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1. During dialysis, the nurse observes that the flow of dialysate stops before all the solution
has drained out. The nurse should:
A. Have the client sit in a chair
B. Turn the client from side to side
C. Reposition the peritoneal catheter
D. Have the client walk

2. The nurse is developing a discharge plan for a client who has had a myocardial infarction.
Planning for discharge for this client should begin
A. On discharge from the hospital
B. On discharge from the cardiac unit
C. On admission to the hospital
D. 4 weeks after the onset of illness

3. A community nurse teaches the female students how to prevent pelvic inflammatory
disease. The nurse tells the students:
A. To douche monthly
B. To avoid single sexual partners
C. To avoid unprotected intercourse
D. To consult with a gynaecologist regarding the placement of an intrauterine device (IUD)

4. Which of the following is the MOST common initial manifestation of acute renal failure?
A. Dysuria
B. Anuria
C. Hematuria
D. Oliguria
5. All is not well in the unit. Staff morale and patient satisfaction are at an all-time low.
Which of the following actions should be the IMMEDIATE priority of the newly
appointed nurse manager?
A. Organize a staff meeting and place the issues on the agenda
B. Seek help and support from higher-level management
C. Develop a strategic plan to deal with the issues
D. Observe the situation for a few months then take action

6. The SEQUENTIAL functions of management are:

A. Evaluating , planning, organizing and controlling
B. Directing, planning, organizing and controlling
C. Planning, organizing, controlling and evaluating
D. Planning, directing, controlling and organizing

7. Which of the following are important qualities that a counsellor should possess?
A. Persistence, empathy, adviser
B. Sympathy, persistence and good listener
C. Concern for others, good listener, sympathy
D. Good listener, empathy and concern for others

8. Which of the following is not suitable method of evaluating the effectiveness of patient
teaching/learning activities on the ward?
A. Written tests
B. Role playing
C. Open discussion
D. Verbal feedback

9. All of the following statements describe primary health care EXCEPT that it is the
A. First element of a continuing health care process
B. Main strategy for addressing health problems in the community
C. System used to ensure that all persons receive quality health care
D. First level of contact of individual, the family and community with the national health
care system.

10. The patient’s response reflects a breakdown in which aspect of the communication
A. Source
B. Receiver
C. Message
D. Feedback

11. Which of the following leadership styles is BEST, if there is time to make decision?
A. Situational
B. Autocratic
C. Democratic
D. Laissez-faire

12. Which of the following assessments would be MOST appropriate for the nurse to make
while the dialysis solution is dwelling within the client’s abdomen?
A. Assess for urticarial
B. Observe respiratory
C. Check capillary refill time
D. Monitor electrolyte

13. The nurse asks a patient to breathe into a paper bag in order to correct the problem of
hyperventilation. This is done because
A. CO2 content in the blood will be reduced
B. This leads to a reduction of oxygen, causing the diaphragm to relax
C. It facilitates an increase in the oxygen saturation level of the blood
D. It increases CO2 which stimulates the brain and causes depression of the respiratory
14. All of the following objectives are CRITICAL to the development of patient education
programmes EXCEPT:
A. Reduction in the cost of patient care
B. Improvement in the standard of health care
C. Facilitation of the development of self-care skills
D. Encouragement of active participation in planning his care

15. Which of the following seating arrangements is MOST appropriate for a counselling
A. The counsellor sits at her desk with the counselee lying on a couch
B. The counsellor sits at her desk with the counselee on the opposite side of the desk
C. The counsellor and the counselee sit at one side of the desk half facing each other
D. The counsellor and the counselee sit away from the desk, at an angle, facing each other

16. The nurse finds a client lying on the floor next to the bed. After returning the client to
bed, assessing for injury and notifying the primary care provider, the nurse fills out an
incident report. Which of the following is the nurse’s NEXT action?
A. Give the incident report to the nurse-manager
B. Place the incident report on the chart
C. Call the family to inform them
D. Omit mentioning the fall in the chart documentation

17. The student knows that for any organization to function effectively its members need to
understand the
A. Functions of the manager
B. Mission of the organization
C. Management tends to be used
D. Resources available to the organization
18. Which of the following interventions should the Nurse implement before beginning a
teaching session with the patient?
i. Seat the patient comfortably
ii. State specific objectives for the talk
iii. Set a specific time limit for the talk
iv. Encourage the patient to verbalize her needs
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iv
C. i, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv

19. Which of the following characteristics of primary health care are identified by the World
Health Organization?
i. Accessible
ii. Affordable
iii. Adaptable
iv. Acceptable
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iv
C. i, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv

20. Which of the following would be important to include in the teaching plan for the client
who wants more information on ovulation and fertility management?
A. The ovum survives for 96 hours after ovulation, making conception possible during this
B. The basal body temperature falls at least 0.2 F (0.17 C) after ovulation has occurred
C. Ovulation usually occurs on day 14, plus or minus 2 days, before the onset of the next
menstrual cycle
D. Most women can tell they have ovulated because of severe pain and thick, scant cervical
Scenario- A 16 year old admitted with sickle cell crisis (Q-21-23)

21. Which of the following is not a symptom of sickle cell disease?

A. Fever
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea and cough
D. Nausea and vomiting

22. What is the highest priority nursing care treatment during the sickle cell crisis?
A. Blood transfusion and iron supplement
B. Transfusion of WBCs treated to decrease immunogenicity
C. Aggressive pain medication and oxygen therapy
D. Platelet concentrated transfusion and albumin

23. The formation of the red blood cells production are stimulated from

A. Granulocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Erythropoietin
D. Hemolysis

24. A child with a diagnosis of a hernia has been scheduled for a surgical repair in 2 weeks.
The nurse reinforces instructions to the parents about the signs of possible hernial
strangulation. The nurse tells the parents that which manifestation requires the health care
provider notification?
A. Fever
B. Diarrhea
C. Vomiting
D. Constipation
25. A nurse preparing the environment on the ward discovers an expensive watch. What
should the nurse do next?
A. Contact the last patient who occupied the bed
B. Give the nurse manager the watch
C. Ask the nurse manager if any patient reported a loss watch
D. Place the watch in a bag and in the cupboard

26. A newly RN was assigned a new procedure by the nurse manager. The RN never did the
procedure which was not the scope of her practice. What is the RN response to this?
A. Ask a nurse to demonstrate the procedure
B. Read the procedure manual then ask for supervision while doing it
C. Observe another nurse do the procedure
D. Try the procedure on her own

27. A patient on digoxin 0.125mg for 3 months. As the nurse is about to administer the drug,
the patient gets confuse with tremors. What is the priority nursing care?

A. Take the patient pulse

B. Call the doctor
C. Withhold the drug
D. Take vital signs

28. A 36 year old patient admitted with acute asthma exacerbation. What is best treatment
when caring for this hospitalized patient?

A. Antibiotics
B. Antitussins
C. Rescue Inhalers
D. Corticosteroids
29. What are the typical ECG changes seen during a myocardial Infarction?

A. Q wave, ST segment depression and normal QRS

B. T wave inversion, elevated ST segment and abnormal QRS
C. Peak P wave and elevated ST segment and emergent U wave
D. Tall T wave, elevated ST segment and abnormal QRS

30. What is the initial post operative nursing intervention for a patient immediately following
a permanent pacemaker?

A. Check the patient vital signs

B. Assess the patient respiration
C. Check the site for bleeding
D. Check the patient’s heart rate

31. A patient admitted with a sprain ankle over 12 hours. He asks the nurse for a heating pad
to place on his ankle. What is the priority for the nurse to implement?
A. Give the patient the heating pad
B. Administer prescribe antipyretic
C. Give the patient a cold pack
D. Alternate heat pad and then the cold pack

32. A three-day-old infant admitted for jaundice. When the jaundice appeared? (SCENARIO
FOR 32-34)

A. Started at 24 hours to 1-2 days

B. Started at 24 hours to 3-6 days
C. Started at 24 hours to 2-4 days
D. Started at 24 hours to 4-8 days
33. Which of the following will be used to treat jaundice?
A. Sunlight
B. Bili blanket
C. Phototherapy
D. Breastfeeding

34. A primigravida is breastfeeding her newly born infant. She asked the nurse, “How will I
know if my baby is getting enough feed?” The nurse response to this will be

A. The infant will have 6-8 wet diapers per day

B. The infant will fall asleep while breastfeeding
C. The infant will wake up every 4-6 hours between feedings
D. The infant will pass stool twice per day

35. A community nurse was called to delivery an emergency birth in the community where

she lives. Upon arrival she saw the baby already born with the placenta attached. What

should the nurse do first?

A. Wrap the baby in a blanket

B. Cut the baby umbilical cord

C. Call and wait for the EMH

D. Tell the mother to breastfeed the infant

36. Which of the following order of stages in the staffing process should the nurse manager

use to address the staffing problem?

A. Planning, selecting, placement, interviewing

B. Planning, interviewing, selecting, placement

C. Placement, planning, interviewing, selecting

D. Interviewing, placement, selecting, planning

37. Management by objectives in Nursing Department is a technique that includes which of

the following?

i Team approach

ii Trial and error

iii Identification of resources

iv Pre-determined objectives and activities

A. i, ii, iii

B. i, ii, iv

C. i, iii, iv

D. ii, iii, iv

38. Which of the following factors would most likely enhance verbal communication?

i. Intonation and choice for words

ii Personal appearance and public distance

iii. Clarity of speech and simplicity of content

iv, Same language and geographical location

A. i, ii

B. i, iii

C. ii, iv

D. iii, iv
Scenario- A three year child is brought to the Health Center by his grandmother stated that she

was in the kitchen and realized that he was unusually quiet. When she investigated she became

worried because he was lying on the floor looking next to him was an empty Calpol

(Paracetamol) syrup bottle. The child admitted to having drunk the syrup from the bottle, which

contain a small amount. (Q- 39-42)

39. In which order of PRIORITY should the following nursing interventions be carried out

on the child’s arrival at the Health Center?

i. Check his hydration status

ii. Take and record his vital signs

iii. Check his level of consciousness

iv. Take a brief history from family members

A. iii, iv, ii, i

B. ii, iii, iv, i
C. i, iii, ii, iv
D. iv, iii, i, ii

40. Which of the following factors MUST be taken into consideration before commencing
treatment for this child?
i. Drug toxicity levels in the blood
ii. Time interval after ingesting drug
iii. Amount of drug which has been taken
iv. Treatment administered before arrival
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iv
C. i, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv
41. Which of the following signs would the child manifest as a result of Paracetamol
A. Irritability, anuria, nausea, tachycardia
B. Nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, malaise
C. Wheezing, seizures, nausea, bradycardia
D. Seizures, abdominal pain, nausea, oliguria

42. Which of the following measures are MOST likely to reduce the child’s anxiety is in the
Health Center?
i. Approach him quietly and calmly
ii. Let his family member stay with him
iii. Allow family member to verbalize fears
iv. Give simple explanations for procedures
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iv
C. i, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv

43. A female patient 26years of age with severe anaemia is in urgent need for blood
transfusion. She is a Jehovah's Witness and refuses the blood transfusion because of
religious belief. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be MOST
appropriate at this time?
A. Advise the patient to speak with her relatives before making a decision
B. Inform the patient of the alternatives that can be used instead of blood
C. Tell the patient to consult with her doctor before making a decision
D. Explain to the patient’s the consequences for her refusal
44. A 34 year old patient admitted with a history of seizure. In the tonic-clonic phase, the
nurse turns the patient on his side and administered anti-seizure medication
intravenously. What should the nurse do next?
A. Protect the patient head during the seizure
B. Stay with the patient until seizure has passed
C. Retrain the patient during the seizure
D. Place a spoon in patient’s mouth during seizure

45. A 46 year old male patient is being treated for second and third degree scald burns on his
anterior torso, upper limbs and anterior thighs.
Calculate the percent of TBSA for this patient
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 36%
D. 54%

46. What is the initial nursing intervention during the emergent phase?
A. Fluid resuscitation
B. Pain management
C. Infectious control
D. Psychosocial care

47. What type of crystalloid solution is used for fluid replacement regimen?
A. Normal saline
B. Lactated ringers
C. Dextrose
D. Albumin
48. What type of immunization is given to this patient with burns?
A. Haemophilias Influenza type b (Hib)
B. Pneumococcal vaccine
C. Tetanus Toxoid
D. Varicella vaccine

49. What is the drug classification for haloperidol (halodol)?

A. Anti-seizure
B. Anti-depressant
C. Barbiturate
D. Anti-psychotic

50. What are the common side effects of haloperidol?

A. Diarrhoea, vomiting and dehydration
B. Dry mouth, constipation and insomnia
C. Fever, headache and upset stomach
D. Weight gain, restlessness and constipation


1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. C 26. B 41. B
12. B 27. A? 42. B
13. D 28. C 43. B
14. A 29. D 44. B
15. D 30. C? 45. C
16. D 31. C 46. A
17. B 32. B 47. B
18. A 33. C 48. C
19. B 34. A 49. D
20. C 35. ? 50. B
21. D 36. B
22. C 37. C
23. C 38. B
24. C 39. A
25. C 40. D