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1. During a postpartal visit, a client whose infant is now 4 weeks old complains of leg cramps. The nurse
A. Hypercalcemia and tells her to increase her activity.
B. Hypercalcemia and tells her to increase her intake of milk.
C. Hyperkalemia and tells her to see a physician immediately.
D. Hypokalemia and tells her to increase her intake of green leafy vegetables.

2. A 26 year old female is concerned about her first baby who is diagnosed with hydrocephalus. The mother
tells the nurse “I do not feel comfortable caring for my baby at home.” Which of the following would be
MOST appropriate for the nurse to make?
A. “Do you have concerns about the care for your baby at home?”
B. “We have good children doctors who would care for the baby at home.”
C. “What exactly makes you unhappy about your baby going home?”
D. “As a mother you have to try and cope with your baby’s condition at home.”

A 30 year old client is admitted to the operating theatre for surgery for an ectopic pregnancy. The anesthetic
nurse receives her, conducts her assessment and completes the pre-operative checklist. Questions 3 – 8
3. The client complains of dry mouth and drowsiness after receiving some medication prior to leaving the
Accident and Emergency Department for the operating theatre. This is a normal action of what category of
A. Cholinergic
B. Anticholinergic
C. Beta adrenergic
D. Alpha Adrenergic

4. The client expresses concerns about the proposed surgery site, as she loves wearing bikini on the beach.
The nurse reassures her that the proposed operation site will not inhibit that action. This type of incisional
site is called:
A. Midline
B. McBurney’s
C. Paramedion
D. Plannenatier

5. To prevent complication of abdominal surgery, the MOST important post-operative nursing intervention is
A. Monitor vital signs.
B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing.
C. Check the operation site frequently.
D. Check vaginal discharge frequently.

6. A blood urea nitrogen or creatinine screening test is done routinely on parents before surgery to assess the
functioning of the:
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Kidneys

7. The client’s risk of surgical complications is increased if she:

A. Is dehydrated.
B. Is underweight.
C. Is of African descent.
D. Has a history of taking herbal medicines.

8. The client confides in the nurse that she is afraid of not waking up after surgery. A possible nursing
diagnosis for this client is:
A. Fear related to unknown outcome of surgery.
B. Ineffective individual coping related to surgery.
C. Anxiety related to perceived inability to deal with possible pain.
D. Knowledge deficit related to coping with postoperative pain.
9. Which of the following vitamins would the nurse suggest to the antenatal client would BEST aid the
absorption of iron which the client is required to take during pregnancy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K

10. While the nurse is performing physical examination for a multigravida in her third trimester, the client in
protest states “I which I didn’t have to do this every time.” Which of the following would be the nurse’s
BEST response?
A. “Can you tell me the purpose of these visits?”
B. “Do you want to have a healthy pregnancy?”
C. “We need to get baseline information for future visit.”
D. “It will help in monitoring the progress of your pregnancy.”

11. Which of the following nutritional requirements are MOST appropriate for the teenager mother?
A. Calories, fibre, protein and sodium
B. Iron, calcium, protein and vitamins
C. Vitamins, protein and potassium
D. Calories, sodium and fibre

12. Hygiene factors and motivational factors are key concepts in

A. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Goal Setting Theory
D. Herzberg’s two factor theory

13. Theory of bureaucracy in management was proposed by

A. Henry Gantt
B. Max Weber
C. Henry Fayol
D. Peter Ducker

14. A broad statement by which the organization specifies how it will achieve its goals is
A. Vision Statement
B. Mission Statement
C. Policy statement
D. Protocol

15. Self-care deficit theory was proposed by:

A. Virginia Henderson
B. Betty Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Dorothea Orem

16. Which theory defines nursing as the science and practice that expands adaptive abilities and enhances person
and environment transformation?
A. Goal attainment theory
B. Henderson's definition of nursing
C. Roy's adaptation model
D. Faye Glen Abdelah's theory

17. Nursing is therapeutic interpersonal process". This definition was stated by:
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Jean watson
C. Faye Glen Abdelah
D. M. Rogers
18. According to Roy's adapatation theory, which subsystem responds through four cognitive responds through
four cognitive-emotive channels (perceptual and information processing, learning, judgment, and emotion)?
A. Regulator Subsystem
B. Cognator Subsystem
C. Physiologic Mode
D. Self Concept-Group Identity Mode

19. Which level of needs in Maslow’s hierarchy includes love, friendship, intimacy, and family?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Belongingness
D. Safety
E. Physiological

20. In a theory, a statement of relationship between concepts is called

A. Conceptual model
B. Hypothesis
C. Proposition
D. Construct

21. Human Becoming Theory was developed by:

A. Lydia E. Hall
B. Neuman
C. D. Orem
D. Rosemary Parse

22. The nurse in a pediatric health care setting is using Kohlbergs developmental theory for assessment of the
clients. The child is evaluated as having reached Level I, the Preconventional Level. He or she:
a.Makes sure not to be late for school
b.Cleans the blackboards after school for the teacher
c.Runs for school council to change policies
d.Stays away from gangs at school that harass other children

23. Although similarities exist in the different nursing theories, key elements distinguish one from another. The
emphasis of Jean Watsons conceptual model is that:
a.Self-care maintains wholeness.
b.Subsystems exist in dynamic stability.
c.Stimuli disrupt an adaptive system.
d.Caring is central to the essence of nursing.

24. Martha Rogers theory has a framework for practice that includes the:
a.Twenty-one nursing problems within four major client needs
b.Manipulation of the clients environment
c.Seven categories of behavior and behavioral balance
d.Unitary human being in continuous interaction with the environment

25. If the nurse wanted to apply a theory that focused on stress reduction, a theory proposed by which one of the
following individuals should be selected?

26. A nurse who wants to apply a theory that relates to moral development should read more about:
27. The nurse using Eriksons theory to assess a 20-year-old clients developmental status expects to find which
of the following behaviors?
a.Coping with physical and social losses
b.Enjoyment of a sense of freedom and participation in the community
c.Applying themselves to learning productive skills
d.Overcoming a sense of guilt or frustration.

28. The nurse recognizes that Freuds theory approaches development by looking at:
a.Cognitive development
b.Moral reasoning
c.Logical maturity
d.Psychosexual aspects

29.. The nurse working in an adult medical clinic wishes to learn more about a developmental theory that
focuses on the adult years. The nurse investigates different possibilities and selects the theory proposed by:
d.Chess and Thomas

30. Knowledge of the principles of growth and development is important for the nurse to have to better
understand the behaviors and responses of clients from different age groups. The nurse recognizes that which
one of the following statements about growth and development is correct?
a.Development ends with adolescence
b.Growth refers to qualitative events.
c.Developmental tasks are age-related achievements.
d.Cognitive theories focus on emotional development.

31. In Kohlbergs Moral Development theory, an individual who reaches Level II, Conventional Thought, is
expected to exhibit:
a.Absolute obedience to authority
b.Reasoning based on personal gain
c.Personal internalization of others expectations
d.Self-chosen ethical principles, universality, and impartiality

32. The nurse in a pediatric health care setting is using Piaget as a developmental model for assessment of the
clients. Piagets stage of cognitive development in which the child understands the concept of ice becoming
water is seen in:
c.Concrete operations
d.Formal operations

33. Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. The client states that
she is in labor and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care. Which question should the nurse ask
her first?
A. “Do you have any chronic illness?”
B. “Do you have any allergies?”
C. “What is your expected due date?”
D. “Who will be with you during labor?”

34. A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently should the nurse in charge assess
her uterine contractions?
A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes
D. Every 60 minutes
35. A patient is in her last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Vickie should instruct her to notify her primary health
care provider immediately if she notices:
A. Blurred vision
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Increased vaginal mucus
D. Shortness of breath on exertion

36. The nurse in-charge is reviewing a patient’s prenatal history. Which finding indicates a genetic risk factor?
A. The patient is 25 years old
B. The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis
C. The patient was exposed to rubella at 36 weeks’ gestation
D. The patient has a history of preterm labor at 32 weeks’ gestation

37. Sunshine, age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if bacterial infection exists. The
best position to keep her in after the procedure is:
A. prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit.
B. semi-fowler’s so she can watch TV for five hours and be entertained.
C. supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
D. on her right sides to encourage return of CSF

38. A adult female patient is using the rhythm (calendar-basal body temperature) method of family planning. In
this method, the unsafe period for sexual intercourse is indicated by:
A. Return preovulatory basal body temperature
B. Basal body temperature increase of 0.1 degrees to 0.2 degrees on the 2nd or 3rd day of cycle
C. 3 full days of elevated basal body temperature and clear, thin cervical mucus
D. Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz

39. During a nonstress test (NST), the electronic tracing displays a relatively flat line for fetal movement,
making it difficult to evaluate the fetal heart rate (FHR). To mark the strip, the nurse in charge should instruct
the client to push the control button at which time?
A. At the beginning of each fetal movement
B. At the beginning of each contraction
C. After every three fetal movements
D. At the end of fetal movement

40. When evaluating a client’s knowledge of symptoms to report during her pregnancy, which statement would
indicate to the nurse in charge that the client understands the information given to her?
A. “I’ll report increased frequency of urination.”
B. “If I have blurred or double vision, I should call the clinic immediately.”
C. “If I feel tired after resting, I should report it immediately.”
D. “Nausea should be reported immediately.”

41. When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit, the nurse discovers that the client had a reduction
mammoplasty. The mother indicates she wants to breast-feed. What information should the nurse give to this
mother regarding breastfeeding success?
A. “It’s contraindicated for you to breastfeed following this type of surgery.”
B. “I support your commitment; however, you may have to supplement each feeding with formula.”
C. “You should check with your surgeon to determine whether breast-feeding would be possible.”
D. “You should be able to breastfeed without difficulty.”

42. Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the client’s vagina reveals a fourth-degree laceration.
Which of the following would be contraindicated when caring for this client?
A. Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours
B. Instructing the client to use two or more peri pads to cushion the area
C. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered
D. Instructing the client about the importance of perineal (Kegel) exercises
43. A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal clinic. Although she is 14 weeks pregnant, the size of her uterus
approximates that in an 18- to 20-week pregnancy. Dr. Charles diagnoses gestational trophoblastic disease and
orders ultrasonography. The nurse expects ultrasonography to reveal:
A. An empty gestational sac.
B. Grapelike clusters.
C. A severely malformed fetus.
D. An extrauterine pregnancy.

44. After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse-midwife determines that the
fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at (–1) station. Based on these findings, the nurse-midwife
knows that the fetal presenting part is:
A. 1 cm below the ischial spines.
B. Directly in line with the ischial spines.
C. 1 cm above the ischial spines.
D. In no relationship to the ischial spines.

45. Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in a mother who’s breastfeeding?
A. The attachment of the baby to the breast.
B. The mother’s comfort level with positioning the baby.
C. Audible swallowing.
D. The baby’s lips smacking

46. During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation, a pregnant client asks whether tests can be done to identify
fetal abnormalities. Between 18 and 40 weeks gestation, which procedure is used to detect fetal anomalies?
A. Amniocentesis.
B. Chorionic villi sampling.
C. Fetoscopy.
D. Ultrasound

47. A client, 30 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP) to evaluate the health of her fetus.
Her BPP score is 8. What does this score indicate?
A. The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours.
B. The client should repeat the test in 24 hours.
C. The fetus isn’t in distress at this time.
D. The client should repeat the test in 1 week.

48. A client who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the client’s
preparation for parenting, the nurse might ask which question?
A. “Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia?”
B. “Have you begun prenatal classes?”
C. “What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby?”
D. “Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day?”

49. While working in the Emergency Department, the nurse is planning care for the client who has been
admitted with a burn injury. Which of the following areas will be included in the plan of care?
A. Fluid management
B. Nutrition
C. Psychosocial support
D. Fluid resuscitation

50. The physician has ordered the cleansing of a burn injury to a client’s ear. After cleaning the wound, which
of the following steps should be completed next?
A. Cover the ear with a sterile dressing.
B. Provide a soft pillow to cushion the area.
C. Use a foam doughnut to reduce pressure to the area.
D. Place cotton gauze between the head and the ear to reduce the incidence of adhesions.
51. A client who has experienced a burn injury has been brought to the Emergency Department by family
members. Which of the following interventions by the nurse is of the highest priority at this time?
A. Determination of the type of burn injury
B. Determination of the types of home remedies attempted prior to the client’s coming to the hospital
C. Assessment of past medical history
D. Determination of body weight

52. A client is scheduled to undergo grafting to a burn injury to the arm. Which of the following statements by
the nurse should be included in the teaching prior to the procedure?
A. “You will need to report any itching, as it might signal infection.”
B. “Performing the procedure near the end of the hospitalization will reduce the incidence of infection and
improve success of the procedure.”
C. “The procedure will be performed in your room.”
D. “You will begin to perform exercises to promote flexibility and reduce contractures after five days.”

53. When evaluating the laboratory values of the burn-injured client, which of the following can be anticipated?
A. Elevated hemoglobin and elevated hematocrit levels
B. Elevated hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit levels
C. Decreased hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit levels
D. Decreased hemoglobin and elevated hematocrit levels

54. The burn-injured client has been prescribed silver nitrate. Which of the following nursing interventions
should be included for the client?
A. Monitor daily weight.
B. Prepare to change the dressings every two hours.
C. Report black skin discolorations.
D. Push fluid intake.

55. The nurse is evaluating the adequacy of the burn-injured client’s nutritional intake. Which of the following
laboratory values is the best indicator of nutritional status?
A. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)
B. BUN levels
C. Glycosuria
D. Hemoglobin

56. When monitoring the vital signs of the client who has experienced a major burn injury, the nurse notes a
heart rate of 112 and a temperature of 99.9°F. Which of the following best describes the findings?
A. The client is demonstrating manifestations consistent with the onset of an infection.
B. The client is demonstrating manifestations consistent with an electrolyte imbalance.
C. These values are normal for the client’s post–burn injury condition.
D. The client is demonstrating manifestations consistent with renal failure.

57. A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse
prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by:
A. Warming the crib pad
B. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
C. Closing the doors to the room
D. Drying the infant in a warm blanket

58. A nurse is assessing a newborn infant following circumcision and notes that the circumcised area is red with
a small amount of bloody drainage. Which of the following nursing actions would be most appropriate?
A. Document the findings
B. Contact the physician
C. Circle the amount of bloody drainage on the dressing and reassess in 30 minutes
D. Reinforce the dressing
59. A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm newborn infant for respiratory distress syndrome.
Which assessment signs if noted in the newborn infant would alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome?
A. Hypotension and Bradycardia
B. Tachypnea and retractions
C. Acrocyanosis and grunting
D. The presence of a barrel chest with grunting

60. A nurse in a newborn nursery is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. The nurse is preparing to
measure the head circumference of the infant. The nurse would most appropriately:
A. Wrap the tape measure around the infant’s head and measure just above the eyebrows.
B. Place the tape measure under the infants head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the front just above
the eyes
C. Place the tape measure under the infants head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just above the eyes
D. Place the tape measure at the back of the infant’s head, wrap around across the ears, and measure across the
infant’s mouth.

61. A postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn infant with hyperbilirubinemia who
is being breastfed. The nurse provides which most appropriate instructions to the mother?
A. Switch to bottle feeding the baby for 2 weeks
B. Stop the breast feedings and switch to bottle-feeding permanently
C. Feed the newborn infant less frequently
D. Continue to breast-feed every 2-4 hours

62. A nurse on the newborn nursery floor is caring for a neonate. On assessment the infant is exhibiting signs of
cyanosis, tachypnea, nasal flaring, and grunting. Respiratory distress syndrome is diagnosed, and the physician
prescribes surfactant replacement therapy. The nurse would prepare to administer this therapy by:
A. Subcutaneous injection
B. Intravenous injection
C. Instillation of the preparation into the lungs through an endotracheal tube
D. Intramuscular injection

63. A nurse is assessing a newborn infant who was born to a mother who is addicted to drugs. Which of the
following assessment findings would the nurse expect to note during the assessment of this newborn?
A. Sleepiness
B. Cuddles when being held
C. Lethargy
D. Incessant crying

64. A nurse prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The mother asks the nurse why her
newborn infant needs the injection. The best response by the nurse would be:
A. “You infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity.”
B. “The vitamin K will protect your infant from being jaundiced.”
C. “Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your infant from abnormal
D. “Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in the bowel.”

65. A nurse in a newborn nursery receives a phone call to prepare for the admission of a 43-week-gestation
newborn with Apgar scores of 1 and 4. In planning for the admission of this infant, the nurse’s highest priority
should be to:
A. Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet
B. Turn on the apnea and cardiorespiratory monitors
C. Set up the intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water
D. Set the radiant warmer control temperature at 36.5* C (97.6*F)

66. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle site?
A. Deltoid
B. Triceps
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Biceps
67. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for administering erythromycin
ointment into the eyes if a neonate. The instructor determines that the student needs to research this procedure
further if the student states:
A. “I will cleanse the neonate’s eyes before instilling ointment.”
B. “I will flush the eyes after instilling the ointment.”
C. “I will instill the eye ointment into each of the neonate’s conjunctival sacs within one hour after birth.”
D. “Administration of the eye ointment may be delayed until an hour or so after birth so that eye contact and
parent-infant attachment and bonding can occur.”

68. A baby is born precipitously in the ER. The nurses initial action should be to:
A. Establish an airway for the baby
B. Ascertain the condition of the fundus
C. Quickly tie and cut the umbilical cord
D. Move mother and baby to the birthing unit

69. The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the:

A. Heart rate
B. Respiratory rate
C. Presence of meconium
D. Evaluation of the Moro reflex

70. When performing a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital signs in the following sequence:
A. Pulse, respirations, temperature
B. Temperature, pulse, respirations
C. Respirations, temperature, pulse
D. Respirations, pulse, temperature

71. Within 3 minutes after birth the normal heart rate of the infant may range between:
A. 100 and 180
B. 130 and 170
C. 120 and 160
D. 100 and 130

72. The expected respiratory rate of a neonate within 3 minutes of birth may be as high as:
A. 50
B. 60
C. 80
D. 100

73. The nurse is aware that a healthy newborn’s respirations are:

A. Regular, abdominal, 40-50 per minute, deep
B. Irregular, abdominal, 30-60 per minute, shallow
C. Irregular, initiated by chest wall, 30-60 per minute, deep
D. Regular, initiated by the chest wall, 40-60 per minute, shallow

74. To help limit the development of hyperbilirubinemia in the neonate, the plan of care should include:
A. Monitoring for the passage of meconium each shift
B. Instituting phototherapy for 30 minutes every 6 hours
C. Substituting breastfeeding for formula during the 2nd day after birth
D. Supplementing breastfeeding with glucose water during the first 24 hours

75. A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots over the nose, which the nurse knows are caused by retained
sebaceous secretions. When charting this observation, the nurse identifies it as:
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Whiteheads
D. Mongolian spots
76. When newborns have been on formula for 36-48 hours, they should have a:
A. Screening for PKU
B. Vitamin K injection
C. Test for necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Heel stick for blood glucose level

77. Which of the following order of stages in the staffing process should the nurse manager use to address the
staffing problem?
A. Planning, selecting, placement, interviewing
B. Planning, interviewing, selecting, placement
C. Placement, planning, interviewing, selecting
D. Interviewing, placement, selecting, planning

78. The hospital is having a problem with healthcare-associated infections. A committee has been established to
study the problem and make recommendations. The nurse working on the committee knows that this work
addresses what?
A. Inpatient quality indicators
B. Prevention quality indicators
C. National Patient Safety Goals
D. Patient safety indicators

79. Which of the following factors would most likely enhance verbal communication?
i. Intonation and choice for words
ii. Personal appearance and public distance
iii. Clarity of speech and simplicity of content
iv. Same language and geographical location
A. i, ii
B. i, iii
C. ii, iv
D. iii, iv

80. The nurse finds a woman crying after she has undergone a dilation and evacuation (D&E) for a missed
abortion. What is the most appropriate statement by the nurse?
a. There is usually something wrong with the fetus when this happens early in pregnancy.
b. Now there. You can try to conceive on your next cycle.
c. I’m here if you need to talk.
d. You are young and strong. I know you can have a healthy pregnancy.

81. A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant becomes concerned when she has light vaginal bleeding accompanied
by abdominal pain. An ectopic pregnancy is confirmed by ultrasound. Which statement indicates that the
woman understands the explanation of an ectopic pregnancy?
a. The chorionic villi develop vesicles within the uterus.
b. The placenta develops in the lower part of the uterus.
c. The fetus dies in the uterus during the first half of the pregnancy.
d. The embryo is implanted in the fallopian tube.

82. What symptom presented by a pregnant women is indicative of abruptio placentae?

a. Painless vaginal bleeding
b. Uterine irritability with contractions
c. Vaginal bleeding and back pain
d. Premature rupture of membranes

83. Give instructions for a breast self examination is particularly important for clients with which of the following
medical problems?
a. Cervical dysplasia
b. A dermoid cyst
c. Lung
d. Stomach
84. What situation would concern the nurse about the presence of Rh incompatibility?
a. Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus
b. Rh-positive mother, Rh-negative fetus
c. Rh-negative mother, Rh-negative fetus
d. Rh-positive mother, Rh-positive fetus

85. A primigravida in her first trimester is Rh negative. What will this woman receive to prevent anti-Rh
antibodies from forming?
a. Rh immune globulin during labor
b. Intrauterine transfusions with O-negative blood
c. Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after the birth of an Rh-positive infant
d. Rh immune globulin now and again in the last trimester

86. Why does the woman taking oral hypoglycemic agents to control diabetes mellitus need to take insulin
during pregnancy?
a. Insulin can cross the placental barrier to the fetus.
b. Insulin does not cross the placental barrier to the fetus.
c. Oral agents do not cross the placenta.
d. Oral agents are not sufficient to meet maternal insulin needs.

87. A pregnant woman comes to the clinic stating that she has been exposed to hepatitis B. She is afraid that her
infant will also contract hepatitis B. What will the nurse explain to this woman?
a. The infant will be given a single dose of hepatitis immune globulin after birth.
b. The infant will be able to use the antibodies from the immunizations given to the patient before delivery.
c. The infant will not have hepatitis B because the virus does not pass through the placental barrier.
d. The infant will be immune to hepatitis B because of the mother’s infection.

88. A nurse is planning a teaching session for a group of adolescents. The nurse understands that by adolescence
the individual is in which stage of cognitive development?
a. Formal operations
b. Concrete operations
c. Conventional thought
d. Post-conventional thought

89. Which aspect of cognition develops during adolescence?

a. Capability to use a future time perspective
b. Ability to place things in a sensible and logical order
c. Ability to see things from the point of view of another
d. Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason

90. Parents are concerned about the number of hours their teenage daughter spends with peers. The nurse
explains that peer relationships are important during adolescence for which reason?
a. Adolescents dislike their parents.
b. Adolescents no longer need parental control.
c. They provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging.
d. They promote a sense of individuality in adolescents.

91. An adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had homosexual feelings. The nurses response should
be based on knowledge that:
a. this indicates the adolescent is homosexual.
b. this indicates the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult.
c. the adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy.
d. the adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences.

92. Which best describes acute glomerulonephritis?

a. Occurs after a urinary tract infection
b. Occurs after a streptococcal infection
c. Associated with renal vascular disorders
d. Associated with structural anomalies of genitourinary tract
93. A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should expect the urinalysis during this acute
phase to show:
a. bacteriuria, hematuria.
b. hematuria, proteinuria.
c. bacteriuria, increased specific gravity.
d. proteinuria, decreased specific gravity.

94. A mother asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis is improving. The
nurses best response should be that the:
a. blood pressure will stabilize.
b. the child will have more energy.
c. urine will be free of protein.
d. urinary output will increase.

95. The nurse notes that a child has lost 8 pounds after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis.
This is most likely the result of:
a. poor appetite.
b. increased potassium intake.
c. reduction of edema.
d. restriction to bed rest.

96. The nurse is teaching the parent about the diet of a child experiencing severe edema associated with acute
glomerulonephritis. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. You will need to decrease the number of calories in your child’s diet.
b. Your child’s diet will need an increased amount of protein.
c. You will need to avoid adding salt to your child’s food.
d. Your child’s diet will consist of low-fat, low-carbohydrate foods.

97. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis?
a. Risk for Injury related to malignant process and treatment
b. Fluid Volume Deficit related to excessive losses
c. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration
d. Fluid Volume Excess related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces

98. The nurse is admitting a child with a Wilm’s tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with
this tumor?
a. Abdominal swelling
b. Weight gain
c. Hypotension
d. Increased urinary output

99. A client with a history of suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for one month. The client
suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9 out of 10 and is much more communicative. Which
action should be the nurse’s PRIORITY at this time?
A. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement.
B. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group.
C. Increase the level of this client’s suicide precaution.
D. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.

100. A nurse reviews the laboratory data of a client suspected of having the diagnosis of major depressive
episode. Which lab value would potentially rule out this diagnosis?
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 25 U/mL
B. Potassium (K+) level of 4.2 mEq/L
C. Sodium (Na+) level of 140 mEq/L
D. Calcium (Ca2+) level of 9.5 mg/dL

1. C 51. A
2. C 52. D
3. B 53. D
4. D 54. A
5. B 55. C
6. D 56. C
7. D 57. D
8. A 58. A
9. C 59. C
10. D 60. C
11. B 61. D
12. D 62. C
13. B 63. D
14. B 64. C
15. D 65. A
16. C 66. C
17. A 67. B
18. B 68. A
19. C 69. A
20. C 70. D
21. D 71. C
22. A 72. B
23. D 73. B
24. D 74. A
25. C 75. A
26. A 76. A
27. B 77. B
28. D 78. C
29. A 79. B
30. C 80. C
31. C 81. D
32. C 82. C
33. C 83. C
34. B 84. A
35. A 85. C
36. B 86. B
37. C 87. A
38. C 88. A
39. A 89. A
40. B 90. C
41. B 91. D
42. B 92. B
43. B 93. B
44. C 94. D
45. D 95. C
46. D 96. C
47. C 97. C
48. C 98. A
49. D 99. C
50. C 100. A