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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

1. LIGHT – REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

Light:

(i) It is an invisible energy, which causes the sensation of sight.

(ii) It is the form of energy, which gives in us a sensation of sight. It, itself is not visible
but helps us in seeing objects.

Laws of Reflection:

(i) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. ( i =  r)

(ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in
the same plane.

Laws of refraction:

(I)The ratio of sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction for a
sin i
particular pair of media is constant, i.e., = constant = . This is also called
sin r
Refractive Index and also denoted by n.

(ii) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in
the same plane.

Refraction through prism: When light passes through a prism

(i) It always bends towards the base of the prism.


(ii) A prism splits the light passing through it into its corresponding wavelengths. This
process is called dispersion of light. When sunlight passes through prism it
disperses into seven colours, i.e., seven wavelengths (VIBGYOR).
Cartesian sign convention
In the case of concave mirror for real In the case of concave mirror for In case of convex mirror for virtual
and inverted image virtual and erect image and erect image :
Focal length (f) = –ve focal length (f) = –ve
Radius of curvature (R) = –ve Radius of curvature (R) = –ve Focal length (f) = +ve
Object distance (u) = –ve Object distance (u) = –ve Radius of curvature (R) = +ve
Object height (h) = +ve Object height (h) = +ve Object distance (u) = –ve
Image distance (v) = –ve Image distance (v) = +ve Object height (h) = +ve
Image height (h) = –ve Image height (h) = +ve Image distance (v) = +ve
Magnification (m) = –ve Magnification (m) = +ve Image height (h) = +ve
Magnification (m) = +ve
SPHERICAL MIRRORS
1

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

IMAGE FORMATION BY A CONCAVE MIRROR FOR DIFFERENT POSITIONS OF

THE OBJECT
Position of the object Position of the image Size of the image Nature of the image
At infinity At the focus F Highly diminished, point Real and inverted
sized
Beyond the centre of Between F and C Diminished Real and inverted
curvature C
At C At C Same size Real and inverted
Between C and F Beyond C Enlarged Real and inverted
At F At infinity Infinitely large or highly Real and inverted
enlarged
Between the pole P of the Behind the mirror Enlarged Virtual and erect
mirror and focus F

IMAGE FORMATION BY A CONVEX MIRROR


Position of the object Position of the image Size of the image Nature of the image
At infinity At the focus F, behind the Highly diminished Virtual and erect
mirror point-sized
Between infinity and the Between P and F, behind the Diminished Virtual and erect
pole P of the mirror mirror
The corresponding ray diagrams are included in annexure 4

1 1 1
Mirror Formula :   is called the mirror formula.
f v u

Magnification: The ratio of the size of the image to that of the object is called
magnification. For a mirror, magnification (m) is given by.

v
m
u

LENSES

Lens: A piece of any transparent material bound by two curved surfaces is called a lens. A
lens which is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges is called a convex lens. A
convex lens is also called converging lens.

A lens which is thicker at the edges and thinner at the centre is called a concave lens. A
concave lens is called a diverging lens.

Optical center of a lens: The centre point of a lens is called its optical center. A ray of
light passing through the optical center does not suffer any deviation.
2

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

Power of a lens: Reciprocal of the focal length of a lens measured in meters is called the
power. Power of a lens is described in dioptre (D) units.

Images formed by a lens: A convex lens forms a real and inverted image for all the
positions of an object outside its focus (F). However, when the object is placed between F
and O, the image formed by a convex lens is virtual and erect.

A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect and a diminished image, whatever may be the
distance of the object from the lens.

1 1 1
Lens formula:  
f v u

v
Magnification: m =
u

Cartesian sign convention


In case of convex lens for real and In case of convex lens for virtual and In case of concave lens For
inverted image erect image virtual and erect image
Focal length (f ) = +ve Focal length (f ) = +ve
Focal length(f ) = –ve
Object distance (u) = –ve Object distance (u) = –ve
Object distance (u) = –ve
Object height (h) = +ve Object height (h) = +ve
Object height (h) = +ve
Image distance (v) = +ve Image distance (v) = –ve
Image distance (v) = –ve
Image height (h) = –ve Image height (h) = +ve
Image height (h) = +ve
Magnification (m) = –ve Magnification (m) = +ve
Magnification (m) = +ve

IMAGE FORMATION BY A CONCAVE LENS


Position of the object Position of the image Size of the image Nature of the image
At infinity At focus F1 point-sized Highly diminished Virtual and erect
Between infinity and optical Between focus F1 and Diminished Virtual and erect
centre O of the lenses optical centre

H.O :- VENUS TOWER , CIVIL LINES, MEDICAL ROAD, ALIGARH. 9219418880, B. O:- RAMGHAT ROAD. OPPOSITE OLF SCHOOL, ABOVE OBC. 9219694458
SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

IMAGE FORMED BY A CONVEX LENS FOR DIFFERENT POSITIONS OF THE


OBJECT
Position of the object Position of the image Size of the image Nature of the image
At infinity At focus F2 Highly diminished, Real and inverted
point-sized
Beyond 2F1 Between F2 and 2F2 Diminished Real and inverted
At 2F1 At 2F1 Same size Real and inverted
Between F1 and 2F1 Beyond 2F2 Enlarged Real and inverted
At focus F1 At infinity Infinitely large or highly Real and inverted
enlarged
Between focus F1 and On the same side of the lens Enlarged Virtual and erect
optical centre O as the object
The corresponding ray diagrams are included in annexure 4

IMPORTANT FORMULAE

1 1 1
Mirror formula  
f v u

where, f = focal length of mirror, u = Distance of the object, v = Distance of the image
from pole.

1 1 1
Lens formula  
f v u

where, f = focal length of the lens, v = Distance of the image, u = Distance of the object
from optical centre.

Power of lens
1 100
P 
Focal length (in meters) Focal length (in cm)

1 100
P 
f ( m ) f (cm )

size of the image


Magnification by a lens =
size of the object

hi
m
ho

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

Distance of the image from the optical centre v


Magnification by a lens = or m 
Distance of the object from the optical centre u

REFRACTIVE INDEX

 Absolute refractive index (n) of a medium is the ratio of speed of light in vacuum or air
(c) to the speed of light in the medium (v) i.e.

c
n
v

 Refraction of light is the phenomenon of change in the path of light in going from one
medium to another.

 In going from a rarer to a denser medium, the ray of light bends towards normal and in
going from a denser to a rarer medium, the ray of light bends away from normal.

sin i n2 1
 Snell’s law of refraction:   n2
sin r n1

 No refraction occurs, when

(i) light is incident normally on a boundary,

(ii) refractive indices of the two media in contact are equal.

speed of light in medium 1 refractive index of medium 2


 Refractive index = n21 = 
speed of light in medium 2 refractive index of medium 1

 21
  23 
31

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

MIND MAP

 Light is a form of energy that produces in us  Absolute refractive index(n) of a medium is


the sensation of sight. the ratio of speed of light in vacuum or air(c)
to the speed of light in the medium(v) i.e.

c
 Reflection of light is the phenomenon of n
v
bouncing back of light in the same medium
on striking the surface of any object.  Refraction of light is the phenomenon of
change in the path of light in going from one
medium to another.
 The two laws of reflection are :
 In going from a rarer to a denser medium,

LIGHT–REFLECTION AND REFRACTION


(i) the incident ray, the reflected ray and the the ray of light bends towards normal and in
normal (at the point of incidence), all lie in going from a denser to a rarer medium, the
the same plane. ray of light bends away from normal.

(ii) the angle of reflection (r) is always equal  Snell’s law of refraction,
to the angle of incidence (i)
sin i n
 2  1n 2
r = i sin r n1

1 1 1  No refraction occurs, when


 Lens formula :  
v u f
1 1 1
 Mirror formula:  
 New Cartesian Sign Convention for spherical v u f
lenses:

(i) All distances are measured from optical


centre C of the lens.  Linear magnification produced by a spherical
mirror is
(ii) The distances measured in the direction
of incidence of light are taken as positive and v size of image (h2 )
m 
vice-versa. u size of object (h1 )

(iii) All heights above the principal axis of the  For a convex mirror, m is +ve and less than
lens are taken as positive and vice versa. one, as the image formed is virtual, erect and
shorter than the object.
 The linear magnification produced by a lens

 According to New Cartesian Sign Convention, for spherical mirror.

(i) All distances are measured from the pole of the spherical mirror.

(ii) The distances measured in the direction of incidence of light are taken as positive and vice-versa.

(iii) The heights above the principal axis of the mirror are taken as positive and vice-versa.

H.O :- VENUS TOWER , CIVIL LINES, MEDICAL ROAD, ALIGARH. 9219418880, B. O:- RAMGHAT ROAD. OPPOSITE OLF SCHOOL, ABOVE OBC. 9219694458
SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

EXERCISE – I

1. A ray of light goes from water into air. Will it bend towards the normal or away from
normal?

2. Two thin lenses of powers P1 and P2 are placed in contact. What is the power of
combination?

3. A boy is standing 4 m away from a plane mirror. What is the distance between the boy
and his image?

4. Define refractive index of a medium in terms of speed of light. If the speed of light in
water is 2.25  108 m/s and that in vacuum be 3  108 m/s, calculate the refractive index
of water.

5. The refractive index of one type of glass is 1.50. If the speed of light in vacuum be 3 
108 ms–1, calculate the speed of light in this glass.

6. A small object is so placed in front of a convex lens of 5 cm focal length that a virtual
image is formed at a distance of 25 cm. Find the magnification.

7. Refractive index for dense flint glass ( a  f )  1.65, refractive index for alcohol
( a  al )  1.36 with respect to air. Find the refractive index of flint glass with respect to
alcohol ( a  f ) .

8. How will you distinguish between a plane mirror, a concave mirror and a convex mirror
without touching them? Explain.

9. A Convex mirror used in an automobile has 3.00 m radius of curvature. If a bus is located
at 5.00 m from this mirror, find the position, nature and size of the image.

10. Define (i) principal focus, and (ii) focal length, of a convex mirror with the help of a
labelled diagram.

11. An object 3 cm high is placed at a distance of 8 cm from a concave mirror which


produces a virtual image 4.5 cm high.

(i) What is the position of the image?

(ii) What is the focal length of the mirror?

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12. An object placed 20 cm in front of a mirror is found to have an image 15 cm (a) in front
of it, (b) behind the mirror. Find the focal length of the mirror and the kind of mirror in
each case.

13. A man of height 180 cm is standing in front of a plane mirror. His eyes are at a height of
170cm from the floor. What should be the minimum length of the plane mirror for the
man to see his full length image?

14. A plane mirror is moved towards a stationary observer with a speed of 3 m/s. With what
speed will his image move towards him?

15. A wall clock has numericals instead of marks. What time will its image in a plane mirror
show if the actual time seen directly in the clock is 05 : 28 : 37?

EXERCISE – II

1. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from the
lens. If the image is of the same size as the needle, where is the needle placed in front of
the lens? Also find the power of the lens.

2. Calculate the focal length of a convex lens which produces a virtual image at a distance
of 50 cm of an object placed a 20 cm in front of it.

3. An object 60 cm from a lens gives a virtual image at a distance of 20 cm in front of the


lens. What is the focal length of the lens? Is the lens converging or diverging? Give
reasons for your answer.

4. For an object placed at a distance of 20 cm from the pole of a mirror, an image is formed
40 cm further away from the object on the same side.

(a) What is the nature of the mirror?

(b) Is the image formed real or virtual?

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed.

(d) Calculate the focal length of the mirror used.

5. A concave mirror produces three times magnified real image of an object placed at 10 cm
in front of it. Where is the image located?

6. At what distance from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm should an object 2 cm long
be placed so as to get erect image 6 cm tall?

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

7. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm.


Find the position and nature of the image.

8. What is refraction of light? Explain with the help of a labelled diagram.

9. State and explain the laws of refraction of light.

10. State the effects produced by the refraction of light which can be easily observed in our
day to day life.

11. An object is 2 m from a lens which forms an erect image exactly one-fourth the size of
the object. Determine the focal length of the lens. What type of lens is this?

12. State and explain the laws of reflection of light with the help of a labelled diagram.

13. Describe with the help of a labelled ray-diagram, the nature, size and position of the
image formed when an object is placed anywhere between the pole and infinity in front
of a convex mirror.

14. Describe with the help of a ray-diagram the nature, size and position of the image formed
when an object is placed in front of a convex lens between optical centre and focus. State
three characteristics of the image formed.

15. What happens when a parallel beam of light rays falls on a concave lens? Explain with
the help of a labelled diagram. Also define principal focus and focal length of a concave
lens and mark them on the diagram.

EXERCISE – III

1 An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm.


Where will the image be formed?

2. A 2.0 cm high object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror.
The distance of the object from the mirror is 30 cm, and its image is formed 60 cm from
the mirror, on the same side of the mirror as the object. Find the height of the image
formed.

3. A 2.0 cm high object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave mirror. A real


image is formed at 40 cm from the mirror. Calculate the focal length of the mirror and the
size of the image.

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

4. Find the position, size and the nature of the image formed by a spherical mirror from the
following data:
u = –20 cm, f = –15 cm, h0 = 1.0 cm

5. A concave mirror forms an erect image of an object placed at a distance of 10 cm from it.
The size of the image is double that of the object. Where is the image formed?

6. An object is placed 30 cm from a convex lens. A real image is formed 20 cm from the
lens. Find the focal length of the lens.

7. A 2.0 cm long pin is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal
length 12 cm. The distance of the pin from the lens is 15 cm. Find the size of the image.

8. A point object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens on its principal axis.
Its image is formed on the other side of the lens at a distance of 18 cm from the lens. Find
the focal length of the lens.

9. An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave lens at a distance of 20 cm from it.
If the focal length of the lens is also 20 cm, find the location of the image.

10. A pin which is 2 cm long is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a convex lens. Assuming
it is to be perpendicular to the principal axis, find the position, size and the nature of the
image if the focal length of the lens is 12 cm.

11. A 4.0 cm high object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length
20 cm. Find the size of the image.

12. Describe with the help of a ray-diagram, the size, nature and position of the image
formed by a convex lens when an object is placed beyond 2f in front of the lens.

13. How far should an object be held from a concave mirror of focal length 40 cm so as to
obtain a virtual image twice the size of the object?
14. A glass slab of thickness 6 cm contains the same number of waves as 10 cm thick water
layer when the same monochromatic beam of light is allowed to incident on them. If the
4
absolute value of refractive index of water is , what will be absolute value of refractive
3
index of glass?
15. An object of height 5 cm is placed 10 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature
30cm. What is the nature and size of the image?

10

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

2. HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD

• The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects by adjusting its focal length is
called the power of accommodation of the eye.

• The smallest distance at which the eye can see objects clearly without strain, is called the
near point of the eye or the least distance of distinct vision. It is 25 cm for a normal eye.

• The farthest point upto which the eye can see objects clearly is called the far point of the
eye. It is infinity for a normal eye.

• The splitting of white light into its component colours is called dispersion.

• The scattering of light by the colloidal particles of a medium due to which the path of the
light becomes visible is known as Tyndall Effect.

• There are three common refractive defects of vision.

 Myopia or short sightedness.

 Hypermetropia or long sightedness.

 Presbyopia.

MYOPIA OR SHORT-SIGHTEDNESS

• A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects
distinctly.

Causes of Defect: The two possible causes of this defect are:


(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens or due to the high converging power of eye lens
(short focal length).
(b) Elongation of the eyeball.
Corrective Measures: This defect can be corrected by using spectacles with concave
lens of suitable focal length or power.

HYPERMETROPIA OR LONG-SIGHTEDNESS

• A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects
distinctly.
Causes of Defect: The two possible causes of this defect are:
11

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(i) Low converging power of eye lens because of large focal length.
(ii) Eye-ball being too short.
Corrective Measures: This defect can be corrected by using spectacles with convex lens
of suitable focal length or power.

PRESBYOPIA OR OLD SIGHT

• Presbyopia is due to decrease in power of accommodation with ageing.

Cause of Defect: Presbyopia arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles
and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens with age.
Presbyopia is the hypermetropia caused by the loss of power of accommodation of the
eye due to old age.
Corrective Measures: Presbyopia defect is corrected in the same way as hypermetropia
i.e. by using spectacles having convex lenses. Sometimes when far vision is also affected
bifocal lenses are used.

ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION

It can be defined as bending of light while going through various layers of air in the
atmosphere.

 Twinkling of stars: They are point source of light and atmospheric refraction causes
bending of light. Apparent image is higher than actual image and causes twinkling effect.

 Planets do not twinkle, as they are not point source of light.

 Early sunrise and late sunset: Sun can be seen two minutes before actual sunrise and
two minutes after sunset due to atmospheric refraction.

SCATTERING OF LIGHT
12

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 Sun appears reddish at sunrise and sunset due to, lower wavelengths (blue) getting
scatteredand higher wavelength (red) reaching us.

 Sky appears blue to us due to scattering of lower wavelengths (blue).

 To an astronaut sky appears dark as there is no atmosphere, thus no scattering.

Sun nearly
Blue scattered away, overhead
Sun appears reddish Less blue
scattered

Sun near
Observer
horizon

13

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

MIND MAP

The ability of an eye to focus both near and There are three common refractive defects of
distant objects by adjusting its focal length is vision.
called the power of accomodation of an eye.
 Myopia or near sightedness.

 Hypermetropia or long sightedness.

HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD


The smallest distance at which an eye can see
objects clearly without strain, is called the near A person with myopia can see nearby objects
point of an eye or the least distance of distinct clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly.
vision. It is 25 cm for a normal eye.
The defect can be corrected by using concave
lens of suitable focal length.

The farthest point upto which an eye can see A person with hypermetropia can see distant
objects clearly is called the far point of an eye. It objects clearly but cannot see near by objects
is infinity for a normal eye. distinctly.

The defect can be corrected by using convex lens

The splitting of white light into its component Presbyopia is due to decrease in power of
colours is called dispersion. accommodation with ageing.

The defect can be corrected by using bifocal

The scattering of light by the collidal particles of


Scattering of light causes the blue colour of the
a medium due to which the path of the light
sky, reddening of the sun at sunrise and sunset.
becomes visible is known as Tyndall Effect.

14

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

EXERCISE – I

1. What is the least distance of distinct vision of a normal human eye?

2. Define power of accommodation.

3. Name the muscles responsible for bringing change in the focal length of the eye.

4. What is the far point of a normal human eye?

5. What is the near point of a normal human eye?

6. What is the type of lens used for correcting myopia?

7. What type of lens is used for correcting hypermetropia?

8. Which defect of eye can be corrected by using cylindrical lens?

9. Name the type of lens which is used for correcting the presbyopia?

10. What is cataract?

11. What is angle of prism?

12. What do you mean by angle of deviation in prism?

13. What do you mean by dispersion of light?

14. Name a natural spectrum.

15. What do you mean by atmospheric refraction of light?

15

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EXERCISE – II
1. What do you mean by scattering of light or Tyndall effect?

2. Why are the danger signal lights red in colour?

3. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?

4. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object
from the eye?

5. What is colour blindness?

6. What is presbyopia?

7. A chicken can see only in the bright light. What type of cells are present in retina?

8. What is persistence of eye vision?

9. What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye?

10. How do we see colours?

EXERCISE – III
1. Draw a leveled diagram of human eye.

2. What is long sightedness or hypermetropia? What causes long sightedness and how is it
corrected?

3. What is short sightedness or myopia? What causes short sightedness and how is it
corrected?
4. Why do the colour of the sun appears red as sun rise and sun set?

16

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5. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the power of the
lens required to enable him to see the distant objects clearly?
6. A person with a defective eye-vision is unable to see the objects nearer than 1.5 m. He
wants to read books at a distance of 30 cm. Find the nature, focal length and power of the
lens he needs in his spectacles.

7. For point of a myopic person is 40 cm. What type of lens should be wear so as to see the
distant object clearly? Calculate the focal length and the power of the lens he should use.

8. A myopic person has been using spectacles of power –1.00 D for clear vision. During old
age he also needs to use separate reading glasses of power +2.00 D. Explain what may
have happened to his eye-sight?

9. Why do the stars twinkle?

10. Why does the colour of the sky appear blue?

17

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

3. ELECTRICITY

Electricity and its Effect (notations)


Physical Quantity Symbols SI unit
Voltage (potential difference) V Volt (V)

Power P Watt (W)

Charge Q Coulomb (C)

Work or Energy W Joule (J)

Resistance R Ohm ()

Current I Ampere (A)

Resistivity  Ohm metre ( m)

Laws of electric forces:

(i) Like charges repel and unlike charges attract each other.

(ii) Charges of a conductor reside on its outer surface.

Current:

The rate of flow of charges (Q) through a conductor is called current (I) and is given by.

charge Q
Current = or I  . The SI unit of current is ampere (A).
Time t

1 coulomb
1 Ampere 
1 second

The current flowing through a circuit is measured by a device called ammeter. Ammeter
is connected in series with the conductor. The direction of the current is taken as the
direction of the flow of positive charge and opposite to the flow of electrons through the
conductor.

Electric cell: It is the simplest form of arrangement to maintain a constant potential


difference between two points.

Electromotive force: The potential difference at the terminals of cells in an open circuit
is called electromotive force (emf) and is denoted by letter E.

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Potential difference is the work done in bringing a unit charge from one place to another.

work 1 Joule (J)


Potential Difference  , 1 Volt (V) 
charge 1 Coulomb (C)

Ohms law: At any constant temperature the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference (V) across it. Mathematically,

I  V vice-versa VI

V V
or V = RI  R ,I 
I R

where R – Resistance, V – Voltage (P.D.), I – Current

Symbols of a few commonly used components in Circuit Diagrams

Component Symbol Component Symbol

An electric cell Electric bulb

Battery of cells A resistance

Plug key or switch Variable resistance


or or
(open) (Rheostat)
A closed plug or or + A –
Ammeter
switch

A wire joint Voltmeter + V –

Wires crossing Galvanometer +G –

Resistance: Resistance is a property of a conductor by virtue of which it opposes the flow of


electricity through it. Resistance is measured in Ohms (). Resistance is a scalar quantity.

Conductor: Low-resistance material which allows the flow of electric current through it is
called a conductor. All metals are conductors except Hg and Pb etc.

Resistor: High-resistance materials are called resistors. Resistors become hot when current flows
through them (nichrome wire is a typical resistor).

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Insulator: A material which does not allow heat and electricity to pass through it is called an
insulator. Rubber, dry wood etc., are insulators.

Equivalent Resistance: A single resistance which can replace a combination of resistances such
that current through the circuit remains the same is called equivalent resistance.

Law of Combination of Resistances in Series: When number of resistances are connected in


series, the equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.

V  V1  V2  V3

V  IR, V1  IR1, V2  IR2 , V3  IR3

IR  IR1  IR2  IR3

R  R1  R2  R3 .....  Rn

Law of Combination of Resistances in Parallel: If resistance R1, R2 , R3 , ..... etc are connected
in parallel then the equivalent resistance (R) is given by
I  I1  I 2  I3

V V V V
I , I1  , I2  , I3 
R R1 R2 R3

V V V V
  
R R1 R2 R3

1 1 1 1 1
   ..... 
R R1 R2 R3 Rn

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

Electrical energy: Capacity of the flowing electricity to do work is called its electrical energy.

V 2t
Electrical energy (work) = V I t  I 2Rt  Pt 
R

The SI unit of electrical energy is Joule. One Joule is the amount of energy consumed when an
electrical appliance of one watt rating is used for one second. The commercial (practical) unit of
electrical energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh).

W V2
Power, P   VI  I 2R 
t R

The SI unit of electric power is watt (W). The power of a machine doing work at the rate of 1
Joule per second is equal to one watt.

Electrical energy = Electrical power × Time.

Important Formulae:

1. Coulomb’s law

K  q1  q2
F (k is constant of proportionality)
r2

q1 and q 2 = two electric charges

r = distance between two electric charges

F = Force

W W
2. V ;W  V Q ;Q 
Q V

V  p.d. W = work done, Q = Quantity of charge transferred

V V
3. V  R I ; R  ;I 
I R

21

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

V = pd ; R = Resistance, I = current.

I RA
4. R ; 
A l

R = Resistance; l = length; A = Area of cross section;  = rho, a constant known as


resistivity

5. Series combination R  R1  R2  R3 .....  Rn

1 1 1 1 1
6. Parallel combination    .....  For equal resistances
R R1 R2 R3 Rn

Rs  nR (For series connection)

R
Rp  (For parallel connection)
n

Rs
 n2
Rp

Rs = Effective resistance in series

Rp = Effective resistance in parallel

n = number of resistors

R = Resistance of each resistor

W work Energy consumed


7. P ; Power  
t time Time

8. W = V × I × t ; Power = potential difference × current × time

 V 2t 
 (W  I 2Rt )   W  
 R 

9. P = V × I ; Power = potential difference × current

10. P  I 2  R ; Power = (current) 2  resistance

V2 (potential difference ) 2
11. P ; Power 
R resistance

12. Electric energy = P × t ; electric energy = power × time

22

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

MIND MAP

Electric Current

The amount of charge flowing through a particular area per unit time in a conductor.

Formulae Ammeter

 Measures electric current.


Q
I
t  Has low resistance.

W  Connected in series.
V
Q Voltmeter

V  IR (ohm’s law)  Measures potential difference.

 Has high resistance.



R
A
S.I. Units
R  R1  R 2  R 3 ....... Current – Ampere (A)

(Series connection) Resistance – Ohm ()


ELECTRICITY

Potential Difference – Volt (V)


I I I I
   Power – Watt (W)
R R1 R2 R3
Electric Energy – Kilo Watt Hour (kWh)
(Parallel connection)
Resistivity – Ohm-meter (m)
2
H  I RT
Conversions
2V2
P  VI  I R  1Joule
R 1 watt =
1second
E  W  VIt
1 KW = 1000 W

1 KJ = 1000 J

1 Horse Power = 746 W


I – Current
1 volt
Q – Charge 1 Ohm =
1 ampere
t – Time 1 KWh = 3.6 x 10 J
6

V – Potential difference 1 coulomb


1 Ampere =
1 second
p – Resistivity

23

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 3 are of one mark each.


Q. 4 – 7 are of two or three marks each.
Q. 8 is of five marks.

1. State the relation between potential difference, work done and the charge moved.

2. Define 1 ampere.

3. By what name is the physical quantity coulomb/second known as?

4. What will be the current drawn by an electric bulb of 40 W when it is connected to a


source of 220 V?

5. What will be the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 meters and area of cross section
1.55 × 10–6 m2 if the resistivity of the metal be 2.8 × 10–8 m.

6. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. By how
much does the current change?

7. An electric bulb draws a current of 0.25 A for 20 minutes. Calculate the amount of
electric charge that flows through the circuit.

8. A potential difference of 250 volts is applied across a resistance of 500 ohms in an


electric iron. Calculate
(a) Current
(b) Heat energy produced in Joules in 10 seconds

24

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. When a body is negatively charged by friction it means

(a) the body has acquired excess of electrons

(b) the body has acquired excess of protons

(c) the body has lost some electrons

(d) the body has lost some protons

2. There is no flow of current between two charged bodies when connected because

(a) they have the same quantity of charge

(b) they have the same potential

(c) they have the same capacity

(d) they have the same ratio of potential per unit charge

3. Electromotive force represents

(a) force (b) energy

(c) energy per unit charge (d) current

4. The unit of e.m.f. of a cell is

(a) dyne (b) volt

(c) ampere (d) joule

5. The commonly used safety fuse wire is made of

(a) copper (b) lead

(c) nickel (d) an alloy of tin and lead

6. Kilowatt hour is the unit of

(a) power (b) energy

(c) impulse (d) force

25

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7. 1 KWh is equal to

(a) 3.6  10 6 MJ (b) 3.6  10 3 MJ

(c) 3.6  10 2 MJ (d) 3.6 MJ

1
8. A man has five resistors each of value  . What is the maximum resistance he can
5
obtain by connecting them?

(a) 1 (b) 5

1 2
(c)  (d) 
2 5

9. What is the minimum resistance that one can obtain by connecting all the five resistance
given in the last question

1 1
(a)  (b) 
10 5

1 1
(c)  (d) 
50 25

10. Conventionally the direction of the current is taken as

(a) the direction of flow of negative charge (b) the direction of flow of molecules

(c) the direction of flow of atoms (d) the direction of flow of positive charge

11. How will the reading in the ammeter A (Figure) be Switch


affected if another identical bulb Q is connected in parallel A
to P? The voltage in the mains is maintained at a constant

value Mains P Q

(a) the reading will be reduced to one-half

(b) the reading will not be affected

(c) the reading will be double the previous value

(d) the reading will be increased four fold

12. The unit of resistivity is

(a) ohm (b) ohm

(c) ohm-metre (d) ohm per metre


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13. If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross-section is also doubled then the resistance
will

(a) increase eight times (b) decrease four times

(c) become four times (d) remain uncharged

14. In the circuit shown below, the reading of the voltmeter V 12 V


will be  +

(a) 4V (b) 2V 100 200

(c) 6V (d) 3V
V

15. In the figure distance (d) between conductors carrying current I1 I1 I2


and I 2 is varied
d
Which of the following graphs correctly represent the variation
between force (F) between the conductors and distance (d)?

(a) F (b) F

d d

(c) F (d) F

d d

16. 1 Volt equals

(a) 1 joule (b) 1 joule per coulomb

(c) 1 coulomb per metre (d) 1 Newton per coulomb

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SARWAR CLASSES CLASS- X FOUNDATION (IIT/PMT)

17. Which of the following networks yields maximum effective resistance between A and B?

(a) 2 (b)
A 2 B
  2 2

2 2
A  B

(c) 2 (d)
2

A 2 B
A 2 2 B
2

18. What is the resistance between A and B in the given network.


1 1
(a) 2 (b) 4
2
3 2 A B
(c)  (d) 
2 3
2

19. Good conductors have many loosely bound

(a) atoms (b) molecules

(c) protons (d) electrons

20. One ampere equals

(a) 10 6 A (b) 10 6 A

(c) 10 3 A (d) 10 A

21. How many electrons constitute a current of one microampere?

(a) 6.25  10 6 (b) 6.25  10 12

(c) 6.25  10 9 (d) 6.25  10 15

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22. The equivalent resistance between P and Q will be 1

P
(a) 7 (b) 2
2 2 2
3 Q
(c)  (d) 1
5

23. If a wire of resistance 1 is stretched to double its length, then its resistance will become

1
(a)  (b) 2
2

1
(c)  (d) 4
4

24. Which switch in the circuit when closed will produce short Lamp

circuiting?
B
A C
(a) A (b) B
Resistance

(c) C (d) none of the


above

25. Seven identical lamps of resistance 2200  each are


connected to a 220 V line as shown below. Then the 220V
reading in the ammeter will be

1 2
(a) A (b) A
10 5

3
(c) A (d) none of these
10

26. What is the resistance between A and B in the 1 1


following circuit? 1
2
2 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 2
1
1 3
(c)  (d)  A 2 B
2 2

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27. The fact that current is associated with a magnetic field was discovered by

(a) Oersted (b) Maxwell

(c) Faraday (d) Ohm

28. What is the resistance between P and Q?


2 2
3 4
(a)  (b) 
4 3
2
16 2 2
(c)  (d) infinity
3 P Q

29. The unit of conductance cannot be expressed in

(a) mho (b) (ohm)1

(c) siemen (d) ohm m1

30. SI unit of specific resistance is

(a) ohm m (b) ohm m1

(c) ohm m2 (d) (ohm)1

31. The slope of current (I) versus voltage (V) is called Y

(a) resistance (b) resistivity I

(c) conductivity (d)


conductance O V X

32. The slope of voltage (V) versus current (I) is called Y

(a) resistance V

(b) conductance
O I X
(c) resistivity

(d) conductivity

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33. For a metallic conductor, voltage versus current graph is drawn at two different
temperatures T1 and T2 . From the graph it follows

(a) T1  T2 Y
T1
T2
(b) T1  T2 V

(c) T1  T2
O I X
(d) nothing can be decided

34. For a metallic conductor, current versus voltage graph is drawn at Y


T1
two different temperatures T1 and T2 . From the graph it follows T2
I
(a) T1  T2

(b) T1  T2 O V X

(c) T1  T2

(d) nothing can be decided

35. What is the current (I) in the circuit I

1 1 2
(a) A (b) 2A 2V
2

3
(c) A (d) none of these 1
2

36. The resistance of germanium will rise if temperature

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains the same (d) first increases then decrease

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37. The effective resistance of a circuit containing resistances in parallel is

(a) equal to the sum of the individual resistances

(b) smaller than any of the individual resistances

(c) greater than any of the individual resistances

(d) sometimes greater and sometimes smaller than the individual resistances

38. Electric intensity is

(a) a scalar quantity (b) a vector quantity

(c) neither scalar nor vector (d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector

39. Electric potential is

(a) a scalar quantity (b) a vector quantity

(c) neither scalar nor vector (d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector

40. Choose the only vector amongst the following

(a) electric potential (b) e.m.f

(c) electrical energy (d) electrostatic force

41. One ohm is equal to

(a) 10 6 mega ohm (M) (b) 10 9 M

(c) 10 6 M (d) none of these

42. In general, when the temperature of a conductor increases its resistance

(a) increases (b) decreases


(c) remains the same (d) cannot say
43. The resistance of carbon ______with rise in temperature
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) first increases then decreases
44. The resistance of a semiconductor material (germanium or silicon) _______ with rise in
temperature
(a) increases (b) decreases

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(c) remains the same (d) first increases then decreases

45. 1 volt equals


1C
(a) 1J (b)
J

1J
(c) (d) none of these
C

46. A graph is plotted between the potential difference (applied across the ends of a
conductor) and the current (flowing through the conductor). The graph is a straight line
(a) intersecting both the axis (b) having an intercept on the X-axis
(c) having an intercept on the Y-axis (d) none of these
47. In order to measure current in a resistance present in a circuit the ammeter is connected
(a) in series (b) in parallel
(c) in series or parallel (d) nothing can be decided

48. In our houses all electrical devices operate on 220 V. It implies that
(a) they are connected in parallel (b) they are connected in series
(c) they all have current of equal values (d) they all have the same resistance
49. What constitutes current in a metal wire?
(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) atoms (d) molecules

50. The fixed resistance is called


(a) rheostat (b) resistor
(c) key (d) switch
51. The variable resistance is called
(a) resistor (b) rheostat
(c) open switch (d) none of these

52. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2 coulombs from a point at 118 volts to a
point at 128 volts?
(a) 10J (b) 20J

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1
(c) J (d) none of these
10

53. The device used for measuring potential difference is known as


(a) potentiometer (b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter (d) galvanometer

54. The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric field
circuit is a measure of
(a) current (b) resistance
(c) power (d) potential difference

55. Ohmic conductors


(a) obey ohm’s law (b) do not obey ohm’s law
(c) sometimes obey ohm’s law (d) none of these is true
56. Choose the substance which is different from others as regards conduction of electricity
(a) copper (b) aluminum
(c) silver (d) rubber

57. Which of the following has low resistivity?


(a) nichrome (b) manganin
(c) constantan (d) copper
58. Which of the following has infinitely high electrical resistance?
(a) wood (b) rubber
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
59. What is the resistance across A and B in the following circuit?
5 2 B
(a) 
4
1 2
4
(b) 
5 1
14 A 2
(c) 
3

(d) none of these

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60. An electric iron draws a current 4A when connected to a 220 V mains. Its resistance must
be

(a) 1000 (b) 55

55
(c) 44 (d) 
4

61. The resistance of a conductor is reduced to half its initial value. In doing so the heating
effect in the conductor will become
(a) half (b) one-fourth

(c) double (d) four times


62. The coil of a heater is cut into two equal halves and only one of them is used in the
heater. The ratio of the heat produced by this half of the coil to that produced by the
original coils is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
63. Laws of electrolysis were given by

(a) Faraday (b) Maxwell

(c) Lenz (d) Bohr

64. Laws of heating were given by

(a) Joule (b) Ohm

(c) Maxwell (d) Faraday

65. Electric iron is based upon the principle of ____ effect of current

(a) heating (b) magnetic

(c) chemical (d) none of these

66. Electric bulb converts electrical energy into

(a) sound energy (b) mechanical energy

(c) nuclear energy (d) none of these

67. The process of depositing a thin film of a metal on any conducting substance by
electrolysis is called

(a) electroplating (b) electrotyping


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(c) polarisation (d) none of these

68. The common name of Leclanche cell is

(a) dry cell (b) Daniel cell

(c) fuel cell (d) none of these

69. The emf of a cell is measured in

(a) volt (b) watt

(c) ampere (d) kilowatt

70. Which of the following terms do not represent electrical power in a circuit:

(a) I2R (b) IR2

V2
(c) VI (d)
R

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a)

16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)

21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d)

26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a)

31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b)

36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)

41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c)

46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)

51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (a)

56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)

61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (a)

66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (b)

36

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4. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC


CURRENT

Magnetic Effects of Current


(i) H.C. Oersted: He first proposed experimentally that a magnetic field is developed
around a current carrying conductor. He showed it by deflection of a magnetic needle
placed near a closed circuit, having current.

(ii) Maxwell cork-screw rule or right hand thumb rule: According to this rule
imagine yourself holding a current carrying conductor in your right hand such that thumb
points in the direction of flow of current then the fingers wrapping around it gives the
direction of flow of magnetic field.

(iii) Fleming Left hand Rule: Stretch the forefinger, the central finger and the thumb of
your left hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger shows the direction
of the magnetic field and the central finger that of the current, then the thumb will point
towards the direction of motion of the conductor.

(iv) Fleming’s Right Hand Rule: Stretch out the forefinger, the middle finger and the
thumb of the right hand such that these are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the
forefinger shows the direction of the magnetic field, thumb shows the direction of motion
of the conductor then the middle finger gives the direction of current produced in the
conductor (Induced current).

ELECTRIC MOTOR AND ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

An electric motor is a device for converting electric energy into mechanical energy. Thus, an
electric motor is the reverse of an electric generator. There are two types of electric motors:

(i) AC motor

(ii) DC motor.

Principle of Electric motor: When a conductor or rectangular coil carrying current is placed in
between a magnet, the conductor experiences a force and moves. Thus, its converts electric
energy to mechanical energy.

Electric Generator: A device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is called
an electric generator.

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Principle of Electric generator – Electromagnetic induction: When a


conductor/rectangular coil is kept in between a magnet and when there is a relative
motion between them, there is a change in magnetic flux and thus current is induced.
Thus, a generator changes mechanical energy to electrical energy.

Reasons of short-circuiting

Short-circuiting happens due to :

(a) Damage to the insulation of the power-lines

(b) A fault in an electric appliance due to which current does not pass through it.

Consequences of short-circuiting

On account of short-circuiting, resistance of the circuit decreases to a very small value


and consequently the current becomes very large. This large current results in heating of
live wires, which produces sparking at the point of short-circuiting. This sparking
sometimes causes fire in a building. (Apart from short-circuiting, the increase in current
in the circuit and consequent heating may also be due to overloading of the circuit).

Electric Fuse: A Safety Device

An electric fuse is a device, which is used in series to limit the current in an electric
circuit so that it easily melts due to overheating when excessive current passes
through it. A fuse is a wire of a material with very low melting point.

Electric fuse can avoid incidents like electric shock, fire, damage to an electric appliance
due to :

 Short-circuiting or

 Overloading (withdrawing current beyond a specified limit) in a circuit.

Earthing

Many electric appliances of daily use like electric press, toaster, refrigerator, table fan
etc. have a metallic body. If the insulation of any of these appliances melts and makes
contact with the metallic casing, the person touching it is likely to receive a severe
electric shock. This is due to the reason that the metallic casing will be at the same
potential as the applied one. Obviously, the electric current will flow through the body of
the person who touches the appliance. To avoid such serious accidents, the metal casing
of the electric appliance is earthed. Since the earth does not offer any resistance, the
38

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current flows to the earth through the earth wire instead of flowing through the body of
the person. More over, due to very low resistance (almost nil) offered by the earth wire,
the current in the circuit rises to a very high value, thereby melting fuse in that circuit and
cutting off its electric supply.

Role of Magnetism in Medicine and Organisms

In our body, small electric current travels along the nerve cells due to ions. This current
produces a very weak magnetic field (about one billionth time weaker than the Earth's
magnetic field) in our body. Heart and brain are the two main organs in our body where
this magnetic field is quite significant. The magnetic field in our body enables us to
obtain the images of its different parts by using a technique called MRI (Magnetic
Resonance Imaging). On analysing the images obtained through MRI, we are able to
make a medical diagnosis, e.g., location and size of a tumour in brain etc. Thus,
magnetism plays an important role in modern medical science.

Apart from this, there are certain organisms, which have the ability to sense Earth's
magnetic field and travel from one place to another. For example, some types of fishes
are able to detect magnetic field by using special receptors whereas in certain organisms,
crystals of magnetite enable to move along the Earth's magnetic field.

39

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MIND MAP

MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT


 Right hand thumb rule – Imagine a straight
 A magnet is a substance with attractive and
conductor in your right hand such that the
directive properties.
thumb points in the direction of current
and the curling of fingers gives the
 Magnetic field is a space around magnet
direction of magnetic field lines.
where force of attraction and repulsion is
detected.  Fleming left hand rule – On stretching your
left hand, fore finger points in the direction
 Magnetic field lines represent a magnetic of the magnetic field, the central finger
field. points in the direction of current and the
thumb points in the direction of motion of
a The lines are directed from North pole to conductor.
South pole.
 Fleming right hand rule – On stretching
your right hand, such that the central finger
b They are parallel and equidistant to each
and the first finger are mutually
other and form closed and continuous
perpendicular to each other, the first finger
curve.
points in the direction of magnetic field, the
thumb points in the direction of motion of
 Oersted demonstrated that around every
the conductor and the central finger points
conductor carrying an electric current there
in the direction of induced current.
is a magnetic field.

 The magnitude of magnetic field is (B)

 The cable supplying power to house hold


 Electro magnetic induction is the conversion
has
of mechanical energy into electrical energy.
a Live wire (red).
 Electric motor is used to convert electric
energy into mechanical energy. b Neutral wire (black)
c Earth wire (green)
 Generator is used to convert mechanical
energy into electrical energy.  A fuse protects the electric circuits and
appliances from short circuiting or from

40

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 4 are of one mark each.


Q. 5 – 8 are of two or three marks each.
Q. 9 – 10 are of five marks each.

1. What does a compass do?

2. What is the property of the poles?

3. What is the use of MRI?

4. Why is the earth pin of a 3-pin plug thickest?

5. Name the 2 poles of a magnet. What is AC and DC?

6. Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines due to a current in a circular coil.

7. Differentiate between AC and DC.

8. Name the 3 wires used in a domestic circuit and mention the colour of each.

9. Draw a labelled diagram to show how electric connections are made in a house. What is
the voltage of domestic connection and that of commercial connection?

10. Answer the following:

(a) What is the right hand thumb rule? Show it diagrammatically also.

(b) Why don't 2 magnetic lines of force intersect each other?

(c) Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet

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EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Choose the correct option:

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current

(a) is zero

(b) decreases as we move towards its end

(c) increases as we move towards its end

(d) is the same at all points

2. When the normal to a coil points in the direction of B, the flux is

(a) positive (b) negative

(c) zero (d) nothing cab be said

3. In a DC generator, the induced emf in the armature is

(a) DC (b) AC

(c) fluctuating DC (d) both AC and DC

4. Choose the correct option.

A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the
induced current changes once in each

(a) two revolutions (b) one revolution

(c) half revolution (d) one-fourth revolution

5. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?

(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.

(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.

(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.

(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire.

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6. Ampere rule is used to find the

(a) direction of current (b) direction of magnetic field

(c) direction of motion of the conductor (d) magnitude of current

7. A compass needle just above a wire in which electrons are moving to the east, will point

(a) east (b) west

(c) north (d) south

8. By increasing the number of turns in the coil, the strength of the magnetic field

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) first decreases then increases (d) remains uncharged

9. Fleming’s right hand rule gives

(a) the magnitude of the induced emf

(b) the magnitude of the magnetic field

(c) the direction of the induced emf

(d) both magnitude and direction of he induced emf

10. For making an electromagnet the best material for the case is

(a) stainless steel (b) soft iron

(c) silver (d) nickel

11. A wire carrying a current of 5 A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic induction of 2 T.


The force on each centimeter of the wire is

(a) 0.1 N (b) 10 N

(c) 100 N (d) 1 N

12. There will be no force between two currents if they are

(a) parallel to each other (b) antiparallel to each other

(c) perpendicular to each other (d) nothing can be said

13. A copper ring is moved towards the north pole of a bar magnet. Then

(a) the ring will not be affected (b) the ring will tend to get warm
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(c) an alternating current will flow in the ring (d) the ring will be positively charged

14. The split rings in motion are called

(a) armature (b) commutator

(c) rotor (d) core

15. The frequency of AC mains is

(a) 100 Hertz (b) 50 Hertz

(c) 1/100 Hertz (d) 1/50 Hertz

16. A switch is always connected to the

(a) earth wire (b) neutral wire

(c) live wire (d) none of these

17. A fuse wire is always connected to the

(a) earth wire (b) neutral wire

(c) live wire (d) none of these

18. The frequency of AC used in India is

(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz

(c) 200 Hz (d) none of these

19. Which of the following figures represents the magnetic lines of force due to an isolated
north pole?

(a) (b)

N N

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(c) (d)

N N

20. Magnetic lines of force

(a) form closed circuits (b) cannot intersect

(c) are crowded together near the poles (d) all the above are coorect

21. A coil carrying current behaves as a/an

(a) magnet (b) motor

(c) dynamo (d) electric dipole

22. The wire having red plastic covering is a

(a) live wire (b) neutral wire

(c) earth wire (d) none of these

23. The wire having black plastic covering is a

(a) live wire (b) neutral wire

(c) earth wire (d) none of these

24. The wire having green plastic covering is a

(a) live wire (b) neutral wire

(c) earth wire (d) none of these

25. Which of the following is not associated with Fleming’s left hand rule?

(a) resistance (b) magnetic field

(c) force (d) current

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26. If a bar magnet is cut lengthwise into 3 parts, the total number of poles will be

(a) 2 (b) 3

(c) 4 (d) 6

27. A compass needle placed just above a wire in which electrons are moving towards west,
will point

(a) East (b) North

(c) West (d) South

28. Magnetic effect of electric current was discovered by

(a) Maxwell (b) Oersted

(c) Ampere (d) none of these

29. Electric bulb converts electrical energy into

(a) sound energy (b) mechanical energy

(c) nuclear energy (d) none of these

30. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Magnetic poles always exist in pairs

(b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength

(c) like poles repel each other

(d) unlike poles repel each other

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ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)


11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)

21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)

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5. SOURCES OF ENERGY

IMPORTANT FACTS:

• A source of energy provides energy in a convenient form over a long period of time.

• Sources of energy can be classified as renewable and non-renewable sources.

• Solar energy is the main source of energy on the earth.

• Solar cookers, solar water heaters and solar concentrators are some devices used for
harnessing solar energy.

• Solar cells are devices that convert solar energy directly into electricity.

• Solar energy also manifests itself in nature as the energy of winds, water flowing through
rivers, ocean waves, besides ocean thermal energy.

• Energy harnessed through wind energy devices is utilized either to do mechanical work,
or to produce electricity.

• Energy derived from the hot spots beneath the earth is called geothermal energy.

• Green plants convert solar energy into chemical energy through the process of
photosynthesis. This energy is known as bio-energy.

• Biomass is utilized to produce heat by burning it or to produce biogas through its


anaerobic decomposition in a biogas plant.

• Hydrogen and alcohol could be a source of energy in future.

• Fossil fuels like coal, petroleum and natural gas are a mixture of hydrocarbons. These are
fossil remains produced by the decay of plants and marine animals that were buried in the
earth millions of years ago.

• Fuels like coal, petroleum and natural gas are being utilized at very high rates, resulting
in fast depletion of their known reserves. Fossil fuels may not be available in future, as
these are not being formed now.

• Fuels are characterized by their calorific value and ignition temperature, besides the
nature of product produced by their combustion.

• The three conditions essential for combustion are attainment of ignition temperature,
presence of oxygen and a combustible material.

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• The factors that help to choose a good fuel for a given purpose are its availability, cost,
its characteristic and physical properties, besides considerations of the effects of its by-
products on environment.

TYPES OF ENERGY

1. Wind Energy: The energy possessed due to moving air is called wind energy.

Advantages:

(i) It does not cause any pollution.

(ii) The source of wind energy is air. (Renewable Energy)

(iii) It is available free of cost.

2. Water Energy: The energy possessed due to flowing of water is called the water energy.

Water Wheel: The device used for obtaining energy from flowing water is called
water wheel. The basic principle of water wheel is that the moving water rotates the water
wheel and this water wheel can be made to turn machines, which do work for us.

3. Electric Power Plants: The set-up, which can produce large quantity of electricity,
from a few kilowatts to a few hundred megawatts, are called power plants. There are
three types of power stations (plants). These are:

(a) Hydroelectric power stations;

(b) Thermal power stations;

(c) Nuclear (or atomic power stations)

Principle of hydroelectric power: The potential energy of the water stored at great
heights in the dams is converted into kinetic energy by flowing water to flow at high
speeds due to which electricity is generated. The electric power so generated is called
hydroelectric power.

4. Solar Energy: The energy obtained from the sun is called solar energy.

Advantages of Solar Energy

(i) It is inexhaustible source of energy.

(ii) It does not cause pollution.

(iii) It is available free of cost.


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Disadvantages of Solar Energy:

(i) It is not available all the time.

(ii) It is very much diffused and scattered.

5. Tidal Energy: The energy obtained from tides is called tidal Energy.

Merits of tidal energy

 It is an inexhaustible source of energy.

 It is independent of uncertainty of rainfall.

 It is a pollution free source of energy.

 It does not require large area of valuable land.

Demerits of tidal energy

 Power generation is intermittent due to variation in tidal range.

 The most difficult problem in the use of tidal power are the barrage construction in
areas of high tidal flow and corrosion of barrage.

6. Merits of wave energy

 It is a renewable and pollution free source of energy.

 It does not require large land areas.

Demerits of wave energy

 The power supply is variable in nature due to variability in wave formation.

 It is expensive.

 Marine life could be affected due to wave energy harnessing structures.

7. Merits of OTEC

 The electric power produced is continuous, renewable and pollution free.

 OTEC system enriches the fishing grounds by transferring nutrients from the
unproductive deep waters to the warmer surface.

 OTEC system does not have daily or seasonal variations in their output as in case
with the solar energy devices.
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Demerits of OTEC

 OTEC system requires a lot of capital investment.

 The conversion efficiency is low as there is small temperature difference between the
surface water and the deep water.

8. Merits of geothermal energy

 It is the most versatile and least polluting renewable source of energy.

 It is relatively inexpensive and power generation level is higher as compared to solar


energy and wind energy.

Demerits of geothermal energy

 Though geothermal energy is inexhaustible, a single bore has a limited life span of
about 10 years.

 Geothermal hot spots are scattered.

 Noise pollution is caused by drilling operations at geothermal sites.

9. Advantages of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission


Energy released in fusion reaction is much greater than energy released in fission
reaction. The products of fusion are not radioactive whereas it is radioactive in case of
nuclear fission and require careful disposal.

Hazards of nuclear power generation and safety measures


The major hazards of nuclear power generation are:

 Storage and disposal of spent or used nuclear fuels as they continue to decay into
harmful subatomic particles (radiations). This would lead to environmental
contamination.

 There is a risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation.

 It has high cost of installation of a nuclear power plant.

Types of Nuclear Reactions:


(i) Nuclear Fusion Reaction: The process in which two or more nuclei of lighter
atoms combine to form a heavy nucleus with the liberation of a large amount of energy is
called fusion reaction. For example:

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2
1H 1 H2  2 He 4  Tremendous Energy. (17.3 MeV)

(ii) Nuclear Fission Reactions: The process of splitting of a nucleus of a heavy atom
into a number of nuclei of smaller mass with the liberation of large amount of energy is
called nuclear fission. For example
235
92 U  0n1  56 Ba139  36 Kr 94  3 0n1  Energy (200 MeV)

Cause of tremendous Amount of Energy: The cause of tremendous amount of energy during
the nuclear fission is the loss of mass. The loss of mass is also called mass defect.

Einstein Equation: E  mc 2

Where m = The mass lost or mass defect. c = the velocity of light. E = amount of energy.

Chain Reaction: A reaction in which the number of neutrons goes on increasing during fission
till whole of the fissionable material is disintegrated.

Nuclear Reactor: It is a device, which is used for carrying out fission reaction at a controlled
rate. It is used to generate electricity.

Nuclear fuel: The fissionable material used in the nuclear reactor is called nuclear fuel.

For ex., U235, Pu239.

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MIND MAP

Conventional sources of energy Non-conventional sources of energy

(a) Fossil fuels : They meet maximum of our (a) Solar energy : The Earth receives only
energy demands.
0.1% of the enormous amount of energy
 Coal : It is the abundant fossil fuel on Earth and radiated by sun.
is the principle source of heat for electricity
generation.  Solar energy devices are used to harness
the heat of solar energy.
SOURCES OF ENERGY
 Petroleum : A number of useful components
like kerosene, diesel, petrol, petroleum gas are (i) Solar cookers work on the principle of
obtained from petroleum by fractional
green house effect and is used for
distillation.
cooking purposes.
(b) Thermal power plant : It generates electric
power from heat produced by burning fossil (ii) Solar cells and solar panels convert solar
fuels i.e. , coal and petroleum. energy directly into electricity.

(c) Hydro energy : The kinetic energy of flowing (b) Energy from oceans : The oceans are
water is used to generate hydroelectricity.
huge reservoirs of energy. Tidal energy
(d) Bioenergy : Biomass (plant and animal wave energy and ocean thermal energy
products) is the source of bioenergy.
are the various forms of energy
 Biogas is obtained by the anaerobic harnessed from oceans.
degradation of biomass.
(c) Geothermal energy : Thermal energy
 It is composed of me thane (serves as a fuel), within rock formations and fluids held
CO2, nitrogen and phosphorus (serves as
within those formations.
manures).
(d) Nuclear energy : The energy obtainable
(e) Wind energy : The kinetic energy possessed by
air due to its velocity is called wind energy. from the nucleus of an atom is called
nuclear energy or atomic energy.
 A wind mill converts the wind energy into
mechanical or electrical energy.

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 9 are of one mark each.


Q. 10 – 13 are of two or three marks each.
Q. 14 – 20 are of three marks each.
Q. 21 and 22 are of five marks each.

1. What is a wind energy farm?

2. Name some sources of energy?

3. What in our biggest source of energy?

4. Name two appliances that use solar energy directly.

5. Name two types of energy which do not relate to the sun.

6. Name one practical application of nuclear fission.

7. What is the source of energy in nuclear fission and fusion?

8. What is the drawback of energy obtained from fusion?

9. Write the advantages of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission.

10. What is the cause of ocean thermal energy?

11. What is a solar cell? Name two materials mostly used for making solar cells.

12. How were fossil fuels formed?

13 .What is nuclear fusion? Give an example for it.

14. The use of dry wood as domestic fuel is not considered as good. State two reasons for it.

15. Describe a concentrator type solar cooker.

16. What is tidal energy? How it is harnessed ?

17. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and sun as sources of energy.

18. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy?

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19. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker? Are there places
where solar cookers would have limited utility?

20. Write the merits and demerits of geo-thermal energy.

21. Give the principle, construction and operation of a box-type solar cooker.

22. What is OTEC? How does on OTEC power plant works? Write the merits and demerits
of OTEC.

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following does not relate to the solar energy?

(a) Wind energy (b) Tidal energy

(c) Nuclear energy (d) Wave energy.

2. The major cause of environmental pollution is the use of :

(a) Ocean energy (b) Hydrogen as a fuel

(c) Biomass energy (d) Fossil fuels.

3. The coal reservoirs in our country are expected to last for another :

(a) 400 years (b) 500 years

(c) 1000 years (d) 200 years.

4. A tree usually matures in more than :

(a) 50 years (b) 60 years

(c) 15 years (d) 100 years

5. The energy received by the Earth directly from the Sun is approximately which
percentage of the Sun’s total energy output?

(a) 1% (b) 0.001%

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(c) 0.00000006% (d) 0.00005%

6. The approximate value of solar constant is :

(a) 1.4 kJ/min (b) 1.4 kWh/min

(c) 1.4 kW/m2 (d) 1.4 kW/min.

7. The percentage of the solar energy reaching the Earth received by the plants is :

(a) 5% (b) 1%

(c) 10% (d) 0.1%

8. An example of renewable source of energy is :

(a) Coal (b) Petroleum

(c) Sun (d) Natural gas

9. What percentage of solar energy that strikes the periphery of the Earth is trapped by
Earth?

(a) 75% (b) 47%

(c) 15% (d) 100%

10. The fraction of sunlight which consists of infrared radiation is :

1 1
(a) (b)
2 3

1 2
(c) (d)
4 3

11. The heat in the sunlight is due to :

(a) ultra-violet radiation (b) infra-red radiation

(c) visible radiation (d) entire solar radiation

12. Efficiency of modern solar cells is :

(a) 100% (b) 90%

(c) 60% (d) 25%

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13. The production of solar cookers on a commercial scale in India began in :

(a) 1950 (b) 1970

(c) 1962 (d) 1980

14. A good fuel is one which possesses :

(a) high ignition temperature (b) high calorific value

(c) moderate ignition temperature (d) both (b) and (c)

15. Which of the following variety of coal contains the highest percentage of carbon?

(a) Lignite (b) Bituminous

(c) Anthracite (d) Peat

16. The main constituent of natural gas is :

(a) butane (b) methane

(c) hydrogen (d) oxygen

17. LPG consists mainly of :

(a) methane (b) ethane

(c) butane (d) liquid hydrogen

18. The fraction of the total solar energy received by the earth is :

(a) one hundred (b) one thousand

(c) one billionth (d) one millionth

19. The approximate temperature of the surface of the Sun is :

(a) 3000C (b) 30000C

(c) 6000C (d) 10000C

20. Which of the following is a primary fuel ?

(a) Kerosene (b) Wood

(c) Petrol (d) Diesel

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21. Which of the following is a secondary fuel?

(a) Wood (b) Coal

(c) Diesel (d) Natural gas

22. The device which harnesses solar energy directly is :

(a) Coal gas plant (b) Natural gas plant

(c) Solar cell (d) Biogas plant

23. U-235 content in natural uranium is :

(a) 0.006% (b) 0.714%

(c) 99.2% (d) 100%

24. Energy released in the fission of one nucleus of U-235 is about :

(a) 1 Me V (b) 20 Me V

(c) 200 Me V (d) 2000 Me V

25. Energy released in the fission of 1 kg of U-235 is equivalent to energy obtained from
burning of coal weighing :

(a) 25 ton (b) 250 ton

(c) 25000 ton (d) 25000 ton

26. One Me V of energy is equivalent to :

(a) 1.6  1013 J (b) 1.6  1019 J

(c) 1.6  1013 J (d) 1.6  1019 J

27. One unified atomic mass unit (u) is equivalent to :

(a) 1 eV (b) 1 Me V

(c) 931 Ne V (d) 931 eV

28. Common moderator used in nuclear reactor is :

(a) graphite (b) cadmium

(c) boron (d) uranium

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29. Disposal of nuclear waste is a challenge because

(a) too large (b) too heavy

(c) radioactive (d) foul smelling

30. Uncontrolled nuclear chain reaction is the basis of :

(a) nuclear reactor (b) atoms bomb

(c) hydrogen bomb (d) none of these

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)

6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)


11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)

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6. CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PHYSICAL CHANGE AND CHEMICAL CHANGE


Physical Change Chemical Change
(i) Those changes in which no new (i) Those changes in which the original
substances are formed are called substances lose their chemical nature and
physical changes identity and form new chemical substances
with different properties are called
chemical changes
(ii) It is a temporary change (ii) It is a permanent change
(iii) It is easily reversible (iii) It is usually irreversible
(iv) In a physical change the mass of (iv) In a chemical change the mass of the
substance does not alter substance does alter

CHEMICAL REACTION: The process by which two or more chemical substances


interact to form some new substances with different chemical properties. Chemical
reactions are represented by balanced chemical equations with the help of chemical
symbols of the substances involved.

Characteristics of chemical reactions: The easily observable changes that take place in
a chemical reaction are called characteristics of chemical reaction.

 Formation of Precipitate: Example

AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl(aq)  AgCl (ppt) + NaNO3 (aq)

 Evolution of gas : Example

Zn(s) + HCl  ZnCl2 + H 2 


dil

 Change in Colour: Example

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + KI(aq)  PbI 2 ppt   KNO 3 (aq)

Yellow

 Change in state: Example

Solid wax burns to form water vapour and carbon dioxide.

 Change in temperature: Example

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CaO + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + Heat (Exothermic)

BaOH2  NH Cl  Heat  BaCl  NH OH (Endothermic)


4 2 4

Types of Chemical Reactions

Combination Decomposition Displacement Double displacement Oxidation – Reduction


reactions reactions reactions reactions (Redox) Reactions

Types of Chemical Reactions:

(i) Addition or combination reaction: Two or more substances combine to form a


single substance.

CaO + CO2  CaCO3

(ii) Decomposition reaction: One chemical substance splits to give two or more
substances either by heat energy (Thermolysis) or light (Photolysis) or by electricity
(Electrolysis).

Thermolysis

Pb(NO3 )2  PbO  NO2  NO3

Electrolysis

electric
H2O   H  OH
current

Photolysis

2AgCl  2Ag + Cl2

(iii) Displacement Reaction: More reactive element displaces less reactive element
from its compound or salt.

Fe + CuSO4  FeSO4 + Cu

(iv) Double Displacement Reaction: Two elements interchange their respective salts or
ions to form new compounds.

FeCl3 + CuSO4  FeSO4 + CuCl2

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(v)

(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction

 addition of oxygen or  loss or removal of oxygen


 removal of hydrogen or  gain or addition of hydrogen
 loss of electrons  gain of electrons
Natural oxidation in everyday life: Natural reduction in everyday life:
 Corrosion & Rancidity  Hydrogenation

Redox Reactions : Both oxidation and reduction taking place simultaneously in the same
chemical reaction.

Oxidizing agent : A substance which brings about the oxidation of other substance but
itself gets reduced in a reaction.

Reducing agent : A substance which brings about reduction of the other substance but
itself gets oxidized in a reaction

Some examples of redox reactions :


(a) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
Loss of electrons : oxidation

Zn + Cu2+ Zn2+ + Cu
Reducing
agent
Oxiding Gain of electrons : Reduction
agent

(b) Cu + 2AgNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag


Gain of electrons : Reduction

Cu + 2Ag+ Cu2+ + 2Ag


oxidising
Reducing agent
agent Loss of electrons : Oxidation

(c) MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O


Loss of electrons : oxidation

Mn4+ + 2Cl– Mn2+ + Cl2


Reducing
agent
oxidising
agent
Gain of electrons : Reduction

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MIND MAP

The symbolic representation of a true  In a chemical equation reactants,


chemical change or reaction is called a products and their physical state are
chemical equation. represented symbolically
 Physical States of reactants and
products are represented by notations
s, l, g and aq.

 The chemical equations are balanced to Reactions are made more informative
satisfy the law of conservation of mass. by indicating the
 Law of conservation of mass : “Matter  Physical state of reactants and
can neither be created nor destroyed. products
 Heat changes
 Conditions under which the reaction
takes place.

CHEMICAL REACTION
AND EQUATION

Types of Chemical reaction Combination reaction


 Combination reaction Reaction in which two or more
 Decomposition reaction substances combine together to form a
 Displacement reaction single substance.
 Double displacement reaction
 Redox reaction.

Decomposition reaction Displacement reaction


In this reaction a single substance In this reaction a more reactive element
breaks into two or more simpler displaces a less reactive element from its
substances. It is of three types : compound.
 Thermal decomposition
 Electrolytic decomposition
 Photolytic decomposition
Redox reaction
In this reaction oxidation and reduction take
place simultaneously.
Corrosion of metals
Double displacement reaction The slow process of eating up of
In this reaction two different atoms or metals due to attack of atmospheric
group of atoms are exchanged. gases.
Rancidity
Oxidation of oils or fats in a food
resulting into a bad smell and bad
taste.

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EXERCISE – I

1. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved
displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.

2. Why are bags of fat and oil containing food items (like chips) flushed with nitrogen?

3. When is a substance said to be reduced?

4. What type of reactions are represented by the following equation?

(a) NH4Cl  NH3 + HCl

(b) 2H2 + O2  2H2O

(c) BaCl2 + Na2SO4  BaSO4 + 2NaCl

(d) Mg + CuSO4  MgSO4 + Cu

5. Can silver nitrate (AgNO3) solution be stored in an iron container? Explain your answer.

6. What is meant by a decomposition reaction? Explain with the help of an example.

7. What happens when silver chloride is exposed to sunlight? Write a chemical equation for
this reaction. Name the type of reaction which takes place. Also give one use of such a
reaction.

8. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the
form of (a) heat (b) light, and (c) electricity.

9. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution fade when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Explain with the help of an equation.

10. What happens when a strip of zinc is placed in copper sulphate solution? Write equation
of the reaction involved. Name the type of chemical reaction which takes place.

11. What is meant by a double displacement reaction? Explain with the help of an example.

12. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving example.

13. When a green iron salt is heated strongly, its colour finally changes to brown and odour
of burning sulphur is given out:

(a) Name the iron salt and write its formula.

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(b) Name the brown substance obtained and write its formula.

(c) Which product gives the odour of burning sulphur? Write its formula.

(d) Write the chemical equation of the reaction involved.

(e) Name the type of chemical reaction which takes place during the heating of iron salt.

14. Explain the term ‘rancidity’ with an example. How can rancidity be prevented of
retarded?

15. (a) What are redox reactions? Explain giving two examples.

(b) Can oxidation or reduction take place alone? Justify your answer.

EXERCISE – II

1. Balance the following chemical equations:


(i) Fe + H2O  Fe3O4 + H2 (ii) Na + H2O  NaOH + H2
2. Give two examples of reduction reaction?
3. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
4. What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Give its example.
5. Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions:
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble
barium sulphate.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in
water) to produce sodium chloride solution and water.

6. What are redox reaction? Give its two examples:

7. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:
(i) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen gas to form ammonia.
(ii) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(iii) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
(iv) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and
precipitate of barium sulphate.
8. Balance the following chemical equations:
(i) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2  Ca(NO3)2 + H2O (ii) NaOH + H2SO4  Na2SO4 + H2O
(iii) BaCl2 + H2SO4  BaSO4 + HCl

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9. Write the balanced chemical equation of the following and identify the type of reaction in
each case:
(i) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide aq)  Potassium iodide(aq) + Barium
bromide(s)
(ii) Zinc carbonate (s)  Zinc oxide (s) + Carbond dioxide (g)
(iii) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq)  Magnesium chloride (aq) +
Hydrogen(g)

10. What do you mean by exothermic and endothermic reaction? Give examples:

11. Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction? Explain.

12. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write
equations for these reactions.
13. Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions:
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine  Hydrogen Chlorine
(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate  Barium sulphate + Aluminium
chloride
(iii) Sodium + Water  Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen

14. A solution of a substance X is used for white-washing:


(i) Name the substance X and write its formula
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i) above with water.

15. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?

EXERCISE – III
1. Write an activity to show the change in the state of matter and change in temperature
during a chemical reaction

2. Write one activity to show the decomposition of a chemical compound with the evolution
of a gas.

3. Write an activity to show the electrolysis of water, as an example of decomposition


reaction.

4. Name different types of chemical reactions. Define them and give their examples.

5. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?

6. To balance a chemical equation, can we change the formulae of either reactants of


products?

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7. Write an equation for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of
heat, light or electricity.

8. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reaction? Write
equations for these reactions.

9. How do we come to know, that a chemical reaction has taken place?

10. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each:
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction

11. A shiny brown coloured element X on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the
element X and the black coloured compound formed.

12. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?

13. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why

14. Explain the following terms with one example each:


(a) Corrosion (b) Rancidity

15. Identify the substance that the oxidized and the substances that are reduced in the
following reactions:
(i) 4Na(s) + O2(g)  2Na2O (s)
(ii) CuO(s) + H2(g)  Cu(s) + H2O (l)

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7. ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Indicators

Natural Synthetic

Dyes (Indicators Olfactory Methyl orange Phenolphthalein


of colour) Indicators of
smell

Onion extract Vanilla essence Clove oil

Red litmus Blue litmus

Indicator Colour in acidic solution Colour in basic solution


Blue litmus solution Red No colour change
Red litmus solution No colour change Blue
Phenolphthalein Colourless Pink
Methyl orange Pink Yellow

Physical properties of Acids and Bases:

Acids Bases
 Sour taste  Bitter taste
 Turns blue litmus to red  Turns red litmus to blue
+
 Provides H ions  Provides OH– ions
when dissociated when dissociated
 pH less than 7  Bases dissolve in
 strong acids water to give alkalies
HCl, HNO3,  pH more than 7 upto 14
H2SO4  strong base
 weak acids NaOH, KOH
H2CO3  weak base
CH3COOH NH4OH
H3PO4

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Chemical properties of Acids and Bases:

Type of Reaction Acid Base

1. Neutralization Acid + Base  Salt + H2O Acid + Base  Salt + water


reaction
Example: Example:
HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O CaO + HCl(aq)  CaCl2(aq) + H2O (l)

2. Reaction with Acid + Metal  Metallic salt + H2(g) Base + Metals  Salt + H2(g)
metals
Example: Example:
Zn(s) + dil H2SO4 (aq)  ZnSO4 (aq) + H2(g) NaOH + Zn  Na2ZnO2 + H2
Only active metals like Zn and Al reacts
with bases.

3. Reaction with Acid + Carbonates  Metallic salt + CO2(g) Base + carbonate  No reaction
carbonates + H2O
Example:
Na2CO3+ H2SO4  Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2

4. Reaction with Acid + Bicarbonates  Metallic salt + Base + bicarbonate  No reaction


bicarbonates CO2(g) + H2O
Example:
NaHCO3+ HCl  NaCl + H2O + CO2

5. Reaction with Acid + Metal Oxide  Salt + H2O Base + Non-metallic oxide  Salt + water
oxide
Example: Example:
CaO + HCl (aq)  CaCl2 (aq) + H2O Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O

6. Dissolution in Acid gives H+ ions in water. Bases gives OH– ions in water.
water
Examples: HCl (aq)  H+ + Cl– Examples: NaOH (aq)  Na+ + OH–

H2SO4 (aq)  2H+ + SO 24  Ca(OH)2 (aq)  Ca2+ + 2(OH)–

Strength of acids & bases


 Strong Acids and strong bases when dissolved in water dissociate completely into
(H+) and (OH–) ions respectively.
 Weak acids and weak bases when dissolved in water dissociate partially into (H+)
and (OH–) ions respectively. Rather then remain in molecular form.

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pH SCALE

pH scale: A scale of numbers from 0 to 14 on which 0 7 14


the strength of an acid or base is measured is known as pH
scale. Neutral
Acidic Basic
 
pH is defined as negative logarithm of [H ] or [H3 O ] H2O
Increasing Decreasing
CO
i.e. pH   log [H ] or pH   log[H3 O  ] H+ ions H+ ions
N2O

Importance of pH in everyday life:

(i) In digestive system  (i) acidic in stomach (ii) basic (alkaline) in duodenum

(ii) Tooth decay

(iii) Nature of soil

(iv) Plants and Animals are pH sensitive

(v) Self defense by animals and plants through chemical warfare

SALTS : They are the neutralization products of acids and bases.


Classification of Salts : Salts can be classified after ‘salt hydrolysis’.

Type of salts Hydrolysis of salts


1. pH = 7 Salts of strong acid and strong bases
Example: NaCl, KCl, Na 2 SO 4 , K 2 SO 4
NaCl(s)  H2O  NaCl(aq)  Na (aq)  Cl (aq)
2. pH < 7 Salts of strong acids and weak bases
Example: NH 4 Cl, CuSO 4

NH 4 Cl(s )  H 2 O  NH 4 Cl(aq)  NH 4 (aq)  Cl  (aq)

NH 4  H 2 O NH 4 OH  H 

The solution is acidic due to the H  ion produced by the hydrolysis of



NH 4

3. pH > 7 Salt of weak acid and strong base


Example: Na 2 CO 3 , CH 3 COONa
CH3COONa(s)  H2O  CH3COONa(aq)  CH3COO (aq)  Na (aq)
CH 3 COO   H 2 O CH3 COOH  OH 

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The solution is basic due to hydrolysis of CH3 COO (aq)


4. pH  7 Salt of weak acid & weak base
Example: CH3 COONH 4

CH 3 COONH 4  H 2 O  CH 3 COONH 4 (aq)  CH 3 COO   NH 4

CH 3 COO   H 2 O CH 3 COOH  OH 

NH 4  H 2 O NH 4 OH  H 

Common Salt  NaCl  Chemicals obtained from NaCl

(i) NaOH (by chlor-alkali process)

Electric
NaCl  H2O   NaOH  Cl2  H2
Current

(ii) Bleaching power (CaOCl2)

Ca(OH)2  Cl2  CaOCl2  H2

(iii) Baking soda (NaHCO3)

NaCl  H2O  NH3  CO 2  NaHCO 3



  
Brine

(iv) Washing soda (Na2CO3 · 10H2O)


NaHCO3  Na2CO3  H2O

Other Important Salts:

1
Plaster of Paris (POP)  CaSO4 · H2O
2

Heat 1
CaSO 4 · 2H2O   CaSO4 · H2O
Gypsum
273 k 2
POP

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MIND MAP

Indicator: Substance which shows one  Strength of an acid or base  Degree of ionization
characteristic property in one medium 1
and different property in another  Strength of an acid or base 
dilution of an acid or base
medium are called indicators.
 Natural indicator: Litmus solution,  The properties of an acid or base is due to [H+] ion, [OH–]
turmeric ion, respectively which they give in aqueous solution.
 Synthetic indicator:  Dilution of an acid or base is an exothermic reaction.
Phenolphthalein, methyl orange
 Olfactory indicator: Onion, clove
oil, vanilla extract.

pH scale: A scale of numbers from 0 to


14 on which the strength of an acid or
Acid: Substances which give H+ ion in base is measured
solution. pH = –log[H+] or pH = –log[H3O+]
 Strong acid: dissociate completely,  For a neutral solution
e.g. HNO3, HCl, H2SO4. ACIDS, BASES AND [H+]= [OH–] = 10–7 mol/L; pH = 7
 Weak acid: do not dissociate  For an acidic solution
completely, e.g. CH3COOH, H2CO3. [H+] > [OH–]; pH < 7
 Concentrated acid: gives more H+  For a basic solution
ion. [H+] < [OH–]; pH > 7
SALTS

 Dilute acid: gives less H+ ion.


 Acid
Metal
Salt: The ionic compound consisting of
Salt + H2 two parts, one containing a positive
Metal carbonate
Salt +CO2 + H2O charge (cation) and the other carrying a
Base negative charge (anion)
Salt + H2O
Metal oxide  Salt of strong acid and strong base:
Salt + H2O NaCl, KCl
 The properties of an acid is due to  Salt of strong acid and weak base:
[H+] ion, which it gives in aqueous NH4Cl.
solution.  Salt of weak acid and strong base:
CH3COONa.
 Salt of weak acid and weak base:
CH3COONH4.

Base: Substances which give OH– ion in


solution.
 Strong base: dissociate completely,
e.g. NaOH, KOH. Some chemical compounds
 Weak base: do not dissociate
 Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
completely, e.g. NH4OH.
 Base  Bleaching powder or Calcium
Oxychloride(CaOCl2)
Metal
Salt + H2  Washing Soda or Sodium Carbonate
Acid
Salt + H2O (Na2CO3)
Non-metal  Baking Soda or Sodium bicarbonate
oxide Salt + H2O
(NaHCO3)
 The properties of a base are due to
[OH–] ion, which it gives in aqueous  Plaster of Paris (CaSO4½H2O)
solution.  Gypsum (CaSO42H2O)

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EXERCISE – I
1. What are acids?

2. What are bases?

3. How do we identify acids?

4. How do we identify bases?

5. What is a neutrilisation reaction?

6. Which gas is evolved, when metals reacts with dilute acids?

7. What happens when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute HCl acid?

8. What happens when sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with dilute HCl acid?

9. Write the reaction between dilute NaOH solution and dilute HCl acid.

10. What is the colour of phenolphthalein indicator in an acidic solution say in dilute HCl or
dilute H2SO4 acid?

11. What is the colour of phenolphthalein indictor in a basic solution say in NaOH (aq) or
Ca(OH)2 (aq)?

12. Write the reaction between a metal oxide and dilute HCl acid.

13. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?

14. What are alkalies? Give their examples.

15. What happens when an acid or a base is dissolved in water?

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EXERCISE – II
1. What is the importance of pH in everyday life?
2. How are sodium hydroxide and other products produced from common salt?
3. How is bleaching powder prepared? Write the chemical equation for the reaction
involved.
4. Write some important uses of bleaching powder.
5. How is washing soda produced?
6. Write some important uses of washing soda.
7. What is water of crystallization? Give some examples of salts having water of
crystallization?
8. How is Plaster of Paris prepared? Write some of its important uses.
9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indictor showed pH as 4, 1,
11,7, and 9 respectively. Which solution is
(i) neutral (ii) strongly alkaline (iii) strongly acidic
(iv) weakly acidic (v) weakly alkaline
10. Fresh milk has a pH value of 6. How do you think that pH will change as it turns into
curd? Explain your answer.
11. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?

12. What is neutralization reaction? Give two examples.


13. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.

14. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening and water.

15. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of
the reaction involved.

EXERCISE – III
1. With the help of a chemical reaction explain how a soda-acid fire extinguisher helps in
putting out a fire.

2. Compounds like alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorized as
acids. Describe an activity to prove it.

3. Write an activity to show the reaction of acids with metal carbonates and metal hydrogen
carbonate salts.
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4. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and
the other two contain an acidic and a basic solution respectively. If you are given only red
litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
5. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass vessels?

6. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an
example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?

7. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc. show acidic character in aqueous solutions while solutions of
compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?

8. While diluting an acid, why it is recommended that the acid should be added to water and
not water to the acid?

9. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain-water does?
10. Write balanced equations for the following reactions:
(i) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(ii) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(iii) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(iv) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
11. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(i) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline.
(ii) What do you expect to observe when this milk comes to a boil?
(iii) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
12. Collect the following samples from the science laboratory: HCl, H2SO4, CH3COOH,
NaOH, KOH and NH4OH. Write the colour changes, which you observe with red litmus,
blue litmus, phenolphthalein and methyl orange solutions for each of the solutions taken?
Tabulate your observation in the table
13. Write some important chemical properties of acids.
14. Write some important chemical properties of bases.
15. How is baking soda produced? Write some uses of this compound?

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8. METALS AND NON-METALS

Metals: The elements, which have the properties of luster, malleability and ductility,
high thermal and electrical conductivities. The metals have a good tendency to loose electrons.

Non-metals: The elements, which do not have the above, mentioned properties. These
have a good tendency to gain electrons.

Metalloids: The elements having the properties of metals as well as non-metals.

Difference between metals and non-metals

Properties Metals Non-metals

Physical Properties

1. State Metals are solids at ordinary Non-metals exist in all the three states,
temperature. (except mercury, that is, solid, liquid and gas.
which is a liquid.)

2. Lustre They possess lustre or shine. They possess no lustre.


(except Iodine and graphite.)

3. Malleability and Metals are generally malleable Non-metals are neither malleable nor
Ductility and ductile. ductile.

4. Hardness Metals are generally hard. Non-metals possess varying hardness.


Alkali metals are exception. Diamond is an exception. It is the
hardest substance known to occur in
nature.

5. Density They have high densities. They generally possess low densities.

6. Conductivity Metals are good conductors of Non-metals are poor conductors of


(Heat & Electricity) heat and electricity. heat and electricity. The only exception
is graphite which is a good conductor
of electricity.

7. Melting and boiling They usually have high Their melting and boiling point are
point melting and boiling point. usually low. The exceptions are boron,
carbon and silicon.

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Chemical Properties of Metals and Non-Metals


Properties Metals Non-Metals

Metal + oxygen Metal oxide Non-metal + oxygen  non-metallic


oxide
Example:
1. Reaction with Example: S+O2  SO2
4Na + O22Na2O
oxygen
Non-metallic oxides are acidic (SO2,
Metal oxides are basic (Na2O, CaO, CO2, etc) or neutral (H2O, CO, N2O).
K2O, etc.) or Amphoteric (Zno and
Al2O3)

Metal + oxygen Metal oxide (Al, Zn, Non-metals do not react with water.
Fe) or Metal hydroxide (K, Na, Ca, Non-metals are electronegative
Mg) hence do not lose electrons

Example : (i) 2K +2H2O2KOH+H2 Non–metal + H2O  No reaction


2. Reaction with
water (ii) 2Al +2H2OAl2O3+3H2

Active metals (K, Na, Ca) react with


coldwater, moderate metals (Mg react
with warm water and reactive metals
(Al, Zn, Fe) react with steam.

Metal + Dilute acid  Salt +


Hydrogen

Example :

(i) Mg+ HCl (dil)  2NaCl + H2 Non-metal + Acid  No reaction

3. Reaction with (ii) Mg+ H2SO4  MgSO4+ H2 Non-metals do not displace


acids hydrogen from acids.
Nitric acid (oxidizing agent) oxidizes
H2 to H2O and it self gets reduced to
NO, N2O, or NO2

Except for Mg and Mn where nitric


acid forms metal nitrate and liberates
H2

More active Metal A + Salt solution of More reactive non metal A + Salt
4. Reaction with salt less active metal of B Salt solution solution of less reactive non-metal
solutions of metal A + metal B. BSalt solution of non-metal A +
Example : non-metal B

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(i) Zn (s) + CuSO4(aq)  ZnSO4 (aq) Example :I) 2 NaBr + Cl2 2NaCl +
+ Cu(s) Br2

Non-metal+ Chlorine  Non-


Metal + chlorine  Metal Chloride metallic chloride
5. Reaction with
Example : i) Mg + Cl2  MgCl2 Example: i) H2+Cl2 diffused
  2HCl
chlorine
sunlight
ii) 2Fe+ 3Cl2  2FeCl3
ii) P4+6Cl2 
4PCl
3

Metal + Hydrogen metal Hydride Non-metal+ Hydrogen Non-


metallic hydride
6. Reaction with Example : i) 2Na + H2  2NaH
Hydrogen Example: i) 2H2+O2  2H2O
Only active metals like Na, K and Ca
reacts with hydrogen ii) N2+3H2  2NH3

Oxides of metals are either basic or Oxides of non-metals are either


amphoteric. acidic or neutral.
i) Acidic oxides turn blue litmus red
i) Basic oxides turn red litmus blue and and show neutralization reaction
show neutralization reaction with acids with base or basic oxides.
or acidic oxides.
Example:
Example :
i) SO2+2NaOH  Na2SO3+H2O
i) Na 2 O 2HCl  2 NaCl H2 O
7. Oxides Basic Acid salt water ii) Neutral oxides do not show
neutralization reaction with either
ii) Amphoteric oxide show acids or bases
neutralization reaction with acids as
well as base Example: N2O, CO, H2O

Al 2 O 3  2NaOH  2NaAlO 2  H 2 O
Al 2 O 3  6HCl  2AlCl 3  H 2 O

8. Electrochemical Metals are electropositive in character. Non-metals are electronegative in


behaviour They form cations in solution and are character. They form anions in
deposited on the cathode when solution and are liberated at the
electricity is passed through their anode when their salt solutions are
solution. subjected to electrolysis. Hydrogen
in an exception. It usually forms
positive ions and is liberated at
cathode.

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9. Oxidising or Metals behave as reducing agents. This Non-metals generally behave as


reducing is because of their tendency to lose oxidising agents since they have the
behaviour electrons. tendency to gain electrons.

Na  Na+ + e– 1
Cl 2  e   Cl –
2

• Metal + Metal  No reaction

• Metal + Non-metal  Electrovalent or lonic compound by complete transfer of


electrons from metallic atom to non-metallic and forming
corresponding positive and negative ions.

• Nonmetal + Non-metal  Covalent compound by sharing of electrons

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN IONIC AND COVALENT COMPOUNDS

Ionic compounds Covalent compounds

1. Ionic compounds are usually crystalline 1. Covalent compounds are usually liquids or
solids. gases. Only some of them are solids.

2. Ionic compounds have high melting points 2. Covalent compounds have usually low
and boiling points. That is, ionic melting points and boiling points. That is,
compounds are non-volatile. covalent compounds are usually volatile.

3. Ionic compounds conduct electricity when 3. Covalent compounds do not conduct


dissolved in water or melted. electricity.

4. Ionic compounds are usually soluble in 4. Covalent compounds are usually insoluble
water. in water (except, glucose, sugar, urea,
etc.).

5. Ionic compounds are insoluble in organic 5. Covalent compounds are soluble in


solvents (like alcohol, ether, acetone, etc.). organic solvents.

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Relative activities or reactivities of metals


Metals have been arranged in decreasing order of their activities (or reactivities) in the
activity series. After performing displacement experiments, the following series known as
the reactivity or activity series has been developed as follows:

Reactivity series of metals :


Element Symbol
Metals More Reactive than Hydrogen

Potassium K Most Reactive


Sodium Na
Barium Ba
Calcium Ca

Reactivity decreases downward


Magnesium Mg
Aluminium Al
Zinc Zn
Iron Fe
Nickel Ni
Tin Sn
Lead Pb
Hydrogen H

Copper Cu
Metals less Reactive

Mercury Hg
than Hydrogen

Silver Ag
Gold Au
Platinum Pt Least Reactive

Activity series of non-metals (Halogens)

F > Cl > Br > I

Occurrence of metals

Free state Combined or compound state

Least reactive metals Reactive metals

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Mineral : Metals occurring naturally in the earth’s crust in their inorganic elemental or
compound form are called Minerals.
Gangue: The earthy, sandy and rock impurities associated with minerals are called gangue or
matrix.
Ores: The minerals from which the metals can be extracted conveniently and profitably are
called an ore:

Minerals

ores

concentration of ore

Highly reactive metals Moderately reactive metals Less reactive metals

Electrolysis of Sulphide ore


Carbonate ore Sulphide ore
molten ore
Roasting
Calcination Roasting
Pure metal
Reduction to metal
Oxide of metal

Reduction to metal Refining

Refining

Corrosion: The slow eating up (natural reaction of oxidation) of metals or metallic


objects by the action of air, moisture etc. is called corrosion.

 Corrosion of iron is called rusting.

 Corrosion is mostly harmful but sometimes it is beneficial too

 Necessary conditions for corrosion:

(i) Presence of air (or oxygen) and


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(ii) Presence of moisture (or water)

Prevention of rusting:
(i) by painting

(ii) by applying grease or oil

(iii) by galvanization

(iv) by electroplating or chromoplating

(v) by alloying

Alloys: Homogenous mixture of two or more metals or metal and a non-metal

Amalgam: An alloy in which one of the constituent (metal) is mercury.

Objectives of alloy preparation:

(i) To increase the hardness: example- Gold alloyed with copper or silver.

(ii) To increase the tensile strength : example –Magnalium

(iii) To increase resistance to corrosion: example–stainless steel

(iv) To modify chemical reactivity : example- Sodium amalgam.

(v) To lower the melting point example: solden.

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MIND MAP

METALS NON-METALS
Physical Properties Physical Properties
 Solid.  Solids, liquids and gases.
 Lustrous.  Non-lustrous.

METALS AND NON-METALS


 Malleable and ductile.  Non-malleable and non-ductile.
 Hard and have high density.  Varying hardness and have low density.
 Poor conductors of heat and electricity.
 Good conductors of heat and electricity.
 Low melting and boiling points.
 High melting and boiling points.
Chemical Properties
Chemical Properties
 Do not displace hydrogen on reaction with dilute acids.
 React with dilute acids to liberate hydrogen gas
 React with oxygen to form acidic or neutral oxides
 React with oxygen to form basic oxides.
 Combine with hydrogen to form stable hydrides.
 Do not combine with hydrogen.
 Do not react with water.
 React with water to form metal oxides or metal
hydroxides.  Electronegative i.e. form negative ions by gaining electrons.
 Electropositive i.e. form positive ions by losing electrons.  Oxidising agents.
 Reducing agents.

Corrosion Rusting
The eating up of metals by the action of air and moisture or a
The corrosion of iron is known as rusting. Rust is hydrated iron
chemical on their surface.
(III) oxide,Fe2O3 . xH2O.
Alloys It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals (or a
Presence of air and water are the two conditions necessary for
metal and a non-metal). For e.g. Brass is an alloy of 2 metals-
rust. It can be prevented by painting, applying grease, by
copper and zinc.
galvanization and by alloying.

Ionic Compounds
1. Usually crystalline solids.
Covalent Compounds
1. Usually liquids / gases, few are solids.
2. Have high melting point and boiling point.
2. Have low melting and boiling point.
3. Conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted.
4. Usually soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvent. 3. Do not conduct electricity.
4. Usually insoluble in water and soluble in organic solvents.

Ore

Concentration of ore

Metals of medium reactivity


Metals of high reactivity Metals of low reactivity

Carbonate ore Sulphide ore Sulphide ore


Electrolysis of molten ore
Calcination Roasting
Pure metal Roasting

Oxide of metal Metal

Reduction to metal Refining

Purification of metal

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 16 are of one mark each.

Q. 17 – 24 are of two marks each.

Q. 25 – 32 are of three marks each.

Q. 33 – 38 are of five marks each.

1. Name any one metal which reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water but reacts
with heated steam to produce hydrogen gas.

2. Which one of the following metals does not react with oxygen even at high temperatures
? (i) Calcium (ii) Gold (iii) Sodium

3. Name two metals which are both ductile as well as malleable.

4. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of hot aluminium with steam.

5. What is seen to happen when a piece of sodium metal is dropped into water ?

6. Name any two neutral oxides.

7. Name an ore of zinc other than zinc oxide. By what process can this ore be converted to
zinc oxide.

19 24
8. Which one of the following elements symbolized as A and B is a metal : 9 A, 12 B ?

9. An iron knife kept dipped in a blue copper sulphate solution changes to light green.

Why ?

10. Define the term metallurgy.

11. Name the iron compound in haematite. Write its chemical formula.

12. Name a non-metallic element which conducts electricity.

13. Name one non-metal which is liquid at room temperature.

14. What is flux ? Give one example.

15. What is mineral ?

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16. What is an ore ?

17. What is the activity series of metals ? Rearrange the following metals in an increasing
order of reactivity : Aluminium, Zinc, Mercury.

18. Write chemical equations for the reactions taking place when :

(i) Zinc sulphide is heated in air.

(ii) Carbon dioxide gas is passed into lime water.

19. Define the term ‘alloy’. Write two advantages of making alloys.

20. Why do we make alloys ? State any two reasons.

21. Write chemical equations to show what happens when :

(i) Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium.

(ii) Cinnabar is roasted in a furnace.

22. Write chemical equations for reactions taking place when

(i) Cinnabar is heated in air.

(ii) Calcium metal reacts with water.

23. The oxide X2O3 is unaffected by water. Outline a method by which a sample of metal X
can be obtained from its ore. Give one reason as to why have you chosen this method.

24. Name the alloys which are used for the following purposes :

(i) for soldering joints

(ii) for making windows and door fittings

(iii) for making aircrafts and kitchen wares

(iv) for making equipment for feed and diary industry

25. Give reasons for the following :

(i) Metals are regarded as electropositive elements.

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(ii) When a piece of Copper metal is added to a solution of zinc sulphate, no change takes
place, but the blue colour of copper sulphate fades away when a piece of zinc is placed
in its solution.

(iii) Articles made of aluminium do not corrode even though aluminium is an active
metal.

26. State reasons for the following :

(i) Metals are good conductors of heat.

(ii) Addition of some silver to pure gold for making ornaments.

(iii) Inability of non-metals for displacing hydrogen from dilute sulphuric acid.

27. What is an alloy ? Name the constituents of 22-carat gold. Why is 24-carat gold
converted to 22-carat gold ?

28. Give reasons for each of the following :

(i) Germanium is called a metalloid.

(ii) Zirconium is known as a strategic metal.

(iii) Nitrogen is used to preserve food.

29. Write chemical equations for the reactions taking place when :

(i) A piece of calcium metal is placed in water.

(ii) Ammonia gas comes in contact with hydrogen chloride gas.

(iii) Sulphur is heated with concentrated H2SO4.

30. Write chemical equations to show the reactions taking place when :

(i) Zinc carbonate is calcined.

(ii) Carbon dioxide gas is bubbled into lime water for a long time.

31. State reasons for the following :

(i) Titanium is known as a strategic metal.

(ii) Carbon is not used to reduce the oxide of aluminium to get the metal.

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(iii) Non-metals in general do not form positively charged ions.

32. Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by the reduction
process :

(i) Metal ‘X’, which is low in reactivity series

(ii) Metal ‘Y’, which is middle of the series

(iii) Metal ‘Z’, which is high up in the reactivity series.

33. (i) Define the terms, mineral, ore and gangue as used in metallurgical operations.

(ii) Describe with a labeled diagram, the method of concentration of a sulphide ore.

34. (i) What is corrosion of metals ? Name one metal which does not corrode and one which
corrodes on being kept in atmosphere.
(ii) How will you show that the rusting of iron needs oxygen and moisture at the same
time ?

35. (i) What is an ‘activity’ series’ of metals ? Arrange the metals Zn, Mg, Al, Cu and Fe in a
decreasing order of reactivity.
(ii) What would you observe when you put

(a) some zinc pieces into blue copper sulphate solution ?


(b) some copper pieces into green ferrous sulphate solution ?

(iii) Name a metal which combines with hydrogen gas. Name the compound formed.
36. (i) What method for concentration of ore is preferred in each of the following cases and
why ?

(a) The ore has higher density particles interspersed with a large bulk of low density
impurities.

(b) The ore consists of copper sulphide intermixed with clay particles.

(ii) Give an example of amalgams.

37. (i) Define the terms ‘alloy’ and ‘amalgam’. Name the alloy used for welding electric
wires together. What are its constituents ?

(ii) Name the constituents of the following alloys :

(a) Brass (b) Stainless steel (c) Bronze


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State one property in each of these alloys, which is different from its main constituent.

38. Differentiate between an ‘alloy’ and an ‘amalgam’. How are alloys made ? State with
examples any two properties in which an alloy may be different from those of its
constituents. Write the constituents and special advantages of :
(i) Stainless steel

(ii) Magnalium

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Because the high electropositivity, the atoms of metals can easily form
(a) positive ions (b) negative ions
(c) neutral ions (d) covalent bonds

2. Metals below hydrogen in the electrochemical series can


(a) react with acids to liberate hydrogen ions
(b) react with acids to liberate hydrogen gas
(c) react with water at ordinary temperature
(d) none of these

3. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by


(a) levigation (b) leaching
(c) froth floatation (d) calcination

4. Oxides of metals are generally


(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) amphoteric (d) neutral
5. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of a non-metal can be
(a) 1, 2, 3 or 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 or 5
(c) 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 (d) 4, 5, 0 or 2

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6. The ordinary sulphur exists as


(a) S (b) S2
(c) S4 (d) S8
7. The lightest element known is
(a) helium (b) agron
(c) hydrogen (d) lithium
8. Which of the following metal forms amphoteric oxide ?
(a) Copper (b) Silver
(c) Aluminium (d) Iron
9. A pinch of sugar is charred when treated with concentrated H2SO4. This shows that
sulphuric acid is a
(a) reducing agent (b) dehydrating agent
(c) dibasic acid (d) fire producer
10. The most abundant non-metal in the earth’s crust is
(a) chlorine (b) hydrogen
(c) silicon (d) oxygen
11. The best conductor of electricity is
(a) silver (b) palladium
(c) silicon (d) carbon
12. Which of the following oxides is neutral?
(a) P2O5 (b) CO2
(c) CO (d) SO2.
13. Which of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Sodium (d) Fluorine
14. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?
(a) Arsenic (b) Phosphorus
(c) Hydrogen (d) Boron
15. The most stable form of sulphur is
(a) monoclinic sulphur (b) plastic sulphur
(c) rhombic sulphur (d) colloidal sulphur
16. Which of the following elements is known as strategic element?
(a) Iron (b) Gold
(c) Uranium (d) Titanium
17. Which of the following non-metals is liquid at room temperature?
(a) Iodine (b) Bromine
(c) Carbon (d) Hydrogen
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18. Which of the following alloys is a ferrous alloy?


(a) Bronze (b) Brass
(c) Invar (d) Duralmin
19. During galvanization, the iron is coated with
(a) nickel (b) zinc
(c) aluminium (d) chromium
20. The most abundant element in the universe is
(a) iron (b) silicon
(c) hydrogen (d) nitrogen
21. Which of the following non-metals is a good reducing agent?
(a) Chlorine (b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Fluorine
22. Which of the following metals is protected from oxygen and moisture by immersing in
kerosene oil ?
(a) Potassium (b) Magnesium
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver
23. Aqua regia is a mixture of
(a) HNO3 and HCl in the ratio 1 : 3 by volume
(b) HNO3 and HCl in the ratio 3 : 1 by volume
(c) HNO3 and H2SO4 in the ratio 1 : 1 by volume
(d) H2SO4 and HCl in the ratio 1 : 3 by volume
24. Pure gold is
(a) 14 carat (b) 24 carat
(c) 18 carat (d) 22 carat
25. For making jewellery, gold is mixed with
(a) Fe (b) Cu
(c) Ag (d) (b) or (c)
26. Rust is hydrated
(a) aluminium oxide (b) copper oxide
(c) iron oxide (d) silica
27. The process of calcination is used for
(a) carbonate ores (b) sulphide ores
(c) nitrate ores (d) sulphate ores

28. The process of electrolysis is used for obtaining such metals which are
(a) highly reactive (b) moderately reactive
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(c) highly unreactive (d) all types of metals


29. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
(a) Fused NaCl (b) Solid NaCl
(c) Brine Solution (d) Copper
30. Stainless steel in addition to iron contains
(a) nickel and chromium (b) copper and tin
(c) aluminium and magnesium (d) carbon and manganese

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)

6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c)

16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d)

26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)

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9. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

CARBON

Free state Combined state

Crystalline Amorphous In living organisms In non-living system


Diamond Coke Carbohydrates

Graphite Fats

Buckminster Charcoal Proteins


fullerenes

Carbonates CO2 Coal Petroleum Natural gas

Difference between Diamond and Graphite

1. Diamond has a three-dimensional network 1. Graphite has a two-dimensional sheet like structure
structure. consisting of a number of benzene rings fused
together.

2. It is the hardest natural substance known. 2. Graphite is soft and greasy and is used as solid
lubricant for heavy machinery operating at high
temperatures.
3. It is a bad conductor of electricity but is a very 3. It is a good conductor of both heat and electricity.
good conductor of heat. Because of hardness and Because of high electrical conductivity, graphite is
high thermal conductivity, diamond tipped tools do used for making electrodes of battery and arcs.
not overheat and hence are extensively used for
cutting and drilling purposes.
4. It is a transparent substance with high refractive 4. It is an opaque grayish black substance.
index. Therefore, it is used for making gemstones
and jewellery.

Simplest compounds of carbon are HYDROCARBONS (compounds having atoms of


carbon and hydrogen only).

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HYDROCARBONS

Saturated Unsaturated

ALKANE ALKENE ALKYNE


(Suffix  ANE) (Suffix  ENE) (Suffix  YNE)
General formula General formula General formula
CnH2n + 2 CnH2n CnH2n – 2

Single bond between Double bond Triple bond


carbon atoms between C-atoms between C-atoms

Organic compounds: Hydrocarbons and their derivatives are organic compounds.


(Organic chemical substances of animal or plant origin).

Hydrocarbons: Compounds made of carbon and hydrogen are known as hydrocarbons.

Formula of Name of Formula of compound Name of


functional group functional group containing group compound
– OH Alcohol C2H5OH Ethanol
– CHO Aldehyde HCHO Methanal
– COOH Carboxylic acid CH3COOH Ethanoic acid
>C=0 Ketone H3C CO CH3 Propanone
– X (a halogen) Halogen CH3 – Cl Chloromethane
– NH2 Amino CH3 NH2 Methanamine
– NH2 Nitro CH3 NO2 Nitromethane

Catenation: It is a unique property found in some elements as in carbon in which carbon


atoms have the ability of combining with themselves to form numerous compounds in
different ways.

Organic chemistry: Study of hydrocarbons and their derivatives is called organic


chemistry.

Aromatic compounds: Organic compounds in which carbon atoms are arranged in a six
membered ring having characteristic properties (Aroma/smell) (Ring or closed chain
compounds).
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Aliphatic compounds: Compounds in which carbon atoms are arranged one after
another in a chain like fashion (Open or straight chain compounds).

Saturated compounds: Compounds in which all the bonds between the atoms are single
bonds.

Unsaturated compounds: Compounds, which contain a carbon-carbon double bond or a


carbon-carbon triple bond.

Functional Group: A characteristic group present in an organic compound. (Eg.


aldehyde, alcohol, acid etc.)

Isomerism: The phenomenon in which different compounds have different structural


formulae but same molecular formula.

Molecular formula: Gives the exact number of atoms of various elements present in a
compound.

Combustion: Burning an organic compound in air or oxygen. Carbon dioxide and water
are the products of combustion of any carbon compound.

Molasses: The mother liquor left after the crystallization of cane sugar.

Rectified sprit: 95.6% pure alcohol.

Esterification: Formation of an ester by the combination of an acid with an alcohol.

IUPAC SYSTEM OF NOMENCLATURE

1. The longest chain of carbon atoms in the structure of the compound (to be named) is
found first. The compound is then named as a derivative of the alkane hydrocarbon which
corresponds to the longest chain of carbon atoms (This is called parent hydrocarbon).
2. The alkyl groups present as side chains (branches) are considered as substituents and
named separately as methyl (CH3—) or ethyl (C2H5—) groups.
3. The carbon atoms of the longest carbon chain are numbered in such a way that the alkyl
groups (substituents) get the lowest possible number (smallest possible number).
4. The position of alkyl group is indicated by writing the number of carbon atom to which it
is attached.
5. Thus, IUPAC name is given as

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Position and name of alkyl group + parent hydrocarbon


6. If two same alkyl derivatives are present on same carbon atom, then prefix ‘di’ or ‘tri’
can be used.
Lets understand with the help of few examples:

Example 1:
1 2 3
CH3—CH—CH3
CH3

The longest chain contains three C-atoms. The saturated hydrocarbon containing three
carbon atoms is propane.

The methyl group (CH 3 –) is attached to C-atom number 2 (numbering from either side
gives number 2 to the C-atom to which the methyl group is attached).
Thus, the name of the compound is 2-methylpropane.

Example 2:
5 4 3 2 1
CH3—CH2—CH2—CH—CH3
CH3

The longest chain contains five C-atoms. The saturated hydrocarbon containing five C-
atoms is pentane.

The numbering of C-atoms in the longest chain is done from the C-atom that is nearest to
the methyl group which is present as the branched chain. Thus,
5 4 3 2 1
CH3—CH2—CH2—CH—CH3
CH3
(correct)

This way of numbering is correct, but the way of numbering as shown below is wrong.
1 2 3 4 5
CH3—CH2—CH2—CH—CH3
CH3
(wrong)

Hence, the correct name will be 2-methylpentane (and not 4-methylpentane).

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The functional groups are summarized in the table below :

S. No. Hetero atom Functional Formula of a Class of Compounds


Group Functional
Group
1. O Hydroxyl —OH Alcohols, R—OH
2. O Aldehydic —CHO or Aldehydes, R—CHO
O
—C—H

3. O Keto —CO— or Ketones, R—CO—R


O
—C—

4. O Carboxyl —COOH or Carboxylic acids, R—


O COOH
—C—OH

5. Cl, Br Halo (chloro, —Cl, —Br Haloalkanes, R—Cl, R—Br


bromo)

Properties of carbon compounds:

(i) Combustion: to produce CO2, H2O and energy.

O
2  CO  H O  Energy
CH3OH 
 2 2

(ii) Oxidation: to form other organic compounds.


Oxidation
Alcohol   Acid

Alk. KMnO
4  HCOOH
CH3OH 

(iii) Addition reaction: Characteristic property of unsaturated hydrocarbons. Reddish


brown colour of bromine water gets decolourised.

H H H H
| | | |
H  C  C  H  Br 2  H  C  C H
| |
Br Br

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(iv) Substitution reaction: Characteristic property of saturated compounds  displacement


reaction.

CH 4  Cl 2  CH3 Cl  Cl 2  CH 2 Cl 2  Cl 2  CHCl3  Cl 2  CCl 4


methane chloromethane trichloromethane tetrachloromethane
( chloroform) (carbon tetrachloride)

Properties of Ethanol combustion


(CH 3CH 2OH) CO 2 + H 2O + Energy
oxidation
oxid. alk. KMnO 4
CH 3COOH (Ethanoic acid)
or acid K 2 Cr2 O 7

Na
CH 3CH 2ONa (Sodium ethoxide)
CH 3 COOH
Esterification
CH 3COOCH 2CH 3 (Ethyl ethanoate)

conc. H 2 SO 4
Dehydration
CH 2 = CH 2 (Ethene)

Properties of Ethanoic Acid combustion


(CH 3COOH) CO 2 + H 2O + Energy
Na
CH 3COONa + H 2 (Sodium ethanoate)
NaOH
CH 3COONa + H 2O

Na 2 CO 3
CH 3COONa + CO 2 + H 2O

CH 3 OH
Esterification
CH 3COOCH 3 (Methyl Ethanoate)

Reduction
CH 3CH 2OH (Ethanol)

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MIND MAP

Name of IUPAC Name


PROPERTIES AND VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON compounds
 Always forms covalent bonds Alkene Alkane – ane + ene = Alkene
Alkyne Alkane – ane + yne = Alkyne
 Tetravalent
Haloalkanes Halo + alkane = Haloalkane
 Tetrahedral
Alcohols Alkane – e + ol = Alkanol
 3 allotropes – diamond, graphite and fullerenes
Aldehydes Alkane – e + al = Alkanal
 Catenation – Unique property of self-linking of carbon Ketone Alkane – e + one = Alkanone
atoms
Carboxylic Alkane – e + oic acid = Alkanoic
acid acid

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

Chemical properties of Carbon compounds

Combustion Substitution Addition Oxidation


Burning of carbon Replacement of an atom or a group of Addition of two reactants to Addition of oxygen
compound in air atoms in a organic molecule by another form a single product
atoms or group of atoms

Ethanol Soaps
 Sodium salts (or potassium salts) of the long chain
 Colourless, distinct smell and burning taste, soluble in water in – +
carboxylic acids. The ionic group in soaps is –COO Na .
all proportions, neutral to litmus
 Not suitable for washing purposes when water is hard.
 Reaction with sodium
2CH3CH2OH + Na  CH3CH2ONa + H2
 Reaction with concentrated H2SO4

H H Detergents
Conc.
CH3–CH2–OH C=C +H2O  Sodium salts of long chain benzene sulphonic acids. The
H2SO4
H H
ionic group in a detergent is  SO3 Na  or
 Combustion
 SO4 Na .
C2H5OH + 3O2  2CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
 Can be used for washing even when the water is hard.

Ethanoic Acid
 Colourless, pungent smelling liquid, soluble in water in all proportions
 Reaction with sodium carbonate
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3  2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2 O
 Reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate
CH3COOH + NaHCO3  CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
O O
 Esterification CH3–C–OH + H–OCH2–CH3 Conc. H2SO4
CH3–C–OCH2CH3 + H2O

NaOH 98
 Hydrolysis CH COOC H C H OH + CH COOH

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 10 are of one mark each.

Q. 11 – 17 are of two marks each.

Q. 18 – 25 are of three marks each.

Q. 26 – 30 are of five marks each.

1. Name the product other than water formed on burning of ethanol in air.

2. Name the functional group present in propan-one (acetone).

3. Name the organic compound, which can be produced by fermentation of sugar and is a
constituent of beer.

4. Name the classes of organic compounds represented by the following formulae :


O

(i) C 2H5NH 2 (ii) H3 C C CH3

5. Write the formulation for the functional groups of alcohols and carboxylic acids.

6. Which gas will be evolved if sodium bicarbonate is added to a solution of tartaric acid?

7. Name the product formed besides soap that is obtained during saponification process.

8. What is meant by the term functional group?

9. The structural formula of an ester is

H O H H

H C C O C C H

H H H

Write the molecular formula of the alcohol and the acid from which it would have been
formed.

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10. The structural formula of an ester is


H H O H H H

H C C C O C C C H

H H H H

Write the molecular formula of the alcohol and the acid from which it would have been
formed.

11. Name the organic acid present in vinegar. Write a chemical equation which represents the
commercial method for the preparation of this acid from methanol.

12. Give reasons for the following :


(i) Oxidation of ethanol with CrO 3 produces ethanol while ethanol when oxidized
with alkaline KMnO 4 produces ethanoic acid.

(ii) Alcohol supplied for industrial purposes is mixed with copper sulphate.

13. Complete the following equations and write the names of products formed :
heat
(i) CH3COONa  NaOH 
heat
(ii) CH 3 OH  O 2 Ag catalyst

14. Allotropy is a property shown by which class : Substances, elements, compounds or


mixture ? Define it and give an example.

15. Explain the cleansing action of soaps.

16. What is meant by ‘fermentation’? Write chemical equations for the two steps involved in
preparing ethanol by the fermentation of molasses.

17. What are oxidizing agents ? Give two examples.

18. (i) Describe with chemical equations how ethanoic acid may be obtained from
(a) ethanol and
(b) methanol.
(ii) Write chemical equation for the decarboxylation reaction of ethanoic acid.

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19. What are detergents chemically? Why are they more effective than soaps in cleansing
action? How can detergent molecules be altered to make them biodegradable?

20. Write the formula for the given compounds and name the functional groups present in
each of them :
(i) Ethanoic acid
(ii) Propanone
(iii) Nitromethane

21. Describe along with chemical equations, what happens when


(i) Ethene reacts with bromine water
(ii) Ethanol burns in air
(iii) Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of sulphuric acid.

22. Two compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ have the same molecular formula C 4H8 O 2 . Compound ‘A’
is an acid and compound ‘B’ has a fruity smell. Suggest (i) chemical formulae and (ii) the
structural formulae of compounds A and B. Name the functional group of compound B.
What name would you give to the relationship between the compounds A and B ?

23. Complete and balance the following equations :


heat
(i) CH3 COONa  NaOH(CaO) 
Ni
(ii) CH2 CH2  H2
heat

(iii) CH4  O 2 

(iv) CH2 CH2  Br2 (aq)

(v) CH CH  Br2 (aq)

24. An organic compound A of molecular formula C 2H6 O on oxidation gives an acid B with
the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule as A. Compound A is often used for
sterilization of skin by doctors. Name the compounds A and B. Write the chemical
equation involved in the formation of B from A.

25. Give any three uses of ethanoic acid.

26. (a) What is the fermentation process?

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(b) What role is played by yeast in the conversion of cane-sugar C12 H22 O 11  to
ethanol?
(c) How will the following be obtained form pure ethanol? Express chemical
reactions by the corresponding chemical equations.

(i) Sodium ethoxide


(ii) Ethyl ethanoate
(iii) Ethanal

27. Chemical compound ‘A’ is produced by reacting ‘B’ with water in presence of
phosphoric acid. ‘A’ burns in air with blue flame to form CO 2 and H2 O . On reacting
with K 2 Cr2 O 7 it produces a compound ‘C’ which turns blue litmus red. Identify the
compounds A, B and C. Give their structures. Describe the process of preparation of the
compound ‘A’ from sugar.

28. (i) Sugar cane juice mixed with yeast was kept in a covered container. After a few
days it developed a strong smell. Name the process taking place. What could the
strong smell be due to ?
(ii) What method would you suggest for separating the smelling substance from the
final mixture.
(iii) Suggest one method for preservation of sugar cane juice.

29. Compound ‘A’ is obtained from wood-tar distillation. It has specific smell and burning
taste. It burns with blue flame to give CO 2 and H2 O . It is soluble in water. It is used as a
fuel and solvent. It reacts with sodium metal and gives out hydrogen gas. It reacts with
acetic acid to form pleasant fruity smelling compound ‘B’ in presence of conc. H2 SO 4 .
Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and give equations for all the reactions involved.

30. Match the items in the column ‘A’ with those give in column ‘B’

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’

(i) Ethene (a) Used in anti-freeze solution

(ii) Ethanol (b) Fossil fuel

(iii) Ester (c) Fruity smell

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(iv) Soap (d) Non-biodegradable

(v) Detergent (e) Does not give lather with hard water

(vi) Coal (f) Ca 2 and Mg2

(vii) Hard water (g) Insulator

(viii) PVC (h) Helps in suspending dirt

(ix) Carboxymethylcellulose (i) Bleaching agent

(x) Sodium perborate (j) Monomer of polythene

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A covalent bond is formed by


(a) complete transfer of electrons (b) one sided sharing of electrons
(c) mutual sharing of electrons (d) any of the three above

2. Which of the following compounds does not contain a multiple bond ?

(a) Ethane (b) Ethene


(c) Ethyne (d) Benzene

3. Which of the following is not a saturated hydrocarbon ?

(a) Cyclohexane (b) Benzene


(c) Butane (d) Isobutane

4. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Covalent compounds have strong bonds within the molecules but weak
intermolecular forces of attraction.
(b) Covalent compounds have weak bonds within the molecules but strong
intermolecular forces of attraction.

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(c) Covalent compounds have weak bonds within the molecules and weak intermolecular
forces of attraction.
(d) Covalent compounds have strong bonds within the molecules and strong
intermolecular forces of attraction.

5. Which of the following set of compounds have the same molecular formula?

(a) Butane and isobutane (b) Cyclohexane and hexene


(c) Propanal and propanone (d) All the three

6. Benzene with molecular formula, C 6H 6 , has

(a) 6 single bonds and 6 double bonds (b) 12 single bonds and 3 double bonds
(c) 18 single bonds only (d) 12 double bonds only

7. The functional group in methanol and methanal respectively are

(a) —OH, —CHO (b) —CHO, —OH


(c) —OH, —COOH (d) —CHO, —COOH

8. Carbon forms a large number of organic compounds due to

(a) catenation (b) tendency to form multiple bonds


(c) phenomenon of isomerism (d) all the three above

9. Which of the following is not an allotropic from of carbon ?

(a) Fluorine (b) Fullerene


(c) Diamond (d) Graphite

10. Graphite is a soft lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous
behaviour is that graphite

(a) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms
with weak interplate bonds
(b) is a non-crystalline substance
(c) is an allotropic from of carbon
(d) has only single bonds between carbon atoms

11. Which of the following compounds can have a triple bond ?

(a) C 2H6 (b) C 3H4


(c) C 3H8 (d) C 3H6

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12. Which of the following represents the correct order of unsaturation ?

(a) Alkanes, alkenes, alkynes (b) Alkanes, alkynes, alkenes


(c) Alkenes, alkynes, alkanes (d) Alkynes, alkanes, alkenes

13. The general formula of alcohols is

(a) CnH2n2 (b) C nH2n1OH


(c) C nH 2n (d) C nH2n1COOH

14. Wine contains

(a) CH3 OH (b) C 6H5 OH


(c) C 2H5 OH (d) CH 3 COOH

15. The acid present in vinegar is

(a) CH 3 COOH (b) HCOOH


(c) CH 3 CH 2 COOH (d) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 COOH

16. Which of the following represents an esterification reaction ?


Conc.H2SO4
(a) CH3COOH  C 2H5 OH   CH3 COOC2H5  H2O
Heat
(b) CH3 COOC2H5  NaOH  CH3 COONa  C 2H5 OH
CaO,633K
(c) CH3COONa  NaOH    CH4  Na2CO3
(d) CH4  Cl2  CH3Cl  HCl

17. The reaction, 2C 2H5 OH  2Na  2C2H5 ONa  H2 suggest that ethanol is

(a) Acidic in nature (b) Basic in nature


(c) Amphoteric (d) Neutral

18. Which of the following substances is added to denature ethanol ?

(a) Methanol (b) Pyridine


(c) Copper sulphate (d) All the three

19. Which of the following substances cannot be used to distinguish ethanol from ethanoic
acid?

(a) Na metal (b) NaHCO 3


(c) Hot alkaline KMnO 4 solution (d) Hot acidified K 2 Cr2 O 7 solution

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20. Saponification means

(a) acid hydrolysis (b) alkaline hydrolysis


(c) esterification (d) dehydration

21. An example of soap is


(a) CH 3 COONa (b) CH 3 ONa
(c) C17 H35 COONa (d) C17 H35 COOHC 2H2

22. Ethene is produced when

(a) ethabol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence of a few drops of conc. H2 SO 4
(b) ethanol is oxidized with acidified potassium dichromate
(c) ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H2 SO 4 at 443 K
(d) ethanoal reacts with Na metal

23. Which of the following hydrocarbons shows isomerism ?

(a) C 2H6 (b) C 2H4


(c) C 3H8 (d) C 4 H10

24. Detergents are sodium or potassium salts of long chain

(a) aldehydes (b) ketones


(c) carboxylic acids (d) sulphonic acids

25. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water produce hard water ?

(a) Calcium sulphate (b) Magnesium bicarbonate


(c) Calcium chloride (d) Any of the above

26. Which of the following represents Lewis structure of N2 molecule?


xx xx
x x x
(a) x N N x (b) x
x N N x

xx xx xx xx
x x x x
(c) x N N x
(d) x N N x
xx xx xx xx

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27. Functional groups present in aspirin are


O

O C H3
O
HO C

(a) Ester and aldehyde (b) Ester and ketone


(c) Ester and carboxylic acid (d) Carboxylic acid and ether

28. Which of the following represents the formula of acyclic saturated hydrocarbon ?

(a) C 7 H12 (b) C 7 H16


(c) C 7 H18 (d) C 7 H14

29. Which of the following molecule contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

(a) H2 O (b) MgCl 2


(c) C 4 H10 (d) NH4 Cl

30. Which of the following has the shortest carbon-carbon bond ?

(a) C 2H2 (b) C 2H4


(c) C 2H6 (d) All have the same bond length

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d)

6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)

11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)

16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d)

26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)

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10. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

Classification of Elements

The need to simplify and organize the study of elements and their large number of
compounds led to the development of the periodic table.

Dobereiner’s Triad

The initial attempt towards classification of elements was made by J.W. Dobereiner, a German
chemist. He tried to arrange the elements with similar properties into groups. He identified
certain groups of three elements with similar properties. He called these groups of three elements
as Dobereiner’s Triads. He showed that when the three elements of a triad were arranged in
order of their increasing atomic masses, the atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the
average of the atomic masses of the other two elements.

Element Atomic Mass


Li 6.9
Na 23
K 39
6.9  39
 22.95
2
For example, Li, Na, K ; Ca, Sr, Ba ; S, Se, Te and Cl, Br, I constitute Dobereiner’s
triads. The idea of Dobereiner’s triad was rejected because it could not be applied to all the
elements known at that time.

Newlands Law of Octaves

Next attempt towards classification of elements was made by John Alexander Newland
who gave Newlands’s Law of Octaves. According to this law, when elements were arranged in
increasing order of their atomic masses, the properties of every eighth element was similar to the
first one.

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Limitations of Newlands Law of Octaves

1. The Newlands’ law of octaves was rejected because it could be applied only to elements
having atomic masses upto 40 u, i.e., calcium

2. When noble gases were discovered, the properties of the ninth element were now similar
to that of the first.

Mendeleev’s Classification

Mendeleev classified the elements on the basis of similarity in physical properties and
similarity in the formulae of their hydrides and oxides.

Mendeleev’s Periodic Law

Mendeleev’s Periodic Law states that the physical and chemical properties of the
elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses.

Salient Features of Mendeleev’s Classification

(a) In Mendeleev’s periodic table, elements are arranged in order of their increasing
atomic masses in such a way that elements with similar properties are placed in the same vertical
column called the group. To be sure that elements with similar properties fell in the same group,
Mendeleev had to place an element with slightly greater atomic mass (i.e., Te) before an element
of slightly lower atomic mass (i.e., I). Similarly, cobalt was placed ahead of nickel.

(b) Mendeleev even left some gaps in the periodic table for those elements which were
yet to be discovered. For example, gallium and germanium.

Mendeleev’s Periodic Table consists of seven horizontal rows called periods and eight
vertical columns called groups. The periods are numbered from 1 to 7 while the groups are
designated as I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII and VIII. Except group VIII, each group is divided into two
subgroups designated as A and B.

Limitations of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table

1. Anomalous position of hydrogen

2. Position of isotopes

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3. Wrong order of atomic masses of some elements

4. Uncertainty in prediction of new elements.

Modern Periodic Table

Henry Moseley in 1913 showed that atomic number was a more fundamental property of
an element than its atomic mass. Therefore, atomic number or electron number was adopted as
the basis of classification of elements.

Modern Periodic Law

Mendeleev’s periodic law was thus modified to Modern periodic law which states that
the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.

Salient Features of Modern Periodic Table

1. When the elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers, the
anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table are removed. However, the position of hydrogen
still remains anomalous. It can be placed either along with alkali metals of group 1 or
along with halogens of group 17 of the Modern periodic table.

2. In the Modern or Long form of the periodic table, elements are arranged in increasing
order of their atomic numbers.

3. The Modern periodic table is based upon electronic configuration of elements.

4. The periodicity in properties of elements is due to periodicity in their outer electronic


configurations.

5. The numbers 2, 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32 after which the properties of elements get repeated are
the magic numbers on which this classification is based.

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6. The Modern periodic table consists of 18 vertical columns called groups and 7 horizontal
rows called periods.

7. Each period starts with the filling of electrons in a new electronic shell and the elements
in a period have consecutive atomic numbers.

Valence Electron
All the elements in a group have identical outer-shell electronic configuration. However,
the number of inner filled energy shells increases as we go down the group. Further, the elements
in a group do not have consecutive atomic numbers.

Group No. 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
Atomic No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Symbol Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Electronic Configuration 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 2 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 4 2, 8, 5 2, 8, 6 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
No. of valence electron 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Valency 1 2 3 4 3 2 1 0
Atomic Radii 186 136 125 117 116 104 99 190

Element Atomic No. E.C. Atomic Radii


Period Two Li 3 2, 1 152
Period Three Na 11 2, 8, 1 186
Period Four K 19 2, 8, 8, 1 231

Valency

The valency of elements in a group is fixed but in a period first it increases from 1 to 4
and then decreases to zero.

Valency
Increases and then decreases in a period

Remains the
same down the
group

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Atomic size/Atomic Radii

The atomic size decreases across a period from left to right but increases down a group.

Atomic Size / Radii


Decreases from left to right in a period
Increases from
top to bottom in
a group

Metallic and Non-Metallic Character

Across a period, the metallic character decreases while the non-metallic character
increases. Conversely, on moving down a group, the metallic character increases while the non-
metallic character decreases.

Metallic Character
Decreases along a period

Increases down
the group

Nature of Oxides

The oxides of metals are basic while those of non-metals are acidic in nature.

The periodicity in the properties of elements such as valency, atomic size and metallic/non-
metallic character can be explained on the basis of outer-shell electronic configuration of the
elements.

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MIND MAP

 Doberiener’s Triads – When elements are arranged in a group of three in increasing order of their atomic
masses, the atomic mass of the middle element is found to be approximately equal to the arithmetic mean of the
atomic masses of the other two elements.
 Newland’s Law of octaves – The properties of every eighth element was similar to the first.

Mendeleev’s Periodic Law states that Modern Periodic Law


the physical and chemical properties of
elements are periodic function of their The physical and chemical properties of
atomic masses. elements are periodic function of their
atomic numbers.
Limitations
Modern periodic table
 Anomalous position of hydrogen
 It contains 7 periods and 18 groups.
 Position of isotopes
 All the limitations of Mendeleev’s
 Atomic masses do not increase in a periodic table had been removed except
regular manner. one i.e., anomalous position of
hydrogen.
 Uncertainty in prediction of new
elements.

PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

Periodicity in Properties

Properties Across a period Down the group

(a) Valency First increases from 1 to 4 than Remains same


decreases from 4 to zero

(b) Atomic size Decreases Increases

(c) Metallic character Decreases Increases

(d) Non-metallic character Increases Decreases

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 7 are of one mark each.

Q. 8 – 11 are of two marks each.

Q. 12 – 15 are of three marks each.

Q. 16 – 17 are of five marks each

1. Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if
anything, do their atoms have in common ?

2. How does the electropositive character of elements vary on moving down in a group of
the periodic table ?

3. Define atomic size.

4. How do you calculate the valency of an element from its electronic configuration ?

5. Why did Mendeleev left a number of gaps in his periodic table ?

6. Name the scientist who proposed Modern Periodic Law.

7. In the classification of then known elements, Mendeleev was guided by two factors.
What were these two factors ?

8. Consider the following elements : Na, Ca, Al, Mg, K, Li

(a) Which of these elements belong to the same period of the periodic table ?

(b) Which of these elements belong to the same group of the periodic table ?

9. How were the positions of cobalt and nickel resolved in the Modern periodic table ?

10. What are the merits of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table ?

Or

What were the achievements of Mendeev’s Periodic Table ?

11. How does the atomic size (or atomic radius) change as we go from left to right in a period
? Explain with the help of an example.
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12. Hoe does the valency vary in a period on going from left to right ? Explain with an
example.

13. How could the modern periodic law remove various anomalies of Mendeleev’s
classification of elements ?

14. (a) How would the tendency to gain electrons change as you go from left to right across
a period ?

(b) How would the tendency to gain electrons change as you go down a group ?

15. Explain why the properties of the 8th element are repeated in case of elements arranged in
2nd and 3rd period of the long form of the periodic table.

16. Write the electronic configurations of atoms of (a) potassium (K), (b) lithium (Li), (c)
fluorine (F), (d) chlorine (Cl).

Atomic number of K is 19, of Li is 3, of F is 9 and of Cl is 17.

Use these electronic configurations to explain why potassium is more reactive than
lithium and fluorine more reactive than chlorine.

17. Find out the valencies of the first twenty elements.

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Elements A, B and C form a Dobereiner's triad. If the atomic mass of element A is 7 and
that of element C is 39, then what is the atomic mass of element B ?

(a) 23 (b) 32

(c) 46 (d) 22

2. Which of the following represents a Dobereiner's triad?

(a) Na, Cl, Ca (b) Cl, Br, I

(c) Li, Br, Sr (d) K, I, Ba

3. The atomic masses of first and the third element of a Dobereiner's triad are 35.5 and 127.
What is the expected atomic mass of the middle element?

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(a) 80 (b) 40

(c) 137 (d) 23

4. X and Y are two elements having similar properties which obey Newlands's Law of
Octaves. The minimum and the maximum number of elements in between X and Y
respectively are

(a) 6 and 8 (b) 7 and 15

(c) 8 and 14 (d) 6 and 13

5. Which of the following combination of elements belong to the same group?

(a) Cu, Ag, Au (b) Li, Be, Al

(c) Na, Mg, Al (d) O, S, Cl

6. Which of the following combination of elements belong to the same period of Mendeleev
or Modern Periodic Table ?

(a) Li, Mg (b) AI, Si

(c) B, Al (d) C, S

7. In Mendeleev's periodic table, the properties of the elements are a periodic function of
their

(a) atomic size (b) ionization energy

(c) atomic mass (d) atomic number

8. How many elements were known when Mendeleev gave his periodic table ?

(a) 36 (b) 56

(c) 115 (d) 63

9. The two elements for which Mendeleev left blank places in his original periodic table
were

(a) Si, Ti (b) Ga, Ge

(c) AI, Ga (d) As, Sb

10. Name the Russian chemist who stated that the properties of elements are a periodic
function of their atomic masses ?

(a) Mendeleev (b) Markownikov


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(c) Zaitzev (d) Zelinsky

11. Number of groups and periods respectively present in Modern Periodic Table are

(a) 16, 7 (b) 6, 16

(c) 18, 7 (d) 18, 6

12. Which of the following represents most electropositive element ?

(a) Li (b) Be

(c) K (d) Ca

13. Which of the following is the most electronegative atom?

(a) C (b) N

(c) O (d) F

14. Which pair of atomic numbers represents elements in the same group?

(a) 11, 19 (b) 6, 12

(c) 4, 16 (d) 8, 17

15. Which of the following elements has the biggest size?

(a) P (b) Mg

(c) Na (d) Si

16. Which of the following elements has the smallest size?

(a) AI (b) F

(c) Cl (d) K

17. Atomic number of the element which is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers
17, 34, 36 and 53 in the Modern Period Table is

(a) 18 (b) 52

(c) 37 (d) 35

18. Which among the following is the least reactive alkali metal ?

(a) Li (b) Na

(c) K (d) Rb
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19. Which among the following is the most reactive halogen?

(a) F (b) Cl

(c) Br (d) I

20. Which of the following element has three valence electrons?

(a) Cs (b) Ca

(c) Al (d) S

21. The oxide of which of the following elements is not acidic ?

(a) Cl (b) S

(c) N (d) Li

22. Considering the elements B, AI, Mg and K, the correct order of their metallic character is

(a) B > Al > Mg > K (b) Al > Mg > B > K

(c) Mg > Al > K > B (d) K > Mg > Al > B

23. Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Si, the correct order of their non-metallic
character is

(a) B > C > Si > N > F (b) Si > C > B > N > F

(c) F > N > C > B > Si (d) F > N > C > Si > B

24. The highly metallic element will have the configuration of

(a) 2, 8, 7 (b) 2, 8, 8, 5

(c) 2, 8, 8, 1 (d) 2, 8, 2

25. The correct sequence of atomic radii is

(a) Na > Mg > Al > Si (b) AI> Si > Na > Mg

(c) Si > Al > Mg > Na (d) Si > Al > Na > Mg

26. Which of the following remains unchanged on descending a group in the periodic table ?

(a) Valence electrons (b) Atomic size

(c) Density (d) Metallic character

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27. The atomic radius decreases as we move across a period because

(a) atomic mass increases

(b) atomic number increases

(c) effective nuclear charge increases

(d) additive electrons are accommodated in the new electron level.

28. The atomic number of which of the following elements represents a metal.

(a) 17 (b) 2

(c) 37 (d) 33

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a)

6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)


11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)

21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c)

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11. LIFE PROCESSES

LIFE PROCESSES

Nutrition Respiration Transportation / Excretion


Circulation

Mode of Nutrition

Autotrophic Heterotrophic

Photosynthesis Parasitic Saprophytic Holozoic


Sunlight   
CO2 + H2O    C6H12O6 + O2
Chlorophyll Obtain food Obtain Obtain
from living food from food from
All green plants and blue-green algae organisms. dead and complex
They live decaying organic
in or on organisms substances.
the bodies of e.g. fungi, Eat solid food
other organism. bacteria e.g. amoeba,
e.g. lice, leech frog, humans

Light reaction: Photolysis of water to give out H2 and O2.


Photosynthesis
Dark reaction: Formation of C6H12O6. Also called Benson
and Calvin Cycle.

PROCESS OF NUTRITION (HUMAN)

Ingestion Digestion Absorption Assimilation Egestion

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Human Digestive System

Alimentary canal Digestive Glands


 Mouth or Buccal Cavity  Salivary Glands
 Pharynx  Gastric Glands
 Oesophagus  Intestinal Glands
 Stomach  Liver
 Small Intestine  Pancreas
 Large Intestine
 Anus

Digestion in Human Beings


Mouth (or Buccal Cavity)
Saliva or Ptyalin from
Oesophagus Salivary glands

By Peristaltic movement
Stomach
From liver Gastric Juice HCl, Pepsin
Lipase, Mucus
 Bile Juice
Duodenum Small intestine
From pancreas
 Pancreatic Juice  Intestinal juice
Ileum Digestion completed

Colon Water Reabsorbed

Rectum

Anus

Summary of Digestive enzymes of various glands with their secretion and end products of

Digestion in Man

Name of Secretion Site of Enzymes Food acts upon End product


gland action
1. Salivary Saliva Buccal Salivary Starch Maltose
glands cavity amylase
or Ptylin

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2. Gastic Gastic Juice Stomach Pepsin Proteins Peptones and


glands HCl proteoses

Renin Caesein of milk Paracaesein

3. Liver Bile Duodenum - Fats Emulsification of


fats

4. Pancreas Pancreatic Duodenum Amylase Starch and Maltose and


juice Glycogen isomaltose

Trypsin Proteins Peptones and


peptides

Lipase Emulsified fats Fatty acids and


glycerol

5. Intestinal Intestinal Small Erepsin Peptones and Amino acids


glands juice intestine peptides

Maltase Maltose Glucose

Sucrase Sucorose Glucose and


fructose

Lactase Lactose Glucose and


galactose

Lipase Triglycerides Monoglycerides


and fatty acids

Mucous Large - Lubrication of -


intestine faecal matter

RESPIRATION IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS

Respiration involves:
 Gaseous exchange: Breathing
 Breakdown of simple food: Cellular respiration
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Respiratory System in Humans

Respiratory Tract Respiratory Organ


 External Nostril  Lungs
 Nasal passage
 Internal Nostril
 Larynx
 Trachea
 Bronchi
 Alveoli

Mechanism of Breathing
Inhalation  Lifting of Ribs + Flat Diaphragm  Increase in Volume of Chest Cavity 
Air is sucked inside the Nostrils  Alveoli and Vice Versa for Breathing out

Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Absence of O2
Ethanol + CO 2 + Energy
(In yeast) (2-carbon compound)

In Lack of O 2
Pyruvate Lactic acid + Energy
Glucose
cyloplasm (In our muscle cells) (3-carbon compound)
(3-carbon compound)

Presence of O 2
CO2 + H2 O + Energy
(In mitochondria)

EXCHANGE OF GASES CO2 AND O2 BETWEEN BLOOD AND TISSUES


Air in Alveoli  Blood Vessels  Blood  RBC  Respiratory Pigment
(Haemoglobin)  Oxygen Links with Hb (high pressure of O2)  O2 is released in
Aerobic
tissues from Hb (Low O2 Pressure in Tissues)    High CO2 in Tissues  CO2
Re spiration
CO2
Released into Blood  Blood Vessels in Alveoli  CO2 Released out Through

Nostrils.

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TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS

Diffusion
Transportation in plants Osmosis
Translocation
Xylem Phloem
Xylem vessels Sieve tubes
Tracheids Companion cells
Xylem parenchyma Phloem parenchyma
Xylem fibres Phloem fibres

Transport of Water

Absorption of ions by roots from soil


Difference in concentration of ions
between root and soil
Movement of water into root xylem from soil (Tracheids or vessels)

Stem Xylem
Suction pull
Water + minerals
Xylem in Leaves

Loss of water through stomata in leaves : Transpiration

Suction pressure develops

CIRCULATION IN ANIMALS

Circulatory system (Blood and Lymphatic System)

(i) Organ – Heart

(ii) Vessels – Artery, Vein and Capillaries

(iii) Connective tissues (fluid) – Blood and Lymph

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BLOOD

Blood Plasma Blood Corpuscles

Serum Fibrinogen RBC WBC Platlets


(Erythrocytes) (Leucocytes) (Thrombocytes)

Granulocytes Agranulocytes

Mechanism of Double Circulation

As the blood passes twice through the heart in one complete cycle in man, it is called double
circulation.

Deoxygenated Oxygenated
Right ventricle Pulmonary aorta Lungs Pulmonary veins Left Auricle
blood blood

Pulmonary circulation Oxygenated


blood
systemic circulation

Right auricle Venae cavae Body tissues


Systemic aorta Left Ventircle
Deoxygenated (Except Lungs)
blood

Capillaries: Occur at the terminals of artery and vein, thin-walled and narrow, only one-cell
thick.

EXCRETION

It is the biological process of elimination of harmful metabolic waste products from the body of
an organism.

Excretion in humans

Human excretory system consists of Kidneys (a pair), Ureters (a pair), Urinary bladder,
Urethra

Nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney. Each nephron consists of a
glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, tubular part and collecting duct.

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FORMATION OF URINE

Blood is brought to kidneys by renal arteries

Water and dissolved constituents of blood (nitrogenous wastes, glucose,


amino acids, mineral salts, etc.) filtered out in Bowman’s capsule under
high filtration pressure (glomerular filtrate)

Bowman’s capsule receives glomerular filtrate

Most of the water and much of the glucose and ions reabsorbed
(Selective reabsorption)

Ammonia, urea, uric acid, creatinine etc removed by tubular secretion

Urine is formed

EXCRETION IN PLANTS

Gaseous waste Excess water Falling of Stored as resins Stored in cellular


(O2 & CO2) leaves and gums vacuoles

Through photosynthesis Through transpiration In old xylem


and respiration tissue
By stomata
By stomata

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MIND MAP

Nutrition Respiration
 Aerobic Respiration
Autotrophic Heterotrophic Glycolysis
(a) Glucose    Pyruvate
(e.g. Plants) (e.g. Animals) Cytoplasm
Kreb's cycle
 Photosynthesis (b) Pyruvate    
 CO2+H2O+38 ATP
Mitochondria
Chlorophyll
6CO2 + 6H2O    C6H12O6 + 6O2  Anaerobic Respiration
Sunlight
1. In yeast :
 Digestion in human beings (a) Glucose  Pyruvate

Amylase
(b) Pyruvate  Ethanol + CO2 + Energy
(a) Carbohydrate    Glucose
2. In human muscles :
Lipase
(b) Fats  
 Fatty acids + Glycerol (a) Glucose  Pyruvate
Pr otease
(b) Pyruvate  Lactic acid + Energy
(c) Protein   Amino acids

LIFE PROCESSES
The various basic functions
performed by living organisms to
maintain life on this earth.

Excretion
Transportation
 In Plants :
In Plants :
Plants use different techniques for the
(a) Food is transported through phloem
removal of waste products.
(Translocation).
(b) Water and minerals are transported  In Human Beings :
through xylem (Ascent of Sap). Metabolic nitrogenous waste products
are removed by nephrons in the kidneys.
 In Human Beings :
(a) Blood circulatory system consists of
heart, arteries, veins and blood.
(b) Lymphatic system consists of lymph,
lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes.

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 10 are of one mark each.

Q. 11 – 20 are of two marks each.

Q. 21 – 29 are of three marks each.

Q. 30 – 35 are of five marks each.

1. Mention two structural features of small intestine which add to the absorptive capacity.

2. In which kind of respiration more energy is released ?

3. Name the substance that is oxidized in the body during respiration.

4. Give one point that is common in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

5. Which part of roots and stem is involved in exchange of respiratory gases.

6. Why nephron is considered as the functional unit of kidney.

7. Name the artery which contains deoxygenated blood.

8. Name the substance whose build up in muscles during vigorous physical exercise and
may cause Cramps.

9. Which process in a plants is accomplished by utilizing energy from ATP.

(a) Transport of water and minerals (b) Transport of food ?

10. What is artificial kidney ?

11. All life on earth would come to an end if there were no green plants. Give reasons ?

12. How does the gaseous exchange continue in lungs during expiration ?

13. What is the concentration of haemoglobin in blood. What is its role ?

14. What do you understand by double circulation of blood ?

15. How does water from the soil reach the leaves of a plant to be used in photosynthesis ?

16. How do pancreas helps in digestion of food.

17. Where lipase is secreted in human body ? What is its function ?


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18. Distinguish between artery and vein.

19. Name the principle involved in making of an artificial kidney machine to clean blood.

20. Define Serum. What are its components ?

21. Name the cavity in which the lungs of human are enclosed. What is its function.

22. In which form the nitrogen and phosphorous are absorbed by plants.

23. How is respiration different from breathing.

24. What is the function of salivary glands ? Where are these glands located and name the
enzyme secreted by it. What are the types of salivary glands ?

25. Name the organs where the following enzymes are secreted.

(a) Pepsin (b) Ptylin (c) Trypsin (d) Gastric Juice

26. Using flow chart, write the path of O2 from trachea to respiratory tissue cell.

27. Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissue and blood.

28. Explain the process of collection of deoxygenated blood from body by the heart.

29. What would be the consequences of deficiency of hemoglobin, iron and calcium in our
bodies ?

30. With a schematic diagram explain the overall process of respiration.

31. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its by products ?

32. List four functions of blood. Why does blood look red ? Which chamber of human heart
receives oxygenated blood from lungs ?

33. What is clotting of blood ? When it is useful ? Explain the blood clotting through
flowchart.

34. What are the different components of blood ? What are their function ? How is blood
different from lymph.

35. Name the important enzymes released during the process of digestion. Explain their
action at different sites in alimentary canal.

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EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For the process of photosynthesis all except one of the following items are essential, point
out the exception

(a) light, chlorophyll (b) CO2, optimum temperature

(c) Oxygen, sucrose (d) Minerals, water

2. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from

(a) Water

(b) Carbondioxide

(c) Both from water and carbon-dioxide

(d) Oxygen in air

3. Where do the energy – capturing reactions of photosynthesis occur ?

(a) Plasma membrane (b) Cytoplasm

(c) Stroma (d) Thylakoids

4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is

(a) Photosynthetic enzyme (b) Carbohydrate present in leaf

(c) Water (d) Carbon dioxide

5. The first step in photosynthesis is

(a) Joining of 3-carbon atoms to form glucose

(b) Ionisation of water

(c) Excitement of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light.

(d) Formation of ATP


6. The structure in lungs having cartilaginous rings are :

(a) Bronchioles (b) Trachea

(c) Terminal bronchioles (d) Alveoli

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7. Which of the following is least effective in photosynthesis ?

(a) Red light (b) Blue light

(c) Green light (d) Violet

8. The xylem in plants are responsible for :

(a) Transport of water (b) Transport of food

(c) Transport of amino acids (d) Transport of oxygen

9. Digestion is

(a) Conversion of large food particles into small food particles

(b) Conversion of small food particles into large food particles

(c) Conversion of food into protoplasm

(d) Conversion of complex food particles to simpler food particle

10. Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of man does not secrete a
digestive enzyme ?

(a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach

(c) Duodenum (d) Mouth

11. The hardest part of tooth is the

(a) Dentine (b) Enamel

(c) Pulp (d) Dentral tubules

12. If you chew a piece of bread long enough it will begin to taste sweet because

(a) Maltase is breaking down maltose

(b) Lipase is forming fatty acids

(c) Amylase is breaking down starches to disaccharides

(d) Disaccharides are forming glucose

13. Which one of the following belongs to the class of pepsin trypsin and lipase ?

(a) Sucrase (b) Thyroxine

(c) Secretin (d) Renin


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14. Saliva has an enzyme

(a) Pepsin (b) Ptyalin

(c) Trypsin (d) Renin

15. Pepsin digests

(a) Proteins in stomach (b) Carbohydrates in duodenum

(c) Proteins in duodenum (d) Fats in ileum

16. Chief function of HCl is

(a) To maintain high pH to prevent growth of micro-organisms.

(b) To facilitate absorption.

(c) To maintain low pH to activate pepsinogen to form pepsin.

(d) To dissolve enzyme secreted in stomach.

17. The specific function of liver is

(a) Excretion (b) Digestion

(c) Histolysis (d) Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis

18. The main function of colon is

(a) Secretion of digestive enzymes (b) Absorption of nutrients

(c) Absorption of water and ions (d) Detoxification of fluid waste

19. The process of respiration is concerned with

(a) Liberation of oxygen (b) Liberation of carbon-dioxide

(c) Liberation of energy (d) Intake of oxygen

20. The common immediate source of energy for cellular activity is

(a) NAB (b) ATP

(c) DNA (d) RNA

21. Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea ?

(a) Diaphragm (b) Ribs

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(c) Cartilageinous discs (d) Muscles

22. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely enclosed within

(a) The skeleton (b) Sinuses

(c) Vessels (d) Heart

23. The smallest blood vessel in the body is

(a) Capillary (b) Artery

(c) Vena cava (d) Vein

24. Which of the following has no muscular walls ?

(a) Artery (b) Arteriole

(c) Capillary (d) Vein

25. Oxygenated blood is carried by

(a) Pulmonary vein (b) Pulmonary artery

(c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Renal vein

26. Ventricular systole causes

(a) Entry of blood into ventricle (b) Entry of blood into veins

(c) Exit of blood from lungs (d) Exit of blood from ventricles

27. Excretion means

(a) Removal of harmful substances present in excess

(b) Formation of those substances that have some role in the body

(c) Removal of such substances that have been part of the body

(d) All of the above

28. Kidneys are not the only organs of excretion. Their work is supplemented by

(a) Lungs (b) Skin

(c) Large intestine (d) All the above

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29. The basic unit of a vertebrate kidney is the

(a) Ureter (b) Nephron

(c) Malphigian tubule (d) Islets of Langerhans

30. Surgical removal of both the kidneys would result in death because

(a) Water will accumulate in blood

(b) Urea will not be excreted

(c) Immune response will be suppressed

(d) Glucose will be lost from the body.

A. Fill in the blanks :


1. Gums and resins are the ________ products of plants.
2. ________ carry urine to the urinary bladder.
3. Plants excrete _________ during daytime and ________ during night.
4. One complete contraction and relaxation of heart is called _______ or _______.
5. The transport of food from the leaves to other parts of the plant is called ________.
6. _________ and ________ are the components of xylem.
7. The average breathing rate in an adult humans at rest is ________.
8. Hard and woody stems of large plants and trees have ________ as organs of gaseous
exchange.
9. A _________ controls the movement of food, in and out of the stomach.
10. Iodine turns blue-black on reacting with ________.
B. Match the following Column :
(a) Heart (1) Carrier of oxygen
(b) Fibrinogen (2) Unidirectional flow of blood
(c) Arteries & Veins (3) Water transport in plants
(d) Xylem cells (4) Pumping organ
(e) RBC (5) Pipes for transport in humans
(f) Valves (6) Blood clotting

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ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)


6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)

B. MATCH THE COLUMN

a. (4) b. (6) c. (5) d. (3) e. (1)


f. (2)

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12. CONTROL AND COORDINATION

CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN PLANTS

Plant Movement

Tropic movement Nastic movement

Directional movement Non-directional movement

(A) Tropic Movement

Phototropism In response to light

Chemotropism In response to chemical

Hydrotropism In response to water

Geotropism In response to gravity

Thigmotropism In response to touch

(B) Nastic Movement

(i) Thigmonasty (e.g. Mimosa Pudica)

(ii) Photonasty (e.g. Dandelion flower)

ROLE OF PHYTOHORMONES
S.No. Hormone Functions

1. Auxin  Promotes cell enlargement and cell differentiation


(e.g. growth of stem).
 Promotes fruit growth.
2. Gibberellins  Promotes cell enlargement and cell differentiation in
presence of auxin.

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3. Cytokinin  Promotes cell division i.e. cytokinesis (e.g. in fruits


and seeds).
 Helps in breaking the dormancy of seeds and buds.
 Promotes opening of stomata.
4. Abscisic Acid  Promotes the dormancy in seeds and buds.
(A growth inhibitor)
 Promotes the closing of stomata.
 Promotes the wilting and falling of leaves.

Mechanism of Auxin action


Normal growth In experimental condition
Shoot Tip
Shoot tip
sun light incident on tip
incident sun light
Auxin starts secreting
Auxin distributes down the stem uniformly

Move towards shaded plant part


Shoot grows uniformly
Increases cell division and cell enlargement

Shaded area elongates

Shaded area grows faster than lighted area

Shoot bends

CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN ANIMALS

Types of receptors (specialized cells sensitive to a particular stimulus)

S.No. Receptor Types of Stimulus Sense organ

1. Photo receptors Detects light Eye

2. Phono receptors Detects sound Ear

3. Olfactory receptors Detects smell Nose

4. Gustatory receptors Detects taste Tongue

5. Thermo receptors Detects heat or cold Skin

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Three types of Neuron (Nerve cell)

Sensory Neuron Motor Neuron Relay Neuron

Nerve Impulse
(Electrical or Chemical signals)

Transmission of nerve impulse)

Information detected by dendrite tip of a nerve cell

A chemical reaction sets up

Creates an electric impulse

Electrical impulse travels from dendrite

To cell body of nerve cell

Along the Axon

At the end of the axon, chemicals are released

Chemical cross synapse (gap between 2 neurons)

Transmits nerve impulse to a Starts a similar electrical impulse


muscle cell or gland through in next neuron and so on
neuromuscular junction (synapse)

Action by muscle / gland

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Nervous System in Humans

Central Nervous System Peripheral Nervous System Autonomic Nervous System


(CNS) (PNS) (ANS)

Brain Spinal cord Cranial Spinal nerves Sympathetic Parasympathetic


Nerves (31 pairs) Nerves Nerves
(12 pairs)

Fore-Brain Mid-Brain Hind-Brain

Cerebrum Olfactory lobes Cerebellum Pons Medulla oblongata

Frontal lobe Temporal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe

Brain

Fore brain Mid brain Hind brain

Controls reflex
Olfactory lobes Cerebrum movements of the Pons Cerebellum Medulla
(2/3 part of brain) head, neck, eye oblongata
 Association area muscles, etc. in Regulates Maintain
Responsible
for olfaction  Sensory area response to visual respiration posture and Controls
 Motor area balance of involuntary
or auditory stimuli. actions body

Spinal Cord: It is rod-like structure enclosed in a bony cage called vertebral column
and it is concerned with reflex actions and conduction of nerve impulses to and from the brain.
Sensory neurons
Receptors
(like skin)
Reflex arc Spinal cord

Effectors
Motor neurons
(like muscle)

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Endocrine Gland (Ductless glands)

These glands lack ducts and pass their secretions into the surrounding blood for transport
to the site of action.

S.No. Name of Hormones(chemical Functions


Gland messengers)

1. Hypothalamus Releasing Hormones Regulates the secretion of hormones from


the pituitary.

2. Pituitary Growth Hormone Regulates the development of bones and


muscles.

Oxytocin Regulates the secretion of milk during


lactation and regulates uterine contractions.

Vasopressin Regulates the water and electrolyte balance


in the body.

Prolactin Regulates the function of mammary gland.

Trophic Hormones Regulates the secretion of hormones from


other endocrine glands like thyroid, adrenal,
ovary and testis.

3. Thyroid Thyroxin Regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates,


fat and proteins in the body.

Calcitonin Controls calcium and phosphorus balance.

4. Parathyroid Parathormone (PTH) Regulates calcium and phosphorus balance


in the blood.

5. Adrenal Corticoids Regulates carbohydrate, fat and protein


metabolism and maintains electrolyte
balance.

Adrenaline Regulates heart rate, breathing rate, blood


pressure and carbohydrate metabolism.

6. Pancreas Insulin Lowers the blood sugar level

Glucagon Increases the blood sugar level

7. Testes Testosterone Regulates the development of male


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reproductive organs and accessory sexual


characters like beard, moustache, etc.

8. Ovaries Estrogen Regulates the development of female


reproductive organs and accessory sexual
characters like development of mammary
gland.

Progesterone Maintenance of Pregnancy.

FEEDBACK CONTROL OF BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL


Carbohydrate rich meal

Glucose-level rises in Blood

Inhibits insulin synthesis


Pancreas secretes Insulin

Glucose is utilized or stored

Glucose level falls in Blood

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MIND MAP
Phytohormones
 Control and coordination in plants is done by phytohormones.
 They are naturally occurring chemical substances which control one or other aspect of growth.
 Auxin – Cell enlargement and differentiation.
 Gibberellins – In presence of auxin, promotes cell enlargement and differentiation.
 Cytokinins – Promotes cell division, opening of stomata, etc.
 Abscisic acid – Closing of stomata, wilting and falling of leaves, etc.

Not so elaborate, controlled by


external
Tropic Movements Nastic Movements
 Directional plant growth movement in response  Non-directional movement of a plant part in

Coordination in Plants
to an external stimulus. response to an external stimulus.
 Growth of a plant may be towards the stimulus
 May or may not be a growth movement.

and
(positive tropism) or away from it (negative
tropism).  All parts of the organ of a plant are affected
equally irrespective of the direction of the
 Phototropism – movement in response to light.

phytohormones
stimulus.
 Chemotropism – in response to chemicals.
 Thigmonasty – Nastic movement in response to
 Hydrotropism – in response to water.
stimulus. touch of an object.
 Geotropism – in response to gravity.
 Photonasty – Nastic movement in response to
light.

Control and Coordination


Systematic working of the various organs of an organism
(plants or animals) producing a proper response to the
stimulus is called co-ordination.

Endocrine (chemical) Coordination


neuroendocrine
very complex and is

Nervous Coordination
 Neuron forms the fundamental unit.  Consists of hormones (chemical messengers)
Coordination in Animals

regulating biological processes and secreted by


 Sensory neurons in sense organs receive
endocrine glands.
stimulus and transmit impulses to CNS.
 Homeostasis is maintained by hormones by their
 Motor neurons transmit impulses from CNS to
integrated action and feed back control.
effectors.
by

 Relay or connector neurons serve as links


between sensory and motor neurons.
controlled
Elaborate,

system.

Nervous System (Human)

 CNS – Consists of brain and spinal cord.


Brain – Controls various voluntary (walking, riding, running, etc.) and involuntary actions (sneezing, coughing, etc).
Also controls thinking, reasoning, and intelligence.
Spinal Cord – Controls reflex action.
 PNS – Consists of cranial nerves (12 pairs) and spinal nerves (31 pairs).
 ANS – Two set of nerves (parasympathetic and sympathetic) supplying visceral organs which are antagonistic to each
other.
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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 12 are of one mark each.


Q. 13 – 19 are of two marks each.
Q. 20 – 28 are of three marks each.
Q. 29 – 30 are of five marks each.

1. List two functions performed by ovaries in a human female.

2. Write the function of hormone ‘thyroxin’ in our bodies.

3. Name the part of hind-brain which takes part in regulation of respiration.

4. We suddenly withdraw our hand when a pin pricks. Name the type of response involved
in this action.

5. Deficiency of which hormone leads to Diabetes mellitus?

6. Is opening of a flower an example of plant movement? If so, which movement?

7. Name the source glands of prolactin and estrogen.

8. Which structure in a neuron helps to conduct a nerve impulse

(a) towards the cell body?

(b) away from the cell body?

9. Which hormone deficiency causes dwarfism?

10. Which growth hormone is present in the tip of a stem?

11. Name the fluid that is found between the meninges.

12. Name the connective tissue covering the brain.

13. Where is glucagon secreted? What is its function?

14. What is photonasty? Give one example.

15. Why is oxytocin called as ‘birth hormone’?

16. What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a sensitive
plant and the movement in our legs?

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17. What is spinal cord and how is it protected?

18. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?

19. What do you understand by the term ‘target organ’? Give any one example.

20. Out of all the pituitary hormones, which two are exclusively in females? What function
do they serve?

21. State the main function of ‘pituitary gland’. Write the effect of

(a) Excessive and

(b) Sluggish activity of this gland on the growth of a child.

22. Explain the mechanism of phototropism with the help of an example.

23. What are receptors? What are their basic functions?

24. Show in a tabular form the following endocrine glands, hormones secreted by them and
their functions.
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pancreas

25. How are involuntary and reflex action different from each other?

26. (a) What are ‘hormones’?

(b) List four characteristics of hormones.

27. Explain the mechanism of geotropism with the help of an example?

28. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?

29. Draw a labeled diagram of human brain and write the functions of the following parts:

(a) Cerebrum (b) Pons

(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Cerebellum

30. What is endocrine system? What are its functions? Name the important endocrine glands
present in a human body. Draw a labelled diagram to show the positions of these
endocrine glands in the human body (male/female).

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EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The gap between two neurons is called a

(a) Dendrite (b) Synapse

(c) Axon (d) Impulse

2. The brain is responsible for

(a) Thinking (b) Regulating the heart

(c) Balancing the body (d) All of these

3. The plant hormone which is essential for cell division is

(a) Ethylene (b) Auxin

(c) Gibberelin (d) Cytokinin

4. The root of a plant is said to be

(a) Positively Geotropic (b) Positively phototropic

(c) Negatively Geotropic (d) Negatively hydrotropic

5. Which of these plant hormones is a growth inhibitor?

(a) Ethylene (b) Auxin

(c) Abscisic acid (d) Cytokinin

6. Master gland of the body is

(a) Testis (b) Thyroid

(c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal

7. Which hormone brings about contractions of uterine wall, leading to labour pain?

(a) Estrogen (b) Oxytocin

(c) Prolactin (d) Progesterone

8. People suffering from Diabetes mellitus are unable to secrete

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(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline

(c) Thyroxin (d) Vasopressin

9. The seat of intelligence and voluntary actions in the brain is

(a) Diencephalon (b) Cerebrum

(c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla oblongata

10. The activities of the internal organs are controlled by

(a) CNS (b) ANS

(c) PNS (d) None of these

11. Which gland is lost as the age advances?

(a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal

(c) Thymus (d) Pancreas

12. The term hormone was coined by

(a) Starling (b) Yabuta

(c) Went (d) Wilson

13. The lobes responsible for smell are

(a) Frontal (b) Olfactory

(c) Occipital (d) Parietal

14. Pons is responsible for controlling

(a) Respiration (b) Nutrition

(c) Excretion (d) Circulation

15. Temporal lobe of the brain is the region for

(a) Hearing (b) Speech

(c) Sight (d) Taste

16. Sneezing, coughing, vomiting are controlled by

(a) Pons (b) Cerebrum


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(c) Medulla Oblongata (d) Cerebellum

17. The pairs of spinal nerves are

(a) 33 (b) 34

(c) 32 (d) 31

18. The plant Mimosa pudica (Touch-me-not) is an example of

(a) Phototropism (b) Nastic movement

(c) Thigmotropism (d) Chemotropism

19. Abscisic acid is not responsible for

(a) Wilting of leaves (b) Opening of stomata

(c) Dormancy of seeds (d) Closing of stomata

20. Gigantism is caused due to excess secretion of

(a) Growth hormone (b) Oxytocin

(c) Trophic hormones (d) Prolactin

21. Water and electrolyte balance is regulated by

(a) Vasopressin (b) Calcitonin

(c) Oxytocin (d) Trophic hormones

22. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Iron (b) Magnesium

(c) Iodine (d) Calcium

23. Insulin deficiency causes

(a) Dwarfism (b) Goitre

(c) Gigantism (d) Diabetes

24. Reflex movements of head, neck and trunk in response to visual and auditory stimuli is
controlled by

(a) Fore brain (b) Hind brain

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(c) Mid brain (d) None of these

25. Geotropism is response of the plant towards

(a) Chemical (b) Sun

(c) Water (d) Gravity

26. Which one of them is not a plant hormone?

(a) Trophic hormones (b) Gibberlin

(c) Cytokinin (d) Auxin

27. Which of them is a mixed gland?

(a) Pancreas (b) Ovary

(c) Testes (d) All of these

28. Swollen neck is the main symptom of the disease

(a) Night Blindness (b) Anaemia

(c) Beri-Beri (d) Goitre

29. Glucagon ________________ the blood sugar level

(a) Increases (b) Has no effect

(c) Decreases (d) None of these

30. Dormancy of the seed refers to

(a) Cell division phase (b) Growth phase

(c) Resting phase (d) Germination phase

A. Fill in the blanks:


1. A plant showing photonastic movement is ________ .

2. A plant hormone helping in breaking the dormancy is ________ .


3. ________ is defined as movement of plant in response to touch.
4. The small hair like structures of a neuron are called ________ where as a single long
fibre of the neuron is called ________ .
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5. The number of cranial nerves is ________ where as the number of spinal nerves is
________ .
6. Sweat and salivary glands are the ________ glands.
7. The hormone ________ regulates calcium and phosphorus balance.

8. Phonoreceptors detect ________ .


9. ________ covers and protects the brain.
10. _________ are secreted by the hypothalamus.

B. Match the following Column:


(a) Touch (1) Pregnancy
(b) Cerebellum (2) Light
(c) Phototropism (3) Iodine
(d) Progesterone (4) Mimosa pudica
(e) Goitre (5) Posture and Balance

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)


6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)

21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)

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A. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Sun flower
2. Cytokinin
3. Thigmonasty
4. Dendrons, Axon
5. 12 pairs, 31 pairs
6. Exocrine
7. Calcitonin
8. Sound
9. Meninges
10. Releasing hormones.

B. MATCH THE COLUMN

a. (4) b. (5) c. (2) d. (1) e. (3)

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13. HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?

REPRODUCTION: Production of new generation of individuals of same species.

Types of Reproduction

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction

Fission Budding Spore Regeneration Fragmentation Vegetative propagation


e.g. in formation e.g. in e.g. in
Hydra e.g. in Planaria Spirogyra
Binary Fungi Natural Artificial
Multiple
fission fission
e.g. in e.g. in In unisexual organisms In bisexual organisms
Ameoba Plasmodium Eg: Human beings, reptiles, birds Eg: Earthworm, tapeworm

Vegetative propagation in plants

Plant undergoing vegetative reproduction propagates by a part of their body other than a
seed. This part is called propagule. Vegetative reproduction is of different types.

Types of vegetative propagation

Natural vegetative propagation Artificial vegetative propagation

1. Through leaf buds. Eg. Bryophyllum 1. Stem cutting. Eg. rose

2. Through stem. Eg. potato, onion, lemon 2. Micro propagation. Eg. Orchids, Dahlia
3. Through roots. Eg. guava, sweet potato etc. 3. Layering. Eg. rose, jasmine
4. Grafting. Eg. lemon, orange, mango

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Sexual Reproduction

Male organism Female organism

Male reproductive organ (2n) Female reproductive organ (2n)


Stamen (plants) and Testes (animals) Carpel (plants) and Ovary (animals)

Meiosis (reductional division) Meiosis (reductional division)

Male gamete: sperms(n) Female gamete: ovum(egg)(n)

Fusion or Fertilization

Zygote (2n)

New organism(2n)

S e x u a l R e p ro d u c tio n in P la n ts
S e lf P o llin a tio n
P o llin a tio n
C ro ss P o llin a tio n
P o lle n tu b e s

F e rtiliza tio n

S yn g a m y T rip le fu sio n

F irs t m a le g a m e te 2 n d m a le g a m e te
+ +
Egg tw o p o la r n u cle i

Z yg o te th re e n u cle a te d stru c tu re

S eed E n d o sp e rm
D o u b le F e rtilis a tio n

F o rm s
O va ry     F ru it
F o rm s
O vu le     S e e d

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Sexual Reproduction in Hum ans

Male Female

Gamete (Sperm) Gamete (Ovum)


from gonads (testis) from Gonads (ovary)

Fusion or Fertilization Not fertilized


(in fallopian tube)
Menstrual flow
Zygote
Mentrual Cycle
Implantation (in uterus)

Gestation Period
(9 months)

Parturition (birth of fully developed child through birth canal)

Population Control

Barrier Method Chemical Method Surgical Method

Condoms, Oral Contraceptives


Diaphragm or Vaginal Pills Vasectomy Tubectomy
(in males) (in females)

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MIND MAP

Asexual Reproduction in Plants Sexual Reproduction in Plants


 Spore formation  eg. Bacteria, fungi  Flower is the reproductive organ.
 Budding  eg. Fungi (yeast)  It has four whorls – Calyx, Corolla,
 Fragmentation  eg. Algae, fungi Androecium, Gynoecuim.
 Vegetative propagation  Calyx and corolla are accessory parts.
(a) Natural method  Androecium - Male reproductive organ
 By roots  eg. Sweet potato producing pollen grains.
 By stems  eg. Ginger, potato  Gynoecium - Female reproductive organ
having ovule (egg).
 By leaves  eg. Bryophyllum

HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?


 Pollination – Transfer of pollens from
(b) Artificial method
anther to stigma for fertilization.
 Cutting  eg. Rose
 Fertilization – Fusion of male and female
 Layering  eg. Strawberry, lemon gametes.
 Grafting  eg. Mango, rose.  Double fertilization (Triple fusion and
 Micropropagation  eg. Orchids, dahlia syngamy) – unique events in the embryo sac
of ovules.

Asexual Reproduction in Animals Sexual Reproduction (Human)


 Fission  Human being is heterosexual.
(a) Binary fission  eg. Amoeba  Reproductive system includes:
(b) Multiple fission  eg. Plasmodium (a) Primary sex organs: Testes (males) and
 Budding  eg. Hydra ovaries (females)
 Regeneration  eg. Planaria, Hydra (b) Secondary sex organs: Genital ducts and
glands (males) and fallopian tubes, uterus,
vagina (females)
 Male sex hormone is testosterone and
female sex hormones are progesterone and
estrogen.
Reproductive Health
 Puberty is attained at the age of 13 – 14
 Birth control prevents unwanted
years in males and 10 – 12 years in females.
pregnancies.
(a) Barrier methods  The zygote formed after fertilization
develops into embryo which gets implanted
(b) Chemical methods in uterus.
(c) Intrauterine contraceptive device
 Placenta (a disc-like special tissue) develops
(d) Surgical method between uterine wall and embryo for
 Sexually transmitted diseases (STD) are nourishment of the embryo.
caused by bacteria, protozoa and viruses.
 Gestation period in humans is 280 days.
 AIDS is an incurable viral disease.

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 11 are of one mark each.


Q. 12 – 16 are of two marks each.
Q. 17 – 22 are of three marks each.
Q. 23 – 25 are of five marks each.

1. What are the two general methods of reproduction in organisms?

2. Name a plant propagated by leaf.

3. What are stamens collectively known? What is the implantation?

4. What is implantation?

5. What is the duration of menstrual cycle in human female?

6. What is the function of scrotum?

7. What forms the seed and fruit after fertilization?

8. Why is vagina called the birth canal?

9. What are bisexual flowers?

10. What is gestation?

11. Why do some plants propagate only vegetatively?

12. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Give two examples?

13. Explain why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new organisms through
regeneration?

14. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?

15. How are the modes of reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms?

16. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

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17. Explain the process of budding in yeast.

18. Explain the structure of seed.

19. Give a list of characters developed in females at puberty.

20. Explain the barrier method of birth control.

21. Though reproduction is not a life process, yet it is essential. Why?

22. What are the different ways by which AIDS is transmitted to a healthy person?

23. With the help of a diagram, explain double fertilization in plants.

24. Describe the menstrual cycle.

25. Draw a diagram to show the female reproductive system.

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive system in human beings?

(a) Ovary (b) Uterus


(c) Vas deferens (d) Oviducts

2. In sexual reproduction, the sex cell of one parent fuses with the sex cell of other parent to
form a new cell called

(a) Gamete (b) Zygote


(c) Hybrid (d) Bud

3. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in

(a) Amoeba (b) Yeast


(c) Plasmodium (d) Leishmania

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4. The anther contains

(a) Sepals (b) Ovules


(c) Carpel (d) Pollen grains

5. Which of them is not a sexually transmitted disease?

(a) Cholera (b) Syphilis


(c) Gonorrhea (d) AIDS

6. The release of ovum from the ovary is called

(a) Fertilization (b) Ovulation


(c) Gestation (d) Parturition

7. The type of asexual reproduction in which an organism splits into two equal halves is
known as

(a) Budding (b) Spore formation


(c) Fission (d) Regeneration

8. Which of the following term is a permanent method of contraception?

(a) Barrier method (b) Chemical method


(c) IUCD (d) Surgical method

9. Hydra commonly reproduces by

(a) Budding (b) Fission


(c) Spore formation (d) Regeneration

10. Fertilization in human female occurs in

(a) Fallopian tube (b) Cervix


(c) Uterus (d) Vagina

11. The common passage for both sperms and urine in human male reproductive system is

(a) Bladder (b) Urethra


(c) Vas deferens (d) Testis

12. Bryophyllum reproduces through buds which are produced on


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(a) Root (b) Shoot


(c) Stem (d) Leaf

13. Regeneration occurs in

(a) Planaria (b) Spirogyra


(c) Hydra (d) All the above

14. One of the following disease is transmitted through sexual contact

(a) Cancer (b) AIDS


(c) Tuberculosis (d) Diabetes

15. In human males, puberty is attained at the age of

(a) 13 – 14 years (b) 12 – 13 years


(c) 10 – 12 years (d) 14 – 15 years

16. Which of the following term is associated with asexual reproduction ?

(a) Mitosis (b) Meiosis


(c) Gametes (d) Fertilisation

17. Multiple fission occurs in

(a) Yeast (b) Amoeba


(c) Hydra (d) Plasmodium

18. A duct coming from urinary bladder which carries sperms

(a) Vas deferens (b) Oviduct


(c) Urethra (d) Fallopian tube

19. The portion of plant that is grafted on the other plant is called

(a) Stock (b) Scion


(c) Graft (d) Stump

20. A small portion of Vas deferens is removed in

(a) Vasectomy (b) Tubectomy


(c) IUCD (d) Barrier method

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21. Development of an organism from an egg without fertilization

(a) Syngamy (b) Binary fission


(c) Parthenogenesis (d) Budding

22. The ovary in plants contain

(a) Sepals (b) Ovules


(c) Carpel (d) Pollen grains

23. The common method used for growing rose plant is

(a) Layering (b) Grafting


(c) Cutting (d) Budding

24. Spore formation is the common method of reproduction in

(a) Algae (b) Protozoa


(c) Fungus (d) Bacteria

25. Which one of them is not a part of a flower

(a) Carpel (b) Petal


(c) Sepal (d) Root

26. Pollination is

(a) Transfer of pollens (b) Formation of Pollens


(c) Division of pollens (d) None of these

27. AIDS is caused by a

(a) Bacteria (b) Virus


(c) Fungi (d) Worms

28. The second male gamete in plants fuses with two polar nuclei. This process is called

(a) Fertilization (b) Double fertilization


(c) Triple fusion (d) Pollination

29. “Birth canal” is the common name for

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(a) Cervix (b) Vagina


(c) Urethra (d) Oviduct

30. The commencement of menses in life of human female is called

(a) Menarche (b) Menopause


(c) Ovulation (d) None of these

Match the following Column :


(a) Sexually transmitted disease (1) Gametes
(b) Layering (2) Birth canal
(c) Parthenogenesis (3) Syphilis
(d) Multiple fission (4) Scion and stock
(e) Vagina (5) Bees
(f) Intrauterine contraceptive device (6) Colourful
(g) Primary sex organ in females (7) Plasmodium
(h) Sex cells (8) Jasmine
(i) Petals (9) Ovaries
(j) Grafting (10) Copper-T

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ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a)

6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)


11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)

21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d)

26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)

MATCH THE COLUMN

a. (3) b. (8) c. (5) d. (7) e. (2)


f. (10) g. (9) h. (1) i. (6) j. (4)

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14. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

• Heredity – Transfer of characters from one generation to another.

• Variations – Some changes due to environment or habitat changes.

Gregor Johann Mendel (father of genetics) conducted the following crosses :

Monohybrid cross: Cross-between 2 pea plants with one pair of contrasting characters
Tall/short.

Parents
Tall plant X Short plant
TT tt

F1 generation All Tall plants


Tt
Self pollination
Tt X Tt
F1 F1

F2 generation TT Tt Tt tt
Tall Tall Tall Short

Dihybrid cross: A breeding experiment dealing with two characters at the same time.

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Parental Male pea plant with Female pea plant with


Generation round and yellow wrinkled and green
coloured seeds coloured seeds
RRYY rryy

Gametes RY RY ry ry

F1 Generation RrYy RrYy


All pea plants with
round and yellow
coloured seeds
Plants with round Plants with round
and yellow coloured and yellow coloured
seeds seeds
RrYy RrYy

(Self Pollination)

Gametes RY Ry rY ry RY Ry rY ry

RY Ry rY ry

RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy


Round, yellow Round, yellow Round, yellow Round, yellow

Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy


Round, yellow Round, green Round, yellow Round, green

rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy


Round, yellow Round, yellow Wrinkled, yellow Wrinkled, yellow

ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy


Round, yellow Round, green Wrinkled, yellow Wrinkled, green

F2 Generation Plants with Plants with Plants with Plants with


round and round and green wrinkled and wrinkled and

yellow coloured coloured yellow coloured green coloured


seeds seeds seeds seeds
9 : 3 : 3 : 1

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Mendel's Interpretation

On the basis of monohybrid and dihybrid crosses, Mendel postulated :

Low of segregation Law of dominance Low of independent assortment

Genes (factors) Appearance of only one Inheritance of factors controlling


segregate during of the two contrasting a particular trait in an organism is
gamete formation. traits in F 1 generation. independent of other.

SEX DETERMINATION
Parents Male Female
(Diploid) 22 pairs of autosomes + XY 22 pairs of autosomes + XX

Gametes 22 + X 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + X
(Haploid) chromosomes chromosomes chromosomes chromosomes

Offspring Female child Male child


(Diploid) 22 pairs of autosomes + XX 22 pairs of autosomes + XY

Evolution: Formation of new species from pre-existed organisms which might be quite
different in their physiology, nutrition, habitat etc.

EVIDENCES OF EVOLUTION

Morphological and Embryological Evidences Palaeontological Evidences


Anatomical Evidences

 Homologous organs Similarity among the early The fossil Archaeopteryx is


e.g. forelimbs of a frog, a lizard, embryos shows that all the called a missing link
a bird and a human being. vertebrates have evolved between reptiles and birds.
 Analogous organs from a common ancestor.
e.g. wings of an insect and a
bird.
 Vestigial organs
e.g. vermiform appendix.

Artificial selection: The process by which man selects trait(s) useful to him for
improving the qualities of domesticated plants and animals.

Example of artificial selection: Entirely different looking vegetables like cabbage,


broccoli, cauliflower, kohlrabi and kale from Wild cabbage by artificial selection:

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1. Cabbage : with short distances between leaves.

2. Broccoli : with arrested flower development.

3. Cauliflower : with sterile flowers.

4. Kohlrabi : with swollen parts.

5. Kale : with larger leaves.

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MIND MAP

Heredity Variation
 Refers to the differences shown by the
 Refers to the transmission of characters
individuals of the same species.
from parents to offsprings.

 Gregor Johann Mendel was the first to


explain the principles of inheritance by Genetics
conducting experiments on garden pea
 It is the study of heredity and variation.
plant (Pisum sativum).

 He conducted various crosses such as

HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION


monohybrid crosses and dihybrid
crosses etc. and gave rules for the Speciation
inheritance of traits.  Origin of new species from the existing
one.
 He postulated that there are pair of unit
‘factors’ controlling each character, one
inherited from each parent.
Evolution
 At the time of gamete formation, these  Refers to a gradual change from one
factors segregate so that each gamete form to another since the beginning of
receives only one factor of each life.
character. This is called law of  The most accepted theory of evolution
segregation. now a days is called synthetic theory of
evolution.
 In F1 generation, only one character is
expressed. Mendel called it as dominant
character. The character which was not
Key factors in Modern Concept of
expressed was termed recessive
Evolution
character.
 Genetic variation.
 Based on dihybrid cross, Mendel gave  Natural selection.
law of independent assortment, which  Reproductive isolation.
stated that inheritance of factors
controlling a particular trait in an
organism are independent of each other.
Evidences of Evolution
 Morphological and Anatomical
evidences.
 Embryological evidences.
 Palaeontological evidences.

Acquired Traits
Inherited Traits  Involve changes in non-reproductive
 Are controlled by specific genes. tissues.
 Passed on from one generation to  Are not inherited from one generation
another. to other.

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 25 are of one mark each.

Q. 26 – 32 are of two marks each.

Q. 33 – 38 are of three marks each.

Q. 39 – 41 are of five marks each.

1. What factors could lead to the rise of new species?

2. Name two purine nitrogenous bases present in a DNA molecule.

3. Name two pyrimidine nitrogenous bases present in a DNA molecule.

4. Give examples of analogous organs.

5. Give examples of homologous organs found in plants.

6. What is the modern name given to Mendel's 'factors', which are said to be the carriers of
hereditary information?

7. Name the type of reproduction, which brings variations in the offsprings.

8. Name the pentose sugar present in each nucleotide unit of DNA molecule.

9. How many types of nucleotides are present in the DNA molecule?

10. What is the length of each helical turn of DNA?

11. Which sex chromosomes are heteromorphic?

12. Who gave the biogenetic law?

13. Define ontogeny.

14. How would you briefly explain the biogenetic law?

15. What are fossils?

16. Name the fossil bird, which had characters of both reptiles and birds.

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17. What types of bonds are formed between the nitrogenous bases of two strands of DNA?

18. Which of the following determines the sex of the child: (a) Sperm (b) Egg.

19. Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes produces a male child, XX or
XY?

20. Name the plant on which Mendel performed his experiments.

21. How are two strands of the DNA molecule joined together?

22. What is heredity?

23. Define variation.

24. Define a gene.

25. What is a sex chromosome?

26. What do you understand by evolution and heredity?

27. Define homologous organs. Explain with examples.

28. What does a nucleotide consist of in a DNA molecule?

29. Why is DNA called a polynucleotide?

30. Name one reptile in each case where higher incubation temperature leads to the
development of

(a) male progeny (b) female progeny

31. (i) Name the theory of evolution given by Charles Darwin.

(ii) Give the name of book in which theory of evolution was given by Darwin.

32. Write the names of the components of DNA.

33. How do embryological studies provide evidences for evolution?

34. Why are acquired characters not inheritable?

35. What is artificial selection ? Why is artificial selection beneficial?

36. What are heteromorphic chromosomes and homomorphic chromosomes?

37. Why do the animals have certain useless organs (vestigial organs) in their body?
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38. How analogous organs provide evidence in favour of evolution?

39. What is meant by ‘homologous organs’ and ‘analogous organs’ ? Explain with examples.

40. What do you understand by the term ‘evolution’? State Darwin’s theory of evolution.

41. With the help of an example, explain how variations lead to evolution.

EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

(a) Mendel (b) Lamarck

(c) August Weismann (d) Charles Darwin

2. Which law was put forward by Ernst Haeckel?

(a) Law of inheritance (b) The biogenetic law

(c) Law of dominance (d) Law of segregation

3. DNA was first isolated from the nucleus of pus cells by

(a) Sutton (b) Mendel

(c) F. Meisher (d) August Weismann

4. Which of the following is an example of vestigial organ in man?

(a) Nictitating membrane (b) Incisor tooth

(c) Pancreas (d) Liver

5. The two DNA strands are held together by

(a) peptide bonds (b) covalent bonds

(c) glycosidic bonds (d) hydrogen bonds

6. Which of the following are analogous organs?

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(a) Wings of insect and bird

(b) Forelimbs of frog and bird

(c) Scale of fishes and shell of mollusc

(d) All of these

7. Name the organ, which is vestigial in man but not in bird.

(a) Appendix (b) Caecum

(c) Nictitating membrane (d) All of these

8. Which one is the purine nitrogenous base?

(a) Adenine (b) Cytosine

(c) Thymine (d) None of these

9. The branch of science that deals with transmission of characters from one generation to
other is termed as

(a) genetics (b) heredity

(c) evolution (d) biogenetic law

10. Name the scientist who first coined the term gene?

(a) Mendel (b) Johannsen

(c) August Weismann (d) Boveri

11. How many base pairs are present in one double helical turn of DNA?

(a) 10 (b) 5

(c) 1 (d) 20

12. What is the length of one double helical turn of DNA?

(a) 0.34 nm (b) 34 nm

(c) 3.4 nm (d) 0.034 nm

13. Name the nitrogenous base, which forms pair with adenine.

(a) Guanine (b) Cytosine

(c) Thymine (d) All of these


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14. The remains (or impressions) or dead animals or plants that lived in the remote past are
called

(a) homologous organs (b) analogous organs

(c) vestigial organs (d) fossils

15. The reptile in which high incubation temperature results in male progeny is

(a) a lizard (b) a turtle

(c) a snake (d) a crocodile

16. Besides human beings, XX-XY sex determination mechanism is depicted by

(a) honeybee (b) fruit fly

(c) grasshopper (d) bug

17. Archaeopteryx was having characters of

(a) Invertebrates and vertebrates

(b) Fishes and amphibians

(c) Birds and mammals

(d) reptiles and birds

18. How many chromosomes are present in a human diploid cell?

(a) 48 (b) 46

(c) 8 (d) 2

19. Who provided experimental evidence to support theory of origin of life from inanimate
matter?

(a) Oparin and Haldane (b) Miller and Urey

(c) Watson and Crick (d) Mendel and Darwin

20. Life originated on the primitive earth about

(a) 4.6 billion years ago (b) 4 billion years ago

(c) 3.6 billion years ago (d) 1 billion years ago

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21. Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on

(a) Drosophila (b) Pisum sativum

(c) Escherichia coli (d) All of these

22. Who is known as the father of genetics?

(a) Charles Darwin (b) Gregor J. Mendel

(c) J.B.S. Haldane (d) Morgan

23. Which of the following is a recessive trait in garden pea plant?

(a) Tall stem (b) Wrinkled seeds

(c) Coloured seed coat (d) Round seeds

24. When two hybrids of F1 generation are crossed, the percentage of recessives is

(a) 25 (b) 100

(c) 50 (d) 75

25. One of the following is a correct statement:

(a) Recessive trait can only be expressed in homozygous condition.

(b) Recessive trait can always be expressed in heterozygous condition.

(c) Dominant trait is expressed in homozygous condition.

(d) Dominant trait cannot be expressed in heterozygous condition.

26. Galapagos islands are associated with the name of


(a) Wallace (b) Malthus

(c) Mendel (d) Darwin

27. Genetic drift is a change of

(a) Gene frequency in same generation

(b) Appearance of recessive genes

(c) Gene frequency from one generation to another

(d) None of these

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28. Genetic drift operates only in

(a) Smaller populations (b) Larger populations

(c) Mendelian populations (d) Island populations

29. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plans bearing violet flowers with
short pea plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers but almost
half of them were short. This suggests that the generic make-up of the tall plant can be
depicted as

(a) TTWW (b) TTWW

(c) TtWW (c) TtWw

30. An example of homologous organs is

(a) our arm and a dog's fore-leg (b) our teeth and an elephant's tusks

(c) potato and runner's of grass (d) all of the above

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)

6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)


11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)

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15. OUR ENVIRONMENT

ENVIRONMENT
(Physical and Biological world)

Biotic Component Abiotic Component


 
Living component Non-living component
 
Includes living organisms Includes climatic and edaphic factors

ECOSYSTEM
A self contained unit of living things and
non-living environment.

Biotic component Abiotic component


 
Living component Non-living component
 
Includes producers, consumers, decomposers Includes physical environment

ECOSYSTEMS

Natural Artificial

Aquatic Terrestrial

Fresh W ater Marine Grassland Desert Forest

Lotic Wetlands Upwelling Open


e.g. rivers, e.g. marshes, Regions Oceans
streams swamps

Lentic Coastal Areas


e.g. ponds, lakes e.g. estuaries, coral
reefs, mangroves

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Food chain

Definition Length Trophic level Characteristics

Sequential interlinking of Different food chains Each step or level of  Repeated eating
organisms involving transfer may have two, three, the food chain forms and being eaten.
of food energy from the four or maximum five a trophic level.  Always straight.
producers, through a series trophic levels. .  Unidirectional flow
of organisms with repeated of energy.
eating and being eaten.  Usually 3 or 4
trophic levels.

Trophic Levels : The different trophic levels are producers, primary consumers,
Secondary consumers and tertiary consumers.

Food web

Definition Characteristics
The network of a large  Interlinking of food chains
number of food chains  Never straight
existing in an ecosystem.  Alternative pathways of food availability
 Stable
 Help in checking the overpopulation

Flow of energy

 The ultimate source of entire energy, used by living organisms is the sun.
 Ten Percent Law: Only 10% of energy of one trophic level is transferred to
next higher trophic level.

Biomagnification

The phenomenon that involves progressive increase in concentration of harmful


non-biodegradable chemicals at different tropic levels in a food chain.

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ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS

Waste Disposal Ozone Depletion

 Those substances which can be  Ozone (O3) is triatomic molecule of oxygen.


broken down by natural means  It forms a blanket above earth surface
are bio-degradable substances protecting us from the ultra violet radiations.
and which cannot be broken  Chlorofluorocarbons are the compounds
down are non-biodegradable responsible for thinning of ozone layer and
substances. formation of ozone hole.
 Methods of waste disposal  Harmful effects of Ozone Depletion : skin
include recycling, land fills, cancer, damage to eyes, cataract, damage
composting, incineration and to immune system.
production of biogas.  UNEP succeeded in forging an agreement
between nations to freeze CFC production
at 1986 levels.

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MIND MAP

OUR ENVIRONMENT

Biotic Component Abiotic Component

 

Living component Non-living component

ECOSYSTEM

A self contained unit of living things and non-

Biotic component Abiotic component

 

Living component Non-living component

Food Chain Flow of energy Food Web

A list of organisms showing “who eats  The ultimate source of entire The network of a large number
whom”. In food chain, each step energy, used by living of food chains existing is an
representing an organism forms a organisms is the sun. ecosystem.
trophic level.
 Ten Percent Law: Only 10% of
energy of one trophic level is
transferred to next higher

ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS

Waste Disposal Ozone Depletion

 Ozone (O3) is triatomic molecule of oxygen.

Those substances which can be broken down by natural  It forms a blanket above earth surface protecting us
means are bio-degradable substances and which cannot from the ultra violet radiations.
be broken down are non-biodegradable substances
 Chlorofluorocarbons are the compounds responsible
.Methods of waste disposal include recycling, land fills, for thinning of ozone layer and formation of ozone
composting, incineration and production of biogas. hole.

 UNEP succeeded in forging an agreement between


nations to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 4 are of one mark each.


Q. 5 – 6 are of two marks each.
Q. 7 – 13 are of three marks each.
Q. 14 – 15 are of five marks each.

1. In which year did UNEP succeed in forging an agreement between nations to freeze
CFCs concentration to 1986 level ?

2. In an ecosystem, insects feed on plant matter. Name the trophic level to which the insects
belong ?

3. Name two basic components of an ecosystem.

4. Give reason why ozone layer in the stratosphere is considered useful ?

5. Why plastic bags and containers should not be disposed off by burning ? Give reason.

6. What kind of cups are being used now a days in trains for serving tea / coffee / soup etc.
in our country ?

7. How can we reduce volume of waste ?

8. What are biodegradable pollutants ? Give example.

9. List different modes of solid waste disposal.

10. What is ozone blanket ? How it is being depleted ?

11. Write various characteristics of a food chain.

12. Briefly write various characteristics of a food web.

13. What is ecosystem ? Explain different components of an ecosystem.

14. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level ?

15. Briefly explain the concept of food chain with examples.

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EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following groups contains only biodegradable items ?


(a) Grass, flowers and leather (b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit-peels, cake and plastic (d) Cake, wood and grass.

2. Which of the following constitute a food chain ?


(a) Grass, wheat and mango (b) Grass, goat and human
(c) Goat, cow and elephant (d) Grass, fish and goat

3. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices ?


(a) Carrying cloth-bags to put in purchases while shopping.
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans.
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.
(d) All of the above.

4. Which of the following is non-biodegradable pollutant ?


(a) Sewage (b) Wood
(c) Paper (d) DDT

5. Name the gas which plays major role in global warming.


(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

6. Ozone is depleted by
(a) methane (b) chlorofluorocarbons
(c) carbon dioxide (d) hydrogen sulphide

7. Which of the following does not help in protecting our environment ?


(a) Crop rotation (b) Treatment of sewage
(c) Deforestation (d) Judicious use of fertilizers

8. Which of the following is biodegradable pollutant ?


(a) DDT (b) BHC
(c) Cloth (d) Mercury

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9. Which of the following is a method of waste disposal ?


(a) Landfills (b) Recycling of wastes
(c) Incineration (d) All of these

10. Burning of waste substances usually at high temperature of over 1000°C to convert them
into ashes is called
(a) Eutrophication (b) Incineration
(c) Desertification (d) Saponification

11. On an average, energy transferred, from one trophic level to another is


(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 15% (d) 20%

12. Which of the following belong to the category of primary consumers ?


(a) Insects and cattle (b) Eagle and snakes
(c) Water insects (d) Snakes and frogs

13. Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes a reaction which produces


(a) O3 (b) SO2
(c) CO (d) CH4

14. Frog that feeds on insects is a


(a) primary consumer (b) secondary consumer
(c) tertiary consumer (d) decomposer

15. A rat feeding on potato tuber is


(a) carnivore (b) decomposer
(c) producer (d) primary consumer

16. Biotic factors refer to


(a) Gases produced by industries (b) Nutrient-deficient soils
(c) Living organisms (d) Fossil fuels

17. Nature’s cleaners are


(a) Producers (b) Consumers
(c) Decomposers (d) Carnivores
18. In a food chain, generally maximum numbers are those of
(a) Producers (b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers (d) Tertiary consumers
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19. In a garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers ?


(a) Snakes (b) Insects
(c) Rabbits (d) Grasses, flower plants etc.

20. Ozone blanket is present in which of the following main layers of atmosphere ?
(a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere
(c) Stratosphere (d) Thermosphere

21. A correct food chain is


(a) Producers, herbivores, carnivores (b) Herbivores, producers, carnivores
(c) Producers, carnivores, herbivores (d) Herbivores, carnivores, producers

22. The importance of ecosystem lies in


(a) Flow of energy (b) Cycling of materials
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

23. Of the total amount of energy that passes from one trophic level to another in a food
chain, about 10% is
(a) Transpired (b) Burnt in respiration
(c) Stored in body tissues (d) Lost as heat

24. The term ‘Ecosystem’ was introduced by


(a) Charles Darwin (b) Haldane
(c) Miller (d) Tansley

25. In an ecosystem, various organisms are linked, forming interconnections. Such a


condition is termed as
(a) Food web (b) Food chain
(c) Ecology (d) None of these

26. In a food chain, there is


(a) Bidirectional flow of energy (b) Zig zag flow of energy
(c) Multi directional flow of energy (d) Unidirectional flow of energy

27. Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem ?


(a) Bacteria (b) Humus
(c) Plants (d) Fungi

28. Now a days, which type of cups are being generally used in trains for serving
tea/coffee/soup etc. on daily basis ?
(a) Washable glass cups (b) Washable plastic cups
(c) Disposable paper cups (d) Disposable cups made of clay
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29. The ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem is


(a) Glucose (b) Green plants
(c) Sunlight (d) Protein

30. In a forest ecosystem green plants are


(a) Primary producers (b) Primary consumers
(c) Consumers (d) Decomposers

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)

6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)


11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)

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16. MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

Natural resources: Those living or non-living substances available in the normal


environment which are being exploited for supporting life and meeting human requirements.

Types of Natural Resources


(Based on their abundance and availability)

Inexhaustible resources Exhaustible resources

These resources occur in such These resources are likely to be


abundance that they are not likely finished due to continuous human use.
to be exhausted by human use. These include minerals, fossil fuels, etc.
These include air, clay, sand, tidal Exhaustible resources are of two types:
energy and precipitation (rain).

Renewable Resources. Non-renewable Resources.

These resources can maintain These get exhausted with use


themselves if managed wisely. because they are not recycled
These include forest, crops, or replenished. These include
ground water, wildlife, etc. minerals, fossil fuels, etc.

Conservation: The controlled utilization of natural resources for the benefit of all life so
that it may yield sustainable benefit to the present generation as well as the future generations.

Three R’s of conservation

Reduce Recycle Reuse

Stakeholders
A person with an interest or concern in something is called a stakeholder. There are
four stakeholders when we consider the management of forests:

1. The local people

2. The forest department of the government

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3. The industrialists

4. The nature and wildlife enthusiasts

Role of local people in management of forest

The case of Khejri tree The Chipko Andolan Arabari sal forest

. In 1731, Amrita Devi The Chipko andolan (hug the tree It was started in the Arabari
Bishnoi led a group of movement) originated from an forest range of midnapore
363 persons who incident in a remote village called district. A.K. Banerjee, the
sacrificed their lives ‘Reni’ in Garhwal, high up in the then forest officer involved
for the protection of Himalayas in the early 1970s. The the villagers of the area
Khejri trees in Khejrali women of the village clasped the around the forest in the
village near Jodhpur. tree trunks with their arms, protection of 1272 hectares
preventing them from cutting. of badly degraded sal forest.

Wild life conservation

1. Protection of natural habits

2. Maintenance of wild life in protected areas

 Biosphere reserves

 National parks

 Sanctuaries

3. Protection through legislation

Water pollution: The pollution of river water is caused by dumping of untreated sewage
and industrial wastes into it. There are two parameters to detect this contamination:

(i) The presence of coliform bacteria in river water. The presence of coliform bacteria
indicates its contamination by disease causing organisms.

(ii) If the measurement of pH of river water is below 7, then the river water is
considered polluted.

 A multicrore, Ganga Action Plan, project was launched in 1985 to clean the river Ganga
and make it pollution free.

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Dams: Dams are the large water storing bodies usually built by the government agencies.
This stored water is then allowed to flow downstream at the desired rate.

The problems associated with construction of large dams: These problems can be
categorized into three categories : Social Problems, Economic Problems and
Environmental Problems.

Watershed Management
1. Rain water harvesting: Water harvesting is an age old practice in India. Some of the
ancient water harvesting structures used in different rural regions of our country are :

S. No. Region Water harvesting structure


1. Rajasthan Khadin, Tanks, Nadis
2. Maharashtra Bandharas, Tals
3. M.P. & U.P Bhundhis
4. Bihar Ahars and pynes
5. Himachal Pradesh Kulhs
6. Jammu region Ponds
7. Tamil Nadu Eris (Tanks)
8. Karnataka Kattas
9. Kerela Surangams

2. Treatment of wastewater

3 Storage of water

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MIND MAP

 Natural resources are substances which  Forests are biodiversity hot spots.
are being exploited for supporting life.  A stakeholder is a person with an
 Three R’S – Reduce, Recycle and interest or concern in something.
Reuse can help to save the environment  The four stakeholders for management
in a long term perspective. of forest are the people who live in and
around forest, the forest department of
the Government, the industrialists who
benefit from the factories and the forest
and wildlife activists.

MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

 Water, a basic necessity for all


terrestrial forms of life should be
managed and conserved.
 Coal and petroleum (fossil fuels) are
 Dams are large water storing bodies non-renewable exhaustible resources.
which provide water for irrigation,
hydroelectric generation and continuous  The products obtained by burning coal
water supply to the people in towns and and petroleum are harmful.
cities.
 An alternative to the consumption of
 Water shed management and water fossil fuels can help them last longer.
harvesting are the means of scientific
conservation of fresh water to recharge
ground water levels.

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EXERCISE – I

Q. 1 – 4 are of one mark each.


Q. 5 – 6 are of two marks each.
Q. 7 – 13 are of three marks each.
Q. 14 – 16 are of five marks each

1. What is petroleum ?

2. What is silvi culture ?

3. Who is a stakeholder ?

4. Give an example of non-renewable and exhaustible resources.

5. Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources? What forces would
be working against an equitable distribution of our resources ?

6. Write few uses of forests.

7. Why are forests called biodiversity hotspots?

8. How are dams useful for the society ?

9. The prejudice against the traditional use of forest areas has no basis. Justify this by citing
an example.

10. We saw in this chapter that there are four main stakeholders when it comes to forest and
wild-life. Which among these should have the authority to decide the management of
forest produce? Why do you think so ?

11. What should man do to conserve natural resources ?

12. Give an instance where ordinary people have played a great role in conservation of forest.

13. Write some measures for the conservation of wild-life.

14. Discuss about the various problems created by dams.

15. Discuss the four stakeholders and their role in the management of forests.

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EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following is exhaustible resource?

(a) Precipitation (Rain) (b) Coal

(c) Air (d) Tidal energy

2. Which one of the following is renewable resource ?

(a) Wild life (b) Coal

(c) Natural gas (d) Petroleum

3. Extensive plantation of trees to increase forest cover is

(a) Deforestation (b) Afforestation

(c) Agro-forestry (d) Social forestry

4. The famous movement that started by women of Advnai village in Tehri-Garhwal against
felling of tress

(a) Chipko Movement (b) Appiko Movement

(c) Bishnoi Parks (d) Bahuguna Movement

5. Tracts of land with or without a lake where wild life is not hunted but other activities are
allowed

(a) National Parks (b) Zoos

(c) Sanctuaries (d) Biosphere reserves

6. Large-scale deforestation decreases

(a) Soil erosion (b) Rain fall

(c) Drought (d) Global warming

7. Which one of the following is a multinational resource ?

(a) Forest (b) Minerals


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(c) Air (d) Migratory birds

8. Which factor is mainly responsible for increase in demand of natural resources?

(a) Scientific advancement (b) Use of biodegradable chemicals

(c) Increased human population (d) Environmental pollution

9. Coal and petroleum are

(a) Used in biogas production (b) Fossil fuel

(c) Fuel wood (d) Inorganic fuel resources

10. The chipko Andolan is associated with :

(a) Tigers (b) Turtles

(c) Trees (d) Tomatoes

ANSWERS TO EXERCISE – II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)

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