω at 20 MHz was measured
a. 25.81% 33.75m from the load. Find the value of the
b. 80.71% characteristic impedance.
c. 35.70% a. 25Ω
d. 59.81% b. 100Ω
c. 50Ω
d. 75Ω
25. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz 31. For frequency diversity system improvement is
by a maximum modulating signal of 400Hz. The directly proportional to the ___. Which choice is
deviation ratio is wrong?
a. 5 a. 10 raised to 1/10th of the fade margin
b. 0.2 b. Inverse of the square of the frequency
c. 800 c. Frequency separation
d. none of the choices d. Distance
26. Three tones (5V 10kHz, 7.5V 3kHz and 15v 5 32. The power density of the “flicker” noise is
kHz) simultaneously modulate a 20V carrier. a. greater at low frequencies
Compute for the percentage modulation. b. the same as “white” noise
a. 83.33% c. greater at high frequencies
b. 87.50% d. the same at all frequencies
c. 45.83% 33. Find the input reactance of a 600Ω line
d. 57.50% terminated in an inductive reactance equivalent
27. The angle measured between the 3dB down to 240Ω when the line has a length of 0.1λ.
points on the major lobe of an antenna’s a. j92.836Ω
radiation pattern. b. 952.836Ω
a. Null Angle c. j952.836Ω
b. Azimuth d. –j952.836Ω
c. Beamwidth 34. A transmission line has a characteristic
d. Bandwidth impedance of 50Ω. Find the inductance of the
28. Which of the following is true about AM? line if it is operating at 1MHz with a velocity of
a. LSB contains identical information with 2.4 x10^8 m/sec.
the USB signal. a. 20.8333 nH/m
b. In AM, information is present in the b. 28.3333 nH/m
carrier. c. 208.3333 nH/m
c. During 100% modulation, 1/3 of the d. 0.208333 nH/m
total power is wasted by transmitting 35. These are systems involving the transmission of
the sidebands. digital pulses.
d. In AM, information is present in the a. Digital transmission
carrier and in the sidebands. b. Digital communications
29. What does an open transmission line look like a c. Frequency transmission
short to the source? d. Digital radio
a. at less than λ/4 36. The local AM broadcast band is:
b. at quarter-wavelength a. 525-1705 kHz
c. at half-wavelength b. none of the choices
d. at less than λ/5 c. c.525-1605 kHz
30. It is the reciprocal of the time of one output d. d. 535-1605 kHz
signaling element. 37. A type of microwave antenna in which the
a. Bandwidth feed-point is located at the vertex of the
b. Frequency Deviation parabola and is directed against a secondary
c. Bit Rate hyperbolic reflector.
d. Baud a. Lens antenna
b. Spherical reflector
c. Parabolic dish
d. Cassegrain antenna
38. To install an antenna with a line-of-sight 45. An electromagnetic wave is ___ polarized when
transmission at a distance of 75 miles, the electric field lies wholly in one place
determine the height of a receiving antenna if containing the direction of propagation.
the transmitting antenna is 250ft. a. Horizontally
a. 255 ft b. Linearly
b. 600 ft c. Vertically
c. 1,385 ft d. Circularly
d. 400ft 46. A 70kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of
39. What is the encoding scheme, the number of 4kHz with a 1000 Hz signal. How many
outputs possible, the bandwidth and the baud significant sideband pairs are produced?
of a 32-QAM modulation? a. 0.25
a. Six bits, 64, fb/3, fb/3 b. 7
b. Five bits, 32, fb/5, fb/5 c. none of the choices
c. Five bits, 16, fb/3, fb/3 d. 17.5
d. Six bits, 32, fb/5, fb/5 47. What is the service area LOS radius for a
40. In an FM signal, the power ___ as the receiver with a sensitivity of minus 90 dBm, a
modulation index increase. 100 mW transmitter and isotropic antennas at
a. remains constant 755MHz?
b. none of the choices a. 14.99km
c. increases b. 15km
d. reduces c. 10km
41. What is the value of N and M for a QPSK d. 6.67km
modulation? 48. A TV channel can accommodate ___ FM
a. 2, 4 stations.
b. 1, 3 a. 7
c. 2, 3 b. 9
d. 1, 2 c. 6
42. The captured area of an antenna is directly d. 8
proportional to the 49. What modulation technique is used if the
a. power density of the signal encoding scheme has 2 outputs possible, and
b. distance between transmitter and the bandwidth and baud is equal to the bit
receiver rate?
c. frequency of the received signal a. 8-QAM
d. gain of the antenna b. BPSK
43. What is the relative amplitude of the third pair c. 8-PSK
of sidebands of an FM signal with m = 6 d. QPSK
a. 0 50. Phase reversal keying is another name for.?
b. 0.50 a. FSK
c. 1 b. PSK
d. 0.11 c. BPSK
44. The cladding which surrounds the core d. QPSK
a. is used to reduce optical interferen
b. acts to help guide the light in the core
c. ensure that the refractive index remains
constant
d. is used to protect the fiber
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant characteristics of a
cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?
A. Conductance
B. Resistance
C. Reactance
D. Impedance
ANSWER: D
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, It means that the load _____ all the power.
A. Reflects
B. Absorbs
C. Attenuates
D. Radiates
ANSWER: B
11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
A. Reflected waves
B. Captured waves
C. Incident waves
D. Standing waves
ANSWER: D
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ratio of output to input is 0.01?
A. 20
B. -20
C. 40
D. -40
ANSWER: A
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if the load is properly matched with the transmission
line.
A. Infinity
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1
ANSWER: D
19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalance line.
A. Low attenuation
B. Easy installation
C. Low radiation loss
D. Tensile strength
ANSWER: A
20. _________ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system.
A. Fourier series
B. Spectral analysis
C. Frequency analysis
D. Bandwidth analysis
ANSWER: B
22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line.
A. Hybrid
B. Stub
C. Directional coupler
D. Balun
ANSWER: D
23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the length of
50 cm?
A. 10 ohms
B. 15 ohms
C. 18 ohms
D. 23 ohms
ANSWER: A
26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many such amplifiers
do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: B
27. You are measuring noise channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73 dBm, convert the
reading into dBrnCO.
A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 21
ANSWER: D
32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Short circuit impedance
ANSWER: C
34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range about
A. 1.2 to 2.8
B. 2.8 to 3.5
C. 3.5 to 5.2
D. 1.0 to 1.2
ANSWER: A
35. Typically, the velocity factor of the materials used in transmission lines range from
A. 0.6 to 0.9
B. 0.1 to 0.5
C. 1.0 to 0.9
D. 0.6 to 0.8
ANSWER: A
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is
A. 85 ohms
B. 83 ohms
C. 90 ohms
D. 88 ohms
ANSWER: B
37. When a quarter-wave section transmission lines is terminated by a short circuit ad us connected to
an RF source at the other end, its put impedance is
A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Resistive
D. Equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
ANSWER: D
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u cable to an
antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection coefficient.
A. 0.71
B. 0.77
C. 0.97
D. 0.76
ANSWER: A
39. A quaterwave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line to a load of
100 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance between
centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in diameter of the line?
A. 85%
B. 83%
C. 86%
D. 90%
ANSWER: B
40. The concept use to make one Smith chart universal is called
A. Ionization
B. Normalization
C. Rationalization
D. Termination
ANSWER: B
41. What are the basic elements of communication system?
A. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
B. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
C. Information, transmission channel, receiver
D. Sender and receiver
ANSWER: B
43. _________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350 Hz and 440
Hz used in telephone sets.
A. DC tone
B. Ringing tone
C. Dial tone
D. Call waiting tone
ANSWER: D
44. __________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about 75 km
apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.
A. VF repeaters
B. Loading coils
C. Loop extenders
D. Echo suppressors
ANSWER: A
45. __________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing the
handset to the local loop.
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Varistor
D. Induction coil
ANSWER: D
48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular processor and
cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices, control call processing and handle
billing activities.
A. MTSO
B. Cell Site
C. PTSN
D. Trunk Line
ANSWER: A
49. __________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site.
A. Switching system
B. Base station
C. Operation and support system
D. Mobile station
ANSWER: B
51. If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean?
A. Completed call of 5 %
B. Lost calls of 5 %
C. Lost calls of 95 %
D. Lost calls of 105 %
ANSWER: B
53. In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is
the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999?
A. 100 lines
B. 1000 lines
C. 10000 lines
D. 100000 lines
ANSWER: B
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
A. Purely reactive
B. Purely resistive
C. Purely capacitive
D. Purely inductive
ANSWER: A
55. Not more than __________ digits make up an international telephone number as recommended by
CCITT REC. E. 161.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
ANSWER: D
57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area.
A. WATS
B. OTLP
C. TIP
D. DTWX
ANSWER: A
59. Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and the switch
is supervised by an operator.
A. Crossbar switching
B. Manual switching
C. Electronic switching
D. Step-by-step switching
ANSWER: B
60. Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the __________ state.
A. On-hook
B. Off-hook
C. Busy
D. Spare
ANSWER: A
61. __________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of compensating for
the local loop length.
A. Resistor
B. Varistor
C. Capacitor
D. Induction coil
ANSWER: B
67. __________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges.
A. Phantom line
B. Tie trunk
C. Tandem trunk
D. Private trunk
ANSWER: B
68. The published rates, regulations, and descriptions governing the provision of communications
service for public use
A. Toll rate
B. Tariff
C. Bulk billing
D. Detailed billing
ANSWER: B
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of __________.
A. 300-400 Hz
B. 300-3400 Hz
C. 300-3000 Hz
D. 300-2700 Hz
ANSWER: B
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
A. 52 µsec
B. 1.25 µsec
C. 83.33 µsec
D. 26 µsec
ANSWER: A
73. What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss plans and a fixed
loss plan?
A. G. 133
B. G. 141
C. G. 132
D. G. 122
ANSWER: D
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100
ohms/km?
A. 0.838 mm
B. 0.465 mm
C. 1.626 mm
D. 2.159 mm
ANSWER: B
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and low-usage areas?
A. Pico cells
B. Micro cells
C. Nano cells
D. Umbrella cells
ANSWER: D
76. In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are replaced by __________
A. Adaptive array
B. Flat plate antenna
C. Dipole array
D. Focused antenna
ANSWER: A
77. What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop?
A. Digital cellular technology
B. Analogue cellular technology
C. PSTN
D. AMPS technology
ANSWER: B
78. When the calling party hears a “busy” tone on his telephone, the call is considered
A. Lost
B. Disconnected
C. Completed
D. Incomplete
ANSWER: C
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stubs because the latter are
A. More difficult to make and connect
B. Made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of reactances
ANSWER: C
80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage?
A. VSWR
B. ISWR
C. SWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
ANSWER: D
82. __________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.
A. Single-wire line
B. Microstrip
C. Twin lead
D. Coaxial line
ANSWER: A
86. Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip propagation time
exceeds __________.
A. 50 ms
B. 30 ms
C. 100 ms
D. 1 ms
ANSWER: A
87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having an input
impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching line?
A. 212 ohms
B. 250 ohms
C. 200 ohms
D. 150 ohms
ANSWER: A
89. The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher modes is us usually
called
A. Coaxial cable
B. Waveguide
C. Power lines
D. Twisted wire of telephone line
ANSWER: B
91. The apparent speed of propagation along a waveguide based on the distance between wavefronts
along the walls of the guide is called
A. Group velocity
B. Phase velocity
C. Normal velocity
D. Abnormal velocity
ANSWER: B
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 mode. The associated flux lines are
established
A. Transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
B. Transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
C. In the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
D. In the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
ANSWER: A
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between 2 instantaneous consecutive
position of maximum field intensity is referred to as half of the
A. Free-space wavelength
B. Cut-off wavelength in the wide dimension
C. Guide wavelength
D. Group wavelength
ANSWER: C
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide provided
A. The wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space
B. The narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space
C. The wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength
D. The wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space
ANSWER: D
97. If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode is
employed
A. The free space wavelength is increased
B. The phase velocity increased
C. The guide wavelength is increased
D. The group velocity is increased
ANSWER: D
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a arectangular waveguide and the reflection angle is 20 degrees, what
is the value of the guide wavelength?
A. 6.10 cm
B. 5.32 cm
C. 4.78 cm
D. 5.00 cm
ANSWER: B
99. The inner dimension of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. the cutoff wavelength for
the dominant mode is
A. 1.75 cm
B. 3.5 cm
C. 7.0 cm
D. 0.4375 cm
ANSWER: C
100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose inner dimensions are
2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength?
A. 3.12 cm
B. 3.89 cm
C. 3.57 cm
D. 6.30 cm
ANSWER: B
1. The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the dominant mode is limited
to
A. The difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle is 90 degrees and the frequency
for which angle is zero.
B. The difference between the frequency for which the free space wavelength is equal to cutoff value
and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the guide wavelength
C. The difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the narrow
dimension.
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
2. If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe should be inserted
A. At the sealed end
B. At a distance of one quarter-wavelength from the sealed end
C. At a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end
D. At a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end
ANSWER: B
3. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far end. What is the
input impedance to the line generator?
A. A low value of resistance
B. A high value of resistance
C. A capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line’s surge impedance
D. An inductive resistance which is equal to the value to line’s surge impedance
ANSWER: B
4. If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
A. An impedance mismatch between the line and the load.
B. That the line is non-resonant
C. A reflection coefficient of zero at the load
D. That the load is matched to the line
ANSWER: A
9. When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
A. Transfer maximum current to the load
B. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
C. Transfer maximum power to the load
D. Have a VSWR equal to zero
ANSWER: C
10. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge impedance. If the
value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 15
ANSWER: B
11. Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power.
A. Standing wave pattern
B. Reflection coefficient
C. SWR
D. Index of refraction
ANSWER: C
14. What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
A. Frequency
B. Hop
C. Wavelength
D. Crest
ANSWER: C
15. The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the __________.
A. Square of the dielectric constant
B. Square root of the dielectric constant
C. Dielectric constant
D. Square root of refractive index
ANSWER: B
16. __________ is a hollow structure that has no center conductor but allows waves to propagate down
its length.
A. Waveguide
B. Hybrid
C. Pipe
D. Directional coupler
ANSWER: A
18. What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line with an attenuation
of 6 dB/km?
A. 1.5 km
B. 0.5 km
C. 63 km
D. 2 km
ANSWER: B
19. In a waveguide, __________ is a specific configuration of electric and magnetic fields that allows a
wave to propagate.
A. Set-up
B. Coupler
C. Channel
D. Mode
ANSWER: D
20. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. what is the dominant mode cut-off
frequency?
A. 2 GHz
B. 3 GHz
C. 2.5 GHz
D. 3.5 GHz
ANSWER: B
21. __________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher order
modes?
A. Coaxial cables
B. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
C. Power cables
D. Waveguides
ANSWER: D
26. What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency application?
A. Two-wire balance line
B. Single wire
C. Three-wire line
D. Coaxial
ANSWER: D
27. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
A. Length
B. Conductor diameter
C. Conductor spacing
D. Dielectric material
ANSWER: A
29. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the characteristic
impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance ZL should be
A. Zo = ZL
B. Zo > ZL
C. Zo < ZL
D. Zo = 0
ANSWER: A
30. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be corrected for by
A. Using LC matching network
B. Adjusting antenna length
C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of transmission line
ANSWER: D
31. __________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in
its characteristic impedance.
A. An electric field
B. Radio wave
C. Standing waves
D. A magnetic field
ANSWER: C
32. Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity
ANSWER: B
35. What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line?
A. Velocity factor
B. Standing-wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Line efficiency
ANSWER: C
36. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 390 V the SWR is
A. 0.67
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. 1.5
ANSWER: D
40. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
ANSWER: C
44. The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is not one of those
factors?
A. Diameter
B. Length of the wire
C. Dielectric material
D. Separation between conductors
ANSWER: B
45. DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of
A. Passing DC while blocking AC
B. Passing AC voltage but prevent DC
C. Preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
D. Preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band splitter
ANSWER: D
46. __________ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a satellite dish
operating on channel 3.
A. Adjacent channel interference
B. Ghost
C. Co-channel interference
D. CrosstalK
ANSWER: A
48. A network that has an input of 75 dB and an output of 35 dB. The loss of the network is __________.
A. -40 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 40 dBm
D. -40 dBm
ANSWER: B
54. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristics impedance of
A. 52 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 300 ohms
ANSWER: D
55. What is the characteristics impedance of a transmission line which is to act as a quarterwave
matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600 ohms load?
A. 300.04 ohms
B. 324.04 ohms
C. 310.04 ohms
D. 320.04 ohms
ANSWER: B
56. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB antenna connected to transmitter with an output of 10 kW
through a transmission line with a loss of 5 dB?
A. 85 dBW
B. 955 dBW
C. 90 dBW
D. 80 dBw
ANSWER: A
57. If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180 ohms load to a transmission line with an
impedance of 300 ohms, what should be the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer?
Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected directly to the load.
A. 180 ohms
B. 232 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 480 ohms
ANSWER: B
58. A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100 % modulated is operating on a frequency of 169 MHz.
the antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner
conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. Determine the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the
outer conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1).
A. 1 in
B. 0.9 in
C. 0.7 in
D. 0.5 in
ANSWER: D
60. Determine also the total attenuation of the line in the preceding problem.
A. 2.0 dB
B. 1.5 dB
C. 2.5 dB
D. 1.0 dB
ANSWER: B
61. What is the maximum subscriber loop length, in ft., of a telephone system of the signaling resistance
is 1800 ohms using a telephone cable pair of gauge # 26 with a loop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 100 ft.
assume the telephone set resistance is equal of 200 ohms.
A. 15, 161.7 feet
B. 19, 161 feet
C. 15, 300 feet
D. 20, 000 feet
ANSWER: B
62. If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6 dB, what is the
maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the same gauge # 26 telephone wire? Assume
a 2.7 dB loss per mile.
A. 20,000 ft
B. 13,900 ft
C. 15,280 ft
D. 11, 733 ft
ANSWER: D
63. The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is
A. 2 W
B. 2.5 W
C. 1.5 W
D. 1.8 W
ANSWER: A
65. The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resonant frequency is
A. 0 ohms
B. Infinite or an open circuit
C. Ohms
D. 70 ohms
ANSWER: B
66. The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line is called
A. SWR
B. ISWR
C. VSWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
ANSWER: C
67. An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-
wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the dipole.
A. 20 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 15 m
D. 25 m
ANSWER: C
68. From the preceding problem, compute also the length of the quarterwave stub.
A. 15 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 20 m
D. 25 m
ANSWER: B
69. To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with (a) the far end
open circuited and (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding readings being
a) Ro = 3 ohms and Xc = 55 ohms capacitive
b) Rs = 10 ohms and XL = 90 ohms inductive
What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line?
A. 75.7 – j2.0 ohms
B. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
C. 87.5 – j5 ohms
D. 70.7 – j1.97 ohms
ANSWER: D
70. A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200 mV and is immediately amplified by a preamplified
with a 15 dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through a coaxial cable with 3 dB loss, what is the
resulting input to the TV set, in dBmV?
A. 1.98
B. 13.98
C. -1.98
D. -13.98
ANSWER: C
71. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its __________.
A. Conductor spacing
B. Conductor diameter
C. Length
D. Conductor radius
ANSWER: C
75. The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the output is
A. 1 mW
B. 3 mW
C. 2 mW
D. 4 mW
ANSWER: C
76. A combiner has two inputs +30 dBm and +30 dBm, what is the resultant output?
A. +36 dBm
B. +30 dBm
C. +60 dBm
D. +33 dBm
ANSWER: D
77. The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called
A. SWR
B. VSWR
C. ISWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
ANSWER: C
78. If the ratio of the maximum current to minimum current in a transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio of
maximum voltage to minimum voltage is
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1
ANSWER: D
79. Two wires of 600 ohms characteristics impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81
mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length.
A. 0.05 dB
B. 0.55 dB
C. 0.44 dB
D. 0.35 dB
ANSWER: C
80. In the preceding problem, determine the spacing between wires from center to center.
A. 6 in
B. 4 in
C. 5 in
D. 3 in
ANSWER: A
81. A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series inductance of 4 mH/m.
What is the characteristic impedance?
A. 500 ohms
B. 400 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 200 ohms
ANSWER: D
83. A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are requied.
A. Balun
B. Parallel-wire line
C. Coaxial line
D. Quarterwave line
ANSWER: B
84. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance of 40 nF/ft and
an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft
A. 111.8 ohms
B. 110.8 ohms
C. 112.8 ohms
D. 109.8 ohms
ANSWER: A
85. The input power to a loss-free cable is 5 W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down on the incident
power, the output power to the load is
A. 4 W
B. 5 W
C. 6 W
D. 7 W
ANSWER: A
86. To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line should be equal to
A. 1
B. 10
C. 50
D. 2
ANSWER: A
87. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic impedance. If the
dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner diameter.
A. 2.09 cm
B. 2.09 in
C. 2.09 mm
D. 2.09 mm
ANSWER: C
88. If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage ratio does the gain of 50 dB
represent?
A. 316.2
B. 325.2
C. 320.1
D. 315
ANSWER: A
89. What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF per ft and a characteristic
impedance of 60 ohms?
A. 0.167 µH per ft
B. 0.178 µH per ft
C. 0.19 µH per ft
D. 0.18 µH per ft
ANSWER: D
90. The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by the surface.
A. Reflection coefficient
B. Absorption coefficient
C. Linear coefficient
D. Thermal coefficient
ANSWER: B
91. When the diameter of the conductors of a 2 wire transmission line is held constant, the effect of
decreasing the distance between the conductors is
A. Increase the surge impedance
B. Increase the radiation resistance
C. Decrease the SWR
D. Decrease the impedance
ANSWER: D
93. A short length of transmission line used to a reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main
transmission line.
A. Stub
B. Balun
C. ?/4 transformer
D. slot
ANSWER: C
95. A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line of 52 ohms
impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is
A. 200 ohms
B. 150 ohms
C. 176 ohms
D. 300 ohms
ANSWER: C
96. What is the capacitance of 55 miles #44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wire tables, # 44 wire
has a radius to 0.10215 in.
A. 0.467 µF
B. 0.467 nF
C. 0.467 pF
D. 0.467 fF
ANSWER: A
97. A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distance between wire
centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
A. 650 ohms
B. 300 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 660 ohms
ANSWER: D
98. In the preceding problem, what is the attenuation in dB per 100 ft. of the line for a frequency of
4MHz?
A. 0.05
B. 0.03
C. 0.04
D. 0.06
ANSWER: B
99. What is the SWR when the transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinite
D. Indeterminate
ANSWER: C
100. An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound pressure level.
A. Sound level meter
B. Transducer
C. Sound pressure meter
D. Sound analyzer
ANSWER: A
1. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to the center frequency
of the octave bands.
A. C-message weighting curve
B. Psophometric weighting curve
C. Noise rating curves
D. F1A weighting curve
ANSWER: C
3. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings.
A. Flanking transmission
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Reverberation
ANSWER: A
5. A certain machine with a slightly out-of-balance motor rotating at 1800 per min is fixed on a perfectly
elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant frequency of mount.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
ANSWER: A
6. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m by 2 m in area with
longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 meter per sec.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
ANSWER: D
9. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10^-12 W). Find the
maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming that the aircraft
radiates sound equally in all directions.
A. 59.1 Hz
B. 69.1 Hz
C. 79.1 Hz
D. 89.1 Hz
ANSWER: D
11. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of carbon granules
varies as the pressure on the granules vary?
A. Dynamic
B. Cystal
C. Carbon
D. Ribbon-type
ANSWER : C
16. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time?
A. Loudness
B. Coherence
C. Sound pressure
D. Sound intensity
ANSWER : D
18. __________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-
section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Loudness
C. Sound intensity
D. Pressure variation
ANSWER : C
22. Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an output signal
voltage?
A. Carbon
B. Dynamic
C. Crystal
D. Condenser
ANSWER : B
23. The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in
watts is this light bulb consuming
A. 10 watts
B. 20 watts
C. 40 watts
D. 50 watts
ANSWER : D
24. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft per sec. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5
inches?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
ANSWER : B
25. The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms
current?
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 5 A
D. 6 A
ANSWER : C
26. A church has an internal volume of 90, 05 cu. ft (2,550 cu. m). When it contains 2,000 customary
sabines of absorption (186 metric sabines), what will be its reverberation time in seconds.
A. 2.0
B. 2.2
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
ANSWER : B
27. If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb per sq. ft, what is the sound pressure level?
A. 7.6 dB
B. 108 dB
C. 88 dB
D. 10 dB
ANSWER : A
29. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87 dB assuming that it
radiates sound uniformly?
A. 0.15 W
B. 0.21 W
C. 0.24 W
D. 0.18 W
ANSWER : D
36. When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _______.
A. reflection
B. diffraction
C. rarefaction
D. refraction
ANSWER : D