ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING
14. DURING TAKE-OFF AND LANDING, THE RAM AIR
ATA 21- AIR CONDITIONING
1. THE PURPOSE OF THE PACK IS:
A. To regulate hot air pressure.
B. To adjust the temperature in the three zones.
C. To regulate basic temperature.
2. THE FUNCTION OF EACH PACK CONTROLLER IS:
A. To control the corresponding pack and flow control valve.
B. To control the trim air valves.
C. To control the zone controller.
3. THE PURPOSE OF THE ZONE CONTROLLER IS:
A. To control zones temperature.
B. To control the flow control valves.
C. To control the packs.
4. HOW IS THE BASIC TEMPERATURE REGULATED BY
THE ZONE CONTROLLER IS?
A. By using the lowest zone temperature demand.
B. By using the temperature demanded in the three zones.
C. By using the highest zone temperature demand.
5. THE FUNCTION OF THE TRIM AIR VALVE IS:
A. To optimize the zone temperature by adding cold air.
B. To optimize the zone temperature by adding hot air.
C. To regulate the hot air pressure.
6. PACK FLOW CONTROL VALVE IS:
A. Hydraulically operated and electrically controlled.
B. Pneumatically operated and electrically controlled.
C. Electrically operated and electrically controlled.
7. IN CASE OF PACK COMPRESSOR OVERHEAT, THE
PACK FLOW CONTROL VALVE STARTS:
A. To close electrically
B. To open pneumatically.
C. To close pneumatically.
8. WHEN ENGINE START:
A. Pack Flow Control Valve is stayed previous position.
B. Corresponding pack Flow Control Valve is automatically closed.
C. Corresponding pack Flow Control Valve still open.
9. THE TURBINE DRIVES:
A. The compressor and the cooling air fan.
B. The compressor.
C. The cooling air fan.
10. BLEED AIR IS DUCTED TO:
A. The primary heat exchanger.
B. The compressor.
C. The main heat exchanger.
11. THE MAIN PURPOSE OF THE ANTI-ICE VALVE IS:
A. To stop ice formation across the main heat exchanger.
B. To stop ice formation across the primary heat exchanger.
C. To stop ice formation across the pack condenser.
12. THE PURPOSE OF THE BYPASS VALVE IS:
A. To increase the air flow to the turbine stage.
B. To modulate the pack discharge temperature.
C. To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage.
13. THE PURPOSE OF THE RAM AIR INLET FLAP IS:
A. To ensure cabin ventilation in case both packs fail.
B. To provide air to the pack compressor.
C. To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers.
INLET FLAP IS:
A. Fully open to increase air flow into heat exchangers.
B. Fully closed to prevent ingestion of foreign objects.
C. Modulated to close.
15. WHEN ENGINE FIRE PUSHBUTTON RELEASED OUT:
A. The pack Flow Control Valve is electrically controlled to close.
B. The pack Flow Control Valve is pneumatically controlled to
close.
C. The pack Flow Control Valve is electrically controlled to
modulate.
16. WHEN DITCHING PUSHBUTTON SET TO ON:
A. The pack Flow Control Valve is electrically controlled to close.
B. The pack Flow Control Valve is pneumatically controlled to
close.
C. The pack Flow Control Valve remain open.
17. IN CASE OF LACK OF AIR PRESSURE:
A. The pack Flow Control Valve remain open.
B. The pack Flow Control Valve is pneumatically controlled to
close.
C. The pack Flow Control Valve is electrically controlled to close.
18. WHEN BLEED AIR TAKEN FROM THE APU OR
SINGLE PACK OPERATION (A320):
A. FCV operate at high flow automatically.
B. FCV operate at normal flow automatically.
C. FCV operate at low flow automatically.
19. WITHOUT AIR PRESSURE, THE HOT AIR PRESSURE
REGULATING VALVE IS:
A. Pneumatically open.
B. Springloaded open.
C. Springloaded closed.
20. IN CASE OF DUCT TEMPERATURE ABOVE 88oC, THE
HOT AIR PRESSURE REGULATING VALVE IS:
A. Automatically electrically closed.
B. Automatically pneumatically closed.
C. Remain open.
21. IN CASE OF PACK CONTROLLER FAILURE:
A. The By-pass Valve control pack discharge temperature at a fixed
value
B. The Anti-Ice Valve control pack discharge temperature at a fixed
value
C. The Ram air inlet control pack discharge temperature at a fixed
value
22. THE AIR CYCLE MACHINE CONSISTS OF:
A. A compressor and a fan
B. A turbine, a compressor.
C. A turbine, a compressor and a fan.
23. THE WATER EXTRACTOR TEMPERATURE SENSOR IS
USED TO:
A. Modulate the pack outlet temperature.
B. Modulate the compressor outlet temperature.
C. Modulate the water extractor outlet temperature.
24. THE PACK OUTLET TEMPERATURE SENSOR IS USED
TO:
A. Pack outlet temperature indication on ECAM display.
B. Modulate the water extractor outlet temperature.
C. Modulate the pack outlet temperature.
25. THE PACK OUTLET PNEUMATIC SENSOR IS USED TO:
A. Maintain the pack outlet temperature at a fixed value.
1
 ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING

B. Modulate the water extractor outlet temperature. A. Detect corresponding zone temperature for zone temperature
C. Modulate the condenser outlet temperature. control and indication on ECAM display.
26. THE FLOW SENSOR IS USED TO:
A. Measure flow of bleed air into FCV. B. Detect corresponding zone temperature for zone temperature
B. Measure flow of cool air into mixer unit. control
C. Measure flow of cool air into cockpit. C. Zone temperature indication on ECAM display.
27. THE COMPRESSOR OVERHEAT SENSOR IS USED TO: 38. THE PACK CONTROLLERS SEND TO THE ZONE
CONTROLLER:
A. Compressor outlet temperature overheat detection.
B. Compressor outlet temperature indication on the ECAM display. A. The flow demand signal.
C. A and B. B. BITE information and pack status signals.
28. FUNCTION OF THE MIXER UNIT: C. The BITE demand signal.
39. TO CLOSE THE PACK RAM AIR INLET FLAP, THE
A. Mixes air from packs and re-circulated air from the cabin. PACK CONTROLLER NEEDS INFORMATION
B. Mixes air from packs and bleed air from pneumatic system. FROM:
C. Mixes air from pneumatic system and re-circulated air from the A. The ECB.
cabin.
B. The anti-ice system.
29. THE MIXER UNIT HAS:
A. One temperature sensors C. LGCIU 2, BSCU and EIUs.
40. THE AIRCRAFT IS EQUIPPED WITH:
B. Two temperature sensors. A. One emergency ram air inlet flap
C. Three temperature sensors. B. Two emergency ram air inlet flap
30. PURPOSE OF MIXER UNIT TEMPERATURE SENSORS:
A. Indicate the actual temperature of the mixer unit to the pack C. Three emergency ram air inlet flap
41. PURPOSE OF EMERGENCY RAM AIR INLET FLAP:
controllers.
B. Indicate the actual temperature of the mixer unit to the EEC. A. Aircraft ventilation or smoke removal when both packs failure.
C. Indicate the actual temperature of the mixer unit to the zone B. Aircraft ventilation or smoke removal when one pack failure.
controller. C. Aircraft ventilation or smoke removal when outflow valve failure.
31. THE MIXER UNIT FLAP FUNCTION: 42. WHEN SET TO ON, THE EMERGENCY RAM AIR INLET
FLAP OPENS:
A. Ensures sufficient cabin air supply if pack 1 is selected off.
B. Ensures sufficient flight deck air supply if pack 1 is selected off. A. Always open.
C. Ensures sufficient flight deck air supply if pack 2 is selected off. B. DITCHING is selected.
32. THE TRIM AIR PRESSURE REGULATING VALVE IS: C. DITCHING is not selected.
43. WHEN THE CABIN TO AMBIENT AIR DIFFERENTIAL
A. Pneumatically operated and electrically controlled by two
PRESSURE IS LESS THAN 1 PSI:
solenoids.
A. The pressure controller fully opens the outflow valve.
B. Pneumatically operated and electrically controlled by one B. The pressure controller half opens the outflow valve.
solenoids. C. The zone controller half opens the outflow valve.
C. Hydraulically operated and electrically controlled by two 44. PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM HAS:
solenoids. A. Two outflow valve and one safety valve.
33. IF A DUCT OVERHEAT IS DETECTED: B. One outflow valve and two safety valve.
A. The mixer unit flap closes. C. One outflow valve and one safety valve.
B. The PRV and the TAVs close. 45. PRESSURIZATION IS PERFORMED BY
C. The PRV and the corresponding TAV close. CONTROLLING:
34. AIR VALVE IS: A. The amount of air discharged overboard through one outflow
A. Modulating valve valve.
B. On/Off valve B. The amount of air discharged overboard through two outflow
valve.
C. Check valve.
35. WHEN THE TRIM AIR PRESSURE REGULATING C. The amount of air discharged overboard through two safety valve.
VALVE CLOSES: 46. THE PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM HAS TWO CABIN
PRESSURE CONTROL (CPC) :
A. The TAVs still open.
B. Only one TAV close. A. Only one controller operates at a time, the other is in active
stand-by.
C. The TAVs close. B. Both CPC operate at a time.
36. FUNCTION OF DUCT TEMPERATURE SENSORS:
A. Indication and overheat detection corresponding duct temperature C. Two CPC Manual changed over after each flight
47. IN AUTOMATIC OPERATION, THE OUTFLOW VALVE
to the packs controller.
IS OPERATED BY:
B. Indication and overheat detection corresponding duct temperature A. Only electrical motor 1.
to the zone controller.
C. Indication and overheat detection corresponding zone temperature B. Electrical motor 1 or motor 2 depending on the operating
controller.
to the zone controller.
37. FUNCTION OF ZONE TEMPERATURE SENSORS: C. Only electrical motor 3.

2
 ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING

48. THE MANUAL MOTOR 3 OF OUTFLOW VALVE IS B. The AIR COND panel.
USED: C. The CABIN PRESS panel.
A. In case of failure of system 1 or 2. 60. IN MANUAL MODE, WARNINGS AND INDICATIONS
B. In case of failure of system 1. COME FROM:
C. In case of failure of system 1 and 2. A. CPC1.
49. WHEN MANUAL MODE IS USED: B. CPC 2.
A. Manual part of CPC2 use for backup indication. C. The outflow valve.
B. Manual part of CPC1 use for backup indication . 61. CABIN PRESS FAULT LIGHT COMES ON WHEN:
C. No backup in this mode. A. Automatic system 1 fails.
50. FUNCTION OF SAFETY VALVES: B. Both automatic systems fail.
A. Prevent excessive positive pressure in the fuselage. C. Manual system fails.
B. Prevent excessive negative pressure in the fuselage. 62. AVIONIC VENTILATION SYSTEM HAS:
C. Prevent excessive positive and negative differential pressure in A. One blower fan.
the fuselage. B. One extract fan.
C. One blower fan and one extract fan.
51. THE MAXIMUM NORMAL CABIN ALTITUDE FOR 63. THE LAVATORY AND GALLEYS VENTILATION
MAXIMUM CRUISE LEVEL (39000 FT) IS: SYSTEM HAS:
A. 8000 ft. A. One extraction fan.
B. 9550 ft. B. One blower fan.
C. 11300 ft. C. One blower fan and one extract fan.
52. WHEN THE LDG ELEV SELECTOR IS IN AUTO 64. LAV AND GALLEYS VENTILATION AIR COME FROM:
POSITION:
A. Pack 1.
A. The landing elevation comes CPC. B. Cabin distribution ducts.
B. The landing elevation comes from the FMGC. C. Pack 2.
C. The landing elevation comes from the selector. 65. THE PURPOSE OF THE AVIONICS EQUIPMENT
53. WHERE ARE DATA COME FROM, THE CPCS USE TO VENTILATION COMPUTER IS:
CONTROL OUTFLOW VALE AUTOMATICALLY?
A. To ensure control and monitoring of the avionics ventilation
A. FMGC and ADIRS. system.
B. FMGC. B. To control and monitor the cargo ventilation components.
C. ADIRS. C. To control and monitor the packs.
54. IF MANUAL MODE HAS BEEN SELECTED AND 66. FWD CARGO VENTILATION AIR COME FROM:
DITCHING PUSHBUTTON IS SELECTED TO ON:
A. Avionics bay ambient air.
A. The outflow valve close automatically. B. Air coming directly from the pack outlet.
B. The outflow valve does not close automatically. C. Cabin ambient air.
C. The outflow valve does not fully close. 67. AEVC WILL CHANGE THE SYSTEM CONFIGURATION
55. THE SAFETY VALVE POSITION IS DISPLAYED IN DEPENDING ON:
AMBER WHEN:
A. Aircraft skin temperature.
A. Nothing. B. Whether the aircraft is on ground or in flight.
B. Two safety valves are closed. C. Whether the aircraft is on ground or in flight and on aircraft skin
C. Either safety valve is not closed. temperature.
56. INFLIGHT, THE OUTFLOW VALVE POSITION IS 68. IN OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION:
DISPLAYED IN AMBER WHEN:
A. The skin air inlet and outlet valves are fully open.
A. Outflow valve fully open. B. The skin air inlet fully open, outlet valves partially open.
B. Outflow valve not fully open. C. The skin air inlet fully open, outlet valves fully closed.
69. IN CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION, THE
C. Nothing. EXTRACTED AVIONICS EQUIPMENT AIR GOES:
57. EIU SENDS A THRUST LEVER ANGLE ASSOCIATED
A. Into the skin heat exchanger to be heated.
WITH AN N2 SIGNAL TO BOTH CONTROLLERS
TO: B. Into the skin heat exchanger to be cooled.
A. Initiate the pre-pressurization and the pressurization sequences. C. Outboard.
70. THE SKIN AIR OUTLET VALVE HAS:
B. Initiate the pre-pressurization automatically.
C. Initiate the pre-pressurization automatically. A. Single flap with a smaller flap built into it.
58. SIGNAL FROM LGCIU TO CPCs ARE USED FOR: B. Only a single flap..
A. Pre-pressurization, pressurization, depressurization sequences C. Single flap with two smaller flaps built into it.
and system transfer. 71. SKIN EXCHANGER INLET BYPASS VALVE OPEN
WHEN:
B. Pressurization, depressurization sequences and system transfer.
C. Pre-pressurization, pressurization, depressurization sequences. A. In open circuit configuration.
59. MOTOR 3 IS CONTROLLED FROM: B. In partially open circuit configuration, or in closed circuit
configuration with airflow higher than the requested value.
A. CPC1.
3
 ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING

C. When the ambient avionics bay temperature is above 34°C

(93.2°F).
72. IN NORMAL OPERATION:
A. The BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons are set to AUTO.
B. The BLOWER set to OVRD and EXTRACT pushbuttons set to
AUTO.
C. the BLOWER set to AUTO and EXTRACT pushbuttons set to
OVRD.
73. IN CASE OF AVIONIC VENTILATION SYSTEM
MALFUNCTION:
A. Air from air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
B. Air from avionic bay is added to ventilation air.
C. Air from outboard is added to ventilation air.
74. PURPOSE OF SKIN TEMPERATURE SENSOR:
A. Configuration mode of Avionic ventilation system.
B. Indication on ECAM.
C. Controlling zone temperature.
75. THE FWD ISOL VALVE PUSHBUTTON CONTROLS:
A. The extraction fan through the ventilation controller.
B. The isolation valves and the extraction fan through the ventilation
controller.
C. The isolation valves.
76. ON CARGO VENTILATION SYSTEM, WHEN THE
ISOLATION VALVES ARE CLOSED:
A. The extraction fan stops.
B. The extraction fan still run 5 minutes.
C. The extraction fan run continuously .
77. EXTRACTION FAN OF LAVATORY AND GALLEYS
VENTILATION SYSTEM:
A. Run when Aircraft in-flight.
B. Run when different pressure between inboard and outboard<1psi.
C. Run continuously when aircraft is energized electric .

4
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

B. The Flight Management (FM part) and the Flight envelope

ATA 22 - AUTO FLIGHT protection.
1. THE AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM (AFS) CALCULATES C. The Flight Management (FM part) and the Flight Guidance
ORDERS TO AUTOMATICALLY CONTROL THE: (FG part).
11. THE BASIC FUNCTIONS OF THE FACS ARE THE:
A. Flight controls and the engines.
A. Rudder control and the flight envelope protection.
B. The Yaw Damper and the engines.
B. Engines control and the flight envelope protection.
C. The Primary Flight Display and the Navigation Display.
2. THE AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM COMPUTES ORDERS C. Rudder control and the Flight Management.
AND SENDS THEM TO THE: 12. THE FAULT ISOLATION AND DETECTION SYSTEM
(FIDS) ALLOWED INTERFACE BETWEEN THE
A. Electrical Flight Control System (EFCS) and Air Data &
AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM AND THE CENTRALIZED
Inertial Reference Systems (ADIRs).
FAULT DISPLAY SYSTEM (CFDS):
B. Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) and Air Data
A. Only in position 1 (FAC 1).
& Inertial Reference Systems (ADIRs).
B. Only in position 2 (FAC 2).
C. Electrical Flight Control System (EFCS) and to the Full
Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC). C. A and B.
3. A FUNDAMENTAL FUNCTION OF THE AUTO 13. THE FMGC FUNCTIONS CAN BE CONTROLLED
FLIGHT SYSTEM IS TO CALCULATE THE: FROM:
A. Position of the aircraft. A. The MCDUs and rudder trim control panel.
B. Altitude of the aircraft. B. The FCU and rudder trim control panel.
C. Attitude of the aircraft. C. The FCU and MCDUs.
4. A FLIGHT PLAN DESCRIBES A COMPLETE 14. THE BASIC FUNCTIONS OF THE FLIGHT
FLIGHT: AUGMENTATION COMPUTER (FAC) ARE:
A. It includes vertical information and all intermediate A. Yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation and flight
waypoints. envelope protection.
B. From departure to arrival, it includes vertical information and B. Yaw damper, rudder trim and rudder travel limitation.
all intermediate waypoints. C. Yaw damper, rudder travel limitation and flight envelope
C. From departure to arrival, it includes vertical information. protection.
5. DURING AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM OPERATION, SIDE 15. THE YAW DAMPER PROVIDES:
STICKS AND THRUST LEVERS: A. Turn coordination, engine failure compensation and yaw
A. Do not move. guidance order execution.
B. Move automatically. B. Dutch roll damping, turn coordination, engine failure
compensation and yaw guidance order execution.
C. Move automatically at high speed.
6. IF THE PILOT MOVES THE SIDE STICK WHEN THE C. Dutch roll damping, engine failure compensation and yaw
AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM IS ACTIVE, guidance order execution.
16. THE RUDDER TRIM PROVIDES:
A. Nothing happened.
A. Turn coordination.
B. It engages the second autopilot.
B. Manual trim with RUD TRIM selector only.
C. It disengages the autopilot.
7. THE AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM IS DESIGNED C. Manual trims with RUD TRIM selector and auto trim when
AROUND FOUR COMPUTERS: the autopilot is engaged.
17. THE RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITING UNIT LIMITS
A. 02 Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs)
THE DEFLECTION OF THE RUDDER ACCORDING
and 02 elevator aileron computers (ELACs).
TO THE:
B. 02 Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs)
A. Aircraft vertical speed.
and 02 Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs).
B. Aircraft speed.
C. 02 Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs)
and 02 spoiler elevator computers (SECs). C. Wind speed.
8. THE MCDUS ARE USED FOR: 18. THE FAC COMPUTES THE RUDDER TRAVEL
LIMIT USING AIRCRAFT SPEED INFORMATION IS
A. Long-term control of the aircraft.
PROVIDED BY THE:
B. Short-term control of the aircraft.
C. A and B A. Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs).
9. THE FCU IS USED FOR:
B. Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs).
A. Long-term control of the aircraft.
C. Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs).
B. Short-term control of the aircraft. 19. FOR FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION, THE FAC
C. A and B. COMPUTES THE:
10. EACH FMGC IS MADE OF TWO PARTS: A. Various characteristic speeds for aircraft operation, the low
A. The Flight Management (FM part) and the Flight energy warning, the excessive angle of attack and windshear
Augmentation. detections.

1
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

B. Low energy warning, the engine power and windshear B. Performance optimization, Flight Director and autothrust
detections. functions.
C. Various characteristic speeds for aircraft operation, the C. The autopilot, Flight Director and autothrust functions.
excessive angle of attack and low altitude detections.
20. THE ALPHA FLOOR (EXCESSIVE ANGLE OF 30. THE FLIGHT DIRECTOR (FD) DISPLAYS THE
ATTACK) AND WINDSHEAR DETECTIONS ARE GUIDANCE COMMANDS ON:
SENT TO THE: A. Both Navigation Displays (NDs).
A. ELACs. B. Both Primary Flight Displays (PFDs).
B. DMCs. C. Lower Ecam Display.
C. FMGCs. 31. THE AUTOTHRUST (A/THR) FUNCTION
21. THE CHARACTERISTIC SPEEDS COMPUTED BY CALCULATES THE SIGNAL NECESSARY FOR:
THE FACS ARE SHOWN ON THE SPEED SCALE OF A. Engine control.
THE: B. Flight control.
A. PFD. C. Throttle lever movements.
B. ND. 32. ACCORDING TO FLIGHT PHASES, THE LATERAL
C. PFD & ND. MODE CONTROLS:
22. THE RUDDER TRIM POSITION IS DISPLAYED ON A. The spoilers via the ELACs and the SECs.
THE: B. The spoilers via the SECs.
A. Primary Flight Display. C. The spoilers via the ELACs.
B. RUD TRIM control panel.
C. ECAM System Display and on the RUD TRIM control panel. 33. ACCORDING TO FLIGHT PHASES, THE LATERAL
23. THE RED WINDSHEAR INDICATION IS DISPLAYED MODE CONTROLS:
IN THE: A. The nose wheel via the BSCU.
A. Center of both PFDs. B. The nose wheel via the ELACs and the Braking/Steering
B. Top of both PFDs. Control Unit (BSCU).
C. Center of both NDs. C. The nose wheel via the LGCIUs.
24. THE RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITING POSITION IS: 34. THE VERTICAL MODE CONTROLS THE
A. Displayed on the ECAM System Display. ELEVATORS AND THE TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL
B. Displayed on the RUD TRIM control panel. STABILIZER (THS) VIA THE:
C. Not displayed A. ELACs.
25. THE MCDUS ALLOWED: B. SECs.
A. The modification and the display of flight plans. C. FACs.
B. The engagement of the autopilot, Flight Director and 35. FOR MAINTENANCE PURPOSES, THE AUTOPILOT
autothrust functions. CAN BE ENGAGED ON GROUND WITH:
C. The selection of various flight parameters (e.g. heading A. Both engines running.
value). B. Both engines shut down.
26. THE FLIGHT MANAGEMENT PART MAINLY C. Hydraulic power available.
PROVIDES THE FLIGHT PLAN SELECTION WITH 36. IN FLIGHT, THE AUTOPILOT CAN BE ENGAGED:
ITS: A. For at least 5 seconds after lift-off.
A. Vertical functions. B. In cruise only.
B. Lateral functions. C. At top of climb.
C. Lateral and vertical functions. 37. IN CRUISE, THE ORDERS OF LATERAL MODES
27. THE FCU ALLOWED: EXECUTE BY:
A. The modification and the display of flight plans. A. The rudder and the spoilers.
B. The engagement of the autopilot, Flight Director and B. The ailerons and the rudder.
autothrust functions. C. The ailerons and the spoilers.
C. The modification of the parameters associated with the flight 38. IN CRUISE, WITH AUTOPILOT ENGAGED THE
management functions. RUDDER IS CONTROLLED DIRECTLY BY THE:
28. THE FLIGHT MANAGEMENT PART PROVIDES: A. FACs.
A. Navigation, performance optimization, radio navigation B. ELACs.
tuning and information display management. C. Autopilot.
B. Performance optimization, radio navigation tuning and
information display management. 39. THE SECOND AUTOPILOT CAN BE ENGAGED
C. Navigation, performance optimization and radio navigation WHEN:
tuning. A. Cruise mode engaged.
29. THE FLIGHT GUIDANCE PART PROVIDES: B. Approach mode engaged.
A. The autopilot, Flight management and autothrust functions. C. Approach mode engaged and ILS is armed.
2
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL
40. THE FD FUNCTION DISPLAYS SYMBOLS ON THE: A. The A/THR system controls the engines; the FMA displays
A. PFDs. the A/THR engagement status (in green) and the A/THR
B. NDs. mode.
C. PFDs and NDs. B. The thrust levers controls the engines, the FMA displays the
41. ON GROUND, THE NOSE WHEEL CAN BE A/THR engagement status (in cyan) and the manual thrust
CONTROLLED BY THE AUTOPILOT DURING: rating.
A. Landing. C. The A/THR system controls the engines; the FMA displays
B. Take-off. the A/THR engagement status (in white) and the A/THR
mode.
C. Take-off and landing.
50. IN CASE OF THE ALPHA FLOOR PROTECTION IS
42. THE FLIGHT DIRECTOR (FD) FUNCTIONS
ACTIVE, THE AUTOTHRUST IS:
ENGAGE AUTOMATICALLY:
A. As soon as the system is electrically supplied and logic
A. Engage and not active.
conditions are fulfilled. B. Active independently of the thrust lever positions.
B. As long as no AP/FD mode is active. C. Active depends on the position of the thrust levers.
51. WHERE ARE WIND SPEED/DIRECTION
C. When the take-off mode engaged.
DISPLAYED?
43. HOW MANY TYPES OF FD SYMBOLS?
A. One.
A. Navigation Displays (NDs).
B. Two.
B. Primary Flight Displays (PFDs).
C. Three.
C. Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).
52. WHERE IS GROUND SPEED INFORMATION
44. THE YAW BAR DISPLAYED ON PFDS WHEN THE
DISPLAYED?
AIRCRAFT IS:
A. Below 30 feet radio altitude at take-off (when a LOC signal is
A. Navigation Displays (NDs).
available) and during landing. B. Primary Flight Displays (PFDs).
B. Below 100 feet radio altitude at take-off (when a LOC signal C. Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).
is available) and during landing.
53. WHAT IS ACTIVATED ON THE ATTENTION
C. Below 30 feet radio altitude during landing.
GETTERS WHEN A PROBLEM OCCURS DURING
45. THE PILOTS CAN CHANGE THE FD BARS INTO
FINAL APPROACH IN AUTOMATIC LANDING?
FPD/FPV SYMBOLS BY:
A. Pressing the central HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA pushbutton on the
A. The MASTER CAUTION.
FCU. B. The MASTER WARNING.
B. Disengaging the HDG or V/S modes. C. The AUTOLAND warning.
54. THE FAC COMPUTES RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITING
C. Pressing a FD pushbutton.
LAW USING THE CALIBRATED AIRSPEED (VC)
46. DURING ROLL OUT, THE SPOILERS ARE
PROVIDED BY THE:
DIRECTLY CONTROLLED BY THE SECS AS:
A. Roll executed.
A. ADIRUs.
B. Bank executed.
B. FMGCs.
C. Airbrakes.
C. SFCCs.
47. TO PERFORM THE AUTOTHRUST (A/THR)
55. IF ONE OR SEVERAL YAW AXIS CONTROL
FUNCTION, THE THRUST TARGET IS COMPUTED
FUNCTIONS FAIL:
BY THE:
A. FMGCs.
A. The FAC is disengaged.
B. FADECs.
B. Only the amber message appears on the ECAM.
C. FACs.
C. The FAULT light in FAC pushbutton is ON.
56. THE RESET PUSHBUTTON ENABLES TO:
48. THE A/THR ENGAGED AND ACTIVE, ON THE FCU,
THE A/THR PUSHBUTTON LIGHT IS ON AND: A. Return the rudder to the neutral position.
A. The A/THR system controls the engines; the FMA displays B. Moves the rudder to the previous position.
the A/THR engagement status (in green) and the A/THR C. Moves the rudder to the full position.
mode. 57. WHEN ALPHA-FLOOR IS DETECTED, THE FAC
B. The thrust levers controls the engines, the FMA displays the TRANSMITS A SIGNAL TO THE FMGC TO:
A/THR engagement status (in cyan) and the manual thrust A. Disengage the autothrust function.
rating. B. Engage the autothrust function and apply full thrust.
C. The A/THR system controls the engines; the FMA displays C. Engage the autopilot function.
the A/THR engagement status (in white) and the A/THR 58. WHEN LOW ENERGY AWARENESS FUNCTION IS
mode. ACTIVATED, THE FAC TRANSMITS A SIGNAL TO
49. THE A/THR ENGAGED AND NOT ACTIVE, ON THE THE FWC TO:
FCU, THE A/THR PUSHBUTTON LIGHT IS ON AND: A. Trigger the audio warning, "SPEED SPEED SPEED".
B. Trigger the audio warning, "SPEED SPEED SPEED" and
ECAM warning,"LOW ENERGY".
3
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

C. Trigger the ECAM warning,” LOW ENERGY".

59. WITHOUT AP, WITH ONE FD FAILED OR
MANUALLY DISENGAGED:
A. The master FMGC supplies both FMAs.
B. FMGC1 supplies FMA1, FMGC2 supplies FMA2.
C. The opposite FMGC supplies both FMAs.
60. WITHOUT AP, WITH THE FDS ENGAGED:
A. The master FMGC supplies both FMAs.
B. FMGC1 supplies FMA1, FMGC2 supplies FMA2.
C. The opposite FMGC supplies both FMAs.

61. FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR LOCATED AT THE:

A. Top of each Primary Flight Display.
B. Top of each Navigation Display.
C. Bottom of lower ecam Display.
62. THE A/THR CYAN INDICATION IN THE
ENGAGEMENT STATUS ZONE OF FMAS
INDICATES THAT THE AUTOTHRUST IS:
A. Engaged and not active.
B. Engaged and active.
C. Disengaged.

4
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

c) All of the above

ATA 23 - COMMUNICATION
1. Where is PTP located? (A) 10. When one engine is running, the audio level of cabin
a) On the center pedestal in the cockpit loudspeakers is increased, which unit controls this
b) At Forward Attendant Station function (B2)
c) At Aft Attendant Station a) The DEUs
b) The CIDS Directors ????
c) The CAM
2. Where can mechanic make call attention to flight crew?
(A)
a) From external power panel forward of NLG base. 11. What is the purpose of the CVR? ( A, B2, B1)
b) From Avionics bay a) To record radio communications during take off and
c) Both of the above landing.
b) To record crew conversations as soon as and incident
occurs
3. What is purpose of the AMU? (B2)
c) To record crew conversations and communications
a) To centralize all audio signals and the frequencies of the
communication systems.
b) To act as an interface between the users and various 12. When a call is received (A, B2, B1)
radio communication and radio navigation systems a) The CALL light flashes amber on the ACP
c) To receive audio signals only. corresponding key and a buzzer sound is heard.
b) CALL light flashes amber on the ACP corresponding
4. SELCAL provides :(B2, A) key only
a) Aural indication of calls received from ground stations c) A buzzer sound is heard only
b) Visual and aural indication of calls received from ground
stations 13. “SEL” light illuminates on RMP1 and RMP2 when: (B2,
c) Visual indication of calls received from ground stations B1)
a) Selecting VHF1 on RMP2
5. When the SELCAL call is received, (A) b) Selecting VH2 on RMP1
a) CALL flashes amber on all the ACP 1(Captain only) c) A and B are correct
b) CALL flashes amber on all the ACPs
c) CALL flashes amber on all the ACPs except ACP3 14. The RMPs functions: (A, B2, B1)
a) Receiving audio signals
b) Receiving audio signals and tuning the radio
6. The purpose of the static dischargers is to: (A)
communication system.
a) Prevent aircraft from lightning strikes
c) Tuning the radio communication system and back up for
b) Discharge static electricity to decrease the effect of the
navigation
interference in the communications and navigation
systems
c) Both of the above 15. Which RMP can control VHF2 transceiver: (A, B2, B1)
a) RMP1
7. How is a ground to cockpit call indicated in the cockpit b) RMP1 and RMP2
(A, B2) c) RMP1, RMP2 and RMP3
a) An ECAM message is displayed and a buzzer
b) The MECH light flashes on the captain ACP and a 16. How many transmission channels can be selected at a
buzzer sounds time: (A, B2)
c) The MECH light flashes on all ACPs and a buzzer a) Two: one for radio and one for on-board communication
sounds b) One only
c) All channels
8. The INT/RAD selector switch permits the utilization of
the interphone or the radio, when: (A) 17. How can the Captain controls audio when ACP 1 failed:
a) The microphone is used by the crew (A, B2)
b) The boomsets or oxygen masks are used by the crew a) The control is loss
c) The handset or headset are used by the crew b) Use ACP 2
c) Use ACP 3 by using “AUDIO SWITCHING”
9. The INT/ RAD selector switch on ACP is: (A)
a) Stable in INT position 18. How many antennas for each VHF: (A, B2, B1)
b) Unstable in RAD position a) One
1
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

b) Two: one for transmitter, one for receiver b) Press “CAB” transmission key and release “CAB”
c) Three receiving knob.
c) Press “CAB” transmission key.
19. What happen when you push the “MECH” button on d) Press “CAB” transmission key and “SERV INT”
CALL PANEL in the cockpit: (A, B2) pushbutton.
a) The horn sounds
b) The horn sounds and “COCKPIT CALL” blue light on
108 VU stays on
c) “MECH” light on ACP flashing and buzzer sounds.

20. The ACARS data emission and reception is done

through: ( B2)
a) VHF1 and VHF2, VHF 3 – standby
b) VHF3.
c) VHF1.

21. ACARS is (A, B2)

a) System enables exchange of the data in digital form
between the aircraft and a ground station.
b) System enables exchange of the data in digital form
between the aircraft and a ground station or between the
aircraft and other aircraft.
c) System enables exchange of the data in digital form or
voice between the aircraft and a ground station.

22. CVR records automatically in flight and ground when:

(A, B2)
a) Parking brake set on ground or landing gear retracted in
flight
b) At least one engine is running and for 5 minutes after last
engine is shutdown.
c) Always as regulation required.

23. The CVR located : (A)

a) In the aft section of the aircraft
b) In the Avionics compartment.
c) In the Aft cargo compartment

24. PTP functions for enhanced CIDS is incorporated in:

(B2)
a) FAP
b) MCDU
c) CFDIU

25. DEU A provide the interface between: (A)

a) The directors and the attendant and cabin related systems
b) The FAP and the passenger related systems
c) The directors and the passenger related systems

26. Aircraft on ground, to communicate between cockpit and

APU position, you must: (A, B2, B1)
a) Select the INT on the ACP, and press the “SERV INT”
pushbutton.

2
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL
1. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current 10. The IDG oil servicing is not required when (A, B1, B2)
system, the phase of the second generator to be brought a) The oil level is above the line between the green and the
on line. yellow band (IDG cold) or above the yellow band (IDG
a) is unimportant. hot)
b) must be in-phase prior to paralleling. b) The oil level is within the green band (IDG cold) or
c) is important if the first generator fails. within green and yellow bands (IDG hot)
c) There is no ECAM warning.
2. Galley loads are wired in.
a) either series or parallel depending on the design.
b) parallel so load shedding will lower current 11. In normal cockpit configuration, with External Power is
consumption. on (A)
c) series. a) GEN1 and/or GEN2 P/B light is at OFF
b) GEN1 and/or GEN2 P/B light is at FAULT
3. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated. c) IDG1 and/or IDG2 P/B light is at FAULT

a) dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. 12. MAINT BUS switch (A)
b) after a fixed time delay. a) Selected ON, and with only the EXT PWR available, the
c) before the over voltage limit is exceeded. AC and DC GRND FLT buses are supplied.
b) Selected On, the AC and DC GRND FLT buses are
4. If the battery is switched off in flight, the. supplied from the BAT BUS.
a) battery is disconnected from bus. c) Enables AC and DC GRND FLT buses to be supplied
b) generator voltage falls to zero. from any generators
c) captain's instruments will be powered from the standby
bus.
13. The EMER GEN TEST pushbutton is pressed in (A)
5. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time a) Ram Air Turbine extends to supply the Blue hydraulic
taken to trip the GCU depends on. power
a) amplitude of voltage. b) Emergency generator is activated if Blue hydraulic is
b) closing of fuel and hydraulic valves. pressurized and slat/flap control lever is on the 0
c) time delay circuit. position.
c) Ram Air Turbine extends and Emergency generator is
6. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical activated
generator frequency is.
a) by CSU. 14. In a cold aircraft configuration, when the MAN ON
b) by IDG. pushbutton on EMER ELEC PWR panel is pressed in
c) by angle of swash plate. (A)
a) Nothing happened
7. Load shedding allows. b) Emergency generator is activated
a) less current to the busbar. c) Ram Air Turbine extends
b) more current to the busbar.
c) more voltage to the busbar. 15. Emergency GEN frequency is maintained by (B1, B2)
a) A Constant Speed Drive.
8. The purpose of the IDG differential pressure pop-out b) A Constant Speed Motor
indicator (DPI) (A, B1, B2) c) A Constant wind speed.
a) To pop-out when oil in the IDG is too much
b) To indicate a filter clogged 16. Function of GEN push button is (A, B1, B2)
c) To indicate the oil has by-passed the Oil Cooler a) to control generator via GCU
b) to disconnect the IDG
9. Aircraft is on ground and both APU GEN and EXT c) to turn on/off generator directly
PWR are available, APU GEN p/b in auto position, EXT
PWR p/b place in ON position. (A, B1, B2) 17. Bus Transfer Contactors are controlled by (B1, B2)
a) APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 a) GCU1
b) EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 1 and APU GEN supplies b) GCU2
AC BUS 2 c) GPCU or GAPCU
c) EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 d) None of above
1
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

26. In flight, the ram air turbine will extend automatically

18. BTC 1 closes when (B1, B2) when (B1, B2)
a) GEN 1 is not available or GEN 1 available only a) The blue hydraulic system is lost
b) GEN 1 and APU GEN available b) The Static inverter fails
c) GEN 1 and External Power available c) The AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost with airspeed above
100Kts
19. IDG oil (B1, B2)
a) Is cooled by air 27. When TR2 inop (B1, B2)
b) Is cooled by fuel a) ESS TR supplies DC BUS2
c) Is cooled by fuel and air b) ESS TR supplies DC ESS BUS
c) DC ESS BUS is supplied from TR1 via DC BAT BUS
20. In flight when loss of main generators and before the
emergency generator connection (B1, B2) 28. TR can be reset (B1, B2)
a) DC BUS1 is supplied by Batteries via DC BAT BUS a) From MCDU or on TR
b) DC ESS BUS is supplied from DC BAT BUS b) On TR or in avionics bay
c) DC ESS BUS is supplied by BAT 2 c) From MCDU or in avionics bay

21. FAULT light on IDG pushbuttons comes on when (B1, 29. Static inverter fault is monitored by (B1, B2)
B2) a) FWC
a) IDG is disconnected b) SDAC
b) GEN fault c) BCL
c) Low oil pressure or high oil temperature

22. BUS TIE pushbutton is in auto (B1, B2) 30. Battery voltage check is carried out with? (A)
a) Both Bus Tie Contactors close with one main generator a) BAT P/B AUTO.
and APU GEN available b) BAT P/B OFF.
b) One Bus Tie Contactor closes with only External Power c) EXT power connected.
available d) APU GEN supplied.
c) The Bus Tie Contactors open with both main generator
available 31. Regarding Batteries replacement, do you have to do the
adjustment of the clock? (A, B1, B2)
23. GALEY & CAB pushbutton (B1, B2) a) After replacement of BAT 1 only
a) In AUTO, the main and secondary electrical circuits of b) After replacement of BAT 2 only
the galleys are always supplied. c) Only when BAT 2 removed from aircraft exceed 10
b) In OFF, to shut the main galley electrical circuits. days.
c) In AUTO, in flight with one generator is available, the d) Non of the above
main Galley electrical circuits are automatically shed
32. How do you switch on only the Maintenance buses? (A)
a) EXT PWR energized A/C network; MAINT BUS switch
is in ON position
b) EXT AVAIL; MAINT BUS switch is in ON position
24. Regarding IDG control and monitoring (B1, B2) c) APU GEN energized A/C network; EXT AVAIL;
a) Without GCU, GEN 1 OR 2 pushbutton directly controls MAINT BUS switch is in ON position.
generator d) None of the above.
b) IDG can be disconnected by GCU when a faulty
parameter is detected 33. The Operational Test of the AC Emergency Generation
c) AC generation is monitored by the GCU System is for: (A, B1, B2)
a) Make sure that the CSM/G is working satisfactory with
25. The delta pressure pop-out indicator (DPI) can be reset the Blue pressure available.
(B1, B2) b) Make sure that aircraft electrical networks are supplied
a) Without any limits provided that IDG oil and oil filter is through CSM/G.
replaced c) Make sure that the essential bus bars are supplied
b) Up to 3 times with necessary maintenance actions done through the CSM/G.
c) Once only d) Make sure that the AC essential bus bars are supplied
through the CSM/G.

2
 ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL

34. Aircraft configuration for Operational Test of the AC

Emergency Generation System is: (A, B1, B2)
a) EMER GEN TEST pushed & hold.
b) Blue pump ON; EMER GEN TEST pushed & hold.
c) Blue pump ON; EMER GEN TEST pushed & hold; BUS
TIE OFF.
d) EMER GEN TEST pushed & hold; BUS TIE OFF.

35. The Operational Test of the Static Inverter is for? (A,

B1, B2)
a) Make sure that the Static Inverter is working satisfactory
with either battery supplied.
b) Make sure that Batteries is capable to supply STAT INV
BUS in case of emergency config.
c) Test of the correct power supply of the ESS BUSES and
AC STAT INV BUS.
d) Test of the correct power supply of the AC ESS BUS
and AC STAT INV BUS.

36. For the Operational Test of the Static Inverter when the
Aircraft Electrical Circuits are energized from the
External Power and the APU is in operation: (A, B1, B2)
a) The test is not allowed at this configuration.
b) You must refer to the procedure to do the test with APU
supplied networks.
c) You must refer to the procedure to do the test with EXT
PWR supplied networks.
d) You can either refer to procedure to do the test with APU
or EXT PWR supplied networks.

3
 ATA 25 – EQUIPMENT/ FURNISHINGS
c. Wall mounted single, wall mounted double bench and
ATA 25 - EQUIPMENT/FURNISHINGS Freestanding seats.

1. The Captain and First Officer seats are:

a. Symmetrical and their operation are identical. 11. Which cabin panels are removable?
b. Interchangeable. a. Lower sidewall panels only.
c. Symmetrical and interchangeable. b. All the panels.
c. Upper sidewall panels only.
2. The Third Occupant seat can:
a. Not adjustable. 12. The cabin interior is equipped with:
b. Slide along the lateral axis. a. All removable panels.
c. Slide along the longitudinal axis. b. Some panels are removable.
c. Irremovable panel.

3. Pilot seat movements can be: 13. Passenger oxygen masks are store in:
a. Electrically adjusted. a. The Passenger Service Unit.
b. Manually adjusted. b. The seat armrest.
c. Electrically or manually adjusted. c. The overheat stowage compartment.

14. The cabin depressurization doors are mounted on:

4. The cockpit sliding windows can: a. The upper sidewall panels.
a. Only be operated from the inside. b. The ceiling panels.
b. Only be operated from the outside. c. The lower sidewall panels.
c. Be operated from the inside and outside.
15. To change the reading light bulb you must:
5. Open a sliding window by: a. Replace the PSU/PIU (Passenger Service Information Units).
a. Push down the red indicator on top of the locking pin. b. Not replace the PSU/PIU.
b. Pulling the locking pin. c. Replace the PSU only.
c. Push down the red indicator on top of the opening handle.
16. To replace the cabin light, you must remove:
a. The upper sidewall panel.
6. Two escape ropes are provided in stowage boxes located: b. The ceiling panel.
a. Over the sliding windows. c. The cove light panel
b. Under the sliding windows.
c. Behind the pilot seats.
17. The dry galleys are:
7. Escape rope can be used in: a. Not connected to the aircraft systems such as ventilation or
a. Any normal or abnormal aircraft configuration. potable water.
b. Abnormal aircraft configuration. b. Connected to the water and waste system and the main air
c. Emergency aircraft configuration only. cabin ventilation system.
c. Connected to the air extraction system and the electrical power
system.
8. Regarding the Pilot seats:
a. The manual controls may be inoperative. 18. The number and location of the galleys vary with the:
b. Electrical controls may be inoperative. a. The aircraft utilization.
c. All the manual and electrical controls must be operative. b. Operator‟s requirement.
c. Cabin configuration and the aircraft utilization.
9. Main types of cabin attendant seats are:
a. Wall mounted single, wall mounted double bench and wall 19. The position and the number of lavatories can:
mounted swivel a. Be changed with the cabin configuration.
b. Free standing seats, Swivel seats and Wall mounted single b. Be changed by the Vendor only.
seats. c. Not be changed.
c. Wall mounted single, wall mounted double bench and Free
standing seats. 20. In case of emergency all lavatories doors:
a. Only be unlocked from the cockpit.
b. Can be unlocked from the outside.
10. Main types of cabin attendant seats are: c. Can be unlocked from FAP (Forward Attendant Panel)
a. Wall mounted single, wall mounted double bench and wall
mounted swivel
b. Free standing seats, Swivel seats and Wall mounted single 21. The passenger seats are attached to the seat tracks:
seats. a. With retainers in the front legs and with quick release fittings
in the rear legs.
1
 ATA 25 – EQUIPMENT/ FURNISHINGS
b. With retainers in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.
c. With quick release fittings in the front legs as well as in the
rear legs. 31. The escape slide of the A321 including:
a. Single lane escape slides on each passenger door and two dual
22. The passenger seats are mounted on standard tracks which lane offwing escape slides.
allow: b. The 08 single lane escape slide on all the aircraft exits.
a. Quick removal incase of emergency evacuation. c. Single lane escape slides on passenger doors and 04 dual lanes
b. Quick removal for cabin configuration change. escape slides on emergency exits.
c. Fixed configuration.

23. The inflation and deployment sequence of the slide raft is 32. The emergency exit escape slide of the A321 is located in a
automatically initiated when the door is opened in: container:
a. Armed configuration. a. Underneath of the emergency exit.
b. Locked and disarmed configuration. b. At the bottom of the door.
c. Closed and locked configuration. c. Above the wing in each wing-to-fuselage fairing

24. When open in armed mode, the door is: 33. Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to:
a. Hydraulically pushed open. a. Supply oxygen for passengers.
b. Pneumatically pushed open. b. Fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases.
c. Electrically pushed open. c. Breathe oxygen.

25. After the door is opened in armed mode, the slide raft is: 34. Two Exits are located over each wing and are
a. Pneumatically pushed out of the container and deploys. a. Always in armed configuration.
b. Dropped down by its gravity and deploys. b. Always in disarmed configuration.
c. Pulled out, drops down by a deployment lever and inflates c. In armed configuration in flight only.
automatically.

35. The offwing escape slide operates automatically

26. The passenger door escape slide and its inflation reservoir a. If any passenger door is opened in ARMED mode.
are located: b. If one wing exit of each side is opened in ARMED mode.
a. In the AFT cargo compartment. c. If both exits of each side is opened in ARMED mode
b. Underneath of the cabin floor.
c. In a container at the bottom of the door.
36. The emergency exit escape slide cylinder pressure can be
checked from:
27. The inflation reservoir of the emergency exit escape slide is a. The AFT cargo compartment only.
located: b. The passenger overhead storage.
a. In a container at the bottom of the door. c. The cargo compartment or on Programming Test Panel (PTP).
b. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.
c. In the Aft cargo compartment.
37. When check of the escape slide inflation cylinder pressure,
the indication must be
28. The escape slide of the A320 including: d. In the green GO band.
a. Single lane escape slides on each passenger door and two dual e. In the red band.
lane offwing escape slides. f. At 3000 psi.
b. 8 single lane escape slides on all the aircraft exits.
c. Single lane escape slides on passenger doors and 4 dual lanes 38. The inflation cylinder can be checked from:
escape slides on emergency exits. a. From the cargo compartment only.
b. From the PTP only.
c. From the cargo compartment or from the PTP.
29. The emergency exit escape slide of the A320 is located in a
container:
a. Under the door. 39. The cargo doors are operated with pressure provided by
b. At the bottom of the door. the
c. Above the wing in each wing-to-fuselage fairing. a. Yellow electric pump or by a hand pump.
b. Yellow or blue electric pump.
30. The inflation reservoir of the emergency exit escape slide c. Yellow engine driven pump.
locates
a. In a container at the bottom of the door.
b. In the overhead stowage compartment over the exit. 40. Rapid decompression panels are installed in
c. In the cargo compartment. a. The cutout of the ceiling panels.
2
 ATA 25 – EQUIPMENT/ FURNISHINGS
b. The cutouts of the ceiling panels and lateral right sidewall
lining.
c. The cutouts of the ceiling panels and partition walls.

41. The cargo compartment panels are made of:

a. Flame resistant synthetic material.
b. Carbon fiber composite material.
c. Aluminum alloy material.

42. The FWD Cargo compartment can be loaded:

a. With 4 ULD.
b. With 2 ULD
c. With 3 ULD.

43. The Aft Cargo compartment can be loaded:

a. With 4 ULD.
b. With 5ULDs.
c. with 6 ULDs.

44. The PDU is energized:

a. By 26 VAC.
b. By 28 VDC.
c. By 115 VAC.

45. The latch which ensures the power supply to the PDUs is
a. The door sill latch.
b. The XZ-single latch 32.
c. The fixed YZ latch.

46. The ball mats enable the Unit Load Devices (ULDs) to be
moved:
a. In the longitudinal direction.
b. In the longitudinal and lateral directions.
c. Without damage the side panels

47. The PDU operates in the opposite direction by

a. Changing the supply phases
b. Changing the gearbox input
c. Changing the gearbox output.

48. The rollers enable ULDs to be moved

a. In the longitudinal direction.
b. In the lateral direction.
c. In all directions.

3
 ATA 26 –FIRE PROTECTION
a) The squib circuit is armed, cancelled aural warning, and Fuel,
ATA 26 - FIRE PROTECTION (Level A) Air, Hydraulic and Electric systems related to the Engine are
isolated.
1. When inspecting lavatory installations. b) Cut off power supplied to the EIU.
a) the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper c) Both A and B.
holder.
b) No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only. 9. With the APU fire detection loop A INOP, the MEL requires
you: (A)
c) the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material. a) To monitor APU condition continuously at the EXT PWR
receptacle during its GND operation.
2. What external warning is there for an APU fire?. b) To monitor APU condition continuously in the CKPT during
its GND operation.
a) Aural. c) Not to operate the APU on GND.
b) Both aural and a red light. d) Test the auto extinguishing function before each APU start.
c) Red light.

3. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?. 10. In each detector responder of the fire/overheat detector have
two switches: Integrity and Alarm, in case of detector send a
a) Option A. Check the tell-tale wire. fire signal (B1, B2)
b) Option B. Weighed. a) Integrity switch CLOSE, Alarm switch CLOSE
c) Option C. Check the pressure. b) Integrity switch CLOSE, Alarm switch OPEN.
c) Integrity switch OPEN, Alarm switch OPEN.
4. How can you make sure a fire extinguishing bottle is d) Integrity switch OPEN, Alarm switch CLOSE.
serviceable? (A)
a) Do a weight check and the weight of the bottle must be the 11. The lavatory smoke detectors send smoke signal to the: (B1,
same as the total weight specified on the bottle plate, minus B2)
50g maximum. a) Smoke Detection Function integrated in CIDS Directors (for
b) Do a weight check and the weight of the bottle must be the Enhanced A/C).
same as the total weight specified on the bottle plate, plus 50g b) Smoke Detection Function integrated in CIDS Directors (for
maximum. all A321 A/C)
c) Do a weight check and the weight of the bottle must be the c) Smoke Detection Function integrated in CIDS Directors via
same as the total weight specified on the bottle plate, DEU B (for Enhanced A/C).
plus/minus 100g maximum. d) SDCU (for all A320/321 A/C).

5. Which component process cargo smoke detectors signal 12. What happen if you do not press RESET P/B on the APU
(Enhanced A/C)? (A) AUTO EXTING panel after OK light illuminated? (B1, B2)
a) CIDS directors a) The automatic extinguishing circuit is not recovered.???
b) Smoke Detection Function (SDF) integrated in CIDS directors. b) The OK/ON lights on APU AUTO EXTING panel, APU FIRE
c) Smoke Detection Function (SDF) integrated in SDCUs. PUSH light, APU FIRE light do not go off and external horn
not stop.
c) Both A and B.
6. How do you make sure a Lavatory Fire- Extinguishing Bottle
is serviceable? (A)
a) The gage needle is in the green cursor. 13. The power supply to the cartridge squibs of the engine fire
b) Weigh the Fire-Extinguisher Bottle and Make sure that the extinguishing bottles are: (B2)
weight of the fire-extinguisher bottle is the same as the weight a) The hot bus supplies 28V DC to squibs of the bottle 1; The DC
shown on the identification label plus or minus 5 g (0.17 oz) Bus 2 supplies 28V DC to squibs of the bottle 2
c) Both A or B. b) The hot bus supplies 28V DC to squibs of the bottle 1 and 2.
c) The hot bus supplies 28V DC to squib A of bottle 1(2); The
7. If the red disc located on the rear fuselage lower left side is DC Bus 2 supplies 28V DC to squib B of bottle 1(2).
missing, that can be (A)
a) The APU fire extinguishing bottle has been over pressure 14. When smoke detected in the avionic compartment: (B1, B2)
discharged due to temperature increase. a) The smoke detector sends signal to AEVC, local warning, the
b) The APU fire extinguishing bottle has been discharged due to FWCs for activation Master Warning and CRC (continuous
the pressure of the APU fire extinguishing bottle increases to repetitive chime).
1600PSI. b) The smoke detector sends signal to AEVC, local warning, the
c) The APU fire extinguishing bottle has been discharge for fire FWCs for activation Master Caution and SC (singe chime).
extinguished. c) The smoke detector sends signal to AEVC, the FWCs for
activation Master Warning and CRC.
8. When Engine Fire P/B released out: (A, B1, B2) 15. What is happen when one FDU channel or one loop is inop?
(B2)
1
 ATA 26 –FIRE PROTECTION
a) The other channel or other loop operates independently and no
AND logic for fire warning.
b) The other channel or other loop operates independently with
logic AND for fire warning.
c) Nothing happen, the system operates normally with other
channel, only message on ECAM.

16. When you start APU on batteries, which APU fire detection
loop will be available? (B2)
a) Loop A
b) Loop B
c) Both loop A and B
d) None

17. The LAV waste bin extinguisher pressure can be checked?

(B1, B2)
a) Through the Central Maintenance System (CMS).
b) Through the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).
c) On the bottle pressure sight gage.

18. The cargo smoke detection function is integrated

in?(Enhanced A321) (B1, B2)
a) The new SDCU.
b) Engine FDU
c) CIDSs.
d) AEVC.

2
 ATA 27 –FLIGHT CONTROLS
13. A computer arrangement permanently:
A. Controls and monitors the flight control surfaces.
ATA 27 - FLIGHT CONTROLS B. Manages the all flight control system.
1. All flight control surfaces are: C. Controls and monitors the flight control surfaces, it also
A. Electrically controlled. records and stores faults.
14. The Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) and Spoiler
B. Hydraulically operated.
Elevator Computers (SECs) are able to:
C. A & B.
A. Control the aircraft in the roll and pitch axes.
2. There is a mechanical back up on the:
B. Control the aircraft in the roll, yaw and pitch axes.
A. Pitch axis (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer).
C. Control the aircraft in the roll and pitch axes with FAC
B. Yaw axis (rudder).
standby.
C. A & B. 15. How many Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs)
3. The pitch control is achieved by: control the yaw axis?
A. Two elevators and the two Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer A. Three
(THS).
B. Two
B. Two elevators and the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS).
C. One active.
C. The Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS). 16. Two Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDCs) permit:
4. The roll control is achieved by:
A. The indicating functions to be achieved.
A. One aileron and spoilers number 2,3,4 and 5 on each wing.
B. Interface between two computer systems.
B. One aileron and spoilers number 2,3,4 on each wing.
C. The indicating and maintenance functions to be achieved.
C. Two aileron and spoilers number 3,4,5 on wing. 17. In case of failure of both ELACs, the SECs:
5. The automatic turn coordination is performed by:
A. Directly receive signals from the side sticks.
A. Roll/bank.
B. Directly receive signals from the FAC.
B. Yaw.
C. Still receive control signals via ELAC.
C. Roll/yaw. 18. The ELACs, SECs and FACs:
6. The turn coordination operation is insured by the rudder
A. Elaborate the flight control laws.
and:
B. Elaborate the flight control laws, including flight envelope
A. The roll spoilers and the ailerons.
protection.
B. The spoilers and the ailerons.
C. Elaborate the flight envelope protection to optimize the control
C. The ailerons. of the A/C.
7. The speed brake function is achieved by: 19. Precaution to be taken before operating the flight control
A. The spoilers number 2, 3, 5. surfaces is to:
B. The spoilers number 2, 3, 4. A. Make sure that the hydraulic system is depressurised.
C. The spoilers number 3, 4, 5. B. Make sure that the travel ranges of the surfaces are in limit.
8. Roll and speed brake orders are added with priority given C. Make sure that the travel ranges of the surfaces are clear.
to: 20. Precaution to be taken before operating the flight control
A. The speed brake orders. surfaces is to:
B. The roll function. A. Make sure that the controls agree with the position of the items
C. Both A & B they operate.
9. The ground spoiler function is activated to: B. Make sure that the hydraulic system is depressurised.
A. Destroy the lift at touch-down. C. Make sure that the travel ranges of the surfaces are in limit.
B. Destroy the lift at touch-down and roll-out phases. 21. The most important thing after a maintenance action done
C. Destroy the lift at touch-down and roll-out phases or aborted on flight control system is:
take-off. A. An depth inspection.
10. The high lift function is achieved by: B. A rigging.
A. The slats, the flaps and the ailerons. C. A n operational test.
B. The slats, the flaps and the spoiler number 5.
C. The slats, the flaps.
11. The A321 is equipped with: 22. All the flight control surfaces are
A. The double slotted slats. A. Electrically controlled and mechanical operated.
B. The double slotted flaps. B. Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated.
C. A&B C. Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated, except the
12. The aileron droop function increases the lift: stabilizer and the rudder have an hydromechanical control
A. On the wing root part back-up.
23. The autopilot commands are directly transmitted to:
B. On the lower part of the wing which is not equipped with
flaps. A. The flight control computers.
C. On the part of the wing which is not equipped with flaps. B. The flight control computers via FMGC.
1
 ATA 27 –FLIGHT CONTROLS

C. The flight control surfaces via FMGC. B. The ground mode and the flare mode.
C. The ground mode, the flight mode and the flare mode.
24. The side sticks, one on each lateral console, are used to: 36. The ground mode is activated:
A. Control the surfaces directly. A. After the flare mode when the main landing gear shock
B. Control the high lift system through the computers. absorbers are compressed.
C. Control the surfaces through the flight control computers. B. With pitch attitude confirmation.
25. The speed brake lever controls: C. Both A & B
A. The position of the speed brake surfaces. 37. The direct law can be activated in flight following failures:
B. The manual preselection of the ground spoilers. A. If the normal laws can no longer be performed.
C. A&B B. If the normal and the alternate laws can no longer be
26. Both THS pitch trim wheels provide: performed.
A. Electrical control. C. On the groumd only.
B. Mechanical control and have priority over electrical control. 38. All protections are lost in:
C. A&B A. The direct law.
27. The command sensor unit is used to B. The normal law.
A. Translates the electrical demand for ground spoilers systems. C. The alternate law.
B. Translates the mechanical demand into electrical signals for 39. The mechanical back-up permits the aircraft:
the Slat Flap Control Computers. A. To be controlled during a temporary loss of electrical power.
C. Is connected to Slat Flap servo contral actuator. B. To flight in ditching mode.
28. The rudder trim order is transmitted to the trim actuator C. To be controlled during a temporary complete loss of electrical
through: power or flight controls computers.
A. The Flight Control Data Concentrators
B. The Flight Management and Guidance Computers 40. When both side sticks are moved in the same direction:
C. The Flight Augmentation Computers. A. The signals are algebrically added and the sum is limited to the
29. The rudder trim position can be reseted to zero by using surface maximum deflection.
the: B. The signals are algebrically subtracted and the sum is not
A. Rudder trim reset pushbutton switch on the center pedestal. depended on the surface maximum deflection.
B. Stabilizer trim reset pushbutton switch on center pedestal. C. The signals are unsable.
C. Rudder trim reset pushbutton switch on the overhead panel. 41. In order to latch the side stick and maintain the priority,
30. Where can you energize, de-energize and reset the flight you must:
control computer: A. Press the take over push button.
A. Flight control unit. B. Keep the take over push button pressed in for more than 30
B. Flight control panel. seconds.
C. Avionics compartment C. Move the side stick continously.
31. The slat and flap indications are displayed on: 42. When engaged, the autopilot mode can be disengaged by:
A. The flight control ECAM page. A. Activating one take over pushbutton.
B. The wheel ECAM page B. Applying a force on the side stick above a given threshold.
C. The engine warning display. C. A & B.

32. All the flight control actuators are hydraulically operated 43. Each spoiler and speed brake indication is:
except: A. Green when the surface is operative and amber when
A. The rudder trim actuator. inoperative.
B. The rudder travel limitation actuator. B. Amber when the surface is operative and green when
inoperative.
C. The rudder trim actuator, the rudder travel limitation actuator
and the THS servo-motors. C. No indication as it is a dark cockpit philosophy.
33. In damping mode, the servo control actuator: 44. The indication “XX” appears to replace a control surface
position on ECAM means:
A. Actuates the surface
B. Follows the surface deflection.
A. Low pressure in three hydraulic system.
C. Remains in zero position.
B. No information from the surface.
C. Out of limit movement.
34. Which law provides a FULL FLIGHT ENVELOPE 45. To control the elevators and trimmable horizontal
PROTECTION? stabilizer:
A. Normal law. A. ELAC 1 normally controls, ELAC 2 as a back-up.
B. Alternate law. B. ELAC 2 normally controls, ELAC 1 as a back-up.
C. Both A & B C. ELACs normally controls, SECs as a back-up.
35. How many principal control modes are there? 46. The trimmable horizontal stabilizer driven by two
hydraulic motors which is:
A. The ground mode and the flight mode.
2
 ATA 27 –FLIGHT CONTROLS

A. Controlled by one electric motors. C. Using the rudder pedals which have a mechanical control.
B. Controlled by three electric motors.
C. Controlled by one of the three electric motors. 58. The rudder can receive input commands from:
47. Regarding the trimmable horizontal stabilizer: A. Rudder pedal input.
A. The mechanical trim which has priority over the electrical B. Rudder trim actuator and yaw damper input.
trim. C. A & B
B. The electrical trim which has priority over the mechanical 59. The rudder pedals is:
trim. A. Always available.
C. Only the manual trim wheels is used to control the surface. B. Only available when auto flight is disconnected.
C. Not available if auto flight is disconnected.
48. In case of total loss of all computers: 60. In manual flight, the ELACs transmit to the Flight
A. Roll control can be achieved by the mechanical back-up Augmentation Computers (FACs):
system. A. The turn coordination command only.
B. Pitch control can be achieved by the mechanical trim system. B. The travel limit command only.
C. Pitch control can be achieved by the mechanical trim switch. C. The yaw damping, turn coordination and rudder trim
commands.
49. The pressure-off brakes are applied in case of: 61. Which order do not move the rudder pedals (no
A. Mechanical failure. feedback)?
B. Electrical power loss. A. The rudder trim.
C. Hydraulic pressure loss. B. The yaw damping and the turn coordination orders.
50. Feedback is given to the THS trim wheels in the cockpit: C. A & B.
A. Yes. 62. Which computer normally control the rudder function?
B. No. A. FAC 1 has priority, FAC 2 is in hot stand-by.
C. Only ECAM indication is available. B. FAC 2 has priority
C. FMGC.
51. In order control aircraft in the roll, the Side stick sends 63. When the autopilot is engaged, which computer send
electrical orders to: commands to the FACs for rudder trim function?
A. The Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) and Spoiler A. The Elevator Aileron Computer (ELACs).
Elevator Computers (SECs). B. The Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs).
B. The Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) and Flight C. The Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs)
Augementation Computer. via ELACs.
C. The Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) only. 64. When the autopilot is engaged, which computer send
52. The roll function is performed by: commands to the FACs for yaw damping function:
A. Ailerons and spoiler number 2,3,4. A. The Elevator Aileron Computer (ELACs).
B. Ailerons and spoiler number 2,3,4,5. B. The Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs).
C. Ailerons. C. The Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs)
53. There are two ELACs to control the ailerons: via ELACs.
A. ELAC 2 normally controls, with ELAC 1 as back-up. 65. The rudder is powered by:
B. ELAC 1 normally controls, with ELAC 2 as back-up. A. Three hydraulic actuators operating one at a time.
C. ELAC 1 for the left side, ELAC 2 for the right side. B. Two hydraulic actuators
54. The SEC 1 sends orders to one pairs of spoilers: C. Three hydraulic actuators operating in parallel.
A. With SEC 2 back up. 66. The rudder deflection becomes limited as:
B. With SEC 3 back up. A. Speed is increased.
C. Without back-up. B. Speed is decreased.
C. Altitude is increased.
55. In case of both ELACs failure: 67. Which signals cause rudder pedal movements:
A. The SECs control the roll only by using the spoilers. A. Yaw damping signals.
B. Only SEC 1 controls the roll. B. Rudder trim signals.
C. The roll control is lost. C. Turn coordination signals.
56. In case of both servo controls failure of the same aileron:
A. The other aileron is inoperative. 68. The mechanical rudder control is available:
B. The other aileron is still operated. A. At all times.
C. It causes the failure of all spoilers of the same side. B. Only when 2 FACs fail.
57. In case of total electrical loss, induced roll is obtained by: C. When 3 ADRs or 3 IRs failure.
A. Using Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer which have a mechanical 69. Once the maintenance unlocking device is engaged the
control. spoiler surface:
B. The roll function is loss. A. Is locked in the retracted position.
3
 ATA 27 –FLIGHT CONTROLS

B. Can be raised manually for maintenance purposes. 81. The Ground Spoiler Function is:
C. Is deactivated in closed position. A. Semi-automatic.
70. The rudder trim actuator can be controlled: B. Automatic.
A. By the rudder trim control switch located in the center C. Manual control only.
pedestal. 82. The Ground spoiler are used for:
B. Either by the rudder trim control switch or by the FMGCs A. Speed brake function.
(Flight Management & Guidance Computer). B. Partial Lift Damping function.
C. In Auto Pilot mode only. C. A & B.
71. Which computers control the rudder trim actuator in 83. The Ground Spoiler function is activated:
manual mode? A. As soon as both Main Landing Gear legs are compressed.
A. The FMGCs only. B. As soon as the Nose Landing Gear leg is compressed.
B. The FACs only. C. When a pilot pulls the speed brake lever.
C. The FMGCs and the FACs. 84. Which computer control the ground spoiler function:
A. SEC 1 and SEC 2.
72. Full input/output movement to the rudder servo control is
B. SEC 1, SEC 2 and SEC 3.
available at:
A. High speed configuration.
C. SEC 1or SEC 2 or SEC 3.
B. Low speed configuration. 85. The FACs receive information computed either by the
C. Slat and Flap are retracted. ELACs or FMGCs for:
73. Limited input/output movement to the rudder servo A. Dutch roll damping.
control is available at:
B. Engine failure compensation and turn coordination.
A. High speed configuration.
C. A & B.
B. Low speed configuration. 86. Air datas are transmitted to the ELACs and SECs for
C. Slat and Flap are extends. flight envelope protection computation:
A. The ADIRS.
74. The Speed Brake Function is commanded:
B. The FMGCs.
A. Automatically in flight.
C. The FACs
B. In flight following a pilot‟s action.
C. On GRND only. 87. The Flight Control failures are sent to the Flight Warning
75. Which surfaces ensuring the speed brake function: Computers (FWCs):
A. Spoilers 2 through 5. A. Directly.
B. Spoilers 1 and 4. B. Via the Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDCs).
C. Spoilers 2 through 4. C. Via the ELACs.
76. The switching to alternate or direct laws:
A. Does not affect the Speed Brake Function. 88. Control and monitoring of the slat and flap system is
B. Does affect the Speed Brake Function. ensure by:
C. Activates the Ground spoiler function. A. The Slat/Flap Power Control Unit.
77. Which order has priority between the roll and the speed B. The Command sensor unit.
brake function: C. The SFCCs
A. No priority. 89. Wing tip brakes are provided in order to:
B. The roll function. A. Stop and lock the flap/slat system.
C. The speed brake function. B. Release the flap/slat system.
78. If the angle of attack protection is activated with speed C. Reduce the aircraft speed at landing.
brakes extended: 90. The signal used to control and monitor the Slats/Flaps
A. The speed brakes are remained to extend. system is provided by:
B. The speed brakes are automatically retracted to 5 degrees A. A Feedback Position Pick Off Units.
position. B. An Asymmetry Position Pick Off Units.
C. The speed brakes are automatically retracted. C. An Instrumentation Position Pick Off Units.
79. In normally operation, which computer control speed 91. The signal used for flaps/slats position indicating on
brake: ECAM is provided by:
A. SEC 1 and SEC 3. A. A Feedback Position Pick Off Units.
B. SEC 1 and SEC 2. B. An Asymmetry Position Pick Off Units.
C. SEC 1 active and SEC 3 hot stanby. C. An Instrumentation Position Pick Off Units.
80. Which surfaces ensures the ground spoiler function: 92. Which component translates the mechanical demand into
A. Spoilers 1 through 5. electrical signals for the SFCCs.
B. Spoilers 2 and 4. A. The Command Sensor Unit.
C. Spoilers 2 through 5. B. The Command Interface Unit.
4
 ATA 27 –FLIGHT CONTROLS

C. The Slats/Flaps control lever.

93. One chanel of Slats/Flaps Control Computer (SFCC) can:
A. Control and monitor one slat system.
B. Control and monitor the flap and slat system.
C. Control and monitor one flap system.
94. The Slat Flap control computer inhibits slat retraction
from position 1 to 0:
A. At low angle of attack or low speed :alpha-lock function
B. At low angle of attack or high speed
C. At high angle of attack or low speed: alpha-lock function
95. With one SFCC inoperative, both slat and flap systems
operate:
A. At half speed.
B. Normal.
C. Depending on the faulty channel of the SFCC
96. A Pressure Off Brake on each motor locks the
transmission when:
A. The selected position is reached.
B. No drive commands or in case of hydraulic power failure.
C. A & B.
97. An Asymmetry Position Pick-off Unit is installed at:
A. The end of the transmission system on each wing.
B. The PDU gearbox output.
C. Between track number 1 and 2.
98. The Asymmetry and Feedback Position Pick-off Unit are
used:
A. To transmit overspeed conditions.
B. To monitor asymmetry, runaway or overspeed conditions.
C. By the ECAM to show abnormal aircraft attitude.
99. The Wing Tip Brakes are:
A. Operated electrically by the SFCC.
B. Operated electrically by a control lever on the pedestal
C. Controlled by The SFCC and operated hydraulically.
100. Once applied the WTB can be:
A. Reset on ground only via the Centralized Fault Display
System.
B. Reset on ground automatically.
C. Reset in flight.

5
 ATA 28 –FUEL
14. What is the function of the main pump pressure switch?
ATA 28 - FUEL A. Monitor the pump pressure for the low pressure warning
B. Monitor the pump for overpressure warning.
1. Which tanks are the main supply tanks? (A320) C. Stop the pump when over pressure occurred
A. Center tank and inner cells. 15. The APU fuel is normally supplied from:
B. Center Tank. A. From the right supply line.
C. Outer Cells. B. From the left supply line.
2. The Fuel Quantity Indicating System comprises: C. Both A & B
A. Two FQIC and two FLSCU. 16. The APU fuel pump is electrical supplied by the:
B. One FQIC and two FLSCU. A. AC ESS SHED bus or the batteries via the static inverter
C. One FQIC and one FLSCU. B. The batteries via the static inverter
3. When the center tank fuel has been used, engines are supplied C. Hot BAT bus
by the: (A320) 17. What is the function of air release valve?
A. First with the inner cell fuel and then with the outer cell fuel A. Enables the line to be bled.
which flows into the inner cell B. Allows fuel to return to the tank
B. First with the outer cell and then inner cell C. Protects the feed line against over pressure
C. The inner, outer cells and vent tanks 18. What happens when low level is detected in the inner cell?
4. The main function of the fuel system is to: (A320)
A. Supply fuel to the engines and APU and re-circulate fuel to A. Inner cell transfer valves open.
cool the oil of the IDGs B. Inner cell transfer valves close
B. Supply fuel to the engines and APU C. Pumps restart to suck fuel from outer cells.
C. Supply fuel to the engines and APU and re-circulates fuel to 19. The inner cell is refueled only when? (A320)
cool the engine oil A. Center tank is full.
5. Where are the main fuel pumps fitted? (A320) B. Outer cell is full.
A. In Center tank and inner cells. C. Outer cell is empty
B. In Center Tank. 20. The normal position of the X-FEED valve is:
C. In Outer Cells. A. Close
6. What is the maximum total fuel capacity? (A320) B. Open
A. 12 470 KG C. Automatically controlled
B. 15 588 KG 21. In flight, slats are extended, with fuel in the center tank,
C. 18 729 KG AUTO mode is selected (A320):
7. In normal operation, the wing tank pumps: (A320) A. Center tank pumps start.
A. Run continuously B. Center tank pumps stop.
B. Stop when center tank pumps are running C. Center tank pumps start to transfer fuel to the wing tanks.
C. Run if center tank is empty 22. On ground, slats extended, in AUTO MODE with fuel in the
8. What is the function of the sequence valves? (A320) center tank, and one Minute after engines start? (A320)
A. Give priority to wing tank pumps supply. A. Center tank pumps are running.
B. Give priority to refuel the wing tank before the center tank. B. Center tank pumps are stopped.
C. Give priority to center tank pump supply by limiting wing tank C. The wing tank pumps are stopped.
pumps output pressure. 23. The MODE SEL pushbutton control (A320):
9. Center tank is supplying, are wing tank pumps running? A. Center and wing tank pumps.
A. Yes, wing tank pumps are always running. B. Center tank pumps only.
B. No, only when center tank is empty. C. Wing tank pumps only.
C. No, because of center tank pump priority.
10. The engine LP valve closes when:
A. The fuel booster pumps pressure decreases. 24. The MODE SEL is to select the center tank pumps to:
B. The engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is (A320)
released out. A. Automatic or manual mode
C. The engine fire detection system senses an engine fire. B. Stop
11. When there is a low level in one inner cell: (A320) C. Run continuously.
A. One intercell transfer valve opens. 25. When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, center
B. Two transfer valves in one wing, open. tank pumps: (A320)
C. One transfer valve in each wing, open. A. Must be manually switched OFF.
B. Stop automatically
C. Stop automatically after a time delay.
12. The transfer valves are controlled by: (A320) 26. Fuel from the surge tank returns back into the outer cell by:
A. Low level sensors in inner cells (A320)
B. High level sensors in inner cells A. By gravity.
C. Low level sensors in outer cells B. A scavenge jet pump
13. Once open, the transfer valves will close: (A320) C. A DC electric fuel pump
A. Manually by the mechanic. 27. The center tank is vented into:
B. Automatically when outer cell is empty. A. The left vent surge tank.
C. Automatically at the next refuelling B. The right vent surge tank.
1

C. The left wing tank
28. What happen when there is an over pressure in the center
tank?
A. The center tank overpressure protector relieves excess pressure
into the left inner cell.
B. The center tank overpressure protector relieves excess pressure
into the right inner cell.
C. The center tank overpressure protector relieves excess pressure
overboard.
29. What is the function of the vent float valves?
A. Prevent air from passing in the vent lines during aircraft bank
maneuvers.
B. Prevent fuel from passing in the vent lines during aircraft bank
maneuvers
C. Return fuel from the vent lines into the tanks
30. An excess pressure in the inner cell is relieved via an
overpressure protector (A320):
A. Into the Outer cell.
B. Into the Center tank.
C. Overboard.
31. The function of the vent protector (flame arrestor) is:
A. To reduce the risk of a ground fire igniting the fuel tanks.
B. Allows fuel flows from the vent surge tank vent to the
atmosphere
C. To protect vent surge tank against overpressure
32. The fuel supply to the APU is normally from:
A. The left-hand cross feed line.
B. The right-hand cross feed line.
C. Either left or right cross feed line
33. When the crossfeed valve is open, the APU can supplies fuel
from:
A. The left-hand cross feed line.
B. The right-hand cross feed line.
C. Either left or right cross feed line
34. The APU pump operation is controlled by:
A. APU Pressure switch.
B. A push-button switch on the overhead panel.
C. A push-button switch on the Refuel/Defuel panel
35. The APU Low Pressure fuel shut-off valve OPENS when:
A. The APU MASTER SW is set to ON
B. FUEL VENT push-button switch in the APU compartment is
pressed and held.
C. Either A or B
36. The APU Pump is powered from:
A. The essential busbar (801XP)
B. The static inverter busbar (901XP)
C. The static inverter busbar when the essential is not energized.
37. What is the function of the APU pump canister?
A. Permits pump replacement even with fuel the APU fuel line.
B. Permits correct operation of the pump
C. Protects the pump against overtemperature
38. How many motors does the APU LP valve have?
A. Two AC motor.
B. Two DC motors.
C. Two motors, one DC (for a battery start) and one AC.
39. The function of the APU pressure switch is:
A. To control APU pump operation
B. To control APU LP valve
C. To shut the APU LP valve in case over pressure
40. The function of the FUEL VENT PB in APU compartment
is:
A. To run the APU fuel pump to purge the fuel line.
B. To ventilate the APU fuel line.
ATA 28 –FUEL
C. To prevent APU fuel pump operation
41. The Inner cell is refueled only when: (A320)
A. Center tank is full.
B. Outer cell is full.
C. Outer cell is empty.
42. Refuel valves may be actuated:
A. Electrically only.
B. Manually only.
C. Electrically or manually.
43. The functions of the Diffusers are:
A. Diffuse fuel into the tanks with minimum electrostatic build up
B. Diffuse fuel into the tanks with minimum turbulence
C. Both A & B
44. When a high level sensor is immersed in fuel:
A. The related refuel valve automatically closes
B. The related refuel valve opens
C. You should manually close the related refuel valve
45. A blue HI LVL light in refuel/defuel control panel comes on
when:
A. The associated high level sensor is immersed
B. The fuel pumps stop automatically
C. Both A & B
46. The amber OPEN light on the refuel/defuel control panel
comes on when:
A. The MODE SELECTOR is set to REFUEL and the opening of
the refuel valves are confirmed
B. The MODE SELECTOR is set to DEFUEL/XFR
C. The MODE SELECTOR is set to DEFUEL/XFR and the
opening of the Defuel/Transfer Valve is confirmed
47. The green END light on the refuel/defuel control panel
flashes when:
A. Automatic refueling is completed
B. Incorrect fuel preselection or Automatic refuel operation has
stopped
C. The Refuel/Defuel access panel is closed
48.For automatic refueling, the position of the REFUEL
VALVES selectors must be:
A. OPEN
B. NORM
C. SHUT
49. The fuel unbalance limitation between two wings is:
A. 2000KG
B. 1500KG
C. 2500KG
50. For fuel transfer, the position of the X-FEED valve must be:
A. OPEN
B. CLOSE
C. Either OPEN or CLOSE
51. The test switch on the refuel/defuel panel is:
A. To test high level sensors circuit.
B. To test all panel light and indications
C. Both A or B
52. The amber OPEN light on the refuel/defuel control panel is:
A. To confirm the opening of the defuel/transfer valve
B. To indicate refuel valves open
C. To indicate refuel valves manually opened
53. If one channel of the FQIC fails:
A. Half of the Quantity Indicating data is no longer available.
B. FQIS operates normally; only CFDS report will indicate
failure.
C. Fuel warning is triggered in addition to CFDS report.
2
 ATA 28 –FUEL
54. The fuel level magnetic indicators are used when: C. X feed valve fully open
A. The quantity indicating system is inoperative. 68. The main tank pump PB FAULT light comes on when:
B. There is no electrical power. A. The pump pressure is too high
C. There is no electrical power and the quantity indicating system B. The pump pressure is too low
is inoperative. C. The pump temperature is too high
55. What is the function of by-pass suction valve? (A321) 69. The FAULT light on the MODE SEL PB comes on when:
A. Allows the engines to be fed by gravity in the event of (A321)
complete failure of both main pumps A. There is an automatic transfer failure.
B. Gives priority to the first main pump operation. B. The center tank transfer valves in manual mode
C. Allows the engines to be fed by both main pumps C. There is an overflow in the center tank
56. Are main pumps running while center tank is transferring? 70. The FAULT light on the CTR TK L (R) XFR push button
(A321) comes on when: (A321)
A. Yes, main pumps are always running. A. Automatic transfer failure.
B. No, only when center tank is empty. B. Center tank is empty
C. No, because of center tank pump priority. C. Associated wing tank overflow
57. The engine LP valve closes when: 71. In case of a single probe failure: (A320)
A. The fuel booster pump pressure decreases. A. The system indication is lost
B. The engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is B. The system indication is not affected (except for probe 13
released out. and 14)
C. An engine fire is detected C. The system indication is blanked
58. The APU can normally be supplied with fuel by:
A. Gravity.
B. LH or RH main pumps.
C. LH main pumps or APU fuel pump. 72. Which computer performs the fuel mass calculations?
59. What happens if a quantity probe fails? (A321) A. FQIC
A. Corresponding tank quantity display flashes. B. FLSCU
B. Quantity indication disappears. C. Both A and B
C. Quantity indication remains the same. 73. The fuel used indication on ECAM is reset:
A. At engine start
60. What does the fuel MODE SEL pushbutton control? (A320) B. At engine shut down
A. Center and wing tank pumps C. At aircraft power up.
B. Center tank pumps 74. The center tank fuel low level has been reached and the
C. Wing tank pumps only MODE SEL is in AUTO? (A320)
61. During refueling, the wing tank fills in the following order: A. Center tank pumps stop
(A320) B. Center tank pumps stop automatically after 5 minutes.
A. The Outer cell first, then the Inner cell C. A warnings is displayed and the pumps have to be switched
B. The Outer cell and Inner cell at the same time off
C. The Inner cell first, then the Outer cell 75. The recirculated fuel is returned into the: (A320)
62. In normal operation, each engine is supplied by: (A320) A. Wing tank outer cell,
A. One wing tank and/ or one center tank pump B. Center tank,
B. Two wing tanks and/ or two center tank pumps C. Wing tank inner cell.
C. Two wing tanks and/ or one center tank pump 76. The fuel level in the inner cell drops to the low level sensor?
63. In normal operation, each engine is supplied by: (A321) A. The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve closes,
A. One wing tank and/ or one center tank pump B. The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve opens,
B. Two wing tanks and/ or two center tank pumps C. The center tank transfer starts.
C. Two wing tanks 77. The fuel diverter and return valves receiver closed signal
64. Center tank XFR valves are use to: (A321) from: (A320)
A. Transfer fuel from center tank to wing tanks through the jet A. FLSCUs
pumps. B. EECs
B. Transfer fuel from center tank to the engines through the jet C. FQIC
pumps. 78. The function of the pressure holding valve is:
C. Transfer fuel from center tank to the APU feed line A. To prevent fuel boiling.
65. What does the fuel MODE SEL pushbutton control? (A321) B. To avoid fuel overpressure
A. Center and wing tank pumps C. To prevent fuel returns to the engine
B. Center tank XFR valves 79. The pressure holding valve is located:
C. Wing tank pumps only A. On the engine
66. The ON light on the X Feed PB comes on when: B. In the inner tank
A. X feed PB is pressed in C. On the fuel return to tank line
B. X feed valve close 80. The fuel recirculation system is controlled by:
C. X feed valve is in transit A. EEC.
67. The OPEN light on the X Feed PB comes on when: B. FLSCU
A. X feed valve is in transit C. EEC and FLSCU
B. X feed PB is ON 81. The purpose of the fuel recirculation system is:
3
 ATA 28 –FUEL
A. To cool the IDG oil
B. To return unused fuel from engine
C. Both A & B
82. A low level is detected in the inner cell? (A320)
A. Automatically, transfer valves open to admit fuel to both inner
cells.
B. Automatically, transfer valves close to isolate the inner cells.
C. The pumps are stopped to avoid fuel overflow into the outer
tank.
83. What is the purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor? (A321)
A. To stop the center tank pumps.
B. To restart cooling fuel recirculation.
C. To stop the fuel recirculation
84. Full level sensors are fitted in: (A320)
A. Inner and outer cells.
B. Inner cells and center tank
C. Outer cells only.
85. In which tanks are temperature sensors fitted? (A321)
A. Center tank.
B. Wing tanks and center tank.
C. Wing tanks.
86. The fuel recirculation system is monitored by:
A. Full level sensors
B. Underfull level sensors
C. Low level sensors
87. All wing pumps are running, MOD SEL in MAN and XFR
valves are opened: (A321)
A. Fuel transfers from center tank to wing tanks without any
protection.
B. Nothing happens
C. Fuel transfers from center tank to wing tanks controlled by the
full sensors

4
 ATA 29 –HYDRAULIC POWER

A. The fire valve closes to stop the supply of fluid to the EDP.
ATA 29 - HYDRAULIC POWER B. The isolated valve closes to stop the supply of fluid to the
1. A bidirectional Power Transfer Unit (PTU) enables: EDP.
A. The green hydraulic fluid to flow into the yellow system C. The fire valve closes to stop the EDP.
14. The case drain circuit is used for purpose of:
B. The green and yellow hydraulic fluid to power both systems
A. The Engine Driven Pump drainage.
C. The green system powered by the yellow system or vice versa,
without fluid transfer. B. The Engine Driven Pump cooling.
2. A Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is provided in: C. Lubricating flow
A. The blue system for emergency use. 15. The yellow electric pump runs:
B. The green system for emergency use. A. If the ELEC PUMP pushbutton is set to ON
C. The yellow system for emergency use. B. If the cargo door selector is activated.
3. A hand pump is provided in: C. A or B.
A. The yellow system for landing gear door manual operation.
16. With the ELEC PUMP pushbutton set to AUTO, the blue
B. The yellow system for cargo door manual operation.
electric pump will run:
C. The yellow system for PTU operation.
A. If one engine is running.
4. The green reservoir is located in:
B. The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton is set to ON.
A. The main landing gear bay
C. A or B.
B. The nose landing gear bay
17. What is a control computer in hydraulic system:
C. The green hydraulic compartment
A. The FMGC.
5. All the reservoirs are filled from:
B. Nil.
A. The green ground service panel
C. The AFS.
B. Separated service panel
18. The PTU is inhibited during:
C. The tail section
A. The second engine start and cargo door operation.
6. A fire shut-off valve is positioned:
B. The first engine start and cargo door operation.
A. Downstream of the engine driven pump
C. The first cargo door operation.
B. Upstream of the engine driven pump
19. On ground, when no electrical power is available, you can:
C. On the engine driven pump
A. Open or close the cargo doors.
7. With the BLUE ELEC PUMP pushbutton set to AUTO:
B. Fill the hydraulic reservoids.
A. The electric pump operates at first engine start.
C. A and B
B. The pump is de-energized.
20. When the guarded LEAK MEASUREMENT VALVES
C. The pump operates in case of both EDP failure pushbutton is set to OFF:
8. A leak measurement valve is positioned in each circuit:
A. The leak measurement valve isolates the flight controls.
A. Upstream of the primary flight controls.
B. The leak isolation valve isolates the flight controls.
B. Downstream of the primary flight controls.
C. The leak isolation valve isolates the cargo door controls.
C. Downstream of the landing gear system.
9. On the blue hydraulic system, the Constant Speed 266.In flight, if the blue electric pump fails the blue system:
Motor/Generator (CSM/G) is used: (A,B1,B2)
A. To provide A/C electrical power in case of emergency.
A. Is lost.
B. To provide hydraulic power in case of emergency.
C. Both A & B
B. Can be recovered by the RAT.
10. An identification of a hydraulic system comprising: C. Can be recovered by the PTU.
A. A number 1, 2 or 3 respectively indicating the Yellow, Blue, D. Both B and C.
or Green system.
B. A number 1, 2 or 3 respectively indicating the Blue, Green, or 267.Which component(s) send a Warning and Fault signals on
Yellow system. the blue hydraulic system? (B1,B2)
C. A number 1, 2 or 3 respectively indicating the Green, Blue, or A. Only the low air pressure switch
Yellow system. B. Only the low level detector
11. The fire valve is green in line when:
A. Closed.
C. The high level detector

B. Open or not fully closed.

D. Overheat sensor, low air pressure switch and low level
detector
C. Open or in-transit.
12. Where can you check the hydraulic quantity: 268.In flight, the blue hydraulic system can be supplied by:
A. On ECAM and Green service panel. (B1,B2)
B. On ECAM and reservoirs. A. The RAT and the electrical pump.
C. A&B
13. When ENG FIRE push-button is pushed in:
B. The engine driven pump.
1
 ATA 29 –HYDRAULIC POWER

C. The PTU (Power Transfer Unit). available, PTU selected to "AUTO" and engines not
running? (B1,B2)
D. It can not be supplied.
(Question is not so clear as in normal flight condition or in abnormal A. The green and yellow systems are pressurized
flight condition?) B. The green and blue systems are pressurized
C. Only the yellow system is pressurized
269.The RAT is automatically extended in case of: (B1,B2)
D. The green, blue and yellow systems are pressurized
A. Loss of AC bus1 and bus2 and speed above 100 Knots.
B. Blue hydraulic pump failure 277.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow
C. Can only be extended manually. system? (B1)
D. Blue pump delivery pressure dropping below 1750 PSI. A. The priority valve closes automatically, cuts the pressure to the
primary flight controls, in order to supply the flaps
270.During first engine start the PTU is: (A,B1,B2) B. The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight
A. Automatically running. controls
B. Tested. C. The priority valve closes to cut off hydraulic power to the
flaps, in order to supply the other users
C. Inhibited.
D. The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps
271.During second engine start the PTU is: (B1, B2)
278.When is the engine driven pump in the depressurized
A. Automatically running. mode? (B1)
B. Tested. A. When the ENG PUMP pushbutton is set to OFF
C. Inhibited. B. The engine pump can not be depressurized as long as the
engine is running
272.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow
hydraulic systems? (B1) C. The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output
pressure drops below 1450psi
A. The priority valve close automatically, cuts the pressure to the
primary flight controls, in order to supply the flaps 279.What happens if hydraulic pressure drops? (A,B1,B2)
B. The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight A. The priority valves give priority to the heavy loads users.
controls
B. The priority valves give priority to the essential systems
C. The priority valve closes cut off hydraulic power to the flaps,
in order to supply the other users C. The priority valves modulate the pressure to the users
D. The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps. 280.A Blue system pipeline is identified by: (A,B1,B2)
273.When is engine fire Shut Off valve of a hydraulic system A. A blue band and number 1.
closed? (B1,B2) B. A blue band and number 2.
A. Automatically when the engine is shut down C. A blue band and number 3.
B. If the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is released out.
281.When the PTU operation is inhibited? (B1,B2)
C. Automatically as soon as engine fire is detected
A. In case of cargo door operations with the yellow electric pump
274.To which system(s) will the Ram Air Turbine provide or first engine start.
hydraulic power? (A,B1,B2) B. Only if an engine failure has been detected.
A. The blue system C. Never, it cannot be inhibited.
B. The yellow system
282.When is the engine fire shut off valve closed? (A,B1,B2)
C. The green and yellow systems
A. When the engine is shut down
D. The blue and yellow systems
B. Automatically as soon as an engine fire is detected.
275.Where is the hydraulic system temperature sensor located? C. If the engine fire pushbutton is release out.
(B1,B2)
A. In the reservoir 283.When is the engine driven pump in the depressurized
mode? (B1,B2) – The same question 109
B. On the return manifold
A. When eng pump pushbutton is set to OFF
C. On the HP. filter
B. The engine pump cannot be depressurized as the engine is
D. On the case drain filter running
276.What will happen when the Yellow electric pump P/B is set C. The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output
to "ON", with aircraft on ground, electrical power pressure drops below 1450psi

2
 ATA 29 –HYDRAULIC POWER
284.How can the LH wing be supplied independently during the
leak measurement test? (B1) 293.How is the wing anti-ice valve controlled and operated?
A. By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and operating (B1,B2)
the electric pump. A. Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated
B. Pneumatically controlled and operated
B. By pressurizing the yellow system by using the PTU. C. Electrically controlled and operated
C. By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and manually D. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
open the LH wing spool valve
294.How many computers does the Window Heat system use?
285.What can the hand pump be used for? (A,B1,B2) (B1,B2)
A. To pressurized the reservoir. A. A single computer for the LH side and RH side
B. Two computers, one for the LH side and RH side and the other
B. To check the flight controls one as a back-up
C. To operate the cargo doors C. Two computers, one for the LH side, one for the RH side
D. No computer is used for this system
286.During which operation is the leak measurement valve
closed automatically (A,B1,B2) 295.Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on ground?
A. PTU operation. (B1,B2)
A. No, you can operate the system in flight only
B. Cargo door operation. B. Yes, but for a limited time of 30 secs
C. Hand pump operation. C. Yes, for an unlimited time
D. Yes, but only if the outside temperature is less than 10°C
287.What are the manual depressurization valves provided for?
(A, B1) 296.In the event of a wing anti-ice valve failure? (B1,B2)
A. Individual reservoir depressurization A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position.
B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position.
B. Depressurization of related hydraulic circuit C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position.
C. Hydraulic system depressurization
297.Hot air used for wing anti-iced is taken from? (A,B1,B2)
ATA 30 – ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION A. Aircraft pneumatic system.
B. Bleed from either engine 1 or 2.
288.In case of electrical power failure, with engine running, the C. Directly from the main engine compressors.
engine anti-ice valve is: (B1,B2)
A. Fully closed 298.What happens in case of insufficient air pressure to the
B. Fully open engine anti-ice valve? (B1,B2)
C. Modulating A. The valve closed as it is spring loaded closed.
D. Mechanically latched in its last position B. The valve opened as it is spring loaded open.
C. Stayed as it is.
289.Slats protected by hot air supplied from the pneumatic
system are: (B1,B2) 299.With both engine anti-ice push buttons set to ON (B1,B2)
A. Three inboard leading edge slats A. The N1 limit will increase.
B. Three outboard leading edge slats B. The N1 limit will decrease.
C. Slat 2, 3, 4 C. The N1 limit will not change.
D. All the slats
300.In the event of an engine anti-ice valve failure? (A,B1,B2)
290.When is the TAT probe heated? (B1,B2) A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position.
A. Heated in flight - not heated on ground B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position.
B. Heated on ground - not heated in flight C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position.
C. Heated when the outside temperature is less than 0°C
D. Heated when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C 301.What happens when the EIU power supply C/B are pulled?
(B1,B2)
291.A ground test of the wing anti-ice system, with pneumatic A. Nothing happens.
pressure available, tests: (B1,B2) B. The windshield heating is cut off.
A. The warning system C. The windshield and windows are heated.
B. Only the indications as the valves cannot be opened on ground
C. The operation of the valves 302.What happens in case of WHC failure? (B1,B2)
D. Only the valves solenoid supply as the valves cannot be A. The failed WHC connects to the other.
opened on ground B. Both systems are lost.
C. The heating of the related side is lost.
292.The wing anti-ice valve is: (B1,B2)
A. A modulating and isolation valve 303.How do you complete a test of the drain mast heating
B. Only an isolation valve system? (B1,B2)
C. Partially open in flight, fully open on ground A. From PTP.
3
 ATA 29 –HYDRAULIC POWER
B. From test push button of the control unit.
C. Both a & b.

304.How the Pitot probe be HEATED ? (B1,B2)

A. Heated in flight - not heated on ground
B. Heated on ground - not heated in flight
C. Reduced heating on GND, normal heating in FLT.
D. Heated when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C

305.When PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is in auto

position and you run one engine, what happens? (B1,B2)
A. All Probe and Windows heat systems activated.
B. Probe and Windows on the related side of the engine will be
heated.
C. Nothing happens.

306.How is the engine anti-ice work? (B1)

A. Electrically controlled and operated by 5th stage bleed air,
spring loaded open.
B. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage bleed air,
spring loaded closed.
C. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage bleed air,
spring loaded open.

307.The Engine anti-ice valve FAULT light comes on (B1,B2)

A. During valve transit.
B. When position disagreed
C. During valve transit or when position disagreed.

4
 ATA 30 –ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
10. The Window Heat Computer (WHC) provides heating levels
ATA 30 - ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION for the windshield: (B1)
a) High level in flight, low level on the ground.
1. A/C ice protection is given by: (A, B1) b) High level in flight and ground.
a) Hot air or electrical power. c) High level in flight, on the ground depends on outside
b) Hot air. temperature.
c) Electrical power.

2. The areas that hot air supplies for Ice protection are: (A, B1) 11. The waste water ice protection is installed to prevent ice
a) The leading edge of the slats 3, 4 and 5 on each wing and formation in: (B1)
engine air intakes. a) Drain lines and fwd and aft drain masts
b) The leading edge of the slats 1, 2 and 3 on each wing. b) Fwd and aft drain masts only.
c) All leading edge of the slats on each wing. c) Fwd and aft drain masts and waste tank.
3. The items with electrical heaters for Ice protection are: (A, B1) 12. In the event of an engine anti-ice valves failure? (A, B1)
a) Cockpit windshield and side windows. a) This valve can be deactivated in open position.
b) Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes. b) Both valve shall be deactivated in pair in either close or open
c) Angle of Attack (alpha) probes and Pitot and Static probes of position.
the Air Data System (ADS). c) Only the RH valve can be deactivated in open position.
d) All of above. d) None of the above.
4. The wing anti-ice valves are: (B1)
a) Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated. In case of
electrical failure, it is spring-loaded to close position.
b) Electronically operated.
c) Pneumatically operated, and, for safety, spring-loaded to close
position.

5. Is it possible to supply hot air to two wings for ice protection

from only one engine bleed-air system: (A, B1)
a) Yes, the cross-bleed valve opens to connect the two pneumatic
systems.
b) Yes, the cross-bleed valve is set to AUTO position.
c) No.

6. Engine air intake ice protection uses hot air from: (B1)
a) Engine HP compressor.
b) A/C pneumatic system.
c) Engine LP compressor.

7. The wing ice protection system is: (B1)

a) Only used during flight, but can be tested on the ground.
b) Only used during flight, but can be tested on the ground for 60
seconds.
c) Used during flight and ground if required.

8. The wing ice protection system: (B1)

a) Can be tested on ground and stops automatically after 30
seconds.
b) Can be tested on the ground. To prevent heat damage to the
slats, the ground test must stop manually after 30 seconds.
c) Cannot be tested on the ground.

9. The windshield anti-icing and defogging system is made up of:

(B1)
a) Two independent sub-systems, left and right.
b) Two dependent sub-systems, left and right.
c) Three dependent sub-systems, left, right and standby.

1
 ATA 31 –INDICATING

ATA 31 - INDICATING
11. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT?
1. ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS PRESENT
A. Master Warning use for any Red warning, Master Caution use
DATA FOR THE:
for level 2 amber warning
A. Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS).
B. Master Warning use for any level 2 amber warning Master
B. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) Caution use for Red warning,
C. ECAM and EFIS C. Both Master Warning and Master Caution use for any Red
warning
2. THE 6 DISPLAY UNITS (DUS) ARE:
A. Identical and interchangeable. 12. THE DISPLAY MANAGEMENT COMPUTERS
B. Not interchangeable PROCESS DATA IN ORDER TO
C. Only 3 DUs of Captain side can be interchangeable. A. Generate codes and graphic instructions corresponding to the
image to be displayed.
3. THE NAVIGATION DISPLAY PRESENTS: B. Generate red warning message
A. Navigation and radar information C. Generate red warning message
B. Velocity and altitude information
C. Aircraft system parameters 13. REGARDING THE 3 DMCs WHICH STATEMENT IS
CORRECT?
4. THE EFIS DISPLAYS COMPRISES: A. Only DMC3 can interchange for DMC 1
A. Primary Flight Display (PFD) B. Fully interchangeable
B. Navigation Display (ND) C. Only DMC2 can interchange for DMC 1
C. PFD and ND
14. IN NORMAL CONFIGURATION DMC 1 PROCESS:
5. THE ENGINE AND WARNING DISPLAY PRESENTS: A. PFD1, ND2 and upper ECAM display.
A. Primary Engine parameters indications, B. PFD1, ND1 and upper ECAM display.
B. Fuel quantity, and Flaps/Slats position. C. PFD2, ND2 and lower ECAM display.
C. Engine indications, fuel quantity, and Flaps/Slats position.
15. IN NORMAL CONFIGURATION DMC 2 PROCESS:
A. PFD1, ND1 and upper ECAM display.
B. PFD1, ND2 and upper ECAM display.
6. THE LOWER DISPLAY PRESENTS: C. PFD2, ND2 and lower ECAM display
A. Either system pages synoptic or status messages. 16. THE FWC GENERATES:
B. Warning message and Flap/Slat position A. All warning messages and supplies the attention getters.
C. Status messages B. Only Red Warning messages
C. Only Attention getters
7. THE ECAM DISPLAYS comprise:
A. One Engine and Warning Display (E/W) 17. WHICH COMPUTER CALCULATES THE FLIGHT
B. One system or Status Display (SD) PHASE?
C. Both E/W and SD. A. SDAC
B. FWC
8. THE WARNING MESSAGES ARE ACCOMPANIED C. Both A and B
BY:
A. MASTER WARNING, or a MASTER CAUTION and an
aural warning. 18. THE Sdacs ACQUIRE MOST OF THE AIRCRAFT
B. Only MASTER WARNING SYSTEM SIGNALS IN ORDER TO:
C. MASTER CAUTION and an aural warning. A. Generate Red warnings
B. Display system pages and used by the FWCs to generate
9. THE DISPLAYS IN DUs CAN BE TRANSFERRED: amber warnings.
A. Automatically C. Generate all warnings messages.
B. Manually.
C. Manually and automatically 19. THE INPUTS RECEIVED BY THE FWC ARE USED
TO
10. THE CREW CAN MANUALLY TRANSFER A. Elaborate red warnings.
DISPLAYS: B. Elaborate amber warnings
A. From SD to ND C. Elaborate red and amber warnings
B. From Upper ECAM (E/W) to Lower ECAM (SD)
C. From SD to ND, PFD to ND and ND to PFD
1
 ATA 31 –INDICATING
20. THE INPUTS RECEIVED BY THE SDAC ARE USED B. In green the landing capability and some reminder
TO information.
A. Elaborate red warnings. C. The inoperative systems and the maintenance status.
B. Elaborate amber warnings
C. Elaborate red and amber warnings 30. THE STATUS PAGE IS NO LONGER EMPTY WHEN:
A. An aural warning appear
B. An message appear on the UPPER ECAM
21. THE EIS DMC SELECTOR SWITCH IS AT THE C. A white STS message appears on the ENGINE and
CAPTAIN 3 POSITION: WARNING display
A. DMC 3 replaces DMC 1
B. DMC 3 replaces DMC 2
C. DMC 2 replaces DMC 1 31. THE ENGINE / WARNING DISPLAY IS NORMALLY
DISPLAYED:
22. THE EIS DMC SELECTOR SWITCH IS AT THE FIRST A. On the upper ECAM Display Unit.
OFFICER 3 POSITION B. On the lower ECAM Display Unit.
A. DMC 3 replaces DMC 1 C. Only in special condition
B. DMC 3 replaces DMC 2
C. DMC 2 replaces DMC 1 32. ENGINE PRIMARY PARAMETERS ARE DISPLAYED
ON:
23. PRESSING THE CAPTAIN PFD/ND TRANSFER A. The lower ECAM
PUSHBUTTON WILL: B. The ND display
A. Interchange the Captain PFD and ND images. C. The upper area of Engine / Warning Display
B. Replace DMC 2 by DMC3 in control of the captain side
C. Interchange the Captain PFD and Lower ECAM 33. WARNING AND CAUTION MESSAGES ARE
DISPLAYED ON:
24. THE ECAM/ND TRANSFER SELECTOR SWITCH IS A. The lower ECAM
AT TO THE CAPTAIN POSITION: B. The lower area of Engine / Warning Display
A. The System Display replaces the F/O ND. C. The ND display
B. The System Display replaces the Captain PFD.
C. The System Display replaces the Captain ND. 34. AS SOON AS A FAILURE IS DETECTED:
A. The memo messages are replaced by warning/caution
25. THE FUEL ON BOARD IS INDICATED ON: messages.
A. The upper part of the engine warning display B. The memo messages are still displayed until the pilot press the
B. The right part of the engine warning display CLR pushbutton on the ECAM control panel
C. The lower part of the engine warning display, C. Warning/caution messages are displayed only if there are more
than 2 messages.

26. THE ENGINE PARAMETERS ARE INDICATED ON? 35. FAILURE MESSAGES AND ACTIONS TO BE
A. The upper part of the engine warning display PERFORMED ARE DISPLAYED:
B. The right part of the engine warning display A. In the lower left area of Engine and warning display.
C. The lower part of the engine warning display B. In the right memo area of Engine and warning display
C. In the upper area of the PFD
27. THE MEMO MESSAGES ARE INDICATED ON?
A. The upper part of the engine warning display
36. NORMAL MEMO AND SECONDARY FAILURE
B. The lower right part of the engine warning display
MESSAGES ARE DISPLAYED:
C. The lower left part of the engine warning display A. In the left memo area of Engine and warning display.
28. AN OVERFLOW ARROW APPEARS IN ENGINE AND B. In the right memo area of Engine and warning display
WARNING DISPLAY: C. In the Status page
A. When the System display image is lost D.
B. When the warning or caution message text exceeds the 37. WHAT IS THE MEANNING OF “TO INHIB” A
capacity of the display. MESSAGE?
C. When the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM control panel is A. The pilot is not allowed to flight manually.
pressed B. One system operates in abnormal condition.
C. During take off and landing, most of the warnings are
29. THE RIGHT PART OF STATUS PAGE PRESENTS: inhibited to avoid distraction of the crew.
A. In blue the limitations and the postponable procedures

2
 ATA 31 –INDICATING
38. A PULSING “ADV” APPEARS IN A SINGLE DISPLAY
CONFIGURATION INDICATES: 48. WHEN PRESSING „ALL‟ PUSHBUTTON ON THE
A. A/C in abnormal configuration. ECAM CTL PANEL:
B. An A/C system parameter has drifted. A. All the system pages are displayed successively at 1-second
C. A/C is in bad weather condition. intervals.
B. The previous system page is displayed
39. “STS” SYMBOL ON THE ENGINE AND WARNING C. Only failure system pages are displayed
DISPLAY INDICATES:
A. A status message is present on the ECAM page 49. THE ECAM HIGHEST PRIORITY OF ALERT LEVEL
B. A warning message is present on the ECAM page IS:
C. One system inoperative A. Level 2
B. Level 3
40. THE SYSTEM OR STATUS PAGES CAN BE CALLED C. Level 1
A. Automatically after a failure only
B. Manually upon crew request by pressing the related P/B on the 50. ECAM LEVEL 3 CORRESPONDS TO
ECAM control panel only A. An abnormal configuration.
C. Both A and B B. An emergency configuration.
41. THE CRUISE PAGE CAN BE CALLED: C. A configuration requiring crew monitoring only.
A. By press and hold STS pushbutton on ECAM control panel
B. Automatically called in flight
C. Automatically in case of one failure occur 51. ECAM LEVEL 2 CORRESPONDS TO:
42. PERMANENT DATA AT THE BOTTOM OF THE A. An abnormal configuration.
SYSTEM DISPLAY IS: B. An emergency configuration.
A. Displayed on Door page only C. A configuration requiring crew monitoring only
B. Always displayed whatever the page presented.
52. DEFECTS INDICATED IN STATUS PAGE:
C. Displayed in-flight only
A. Require no actions
43. WHAT IS THE HIGHGEST PRIORITY OF THE 3 B. Require further maintenance actions
SELECTION MODES OF SYSTEM PAGE C. Require immediate actions
PRESENTATION?
A. Manual mode 53. ECAM LEVEL 1 CORRESPONDS TO:
B. Failure mode A. An abnormal configuration.
C. Flight phase mode B. An emergency configuration.
C. A configuration requiring crew monitoring, mainly failures
44. THE FLIGHT PHASES ARE COMPUTED BY THE: leading to a loss of redundancy or degradation of a system.
A. SDAC
B. FWC 54. AN ECAM INDEPENDENT FAILURE IS A FAILURE:
C. DMC A. Affecting an isolated equipment or system without affecting
another one.
45. THE FWC STARTS A NEW FLIGHT LEG IN PHASE 1 B. Of an equipment or system causing the loss of other
A. When landing gear is compressed. equipment.
B. When two engines shutdown. C. Due to a loss of an equipment or system resulting from a
primary failure.
C. 5 minutes after the 2nd engine shutdown.
55. A PRIMARY FAILURE IS A FAILURE:
46. PRESSING THE “EMER CANC” PUSHBUTTON WILL A. Affecting an isolated equipment or system without affecting
CANCEL: another one.
A. Any present aural warning B. Of an equipment or system causing the loss of other
equipment.
B. Only aural warning of amber caution
C. Only aural warning of red warning
C. Cause by loss of an equipment or system resulting from a
primary failure.
47. THE EMER CANC INHIBITION CAN BE MANUALLY
RESTORED BY
56. A SECONDARY FAILURE IS A FAILURE
A. Pressing EMER CANC pushbutton again
A. Which affects an isolated equipment or system without
B. Press and hold RCL for more than 3 sec affecting another one.
C. Pressing and hold STS pushbutton for more than 3 sec

3
 ATA 31 –INDICATING

B. Of an equipment or system causing the loss of other

equipment. 65. THE CFDIU DIALOGUES WITH ONE COMPUTER AT
C. Cause by loss of an equipment or system resulting from a A TIME:
primary failure. A. In flight only
B. On ground only
57. WHAT FAILURE TYPE IS DISPLAYED WITH THE C. Both A and B
TITLE UNDERLINED?
A. Independent failure 66. THE POST FLIGHT REPORT CAN BE PRINTED:
B. Primary failure A. In flight only
C. Secondary failure B. On ground only
C. Both a and b
58. WHAT FAILURE TYPE IS DISPLAYED WITH A BOX?
A. Independent failure 67. CLASS 1 FAILURES:
B. Primary failure A. Require maintenance action at the next adequate opportunity
C. Secondary failure B. Can be left until the next scheduled maintenance check.
C. Are the most serious ones and require an immediate
59. THE SECONDARY FAILURES ARE INDICATED: maintenance action subject to the Minimum Equipment List
A. On the lower right part of the E/WD by an asterisk (MEL)
B. With a box around the failure
C. With the title underlined. 68. CLASS 2 FAILURES
A. Require maintenance action at the next adequate opportunity
60. A SYSTEM PARAMETERS DRIFTS FROM ITS B. Can be left until the next scheduled maintenance check.
NORMAL RANGE: C. Are the most serious ones and require an immediate
maintenance action subject to the Minimum Equipment List
A. An amber message is displayed in ECAM (MEL)
B. A single chime sounds.
C. The corresponding SYSTEM page is displayed automatically 69. CLASS 3 FAILURES
and the affected parameter pulses A. Require maintenance action at the next adequate opportunity
B. Can be left until the next scheduled maintenance check.
C. Are the most serious ones and require an immediate
61. THE MODE SHOWING 360 DEGREE DYNAMIC maintenance action subject to the Minimum Equipment List
PATTERN WHICH PROVIDES THE AIRCRAFT (MEL)
POSITION WITH RESPECT TO THE FLIGHT PLAN IS
THE: 70. THE POST FLIGHT REPORT IS MADE UP FROM
A. ROSE/NAV A. The LAST LEG ECAM REPORT.
B. ARC MODE B. The LAST LEG ECAM REPORT and the LAST LEG
C. ROSE/VOR REPORT.
C. The LAST LEG REPORT.
62. THE MODE SHOWING 90 DEGREE DYNAMIC
PATTERN WHICH PROVIDES THE AIRCRAFT 71. TYPE 1 SYSTEMS:
POSITION WITH RESPECT TO THE FLIGHT PLAN IS A. Can memorize failures only from the last flight leg
THE:
B. Cannot memorize failure messages.
A. ROSE/NAV
C. Can memorize failures occurred in the last 64 flight legs
B. ARC MODE
C. ROSE/VOR 72. TYPE 2 SYSTEMS:
A. Can memorize failures only from the last flight leg
63. WITH A LOSS OF MAIN ELECTRICAL POWER
B. Cannot memorize failure messages.
SUPPLY
A. All clock functions are disable
C. Can memorize failures occurred in the last 64 flight legs
B. All clock functions remain 73. TYPE 3 SYSTEMS:
C. The time is still counted in memory through the A/C battery A. Can memorize failures only from the last flight leg
supply, except for the chrono and ET functions.
B. Cannot memorize failure messages.
64. THE MANUAL TESTS (SYSTEM TEST AND SPECIFIC C. Can memorize failures occurred in the last 64 flight legs
TESTS) CAN BE INITIATED VIA:
74. WHICH REPORTS ARE AVAILABLE IN FLIGHT?
A. CFDIU
B. AIDS
A. POST FLIGHT REPORT and LAST LEG REPORT
C. DFDRS
B. CURRENT LEG REPORT and CURRENT LEG ECAM
REPORT
4
 ATA 31 –INDICATING

C. LAST LEG REPORT and LAST LEG ECAM REPORT

84. THE QAR IS USED:
75. THE CFDS ” SYSTEM REPORT/ TEST” IS A. As back up of the DFDRS
AVAILABLE: B. For ground performance, maintenance or condition monitoring
A. On ground only tasks
B. In flight only C. For passengers entertainment purpose
C. Both a and B
85. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE UNDERWATER
LOCATOR BEACON (ULB)?
76. THE CFDS ” LRU INDENTIFICATION” PROVIDES: A. To show the location of the recorder if the aircraft is immersed
A. Deactivation of the Computer in water following an accident
B. Computer lockout B. To supplied electrical power for the SSFDR in case of
C. PART NUMBER of the LRUs emergency
C. To help the SSFDR to float on the water
77. THE LAST LEG REPORT IS TRANSFERED TO THE 86. WHAT IS THE FUNCTIONS OF AIDS ?
PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT: A. To perform engine condition, APU condition and aircraft
A. At first engine start + 3 minutes. performance monitoring as well as trouble shooting assistance.
B. At touch down. B. To record mandatory parameter of APU
C. After touch down when the aircraft speed has been below 80 C. To record mandatory parameter of Engine
knots for 30 seconds
87. TO READ THE REAL TIME SYSTEM PARAMETERS
78. THE „AVIONICS STATUS‟ PRESENTS THE LIST OF IN AIDS, WE CAN:
SYSTEMS A. Use Parameter alpha call-up function only
A. Currently affected by a failure B. Use Parameter label call-up function only
B. Affected by a failure during the last flight leg C. Use Parameter label call-up and Parameter alpha call-up
C. Displayed in status page during the last flight leg functions

79. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT REGARDING 88. THE „DMU‟ CAN COMMUNICATES WITH THE
THE PRINTER MODE? MCDUs
A. Auto mode A. Only one MCDU at a time
B. Manual mode only B. Both MCDUs at a time
C. Auto and manual mode C. In flight only

80. A RED STRIP ON THE PAPER SIDE INDICATES 89. What is a Service Information Letter (SIL) 00-028?
A. Paper is jammed A. A troubleshooting procedure documentation
B. The end of the paper roll. B. A document to create a specific database to filter the messages
C. Printer not available to be displayed on the PFR.
C. A specific flight crew procedure to display information to the
passengers.
81. THE PURPOSE OF THE DIGITAL FLIGHT DATA
RECORDING SYSTEM (DFDRS) IS:
A. To record various critical flight parameters in a solid state
memory to fulfill the mandatory requirements of crash
recording
B. To record maintenance parameter only
C. To record various systems data which are sent to the ground.

82. WHICH COMPONENT STORES MANDATORY

PARAMETERS IN DFDRS?
A. FDIU
B. SSFDR
C. CFDIU

83. THE „SSFDR‟ POWER SUPPLY IS AVAILABLE:

A. At the first engine start up and five minutes after the last
engine shutdown.
B. Using the GND CTL pushbutton in the cockpit
C. Both A and B
5
 ATA 32 –LANDING GEAR

B. The landing gear is not retracted for flight configuration.

ATA 32 - LANDING GEAR C. The landing gear is not down locked in takeoff configuration.
1. Each landing gear has: 12. When the normal extension system fails, the gear can be
extended by gravity:
A. An oleo pneumatic shock absorber equipped with 2 wheels.
A. The crank handle must be pushed, and then rotated three turns
B. A hydraulic shock absorber electrically actuated.
clockwise.
C. A pneumatic shock absorber equipped with 2 wheels.
B. The crank handle must be pulled, and then rotated three turns
2. The gear and doors are electrically controlled and:
clockwise.
A. Hydraulically operated by the green or yellow hydraulic
C. The free fall switch must be selected to “ON”.
system.
13. When the parking brake handle is pulled and turned to the
B. Hydraulically operated by the green hydraulic system. "ON" position:
C. Hydraulically operated by the blue hydraulic system. A. The green pressure is applied to the brakes.
3. During take-off, the nose wheels are automatically
B. Only the yellow accumulator pressure is applied to the brakes.
centered by means of:
C. The yellow pressure is applied to the brakes.
A. One centering cam.
14. The Captain or First Officer brake pedals provide:
B. Two steering actuators.
A. Manual braking or Nose wheel steering.
C. Two centering cams.
B. Automatic braking or Nose wheel steering.
4. The nose wheel steering system is:
C. Automatic braking or rudder movements.
A. Electrically controlled and powered by the green hydraulic
15. The nose wheel steering is controlled by:
system.
A. The steering hand wheels.
B. Mechanically controlled and powered by the green hydraulic
system. B. The steering hand wheels and rudder pedals.
C. Electrically controlled and operated. C. The steering hand wheels, ELAC and rudder pedals.
5. In order to tow or push back the aircraft you need to: 16. The gear and door sequencing is electrically controlled by:
A. Insert a steering pin without any mechanical disconnection. A. Landing Gear Control lever.
B. Insert a steering pin and disconnect a mechanical device. B. Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU) 1 and 2.
C. Switch off the anti-skid and steering system. C. Relays and hydraulic sequence valves.
6. On the LANDING GEAR PANEL a red "UNLK" light 17. The LGCIUs switch over is performed:
indicates: A. Automatically at each retraction cycle.
A. The gear is locked in the selected position. B. In case of sequencing system failure.
B. The gear is not locked in the selected position. C. A or B
C. The gear free fall system has been activated. 18. Can you retract the landing gear when aircraft on ground:
7. On the LANDING GEAR PANEL a green triangle light A. No, because of an interlock mechanism
indicates: B. Yes, when any shock absorber is compressed.
A. The related gear is retracted. C. A and B
B. The landing gear lever is in the down position. 19. The landing gear system is powered by:
C. The related gear is locked down. A. A mechanical system.
8. The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is normally: B. The green hydraulic system.
A. In the "ON" position to activate the anti-skid and nose wheel C. The green and yellow hydraulic system
steering functions. 20. The hydraulic supply for landing gear operation is isolated
B. In the "OFF" position to isolate anti-skid and nose wheel by:
steering functions after take-off. A. The safety valve.
C. A or B. B. The cutout valve.
9. The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch enable to supply: C. The supply valve.
A. The green hydraulic power for the brake and steering systems. 21. In free fall extension the hydraulic is isolated by:
B. The DC electrical power for the Braking and Steering Control A. The safety valve.
Unit (BSCU). B. The cutout valve.
C. The yellow hydraulic power for the brake and steering system. C. The supply valve.
10. The triple indicator displays: 22. Gear and door positions on the ECAM is provided by:
A. The green pressure and the normal braking pressure delivered A. Only LGCIU 1.
to the LH and RH brakes. B. LGCIU 1 and 2 is standby.
B. The green brake accumulator and the normal pressure C. LGCIU 1 and 2.
delivered to the LH and RH brakes. 23. Other aircraft systems are linked to the LGCIUs for:
C. The yellow brake accumulator and the braking pressure A. Flight/ground signals.
delivered to the LH and RH brakes.
B. Extension/retraction signals.
11. The red arrow of the control lever comes on when:
C. Wheel speed signals.
A. The landing gear is not down locked in landing configuration.

1
 ATA 32 –LANDING GEAR
24. During landing gear retraction cycle, the doors are B. A landing gear hydraulic actuator.
controlled to close when: C. A gear down lock box.
A. All the landing gear is unlocked 35. Free fall extension is used when:
B. All the landing gear is locked up. A. The yellow hydraulic is lost.
C. Wheel speeds are below 70 knots. B. One gear leg cannot be retracted hydraulically.
25. Rotation of the free fall extension handle will close the cut C. One gear leg cannot be lowered hydraulically.
out valve and: 36. The landing gear door bypass valves are only operated:
A. Connect all landing gear hydraulic components to the return A. During ground maintenance.
line.
B. During free fall extension.
B. Release door and gear uplocks.
C. In emergency case.
C. A & B. 37. The gravity extension crank handle initially operates:
26. When the landing gear is extended by free fall:
A. The cutout valve and both vent valves.
A. All L/G doors stay open and the nose wheel steering is lost.
B. To depressurize the system.
B. All L/G doors stay open and the normal brake is lost.
C. A and B.
C. The MLG doors stay open and the normal brake is lost. 38. After extension by gravity the normal landing gear
27. Primary indication for landing gear system is displayed on: operation is restored by:
A. The landing gear indicator panel. A. Rotating the crank handle 3 turns clockwise.
B. The ECAM. B. Rotating the crank handle 3 turns anti-clockwise.
C. Both PFDs C. Using the LGCIU reset function.
28. On ECAM an "UP LOCK" indication appears amber if: 39. The LGCIU detects any shock absorber not extended:
A. The respective up lock is disengaged when the gear is locked A. The control lever is locked in the "DOWN" position.
down.
B. The control lever is hydraulically locked in the "DOWN"
B. The respective up lock is disengaged when the gear is locked position
up.
C. A change over occurs between the 2 LGCIUs.
C. The respective up lock is engaged when the gear is locked 40. What safety/precautions must be carried out before
down. working on landing gear:
A. Hydraulic systems are depressurized,
29. A "L/G CTL" (Landing gear control) indication appears
amber in case of: B. Ground door opening handles are in the open position.
A. Disagreement between the landing gear lever and landing gear C. A and B.
position. 41. The main landing gear doors can be opened:
B. Disagreement between the landing gear and landing gear doors A. On the ground by gravity.
position. B. On the ground by the yellow hydraulic power.
C. Disagreement between the 2 LGCIUs. C. A and B.
30. LGCIU system 1 and 2 changeover occurs when: 42. When open LDG door on ground the system will:
A. Setting the landing gear control lever to DOWN. A. Operate the door by-pass valve.
B. Setting the landing gear control lever to UP. B. Release the door from its uplock.
C. After each flight at engine start. C. A and B.
31. The selection of the landing gear control lever to UP is 43. Three gear uplock signals come from the:
allowed when: A. Gear uplock proximity detectors.
A. The LGCIU detects all three landing gear door closed B. Door uplock proximity detectors.
B. The LGCIU detects all three shock absorbers compressed. C. Gear end of travel switches.
C. The LGCIU detects all three shock absorbers extended. 44. The nose landing gear "flight" information is given when:
32. To retract the landing gear, the LGCIU needs: A. The gear is extended.
A. The doors open position from the doors proximity detectors. B. The gear is extended and wheels are in the centered position.
B. The gears extended position from the gears proximity C. Gear retracted and doors closed.
detectors. 45. The LGCIU sends a signal to the lever interlock solenoid
C. All doors proximity detectors status. on GRND to
33. The hydraulic circuit of the landing gear is isolated A. Enable gear retraction.
depends on: B. Initiate gear retraction.
A. The control level position. C. Prevent gear retraction.
B. The airspeed. 46. The purpose of the spare seal activating valve is to:
C. The ground speed. A. Isolate the bottom gland seals if a leak occurs.
B. Open the bottom gland seals if a leak occurs.
C. Isolate the shock absorber lower chamber.
34. The gear down and locked is provided by: 47. The lock springs move the lock stay to:
A. An over centre locking mechanism A. An unlock position during the extension cycle.
2
 ATA 32 –LANDING GEAR

B. An over center position during the extension cycle. B. The hydraulic pressure delivered to each brake.
C. A center position during the extension cycle. C. The hydraulic return line of each brake
48. The torque link damper has: 61. The main wheels rotation is stopped during gear retraction
A. An electrical motor. by:
B. A hydraulic actuator supplied by the green system. A. Pressing the brake pedals.
C. Its own hydraulic reservoir. B. A stopping device.
49. The MLG door uplock is: C. A preprogrammed brake pressure.
A. Closed mechanically and hydraulically opened. 62. The in flight brake pressure is released either when:
B. Opened mechanically and hydraulically closed. A. The nose gear is no longer down locked.
C. Opened and closed hydraulically. B. Three seconds after the "UP" selection.
50. The ramps on the main door: C. A or B.
A. Is for maintenance purpose. 63. The parking brake system is hydraulically supplied by:
B. Ensure the gear does not catch on the door during a free-fall A. The yellow pressure.
extension. B. By an accumulator of 12 hours autonomy.
C. Maintain the gear in the up locked position. C. A or B.
51. The nose wheels is automatically centered when: 64. The parking brake system needs:
A. The gear is retracted. A. Either DC ground/flight bus or hot bus 1 electrical supply.
B. The gear is compressed. B. Either AC bus or hot bus 1 electrical supply.
C. The gear is extended. C. The DC ground/flight bus only.
52. The safety valve is a single solenoid valve which: 65. When the parking brake system is activated:
A. Operates independently of the LGCIUs. A. All other braking modes remains operative.
B. Controlled by LGCIUs. B. All other braking modes become inoperative.
C. Controlled by the FMGCs. C. All other braking modes become inoperative except alternate
53. How many braking modes are there? brake.
A. Three. 66. The yellow brake accumulator can be pressurized by:
B. Four. A. Pressing the blue electrical pump pushbutton switch.
C. Two. B. Pressing the yellow electrical pump pushbutton switch.
54. Normal braking is obtained when: C. Press on the accumulator restore pushbutton.
A. The PARKING BRK control switch is in the normal position. 67. The alternate brake mode is automatically obtained:
B. All landing gears are down locked. A. In case of green pressure loss.
C. The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is in the "ON" position. B. If a failure occurs on the normal braking system
55. Normal brake electrical control signals are obtained: C. A and B.
A. Through the pedals transducers. 68. The BSCU ensures the anti-skid regulation by:
B. In auto mode only. A. Controlling the green or yellow servo valves.
C. When the landing gear control lever is set to "DOWN". B. Controlling the yellow and green servo valves.
56. The normal brake pressure has indication: C. Controlling the anti-skid shuttle valves.
A. Yes, on ECAM. 69. The braking pressure displayed on the ACCU/PRESS
B. Yes, on triple indicator. triple indicator is the:
C. No. A. Normal brake.
57. Which computer controls the brake system: B. Alternate brake.
A. BSCU. C. In flight brake.
B. LGCIU. 70. The brake pedal transmitter unit transforms:
C. FCDC. A. Electrical signals sent to the ECAM.
B. Digital signals signals sent to the BSCU.
C. Mechanical input into electrical signals which are sent to the
58. Which signals are used by the BSCUs for braking and anti- BSCU.
skid computation: 71. The BSCU controls:
A. Wheels rotation speed. A. Normal braking, auto braking and anti-skid operation.
B. Air data. B. Normal braking and nose wheel steering only.
C. Wheels rotation speed and ADIRU data C. Normal, alternate and in-flight braking only.
59. The green pressure supplies the normal brakes through:
A. The automatic selector and normal servo valves. 72. The aircraft deceleration rate is generated by:
B. The dual valves and normal servo valves. A. The tachometers.
C. The main anti-skid valve. B. The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS).
60. The anti-skid function regulates: C. The LGCIU.
A. The air pressure delivered to each brake. 73. The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected OFF:
3
 ATA 32 –LANDING GEAR

A. Anti-skid is lost. B. The ELAC.

B. All brakes and nose wheel steering are lost. C. The BSCU.
C. Anti-skid, nose wheel steering and auto brake are lost. 86. The steering hydraulic block is powered by:
74. The anti-skid system: A. The Green pressure if the nose gear doors are closed.
A. Allows a wheel to skid in case of over temperature. B. The Green pressure if the nose gear is down and locked.
B. Avoids a skidding configuration of each main wheel. C. The Yellow pressure in alternate mode
C. Allow all wheels to skid for braking efficiency 87. The steering system deactivation for towing purpose is
75. Anti-skid control during normal and alternate braking is allowed by:
provided by: A. A lever on the towing electrical box located on the MLG.
A. The FMGC. B. A lever on the towing electrical box located on the NLG.
B. The LGCIU. C. A “towing switch” on the overhead panel .
C. The BSCU. 88. The ECAM shows “N WHEEL STEER DISC” in green
76. The brake temperature data from the thermocouples is changes to amber when:
processed by: A. The control lever on electrical box in towing position.
A. The Brake Temperature Monitoring Unit (BTMU). B. One engine is running.
B. The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU). C. A and B.
C. The thermocouples amplifier unit. 89. A bleed screw in nose wheel steering system allows:
77. The temperature signals send to the ECAM is processed A. Bleeding and depressurization of the hydraulic block.
by: B. Nitrogen charging of the hydraulic block.
A. The Brake Temperature Monitoring Unit (BTMU). C. Bleeding the case drain of the hydraulic block.
B. The Braking and Steering Control Unit (BSCU). 90. When the MLG is compressed:
C. The Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU). A. Both chambers of the steering actuator are supplied.
78. The BRK FAN pushbutton can be used to operate the fan: B. The nose wheels are set to an angle of 0º.
A. On ground or in flight. C. A and B.
B. Automatically when the brake temperature is high. 91. The nose wheel steering orders:
C. When the landing gear is down locked. A. Depending on the BSCU reference speed.
79. An "A/SKID" indication appears amber in case of: B. Depending on the LGCIU reference speed.
A. Failure of Braking and Steering Control Unit system. C. Depending on the ELAC reference speed.
B. The switch A/SKID & N/W STRG is set to "OFF". 92. The "STEERING" indication appears amber on ECAM
C. Both A and B. means:
80. Always use the appropriate tires on the wheels because: A. Green hydraulic failure, nose wheel steering failure.
A. The BSCU is set to use one diameter of tire only. B. When the A/SKID& N/W STRG switch is set to "OFF".
B. To prevent tire damage. C. A or B.
C. To avoid load distribution unbalance. 93. The electrical box is used to disengage the steering control
81. Checking the overall wear of the heat brake pack without system:
removal by using: A. When the aircraft is being towed.
A. An external equipment. B. In the disengaged position the handle must be secured by a
B. Two wear pins. pin.
C. Indications on ECAM. C. A and B.
82. How many BTMU does the aircraft have? 94. On GRND, how can you make sure that the PARKING
A. One. BRAKE light is operative?
B. One per each wheel. A. A LIGHT TEST pushbutton allows the brake light to be tested.
C. One per main gear. B. No possibilities.
83. The nose wheel steering system is: C. Use the Annunciator light test in the cockpit.
A. Green hydraulically powered and electrical controlled by the 95. The Braking/Steering Control Unit (BSCU) has:
BSCU. A. Single channel computer.
B. Electrically powered and controlled by the BSCU. B. Two identical sets systems 1 and 2.
C. Hydraulically powered and mechanical controlled by the hand C. One primary and one secondary sets.
wheel. 96. Tire pressure is generated by the:
84. When steering orders are simultaneously from the pedals A. BTMU.
and the hand wheel: B. TPIU.
A. The priority signal is hand wheels. C. BSCU.
B. The resulting signal is algebraically added. 97. The function of the torque links damper is:
C. A disconnect button on hand wheel must be used. A. To avoid high side load to the shock absorber.
85. The steering orders are computed by: B. To increase the landing gear steering angle.
A. The two hand wheels. C. To decrease the landing vibrations.
4
 ATA 32 –LANDING GEAR
98. The torque links damper reservoir level is checked by
using:
A. A fluid level indicator.
B. ECAM system page
C. No servicing is required.
99. When filling nitrogen to the shock absorber, you must add:
A. As quick as possible to avoid a temperature dropping.
B. Slowly to avoid a temperature increasing.
C. Two chambers at the same time.
100. The landing gear simulation function is:
A. A specific function of brake system.
B. A function of TPIU and LGCIU.
C. An aid for the troubleshooting and the maintenance tasks.

5
 ATA 33 –LIGHTS

ATA 33 - LIGHTS
1. WING lights illuminate the Wing Leading Edges and Engines
Air Intakes: (A, B1, B2)
a) On ground only.
b) On ground and in flight.
c) In flight only.

2. Which lights can illuminate in flight: (A, B1, B2)

a) Wing lights.
b) TAXI and TAKE-OFF lights with nose landing gear down and
lock position
c) RWY TURN- OFF lights with nose landing gear down and
lock position.
d) All of above

3. The EXIT light can be manually switched on from: (A, B1,

B2)
a) NO SMOKING switch.
b) FASTEN SEAT BELT switch.
c) EXIT switch.

4. The EXIT light can be automatically switched on in case of:

(A, B1, B2)
a) Rapid decompression or with SLAT/FLAP and/or LANDING
GEAR condition.
b) Landing gear compression only
c) Landing gear retraction only

5. Where can the Emer. Light Sys be controlled from: (A, B1,
B2)
a) Cockpit or cabin.
b) Cockpit only
c) Cabin only when switch in the cockpit in ARM position.

6. Cabin lights controls consist of (A, B1, B2):

a) Cabin, entry area and cabin attendant work lights
b) Lavatories, Passenger reading lights
c) All above

7. How does the CIDS work: (A, B1, B2)

a) Two active in parallel.
b) one active and one standby
c) Either A or B

8. How are the cabin lights controlled: (A, B1, B2)

a) Through the CIDS which includes a FAP, two CIDS and
DEUs.
b) Through the CIDS which includes a FAP or MCDU, two
CIDS and DEUs.
c) Either A or B

1
 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
A. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer
ATA 34 - NAVIGATION B. Bearing pointer only
C. Deviation bar and selected course only
1. THE CORRECT ACTION TAKEN WHEN ADIRU 2 FAILS IS 14. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE AIRCRAFT
TO NAVIGATION SYSTEMS ?
A. Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3 a. To flight the A/C along the pre-selected route
B. Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3 b. To flight the A/C along the pre-programmed route
C. Set ATT HDG selector to CAPT/3, AIR DATA selector to c. To provide the crew with the data required for flight within the
F/O/3 most appropriate safety requirements.
2. IN NORMAL OPERATION THE ADIRU'S ARE ALIGNED 15. THE ADIRS IS AN INTEGRATED
USING INFORMATION FROM A. Air Data System and a Radio Reference System
A. ADIRS CDU B. Air Data System and an Inertial Reference System
B. MCDU C. Inertial Reference System and a Radio Reference System
C. FMGC'S 16. THE AIR DATA REFERENCE MAINLY COMPUTES
3. A WATER DRAIN IS FITTED TO
A. Speed and altitude information from air parameters.
A. All pitot lines
B. All static lines B. Speed and attitude information from air parameters
C. The standby static line C. Speed and pressure information from air parameters
4. AIDRU 3 RECEIVES TAT INFORMATION FROM 17. THE INERTIAL REFERENCE MAINLY COMPUTES
A. The captain TAT sensor A. Heading, altitude and position from gyros and accelerometers.
B. The first officer TAT sensor B. Heading, attitude and position from gyros and accelerometers.
C. The standby TAT sensor C. Heading, attitude and track from gyros and accelerometers.
5. AIR DATA MODULES (ADM) SUPPLY PRESSURE 18. THE STANDBY INSTRUMENTS CONSISTS OF
INFORMATION TO THE AIDRS FROM
A. Altimeter and Airspeed indicators, Standby Compass and
A. All pitot probes and static ports
clock.
B. All pitot probes, static ports and AOA, TAT sensors
C. The pitot probes only B. Altimeter and Airspeed indicators, Standby Compass and
6. AIDRU 3 CAN SUPPLY INFORMATION TO Standby Horizon.
A. DMC1 and DMC3 only C. Altimeter and Airspeed indicators, Standby Compass and
B. DMC2 and DMC3 only Head-Up Display
C. DMC1, DMC2 and DMC3 19. THE INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM (ILS) AND
7. THE BARO CORRECTION OR REFERENCE SELECTED IS THE MARKER (MKR) SYSTEM ARE BELONG TO:
SENT TO EACH ADIRU FROM THE A. Landing and taxiing aids group
A. RMPs B. Independent position determining group
B. FCU C. Dependent position determining group
C. MCDUs 20. THE INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM (ILS) IS USE
TO
8. WHAT IS THE ENHANCE FUNCTION OF EGPWS
A. Obtain the optimum aircraft position during an approach and
COMPARE WITH GPWS ?
landing phase.
A. EGPWS can give terrain predictive detection and display on ND
B. EGPWS uses weather radar to scan the terrain. B. Obtain the optimum aircraft heading during an approach and
C. EGPWS can flight the aircraft over the terrain landing phase.
9. THE RADIO ALTIMETER FUNCTION IS: C. Obtain the optimum aircraft track during an approach and
A. To calculate altitude with use of radio wave. landing phase.
B. To calculate altitude with use of static air pressure 21. THE MARKER (MKR) SYSTEM IS USED TO
C. To show the A/C altitude on the Standby Altimeter A. Indicate the distance to the runway threshold during an ILS
10. ILS 1 DATA IS NORMALLY DISPLAYED descent.
A. On Capt's PFD and F/Os ND B. Indicate the time to the runway threshold during an ILS
B. On Capt's PFD and Capt's ND. descent.
C. On F/O PFD and F/O ND C. Indicate the height above runway during an ILS descent.
11. THE ILS FUNCTION IS: 22. THE ILS FREQUENCY CONTROL IS ACHIEVED
A. To give an optimum descent axis to the runway
A. Either automatically or manually (through the MCDU) by the
B. To calculate the A/C position using of satellites
Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs) or for
C. To support A/C landing using of satellites
back up through the Radio Management Panels (RMPs).
12. MARKER INFORMATION IS SENT FROM VOR/MKR
RECEIVER B. Either automatically through the MCDU or manually through
A. 2 the Radio Management Panels (RMPs).
B. 1 C. Either automatically through the MCDU or manually through
C. 1 on PFD 1 and VOR/MKR receiver 2 on PFD 2 the Radio Management Panels (RMPs) or for back up by
13. WHEN VOR IS SELECTED ON THE EFIS CONTROL FMGCs
PANEL, WHAT VOR INFORMATION IS DISPLAYED
ON THE ND IN ROSE NAV MODE
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 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
23. THE INDEPENDENT POSITION DETERMINING A. To enable a ground operator to identify and track the aircraft
SYSTEMS ARE A PART OF THE NAVIGATION without having to communicate with the flight crew.
SYSTEMS WHICH PROVIDES B. To enable a ground operator to identify and track the aircraft
A. Information regarding the safety of the aircraft without taking with having to communicate with the flight crew.
reference from any ground station C. To enable a ground operator to control the aircraft without
B. Information regarding the safety of the aircraft without taking having to communicate with the flight crew.
reference from any other A/C system 32. WHAT DOES THE AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDER
C. Information regarding the safety of the aircraft without taking (ADF) SYSTEM PROVIDE ?
reference from satellite A. The azimuth of a Non Directional Beacon (NDB) with respect
24. WHAT DOES THE WEATHER RADAR (WR) SYSTEM to the aircraft centre line.
DETECT ? B. The azimuth of a Non Directional Beacon (NDB) with respect
A. The position and intensity of precipitations which are shown to the magnetic North.
on the Navigation Displays (ND‟s) C. The azimuth of a Non Directional Beacon (NDB) with respect
B. The position and intensity of precipitations which are shown to the true North.
on the Primary Flight Displays (PFD‟s) 33. WHAT DOES THE VHF OMNI RANGE (VOR)
C. The direction and intensity of precipitations which are shown SYSTEM GIVE ?
on the Navigation Displays (ND‟s) A. The bearing of a ground VOR Station with respect to the
25. WHAT DOES THE WINDSHEAR DETECT ? magnetic North
A. Sudden change of wind speed and/or direction B. The aircraft angular deviation related to a pre-selected runway
B. Rain and storm with lightning C. The bearing of a ground VOR Station with respect to the true
C. wind speed and direction North
26. WHAT DOES THE RADIO ALTIMETER (RA) SYSTEM 34. WHICH UNIT IS MARKER BEACON PHYSICALLY
GIVE ? INTEGRATED IN ?
A. The aircraft height above the ground, independently of the A. VOR receiver.
atmospheric pressure. B. ILS receiver.
B. The aircraft height above the Sea level, independently of the C. MMR
atmospheric pressure. 35. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE GLOBAL
C. The aircraft height above the runway elevation, independently POSITIONING SYSTEM (GPS) ?
of the atmospheric pressure. A. To determine the A/C position based on signals received from
27. WHAT DOES THE TRAFFIC COLLISION satellites.
AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (TCAS) DETECT ? B. To determine the A/C heading based on signals received from
A. The aircraft in the immediate vicinity. satellites.
B. The aircraft at low altitude. C. To determine the A/C attitude based on signals received from
C. The aircraft in the busy air traffic satellites.
28. WHAT DOES THE ENHANCED GROUND
PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM (EGPWS) WARNS 36. ITH THE MULTIPURPOSE CONTROL AND DISPLAY
THE FLIGHT CREW ? UNIT (MCDU) ON THE INIT PAGE YOU CAN
A. About the aircraft behaviour in dangerous configuration when A. Manually tune the Radio Navigation frequencies
approaching the ground. B. Align the Inertial Reference system
B. About the aircraft altitude in dangerous configuration when C. Test a Navigation system
approaching the ground. 37. WHAT HAPPENS IF ON THE ADIRS CONTROL AND
C. About the aircraft attitude in dangerous configuration when DISPLAY UNIT YOU SET A SINGLE CONTROL TO
approaching the ground. NAV ?
29. WHAT IS DEPENDENT SYSTEM ? A. you switch on the ADR and IR
A. A system provides various means of navigation through data B. you switch on the IR only
exchange with ground installations or satellites. C. you switch on the ADR only
B. A system provides various means of navigation through data 38. WHERE CAN YOU ALIGN THE IR ?
exchange with other aircraft systems A. On the ADIRS Control and Display Unit or MCDU
C. A system provides various means of navigation through data B. On the ADIRS Control and Display Unit and MCDU at the
exchange with other aircraft . same time
30. WHAT DOES THE DISTANCE MEASURING
EQUIPMENT (DME) SYSTEM GIVE ?
C. On the ADIRS Control and Display Unit only
A. the aircraft slant distance to a ground station 39. WHAT DOES THE AIR DATA/INERTIAL
B. the aircraft slant distance to other aircraft REFERENCE UNIT (ADIRU) COMPRISE OF ?
C. the aircraft horizontal distance to a ground station A. An Air Data Reference Unit and an Inertial Reference Unit
31. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE AIR TRAFFIC B. An Air Data Module and an Inertial Reference Unit
CONTROL SYSTEM (ATC) ?
C. An Air Data Reference Unit , an Inertial Reference Unit and
Display Control Unit (CDU)
2
 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
40. THE ADIRU USES DATA FROM B. Angular speed
A. External sensors (Angle of Attack, Total Air Temperature, Air C. Bank angle
Data Module) 51. WHAT IS CALCULATED USING RING LASER GYROS
B. Air Data Module only ?
C. External sensors and standby compass A. The aircraft attitude
41. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE AIR DATA B. The aircraft ground speed
MODULE ? C. The aircraft vertical speed
A. To convert analog pressure data to digitized pressure data 52. WHAT IS CALCULATED USING ACCELEROMETERS
B. To convert digitized pressure data to analog pressure data ?
C. To calculate airspeed and altitude from digitized pressure data A. The aircraft ground speed and position
42. HOW MANY THE ADM INPUTS ARE THERE ? B. The aircraft attitude
A. There are one pressure input and several discrete inputs C. Heading
B. There are one Pitot, one Static pressure input and several 53. HOW MANY ACCELEROMETER ARE THERE ?
discrete inputs A. Three, one for each axis
C. There are one Pitot, one Static pressure input and one discrete B. One for three axis
input C. Two, one active and one standby
43. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT ?
A. The ADMs are different because they have different inputs 54. HOW MANY ADIRU ARE THERE ?
Pitot or Static pressure A. One
B. The ADMs are identical because they have the same inputs B. Tow
C. The ADMs are identical even if they they have different inputs C. Three
44. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE ADM DISCRETE 55. WHICH ADIRU DOES NOT SUPPLY DMC 2 ?
INPUTS ?
A. ADIRU 1.
A. To determine the ADM location and the type of pressure data
B. ADIRU 2.
(Pitot or Static) provided to the ADR
B. To determine the ADM part number and serial number
C. ADIRU 3.
56. WHERE CAN WE ALIGN THE INERTIAL
C. To determine the Pitot or Static sensor location REFERENCES ?
45. WHAT IS IN ARINC BUS OF THE ADM OUTPUT ?
A. From MCDU or CDU
A. Digital pressure information, type of pressure, ADM
B. On the ADIRU computer
identification and BITE status to the ADIRU.
B. Analog pressure information, type of pressure, ADM
C. From FCU
57. WHAT DOES A PITOT PROBE GIVE ?
identification and BITE status to the ADIRU.
C. Digital pressure information, type of pressure and ADM
A. The total pressure
identification . B. Static pressure
46. WHAT ARE ADR INPUTS ? C. Dynamic pressure
A. Analogy signals from AOA, TAT sensors and ARINC input 58. WHAT SUPPLIES THE STANDBY AIRSPEED
from ADM. INDICATOR (ASI) ?
B. ARINC input from ADM only. A. The standby pitot probe and standby static ports
C. Digital signals from AOA and TAT sensors and ARINC input B. The standby pitot probe only
from ADM. C. The standby static ports only
47. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT ? 59. WHAT SUPPLIES THE STANDBY ALTIMETER ?
A. Gyros and the accelerometers are solidly attached to the A. Two standby static ports
aircraft structure. B. The standby pitot probe
B. Gyros and the accelerometers can be moved with Aircraft C. One standby static port
Pitch, Roll and Yaw 60. HOW MANY ANGLE OF ATTACK (AOA) SENSORS ?
C. The accelerometer is fixed to the aircraft structure but Gyro A. Three, corresponding to three ADIRUs
can be moved B. Two, the Captain AOA supplies ADIRU 1 and 3
48. THE LASER GYRO PROVIDES C. Only one for ADIRU 1
A. Angular accelerations and speeds. 61. WHAT ARE THE ANGLE OF ATTACK SENSORS
B. Accelerations and speeds along Pitch, Roll and Yaw axis ALSO CALLED ?
C. Ground speed A. Alpha probes
49. HOW MANY RING LASER GYRO ARE THERE ? B. Pitch sensors
A. Three, one for each rotation axis C. Stall sensors
B. One for three axis 62. HOW DO PITOT AND STATIC PROBES SUPPLY THE
C. Two, one active and one standby ADIRUS?
50. WHAT DOES ACCELEROMETER GIVE ? A. Via ADMs which convert pressure into digital format.
A. Linear acceleration B. Directly with total and static pressures.
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 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION

C. Directly with analog format. 73. WHAT DOES ADIRS PROVIDE TO ECAM SYSTEM
63. HOW DO TAT AND AOA SENSORS SUPPLY THE DISPLAY ?
ADIRUS? A. Static Air Temperature (SAT) and Total Air Temperature
A. Via ADMs which convert analog into digital format. (TAT).
B. Directly with digital format. B. Angle Of Attack
C. Directly with analog format. C. Wind speed and direction
64. WHERE DOES ADIRU3 RECEIVE TAT
INFORMATION FROM?
A. Captain TAT sensor. 74. WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF DATA FROM ADIRS
SENT TO WEATHER RADAR (WR) ?
B. First-Officer TAT sensor.
C. Standby TAT sensor.
A. For antenna attitude stabilization
65. WHICH PRESSURE LINE(S) NEED(S) TO BE B. To override the Weather Radar data on ND
DRAINED? C. For speed of scan control
A. Standby pitot lines.
75. WHAT MUST BE DONE IN CASE OF ADR1 FAILURE?
B. First-Officer static lines.
C. Only the standby static line.
A. Set AIR DATA switch to CAPT3 position.
B. Set ATT HDG switch to CAPT3 position.
C. Leave AIR DATA and ATT HDG switches on NORM
66. ON THE CDU, WHEN SYSTEM SELECTOR IN OFF position.
POSITION, 76. WHAT MUST BE DONE IN CASE OF IR3 FAILURE?
A. The CDU display is not energized (Blank Display). A. Set AIR DATA switch to F/O3 position.
B. The ADIRUs are not energized (ADR and IR data not B. Set ATT HDG switch to F/O3 position.
available) C. Leave ATT HDG switch in NORM position.
C. ADIRUs are standby
67. THE KEYBOARD OF CDU IS USED 77. ON MCDU, TO PERFORM THE IRS ALIGNMENT
A. To enter the present position or Magnetic Heading A. Select the FMGC then the INIT key
B. To enter the present position or true Heading B. Select the FMGC then the DATA key
C. To enter the present position or ground speed C. Select the FMGC then the PERF key
68. THE AMBER ON BAT LIGHT COMES ON WHEN 78. WHEN PERFORM THE IRS ALIGNMENT, TO SEND
A. One or more Air Data Inertial Reference Unit are operating on PRESENT POSITION (PPOS) YOU CAN
aircraft batteries A. Either enter a Company Route (CO RTE) or the Latitude
B. Batteries voltage is too low to supply the Air Data Inertial (LAT) and Longitude (LONG) or a FROM/TO.
Reference system B. Either enter a Company Route (CO RTE) and a FROM/TO or
C. Air Data Inertial Reference system can not be supplied by the Latitude (LAT) and Longitude (LONG) .
aircraft batteries C. Enter a FROM/TO then the Latitude (LAT) and Longitude
69. ON THE CDU, A WHITE ALIGN LIGHT (LONG)
ILLUMINATES STEADY WHEN 79. THE IRS ALIGNMENT NORMALLY TAKES
A. The related Inertial Reference is in the alignment phase. A. 5 minutes
B. The alignment is temporarily stopped B. 10 minutes
C. The alignment phase is finished C. 15 minutes
70. ON THE CDU, ALIGN LIGHT FLASHES IN CASE OF: 80. DURING IRS ALIGNMENT,
A. An alignment error or significant difference of entered position A. The aircraft must be stationary on ground
B. No Present Position entry within seven minutes of NAV mode B. The aircraft can be taxing or towing
selection. C. The aircraft can be towing but can not be taxing
C. The alignment phase will be finished in one minute 81. ON CDU, WHEN ANY MODE SELECTOR IS SET TO
71. ON THE CDU, WHEN AIR DATA REFERENCE P/BSW THE NAV POSITION,
IS SET TO OFF A. The amber ON BAT light comes on for five seconds and goes
A. The ADIRUs are not energized (ADR and IR data not off.
available) B. The white ALIGN light comes on and the ON BAT light stays
B. The input buses from ADM of related air data reference are off
disconnected C. The white ALIGN light comes on for five seconds and goes
C. The output buses of related air data reference are disconnected off.
72. WHAT DOES ADIRS PROVIDE TO ATC ? 82. ON CDU, TO PERFORM THE IRS ALIGNMENT,
A. Barometric altitude A. The aircraft‟s present position (PPOS) must be keyed in
B. Angle Of Attack B. The aircraft‟s True Heading (HDG) must be keyed in
C. Wind speed and direction C. The aircraft‟s present position (PPOS) and True Heading
(HDG) must be keyed in

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 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
83. THE INERTIAL ATTITUDE DATA IS DISPLAYED BY A. ASCENCION ISLAND
A. A sphere in the middle of the Primary Flight Display (PFD). B. DIEGO GARCIA
B. A sphere in the middle of the Navigation Display (ND). C. COLORADO SPRINGS.
C. Pitch, Roll, Yaw value on the Primary Flight Display (PFD). 95. WHAT IS THE MAIN FUNCTION OF THE CONTROL
84. THE COMPUTED AIRSPEED (CAS), IS DISPLAYED SEGMENT ?
A. In the lower section of the Primary Flight Display (PFD) A. To track the satellites,
B. On the left hand side of the PFD. B. To control the GPS user
C. On the right hand side of the PFD. C. To track the GPS user
85. IN CASE OF AIRSPEED FAILURE, 96. THE PRINCIPLE OF GPS POSITION COMPUTATION
A. The airspeed scale is replaced by the red SPD flag IS
B. The airspeed scale is replaced by the amber SPD flag A. Based on the measurement of transmission time of the GPS
C. The red SPD flag appears and the airspeed scale is still signals broadcast by satellites.
displayed B. Based on the measurement of frequency shift of the GPS
86. THE INERTIAL VERTICAL SPEED (V/S) IS signals broadcast by satellites.
DISPLAYED C. Based on the measurement of time of the signals broadcast by
A. On the right hand side of the Primary Flight Display. user to satellites and back
B. In the lower section of the Primary Flight Display (PFD) 97. HOW MANY SATELLITE AT LEAST REQUIRED FOR
POSITION DETERMINATION ?
C. On the left hand side of the PFD.
87. IN CASE OF VERTICAL SPEED FAILURE, A. 4
A. the scale is replaced by the red V/S flag. B. 3
B. The scale is replaced by the amber V/S flag C. 2
98. THE ILS DATA APPEARS ON THE PFD
C. The red V/S flag appears and the vertical speed scale is still
displayed A. As soon as the ILS pushbutton switch on the EFIS control
88. ON UPPER ECAM, THE TAT AND SAT DATA IS panel has been pressed in
PROVIDED BY? B. Any time when A/C is energized
A. ADR1 or ADR3. C. The ILS data appears on the ND only
B. ADR2 or ADR3. 99. THE ILS DATA APPEARS ON THE ND
C. ADR1 or ADR2. A. when ROSE/ILS mode has been selected.
89. HE MULTI MODE RECEIVER (MMR) SYSTEM IS A B. when ARC/ILS mode has been selected
NAVIGATION SENSOR WITH 2 INTERNAL C. The ILS data appears on the PFD only
RECEIVERS: 100. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT ?
A. ILS and GPS A. The ILS1 information is displayed on PFD1 and ND2.
B. ILS and MKR B. The ILS2 information is displayed on PFD2 and ND2
C. VOR and MKR C. The ILS1 information is displayed on PFD1 and ND1
90. A DESCENT AXIS IS DETERMINED BY ILS IS 101. THE GPS INDICATION IS DISPLAYED
A. The intersection of a Localizer beam (LOC) and a Glide Slope A. On the MCDUs and on the NDs.
beam (G/S) B. On the MCDUs only
B. Glide Slope beam (G/S) only C. On the NDs only
C. Localizer beam (LOC) only 102. WHTAT IS THE GPS INDICATION ON ND ?
91. THE ARCHITECTURE OF THE GPS SYSTEM IS A. GPS message showing availability of the GPS Primary
COMPOSED OF navigation function.
A. 3 parts called segments: Spatial Segment, Control Segment, B. Position and true track,
User Segment C. Position, true track and Ground Speed
B. 2 parts called segments: Spatial Segment, User Segment 103. THE SATELLITE ORBITAL PLANES HAVE AN
C. 2 parts called segments: Control Segment, User Segment INCLINATION OF:
92. HOW FAST A GPS SATELLITE MOVE AROUND THE A. 60°.to the Equator
EARTH ? B. 55° to the Equator.
A. 1 revolution per day C. 45° to the Equator.
B. 2 revolution per day 104. THE MULTI MODE RECEIVER (MMR) SYSTEM
C. 3 revolution per day INCLUDES:
93. OF GPS SYSTEM, HOW MANY SATELLITE ARE A. 2 MMR units, 2 Glide Slope antenna, 2 Localizer antenna, 2
THERE ? GPS antennas.
A. 23 B. 2 MMR units, 1Glide Slope antenna, 1 Localizer antenna, 2
B. 24 GPS antennas.
C. 22 C. 2 MMR units, 1Glide Slope antenna, 1 Localizer antenna, 1
94. THE MASTER GPS CONTROL STATION IS LOCATED GPS antennas.
AT:
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 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
105. WHICH ILS RECEIVER PROVIDES THE GROUND B. The radar emits microwave pulses through a directive antenna
PROXIMITY WARNING COMPUTER WITH DATA? and picks up the return signals by another antenna
A. ILS 2 receiver. C. The radar emits microwave pulses and does not pick up the
B. ILS 1 receiver. return signals
C. ILS 1 and ILS 2 receivers. 116. A WINDSHEAR EVENT IS
106. WHERE IS ILS 2 DATA DISPLAYED? A. A sudden change of wind speed and/or direction over a small
A. On Capt ND and F/O PFD. distance due to downwardsand/or upwards movement of the
B. On Capt PFD and F/O ND. air.
C. On F/O PFD and F/O ND. B. A sudden change of wind speed and/or direction over a small
107. THE G/S AND LOC SCALES APPEAR ON THE PFD distance due to horizontal movement of the air.
WHEN C. A sudden change of air speed and/or direction over a small
A. The ILS pushbutton is selected. distance due to downwardsand/or upwards movement of the
air.
B. G/S and LOC beams are received. 117. THE WEATHER RADAR SYSTEM MAIN
C. A and B. COMPONENTS ARE
108. WHAT IS DISPLAYED IN ROSE-NAV MODE WHEN
A. an antenna, a wave guide, 1 or 2 transceiver and a control unit.
THE ILS PUSHBUTTON IS SELECTED ON THE EFIS
CONTROL PANEL? B. 2 antennae, a wave guide, 1 or 2 transceiver and a control unit.
A. An ILS course pointer. C. an antenna, a wave guide, 1 or 2 transceiver and 2 control
units.
B. A lateral deviation bar. 118. THE WEATHER RADAR IMAGE IS SHOWN
C. A and B. A. On the Captain and First Officer NDs.
109. IN ROSE-ILS MODE, THE ILS CHARACTERISTICS
ARE B. On the Captain and First Officer PFDs.
A. Displayed in magenta, in the top right corner of the ND. C. On the Captain ND only
119. RADAR IMAGE AND RADAR INFORMATION
B. Displayed in green, in the top right corner of the ND. STATUS (TILT, GAIN,FAILURE) ARE DISPLAYED IN
C. Displayed in magenta, in the bottom right corner of the ND. A. ARC and ROSE EFIS modes
110. WHEN AN ILS APPROACH HAS BEEN SELECTED ON
THE MCDU. B. PLAN EFIS mode.
A. A green ILS APP message appears on the top middle of the C. PLAN and ARC EFIS mode.
ND 120. THE PREDICTIVE WINDSHEAR INDICATIONS ARE
SHOWN ON THE
B. An white ILS APP message appears on the top middle of the
ND A. Captain and F/O PFDs and NDs.
C. A green ILS APP message appears on the bottom middle of B. Captain and F/O PFDs .
the ND C. Captain and F/O NDs.
111. GPS DATA INDICATIONS ARE DISPLAYED 121. THE WEATHER RADAR TRANSCEIVER CONTROLS
A. In all ND modes. ANTENNA IN
B. ROSE-NAV mode A. Azimuth and elevation movement.
C. In MAP mode B. Forward and aftward movement.
112. WHEN THE GPS PRIMARY NAVIGATION IS LOST, C. Elevation and sideward movement
A. An amber GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed at the 122. THE WR RECEIVES FROM AIR DATA AND
bottom of the ND. INERTIAL REFERENCE UNITS (ADIRUS)
B. A red flag GPS PRIMARY is displayed at the bottom of the A. pitch and roll data
ND. B. pitch roll and yaw data
C. An amber GPS PRIMARY message is displayed at the bottom C. pitch and yaw data
of the ND. 123. THE WR RECEIVES PITCH AND ROLL DATA FROM
113. THE RADAR SYSTEM MUST NOT BE OPERATED A. ADIRU 1 and 3
WHILE B. ADIRU 1 and 2
A. People are working on the LOC antenna only C. ADIRU 1 only
B. People are working on the G/S antenna only 124. THE WR/PWS TRANSCEIVER IS DE-ENERGIZED
C. People are working on the LOC and G/S antennae WHEN
114. THE WR HELPS THE PILOTS TO AVOID A. Both EFIS control panels are in PLAN mode,
ATMOSPHERIC DISTURBANCES B. Both EFIS control panels are in ARC mode,
A. By determining their range and bearing C. Both EFIS control panels are in NAV mode,
B. By determining their range and altitude 125. WHICH COMPONENT CONTROLS ANTENNA
C. By determining their altitude and bearing STABILIZATION?
115. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT ? A. ADIRU.
A. The radar emits microwave pulses through a directive antenna B. Transceiver.
which picks up the return signals C. Antenna.
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 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
126. WHICH DATA IS USED FOR ANTENNA A. Under the transceiver mount.
STABILIZATION? B. On the back of the transceiver
A. Pitch and roll. C. On the top of the transceiver
B. Selected tilt angle, antenna azimuth angle and elevation angle.
C. A and B. 137. TCAS FUNCTION IS
127. WHEN THE RADAR SYSTEM SWITCH IS IN OFF A. To detect and display aircraft in the immediate vicinity
POSITION? B. To detect and display Terrain in the immediate vicinity
A. The predictive windshear function is not activated. C. To detect and display high building in the immediate vicinity
B. The predictive windshear function is active until the 138. TCAS CAN
WINDSHEAR/AUTO/OFF is in the AUTO position. A. Provide the flight crew with indications and aural
C. The predictive windshear function is always available. warning/advice to avoid threat intruders.
128. ON GROUND WHEN WEATHER RADAR SYSTEM IS B. Control the aircraft to avoid threat intruders if the pilot takes
OPERATIVE, MAKE SURE THAT NOBODY IS no action
WITHIN A DISTANCE OF
C. Provide the flight crew with aural warning/advice only to
A. 1.5 meters from the antenna, in an arc of + or - 135º on either avoid threat intruders.
side of the aircraft centerline 139. TCAS ADVISES THE PILOT TO AVOID INTRUDERS.
B. 5 meters from the antenna, in an arc of + or - 135º on either A. In the horizon plane only
side of the aircraft centerline
B. In the vertical plane only.
C. 1.5 meters from the antenna, in an arc of + or - 90º on either C. In the vertical and horizon plane
side of the aircraft centerline
140. WHICH AIRCRAFT ARE DETECTED BY THE TCAS ?
129. WEATHER RADAR SYSTEM MUST NOT BE
OPERATED DURING THE REFUELING WITHIN A. All.
A. 100 meters. B. Only ATC Mode S equipped A/C.
B. 90 meters C. ATC equipped A/C.
141. TCAS IS A(AN)
C. 80 meters
A. Transponder
130. THE RADIO ALTIMETER (RA) SYSTEM B. Interrogator
DETERMINES C. Transponder and Interrogator
A. The height of the aircraft above the terrain during initial climb, 142. TO GET OTHER AIRCRAFT RELATED POSITION,
approach and landing phases TCAS COMMUNICATES WITH
B. The height of the aircraft above the terrain during cruise A. ATC of other aircraft
C. The height of the aircraft above the sea level B. TCAS of other aircraft
131. THE RA INFORMATION IS DISPLAYED ON C. VHF of other aircraft
A. FPD 143. THE TCAS ANTENNAE ARE
B. ND, A. Directional
C. PFD and ND B. Non-directional
132. THE RA COMPONENTS ARE C. Either Directional or Non-directional depends on mod
A. Two transceivers, two fans and two antennae selection
B. Two transceivers, two fans and four antennae 144. TCAS INFORMATION IS DISPLAYED ON
C. One transceiver, two fans and two antennae A. ND
133. THE RA DATA IS DISPLAYED ON THE PRIMARY B. PFD
FLIGHT DISPLAYS FOR HEIGHTS C. ND and PFD
A. Less than or equal to 2500 ft. 145. WITH MODE SELECTOR IN TA POSITION:
B. More than or equal to 2500 ft. A. Only traffic advisories are provided.
C. Less than or equal to 5200 ft. B. All traffic indications are provided.
134. ON PFD, A RED RIBBON NEXT TO THE ALTITUDE C. No TCAS information is provided.
SCALE APPEARS WHEN HEIGHTS 146. THE PFD PRESENTS INDICATIONS ON THE
A. Less than 500 ft. VERTICAL SPEED SCALE,
B. More than 500 ft. A. Only in case of Resolution Advisories (RA) detection.
C. Less than 300 ft. B. Only in case of Traffic Advisories (TA) detection.
135. ON PFD, A GROUND LINE RISING ON TO THE C. In case of Resolution Advisories (RA) and Traffic Advisories
PITCH DOWN AREA WHEN HEIGHTS (TA) detection.
A. Below 300 ft 147. THE ND PRESENTS TRAFFIC INDICATION
B. Above 300 ft A. Only in ROSE and ARC mode
C. Below 500 ft B. In ROSE and PLAN mode
136. THE RA TRANSCEIVER COOLING FAN IS C. In ROSE, ARC and PLAN
ATTACHED 148. A RA IS REPRESENTED ON THE ND WITH:

7
 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION

A. A red square C. On CAPT F/O PFD and ND

B. A red circle 160. DME DISTANCE IS DISPLAYED ON THE PRIMARY
C. A white filled diamond shape. FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD) WHEN
A. The ILS P/B on the EFIS control panel is pressed in.
149. THE TERRAIN DATA IS DISPLAYED ON THE ND IN B. In ROSE/ILS ND mode
PLACE OF THE RADAR IMAGE C. In ROSE/VOR ND mode
A. Automatically when a Terrain Caution or Warning is detected 161. DME DISTANCE IS DISPLAYED ON THE
or any time by using the TERR ON ND pushbutton NAVIGATION DISPLAY (ND) WHEN
B. When weather rada is off A. ADF/VOR selector on the EFIS control panel is set to VOR
C. Any time in ROSE and ARC mode B. The ILS P/B on the EFIS control panel is pressed in.
150. WHAT HAPPENS TO THE EGPWS WHEN THE C. In ROSE/ILS ND mode
STALL WARNING IS TRIGGERED? 162. DME AND ATC ANTENNAE ARE
A. All modes are inhibited. A. Identical and interchangeable.
B. Mode 4 is inhibited. B. Not identical
C. Mode 5 is inhibited. C. Identical but not interchangeable.
151. WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE G/S P/B IS PRESSED IN
ON THE GPWS CONTROL PANEL? 163. ATC COMPUTER IS
A. The Glide/Slope mode is inhibited. A. A transponder
B. Only Glide/Slope mode is valid. B. An interrogator
C. The self test sequence is initiated. C. A transponder and interrogator
152. WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE TERR ON ND P/B IS 164. WHAT DOES ATC TRANSPONDER COMMUNICATE
PRESSED IN? WITH?
A. The ND displays the terrain image. A. ATC ground station or TCAS of other aircraft
B. The terrain image is superposed with the radar image on the B. VHF of other aircraft
ND. C. ATC ground station only
C. The radar image is present until a terrain caution or warning is 165. IN MODE A OPERATION, ATC TRANSPONDER
detected. GIVES
153. THE EGPWS HAS PRIORITY OVER: A. Aircraft Identification
A. All systems. B. Aircraft altitude
B. Auto call out, low speed warning and TCAS. C. Flight data and selective calls
C. Stall and wind shear. 166. IN MODE C OPERATION, ATC TRANSPONDER
154. WHICH SYNTHETIC VOICE IS BROADCAST IN GIVES
CASE OF AN EXCESSIVE RATE OF DESCENT? A. Aircraft Identification
A. SINK RATE. B. Aircraft altitude
B. TERRAIN TERRAIN. C. Flight data and selective calls
C. GLIDE SLOPE. 167. IN MODE S OPERATION, ATC TRANSPONDER
155. THE DME COMPUTER IS GIVES
A. An interrogator A. Aircraft Identification
B. A Transponder B. Aircraft altitude
C. An interrogator and Transponder C. Flight data and selective calls
156. THE DME DISTANCE IS SHOWN ON 168. THE ATC COMPONENTS ARE
A. PFD, ND and DDRMI A. Two transponders, four antennae and one ATC/TCAS control
B. PFD and ND only panel.
C. DDRMI and ND only B. Two transponders, two antennae and one ATC/TCAS control
157. THE DME DISTANCE IS SHOWN ON THE PRIMARY panel.
FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD) C. One transponders, two antennae and one ATC/TCAS control
A. If DME is co-located with ILS panel.
B. If DME is co-located with VOR 169. FOR SURVEILLANCE PURPOSE, MODE S WORKS
C. If DME is located alone BASED ON
158. THE DME DISTANCE IS SHOWN ON THE A. Using unique address coded of 24 bits
NAVIGATION DISPLAY (ND) B. Using aircraft Tail number
A. If DME is co-located with ILS C. Using aircraft Sel-Call code
B. If DME is co-located with VOR 170. ATC TRANSPONDERS ARE LOCATED IN
C. If DME is located alone A. Avionics rack 80VU
159. WHERE IS THE DME 1 INFORMATION DISPLAYED ? B. Avionics rack 90VU
A. On CAPT PFD and F/O PFD. C. Aft cargo
B. On CAPT PFD, CAPT and F/O ND and DDRMI.
8
 ATA 34 –NAVIGATION
171. THE ADF SYSTEM PROVIDES: A. PFD only
A. The relative bearing to a selected ground station called Non B. ND only
Directional Beacon (NDB). C. PFD and ND
B. The relative bearing to a selected ground ATC station 183. ON ND, THE VOR STATION CHARACTERISTICS
C. The relative bearing to a selected ground audio broadcasting AND POINTERS ARE DISPLAYED IN
station A. White
172. THE RELATIVE BEARING IS B. Magenta
A. The angle between the aircraft heading and the aircraft/ground C. Green
station axis. 184. ON ND
B. The angle between the magnetic North and the aircraft/ground A. Single white bearing pointer is for VOR 1
station axis.
B. Double white bearing pointer is for ADF 2
C. The angle between the aircraft heading and the magnetic North C. Double green bearing pointer is for VOR 2
173. THE ADF INFORMATION IS DISPLAYED ON
185. IN WHICH ND MODE IS THE VOR COURSE
A. ND and PFD DEVIATION INFORMATION DISPLAYED ?
B. ND and DDRMI A. In ROSE-VOR mode.
C. PDF and DDRMI B. In ROSE-NAV mode.
174. ON ND, ADF INFORMATION IS DISPLAYED
C. In any mode.
A. When selected by ADF/VOR switch in ROSE or ARC mode 186. VOR ANTENNA IS LOCATED
B. All the time in MAP mode A. On the top of the vertical stabilizer
C. All the time in ROSE/NAV mode B. On the top of rear fuselage
175. ON ND,
C. On the bottom of rear fuselage
A. Single green pointer is for ADF1
B. Double green pointer for VOR2
C. Double White pointer is for ADF2
176. THE VOR PROVIDES
A. The aircraft bearing with respect to the ground station
B. The aircraft heading
C. The aircraft relative bearing with respect to the ground station
177. THE BEARING IS THE ANGLE
A. Between the Magnetic North and the ground station/aircraft
axis.
B. Between the Magnetic North and the aircraft longitudinal axis.
C. Between the aircraft longitudinal axis and the ground
station/aircraft axis.
178. THE VOR BEARING IS
A. The phase difference between a reference phase signal and a
variable phase signal generated by the ground VOR station
B. The phase difference between a reference phase signal and a
variable phase signal generated by the ground NDB station
C. The frequency difference between a reference frequency signal
and a variable frequency signal generated by the ground VOR
station
179. THE MARKER SYSTEM INDICATES
A. The distance between the aircraft and the runway threshold.
B. The distance between the aircraft and the MARKER ground
station.
C. The distance between the aircraft and the runway center line
180. THE MKR ANTENNA IS CONNECTED TO
A. VOR receiver 1
B. MKR receiver
C. VOR receiver 2
181. THE MKR FREQUENCY IS
A. Automatically tuned by FMGC
B. Manually tuned by RMP
C. Fixed and does not need any control
182. THE MKR INFORMATION IS DISPLAYED ON
9
 ATA 35 –OXYGEN
3. How you can change “OXY” indication on the DOOR/OXY
ATA 35 - OXYGEN page from amber to green when you do Operational test of the
Crew Oxygen Distribution: (Level A, B1, B2)
1. When working on gaseous oxygen system: (Level A, B1, B2) a) Push the OXYGEN/CREW SUPPLY pushbutton switch on
a) Stop all refueling, repairs on fuel and hydraulic systems. the panel 21VU
b) Stop all procedures that use flammable materials such as b) Push the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET pushbutton switch
cleaning and de-icing fluids. on the oxygen mask stowage boxes,
c) All of the above c) Push the MASK MAN ON pushbutton switch on the panel
d) None of the above 21VU.
Ref. AMM: 35-00-00-860-001 d) No way to change the color of the “OXY” indication.
WARNING:OBEY THESE SPECIAL PRECAUTIONS WHEN Ref. AMM: 35-12-00-710-001
YOU DO THIS PROCEDURE:
- CAREFULLY OBEY THE REPLENISHING 4. How do you check the serviceability of the passenger chemical
INSTRUCTIONS. IF YOU DO NOT oxygen generator? (Level A, B1, B2)
OBEY THESE INSTRUCTIONS, YOU a) Read the manufacturing date on the label of the oxygen
CAN CAUSE A FIRE OR AN generator.
EXPLOSION. b) Obey the manufacturer's instructions.
- c) All of the above
PREVENT ALL MAINTENANCE
PROCEDURES NEARER THAN 5 M (16.4 d) None of the above
FT) TO THE WORKING AREA OF THE (Ref. AMM: 35-21-00-210-002).
AIRCRAFT. A. Examine the Chemical Oxygen Generators
CAUTION:DO NOT PULL THE GENERATOR-END OF THE
- STOP ALL REFUELING, ALL REPAIRS ON LANYARD.
FUEL AND HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS, (1)Make sure that the condition indicator is yellow.
AND ALL PROCEDURES THAT USE (2)If the condition indicator is black, replace the chemical oxygen
FLAMMABLE MATERIALS SUCH AS generator (Ref. AMM TASK 35-21-00-920-001) .
CLEANING AND DE-ICING (3)Make sure that the outlet fittings are not loose and have no
MATERIALS. corrosion, cracks and damage.
- PUT A WARNING NOTICE IN THE (4)Serviceability check of the oxygen generator:
COCKPIT, THE WORK AREA AND THE (a) Read the manufacturing date on the label of the oxygen
CABIN TO TELL PERSONS NOT TO generator.
OPERATE ELECTRICAL SWITCHES (b)Obey the manufacturer's instructions.
DURING THE OXYGEN FILLING
PROCEDURE. 5. How do you check the Smoke Hood Container for serviceable
- condition? (Level A, B1, B2)
TELL ALL PERSONS IN THE AIRCRAFT a) The box seal must not be damaged or broken
THAT THE OXYGEN FILLING b) The yellow indicator and the yellow indicator cord must not be
PROCEDURE IS IN PROGRESS. broken
c) All of the above
- d) None of the above
IF YOU THINK THAT A THUNDERSTORM Ref. AMM: 35-30-00-210-006
WILL OCCUR, IMMEDIATELY STOP (1)In the Cockpit:
ALL OXYGEN FILLING OPERATIONS. (a) Make sure that you can see the yellow indicator in the box and it
is in the correct condition (the operational color is yellow).
(b) If the box seal (if installed) is damaged or broken, make sure
2. When HP crew oxygen pressure is less than 400 psi you can that:
perform: (Level A, B1, B2) - The cord of the yellow indicator is not broken.
a) Operational test of the Crew Oxygen Distribution, - The yellow indicator is not broken.
b) Do a trouble shooting procedure TSM 35 PB 101
c) All of the above NOTE:The box seal (if installed) can be damaged or broken. The
d) None of the above condition of the box seal is not mandatory to the
Ref. AMM: 35-12-00-710-001 serviceable condition of the breathing hood.
on the ECAM control panel on the center pedestal, push the (c) Replace the breathing hood if:
DOOR key, the DOOR/OXY page is shown with the - The cord of the yellow indicator is broken.
oxygen indication. - The yellow indicator cannot be seen or is broken.
If the pressure is less than 1500 PSI a half box (advisory) is
shown only for information.
Do not do this test if the HP oxygen pressure is less than 400 PSI, 6. When the cord of the yellow indicator is broken, you must:
or if the HP information is not available (XXXXPSI), in this (Level A, B1, B2)
case do a trouble shooting procedure TSM 35. a) Replace the smoke hood.
b) Replace the smoke hood only when the yellow indicator is
broken.
c) No action required
1
 ATA 35 –OXYGEN
d) None of the above
Ref. AMM: 35-30-00-210-006 11. A half box (advisory) symbol is shown on the ECAM page if
7. The flight crew oxygen cylinder is installed in the avionics the crew oxygen pressure is less than (choose the maximum
compartment between: (Level A, B1, B2) value among the answers): (Level A, B1, B2)
a) Frames 11 and 13 a) 400 psi.
b) Frames 13 and 15 b) 1000 psi.
c) Frames 9 and 11. c) 1500 psi.
Ref. AMM: 35-11-00 PB 001 d) 1800 psi.
The flight crew oxygen is supplied from a high-pressure oxygen Ref. AMM: 35-12-00 PB 701
cylinder with a pressure regulator/transmitter directly
connected to the cylinder head. It is installed in a cradle with
two quick-release clamps between frames 11 and 13 in the
avionics compartment. The installation can survive crash loads
of 10G's in all directions
8. Regarding inspection of flight crew oxygen pressure, the
minimum oxygen pressure depends on (the number of
personnel in the cockpit during flight is fixed): (Level A, B1,
B2)
a) OAT (Outside temperature) only. 12. REGUL LO PR Message shown on ECAM page if pressure
b) Cockpit temperature only. decreases to: (Level B1, B2)
c) Cabin temperature only. a) 50 ± 5 psi.
d) Average value of OAT & Cockpit temperature b) 100 ± 5 psi
Ref. AMM: 35-10-00 PB 601 c) 150 ± 5 psi.
d) 200 ± 5 psi.
Ref. AMM: 35-12-00 PB 001
A low-pressure switch is installed on the distribution manifold. It
operates when the oxygen supply pressure decreases to 3.45
plus or minus 0.35 bar (50 plus or minus 5 psig) and transmits
a warning signal REGUL LO PR to the ECAM system in the
cockpit.

9. Which are connected to a discharge indicator on the fuselage 13. When the full-face quick-donning mask is removed, the crew
skin: (Level A, B1, B2) oxygen system is: (Level B1, B2)
a) The high-pressure safety outlet. a) Automatically switched on
b) The low pressure safety outlet. b) Supplied oxygen to the mask
c) All of the above. c) Armed.
d) None of the above. Ref. AMM: 35-12-00 PB 001
Ref. AMM: 35-11-00 PB 001 The stowage box assemblies are installed in the cockpit next to each
The high-pressure safety outlet on the oxygen cylinder head and the flight crew station. Each box is the connection point for the
low pressure safety outlet on the pressure regulator/transmitter full-face quick-donning mask which is kept in the box until
are connected to a discharge indicator on the fuselage skin required for use. When the mask is removed, the oxygen
(near the access door 812). The discharge indicator is a green system is automatically switched on.
blow-out disc that can be seen from outside the aircraft. This A flow indicator blinks to show that the oxygen flows.
disc will blow out at a pressure of 2.8 to 6.9 bar (40 to 100
psig) to show a yellow indicator. This shows that oxygen has 14. The flag OXY ON will go out of sight when the supply valve:
been discharged. (Level B1, B2)
a) Opened.
10. The discharge indicator which is a green blow-out disc will b) Closed.
blow out at a pressure of: (Level B1, B2) c) Closed and reset.
a) 40 to 100 psi Ref. AMM: 35-12-00 PB 001
b) 500 to 1000 psi The two doors on the stowage box keep the mask in the box. When
c) 1000 to 1500 psi. the left door is opened with the removal of the mask, the
d) 1500 to 2000 psi. oxygen supply valve in the stowage box will open and permit
Ref. AMM 35-11-00 PB 001 oxygen to flow to the mask. Once the left door has been
C. Safety System opened and the oxygen flows, a flag OXY ON. This flag will
The high-pressure safety outlet on the oxygen cylinder head and the not go out of sight until the supply valve has been closed and
low pressure safety outlet on the pressure regulator/transmitter reset.
are connected to a discharge indicator on the fuselage skin
(near the access door 812). The discharge indicator is a green 15. The Normal/100 % selector in the Normal position. Above
blow-out disc that can be seen from outside the aircraft. This 34778 ft, the crew oxygen system supply: (Level B1, B2)
disc will blow out at a pressure of 2.8 to 6.9 bar (40 to 100 a) 100 % oxygen,
psig) to show a yellow indicator. This shows that oxygen has b) 80 % oxygen & 20 % cabin air,
been discharged. c) 75 % oxygen & 25 % cabin air.
2

Ref. AMM: 35-12-00 PB 001
An air/oxygen supply is given with the Normal/100 % selector in
the Normal position. Above 10600 m (34777.54 ft.), an
aneroid capsule in the demand regulator automatically closes
the air inlet to give a 100 % oxygen supply.
16. On the DOOR/OXY page, the oxygen pressure is indicated in
amber when pressure is: (Level A, B1, B2)
a) 0 to 1000 psi,
b) 0 to 500 psi,
c) 0 to 400 psi.
Ref. AMM: 35-13-00 PB 001
17. When you push PRESS TO TEST AND RESET control slide
On the oxygen-mask stowage box the OXY LO PR legend
comes on amber On the DOOR page, how to clear it: (Level
B1, B2)
a) Use CLEAR pushbutton on ECAM control panel,
b) Push PRESS TO TEST AND RESET again,
c) Use OXYGEN/CREW SUPPLY pushbutton switch on the
panel 21VU.
Ref. AMM: 35-13-51 PB 401
(11) On the panel 21VU, release the OXYGEN/CREW SUPPLY
pushbutton switch. The OFF legend comes on.
(12) On the oxygen-mask stowage box, operate the PRESS TO
TEST AND RESET control slide a sufficient number of times
to make the system empty.
(13) On the DOOR page of the lower display unit of the ECAM
system, the OXY LO PR legend comes on amber.
NOTE : The OXY LO PR legend goes off when the LP oxygen-
supply solenoid-valve (3HT) is open.
18. How to know the PAX chemical oxygen generator is used or
not more usable : (Level B1, B2)
a) An indicator on the housing will change color from yellow to
black,
b) An indicator on the housing will change color from green to
red,
c) Check on the overhead panel 21VU.
Ref. AMM: 35-21-00 PB 001
An indicator on the housing will change color (from yellow to
black) when the chemical oxygen generator is used and the
generator is not more usable.
19. When you Do the operational test of the passenger-oxygen
system, If you hold the MASK MAN ON pushbutton switch
for more than 30 sec: (Level B1, B2)
a) The emergency announcements stop,
b) The ON indicator light on the TMR RESET pushbutton switch
comes on,
c) The FAULT indication light in the TMR RESET pushbutton
switch comes on.
Ref. AMM 35-23-00 PB 501
If you hold the MASK MAN ON pushbutton switch for more
than 30 sec., the FAULT indication light in the TMR RESET
pushbutton switch comes on.
20. The flight-crew emergency breathing-hood system makes sure
that the crew has an air supply of more than: (Level A, B1,
B2)
a) 13 minutes,
b) 15 minutes,
c) 20 minutes.
ATA 35 –OXYGEN
Ref. AMM: 35-31-00 PB 001
21. The Cabin Portable Oxygen Cylinders are equipped with
protective device: (Level B1, B2)
a) A high-pressure relief valve with a rupture disc
b) A low-pressure relief valve
c) Both a) & b).
Ref. AMM: 35-32-00 PB 001 page3
22. The flight crew oxygen system supplies the flight crew
members with oxygen in case of: (A)
a) Loss of cabin pressure altitude.
b) Emission of smoke or toxic gas.
c) None of the above.
d) a) or b).
Ref. Ref. AMM: 35-10-00 PB001
The crew oxygen system will supply the flight crew with oxygen, if
there is a loss of cabin pressurization or the emission of smoke
and noxious gas. The crew oxygen system is for commercial
aircraft that fly up to a height of 12000 m (39370.80 ft.).
23. The flight crew oxygen system consists of: (A)
a) The oxygen storage,
b) The oxygen distribution,
c) The oxygen control and indicating,
d) All of the above.
Ref. AMM: 35-10-00 PB001
24. When working on gaseous oxygen system, you must: (A)
a) Stop all refueling, all repairs on fuel and hydraulic systems, all
procedures that use flammable material such as cleaning and
de-icing materials.
b) Do not operate external lightings.
c) Do not operate HF system and carry out maintenance on HF
system.
d) All of the above.
Ref. AMM: 35-00-00-860-001
A. Special precautions when working on gaseous oxygen system.
(1)Make sure that the manual shut-off valves on the oxygen system
are closed before you loosen a connection in the oxygen
system.
(2)The aircraft must be grounded before you fill the oxygen system.
(3)Make sure that no person connects and/or disconnects the ground
power connector when you do work on the gaseous oxygen
system.
(4)Prevent all other maintenance procedures nearer than 5m (13.5ft)
to the work area.
(5)Stop all refueling, repairs on fuel and hydraulic systems, and all
procedures that use flammable materials such as cleaning
and de-icing fluids.
(6)Make sure that the work area is clean and free from dust and
loose particles.
(7)Use only approved materials to clean the components of the
oxygen system.
(8)Make sure that there are no hydrocarbons (fuel, lubricants,
solvents) in the work area.
(9)Make sure that there are no flammable materials (paint, thinners,
cleaning solvents) in the work area.
(10)Make sure that there are no sources of ignition (sparks, flame,
smoking) in a radius of 20m (66ft) of the oxygen
replenishing equipment.
(11)Make sure that your hands, clothes, equipment and tools are all
clean and free from hydrocarbons.
(12)If possible, wear GLOVES - COTTON, LINT-FREE, CLEAN
3

when you touch components in the oxygen system.
(13)Make sure that there is a good flow of air in the work area.
(14)Make sure that the oxygen system is depressurized before you
loosen or tighten connections.
(15)Make sure that the tubes and flexible hoses are not twisted or
pulled.
(16)If possible, use two wrenches when you torque the connections
to avoid stress and damage to tubes and hoses.
(17)Always open the manual shut-off valves on the oxygen
cylinders slowly to prevent a sudden increase of
temperature.
(18)Only close the manual shut-off valves on the oxygen cylinders
with your hands. Do not use force to tighten them.
(19)The system must be flushed with oxygen when nitrogen has
been used during a test.
25. OXY indication on the ECAM DOOR/OXY page becomes
amber when there is an oxygen low pressure detected and
transmitted by: (B1, B2)
a) DMCs
b) SDAC.
c) All of the above.
d) None of the above.
Ref AMM 31-67-52 Pb001
The OXY indication (normally green) becomes amber when either:
- there is an oxygen low pressure detected and transmitted by the
SDAC,
- the OXYGEN CREW SUPPLY pushbutton switch on overhead
panel is OFF
- the pressure value is lower than 400 psi. When these conditions are
not available from the SDAC, the OXY title remains green.
26. When you do leakage test of the LP oxygen for the crew, you
can: (B1, B2)
a) Test with the nitrogen source,
b) Test with the Oxygen Cylinder source,
c) Test with the nitrogen source or the crew oxygen cylinder
source or the HP ground cart,
d) Test with the nitrogen source or the Oxygen Cylinder source.
Ref. AMM: 35-10-00-790-001 and AMM: 35-10-00-790-001-01
27. The CKPT OXY indication in amber on ECAM DOOR/OXY
page when: (A)
a) The CREW SUPPLY P/BSW is OFF and oxygen high
pressure is less than 400 PSI,
b) The CREW SUPPLY P/BSW is OFF and oxygen high
pressure is less than 1500 PSI,
c) There is detection low pressure in high pressure system or
regulated low pressure,
d) The CREW SUPPLY P/BSW is OFF or oxygen high pressure
is less than 400 PSI or regulated low pressure.
Ref. AMM: 35-13-00 PB001
ATA 35 –OXYGEN
??? need practise
28. The OXY high pressure indication is cross amber when: (A,
B1, B2)
a) Pressure is less than 400 PSI,
b) Pressure is less than 1500 PSI,
c) High pressure oxygen is discharged to overboard.
d) Oxygen high pressure information is not available.
Ref. AMM 31-67-52 Pb001
The value is replaced by amber XX when it is not available from the
SDAC.
The unit PSI is normally not displayed.
It is not displayed otherwise.
29. Regarding A320 passenger oxygen system, to avoid the full
release of all the oxygen masks when doing the functional test
of automatic mask release, you must: (B1, B2)
a) Pull out the door stops and turn them 90 degrees to the TEST
position on all the emergency oxygen containers,
b) Pull out the door stops and turn them 180 degrees to the TEST
position on all the emergency oxygen containers,
c) Apply high speed tape around all of the emergency containers,
d) Pull out the door stops and turn them 90 degrees to the
DEACTIVATED position on all the emergency oxygen
containers.
Ref. AMM: 35-23-00 Pb501
30. Before remove the crew oxygen cylinder, you must do: (A,
B1, B2)
a) Close the ON/OFF valve on the oxygen cylinder and bleed the
oxygen system.
b) Make sure no leak in the oxygen system.
c) Make sure indication of crew oxygen system is available on
ECAM DOOR/OXY page.
d) All of the above.
Ref. AMM: 35-11-41-000-001
B. Aircraft Maintenance Configuration
(1)Obey the special precautions when you work on a gaseous
oxygen system (Ref. AMM TASK 35-00-00-860-001) .
(2)Energize the aircraft electrical circuits (Ref. AMM TASK 24-41-
00-861-002)
(3)Close the valve of the oxygen cylinder/valve assembly (5750
HM).
Subtask 35-11-41-614-050-A
C. Bleed the oxygen system:
(1)In the cockpit, on the panel 21VU, push the OXYGEN/CREW
SUPPLY pushbutton switch. The OFF legend goes off.
(2)On an oxygen-mask stowage box, operate the PRESS TO TEST
AND RESET control slide a sufficient number of times to
make the system empty.
(3)On the panel 21VU, release the OXYGEN/CREW SUPPLY
pushbutton switch. The OFF legend comes on.
(4)On the panel 21VU, put a WARNING NOTICE(S) to tell persons
not to push the OXYGEN/CREW SUPPLY pushbutton
switch.
31. Which of the following is NOT correct for the installation of
the Crew Oxygen-Storage Cylinder? (B1, B2)
a) Do the operational test of the crew oxygen distribution.
b) Do the leak check
c) Push the OXYGEN/CREW SUPPLY pushbutton switch (The
OFF legend goes off)
d) All of the above are not correct.???
Ref. AMM 35-11-41-400-001
4
 ATA 35 –OXYGEN
a. If there is a loss of cabin pressurization or a smoke emission.
32. How do you do the detailed inspection/check of the full b. If there is a loss of cabin pressurization.
face/quick donning mask? (B1, B2) c. Always supply.
a) Check the correct position of the Mask Lock. 40. The crew oxygen is supplied by:
b) Check the correct torque of the Retaining Screw. a. A portable bottle.
c) All of the above. b. A high pressure oxygen cylinder.
d) None of the above. c. A chemical unit.
Ref. AMM: 35-12-41-200-002 Page 607 41. The smoke hood system provides breathing means and eye
protection for:
33. Each passenger emergency oxygen container consists of: (A, a. The crew members only.
B1, B2) b. The crew members and cabin attendants.
a) A chemical oxygen generators and oxygen masks. c. The crew members and passenger.
b) Oxygen masks and supply valves to supply oxygen to 42. The oxygen system on the aircraft consists of :
passengers. a. A fixed high pressure cylinder and a high pressure portable
c) Supply valves to supply oxygen to passengers. cylinder.
d) A chemical oxygen generators, oxygen masks and supply b. A high pressure portable cylinder and a chemical generator.
valves to supply oxygen to passengers. c. A fixed high pressure cylinder, a high pressure portable
Ref. AMM: 35-20-00 PB001 cylinder and a chemical generator.
Each chemical oxygen unit is made up of a solid-state chemical CREW OXYGEN SYSTEM
oxygen generator and two or more continuous-flow oxygen ** Crew Oxygen System Presentation (1)
masks. 43. An overboard discharge is indicated by:
34. Minimum crew oxygen pressure is the function of: (A, B1, B2) a. A warning on the oxygen control panel 21VU.
a) Temperature. b. The direct reading pressure gauge on the oxygen cylinder.
b) Number of crews. c. A yellow indicator.
c) All of the above. 44. Without electric the cylinder pressure can be checked by
d) None of the above. a. A direct reading pressure gage.
Ref. AMM: 35-10-00-200-001 b. An overboard green discharge indicator.
c. ECAM indication
35. What if the Crew Oxygen bottle green disk is blown out? (A, 45. With The manual ON/OFF valve is closed the cylinder
B1, B2) pressure:
a) The only possible cause is: Oxygen overpressure in the high a. Can be checked by the pressure gage.
pressure system. (sai vi con co the overpressure in low b. Can not be checked
pressure system) c. Can be checked if electric are available
b) Crews have used the oxygen during flight. ** System Controls and Indicating (1)
c) Manual Shut off valve on the cylinder is not in the SHUT 46. The warning message appears amber on the ECAM
position. DOOR/OXY page
d) None of the above a. In low pressure conditions only.
Ref. AMM: 35-10-00 PB001 b. in case of overpressure
c. In high pressure condition.
36. Oxygen system is discharged overboard through a safety port 47. Overpressure protection of the crew oxygen is achieved by
when? (A, B1, B2) a. A frangible disk type and a pressure relief valve.
a) Overpressure in the HP source. b. An overpressure valve.
b) Overpressure in the LP system. c. An overboard green discharge indicator
c) a) or b). Crew OXY Mask Utiliz/Stowage/Tests (2)
d) None of the above. 48. In the normal position of the Crew oxy mask selector, the
Ref. AMM: 35-10-00 PB001 user breathes
a. Pure oxygen.
37. With OXY high pressure indication on ECAM DOOR/OXY b. a mixture of cabin air and oxygen
page INOP, the MEL requires you to: (B1, B2) c. Cabin air only.
a) Check that no “REGUL LO PR” displayed on ECAM 49. Test operation of the crew oxygen system by
DOOR/OXY. a. Push the reset test slider.
b) Confirm the Green disk indicator is not missing before each b. Using MCDU.
flight. c. Check system pressure on ECAM Door/Oxy Page.
c) Check oxygen pressure using direct reading on the cylinder. Crew Oxygen Components (3)
d) Test the oxygen system using RESET/TEST control slide. 50. Warning when working with oxygen system is :
Ref. MEL 35-07-01, TASK 35-10-00-040-001 a. Keep all Hydrocarbons (FUELS, LUBRICANTS ...) away
38. The passenger and cabin attendant oxygen system is from oxygen sources.
supplied by: b. Make sure the tool and your hand are clean.
a. The chemical oxygen generator units. c. Both A and B
b. A high pressure oxygen cylinder. 51. A high pressure frangible disk can be found at:
c. The high pressure portable cylinder. a. The cylinder valve assembly
39. The flight crew oxygen system supplies oxygen to the flight b. The oxygen pressure regulator/transmitter
crew: c. The overboard discharge indicator
5
 ATA 35 –OXYGEN
52. Masks fitted at the Captain and First Officer stations must b. High pressure oxygen for a minimum time of 13 or 15
have: minutes.
a. Serviceable headset c. A mixture of cabin air and oxygen for passengers.
b. Microphones. 65. On ground, used chemical oxygen units
c. Serviceable mikes. a. Are reset by momentarily pressing the TMR RESET
PASSENGER OXYGEN SYSTEM pushbutton on the maintenance panel.
** Passenger Oxygen System Presentation (1) b. Must be replaced.
53. The oxygen masks are presented automatically when c. Must be recharged.
a. The cabin altitude is higher than 14000 feet. 66. On GRN, when the TMR RESET pushbutton is pressed,
b. The cabin altitude is 8000 feet. a. The SYS ON white light comes on.
c. Positive pressure presented. b. The indicator light SYS ON goes off.
54. The chemical generator units provide oxygen for: c. The FAULT light on the TMR RESET pushbutton comes on
a. Approximately 13 or 15 minutes. 67. The taped announcement may be stopped by momentarily
b. At least 30 minutes. pressing
c. Passenger only. a. The TMR RESET pushbutton.
55. The oxygen units are installed in the passenger b. The MASK MAN ON pushbutton.
compartment as follows: c. Passenger announcement pushbutton on FAP.
a. Above the passenger seats. 68. When the cabin altitude is more than 14000 FT and TIME
b. Above the passenger seats, in the lavatories. DELAY RELAYS 8WR and 9WR remain open after
c. Above the passenger seats, in the lavatories and at the cabin delay:
attendant stations. a. The ON white light of the TMR RESET pushbutton comes on.
56. The oxygen masks may be presented: b. The SYS ON white light and Public Address systems are off
a. Automatically. c. The SYS ON white light and Public Address systems are still
b. Manually. on
c. Both A and B. ** Passenger Oxygen Unit Operation (3)
57. How many ways to drop the oxygen masks: 69. As soon as the emergency oxygen container doors open:
a. 1. a. The masks fall out.
b. 2. b. the release pin starts the chemical generation
c. 3. c. The masks delay 30s before fall down.
58. In case of failure of the container door opening system. A 70. The expended generator is show by
release tool allows: a. A green stripe indicator.
a. Bypass opening of the door. b. A black indicator.
b. Mechanical opening of the door. c. A thermal yellow indicator.
c. Electrical trigger. 71. The release pin starts the chemical generation only when:
59. Pressing the MASK MAN ON pushbutton The passenger a. When the first user pulls the mask lanyard towards his face.
oxygen masks: b. As soon as the mask fall out.
a. presented at some case. c. When all users pull the mask lanyard.
b. presented at any time. 72. An indicator on chemical generation unit turning from
c. Presented and oxygen supplied. yellow to black shows:
60. On ground, if the chemical oxygen units has been used you a. Over pressure in the unit.
must: b. The generator is expended.
a. Replaced the unit only. c. The bad oxygen quality.
b. Reset and refill the unit. 73. A relief valve fitted on the generator housing protects:
c. Replaced the unit and all masks restowed. a. The generator against low internal pressure.
61. The passenger "SYS ON" white indicator light comes on b. The generator against high external pressure.
when c. The generator against high internal pressure.
a. The passenger oxygen system is automatically operated. 74. The door stop allows an inspection and a test of the
b. The passenger oxygen system is manually operated. emergency oxygen-container door:
c. The passenger oxygen system is electrically operated. a. Opening by a few degrees.
** Passenger Oxygen System D/O (3) b. Full open.
62. The TMR RESET FAULT light comes on if: c. Open 60 degrees.
a. The reset operation is not yet completed. ** Passenger Oxygen Components (3)
b. The reset operation has failed. ** Passenger Electrical Circuit (3)
c. The time delay relays have failed during the automatic 75. All oxygen units electrical latches remain energized if a
operation. circuit is damaged in the event of engine turbine bursting
63. The time delay relays control the Pax oxygen system by:
automatic operation by a. Time delay relays supply the system after 30 seconds.
a. Cut off electrical supply after 30 seconds. b. Press Mask Man On pushbutton.
b. Supply the system for 3 seconds. c. The LH and RH latch assembly electrical circuits are
c. Supply the system after 30 seconds. interconnected 6 seconds after system activation.
64. The chemical oxygen generator supplies a flow of PORTABLE OXYGEN SYSTEM
a. Low pressure oxygen. Crew Portable Oxygen System D/O (3)
76. The crew smoke hood system
6
 ATA 35 –OXYGEN
a. provides eyes protection and supplies oxygen
b. Supplies low pressure oxygen.
c. used as an eyes protection in case of emergency: an emission
of smoke and/or noxious gases
77. The hood is:
a. Fire resistant.
b. Non fire resistant.
c. Gas resistant only.
78. Normal good condition indicator of the hood container is
a. Red.
b. Blue.
c. Green.
79. the function of the hood absorption system is
a. To add oxygen to the expired gas.
b. To trap the carbon dioxide contained in the expired gas.
c. To allow the expired gas to flow out of the hood.
Cabin Portable Oxygen Equipment D/O (3)
MAINTENANCE PRACTICES
CREW SYSTEM
Oxygen Cylinder R/I (3)

7
 ATA 36 –PNEUMATIC
a. Regulating valve.
ATA 36 - PNEUMATIC b. Check valve.
c. On/Off valve.
1. THE BLEED AIR SYSTEM CAN BE SUPPLIED BY: 13. THE ENGINE BLEED VALVE IS A:
a. Three different sources: the 2 engines, APU. a. Check valve.
b. Four different sources: the 2 engines, APU, the HP ground b. On/Off valve.
cart. c. Pressure regulating and shut-off valve.
c. Two different sources: the engines. 14. THE ENGINE BLEED VALVE IS:
2. THE ENGINE BLEED AIR SYSTEM IS SUPPLIED BY: a. Spring loaded closed in the absence of upstream pressure.
a. The Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage or the High Pressure b. Pneumatically closed in the absence of upstream pressure.
(HP) stage. c. Spring loaded opened in the absence of upstream pressure.
b. The Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage.
c. The High Pressure (HP) stage. 15. THE OVERPRESSURE VALVE IS:
3. THE INTERMEDIATE PRESSURE (IP) STAGE IS a. Pneumatically operated and spring loaded open.
NORMALLY USED: b. Pneumatically operated and spring loaded closed.
a. Low engine speed. c. Electrically operated and spring loaded open.
b. High engine speed. 16. THE PRECOOLER IS LOCATED:
c. All engine speed. a. Downstream of the OPV.
b. Upstream of the OPV.
4. THE HIGH PRESSURE (HP) STAGE IS NORMALLY c. Upstream of the PRV.
USED: 17. FUNCTION OF THE PRECOOLER IS USED TO:
a. Low engine speed. a. Cool the bleed air.
b. High engine speed. b. Heat the bleed air.
c. All engine speed. c. Regulate the bleed air pressure.
18. FUNCTION OF THE FAN AIR VALVE (FAV) IS TO:
5. THE ENGINE BLEED VALVE PRV AND HP VALVE a. Regulate the fan air flow into the precooler for bleed air
CONNECTED TOGETHER BY A: temperature regulation .
a. Pneumatic sense line. b. Regulate the fan air pressure to the precooler for bleed air
b. Electrical wiring. temperature regulation.
c. Mechanical linkage. c. Regulates the hot air into the engine fan discharge airflow.
19. THE PURPOSE OF THE CT:
6. THE CLOSURE OF THE ENGINE BLEED VALVE a. To send a pneumatic signal to the OPV in case of
CAUSES: overpressure.
a. The HP valve to close. b. To send a pneumatic signal to control the FAV.
b. The Overpressure valve to close. c. To send a pneumatic signal to control the PRV.
c. The cross-bleed valve to open.
20. THE FAN AIR VALVE ALLOWS THE BLEED AIR
7. THE PRV PNEUMATICALLY OPENS AND TEMPERATURE TO BE MAINTAINED AT:
REGULATES ENGINE AIR BLEED PRESSURE a. 150° C.
AROUND: b. 200° C.
a. 55 psi c. 250° C.
b. 44 psi. 21. THE FAV IS:
c. 33 psi. a. Spring loaded opened in the absence of air pressure.
b. Spring loaded closed in the absence of air pressure.
8. HP VALVE PNEUMATICALLY OPENS AND c. Pneumatically closed in the absence of air pressure.
REGULATES AIR BLEED PRESSURE BETWEEN: 22. THE X-BLEED VALVE IS AN:
a. 8 to 31 psi. a. Electrically controlled shut-off valve.
b. 8 to 33 psi. b. Pressure regulating valve.
c. 8 to 36 psi. c. Pneumatically operating valve.
9. THE HP VALVE IS USED TO CONNECT: 23. TO START ENGINE 2 BY HP GROUND SYSTEM:
a. The HP stage to the engine bleed air system. a. X bleed valve selected at AUTO position.
b. The IP stage to the engine bleed air system. b. X bleed valve selected at OPEN position.
c. The booster stage to the engine bleed air system c. X bleed valve selected at SHUT position.
10. THE IP VALVE IS USED TO CONNECT:
a. The compressor exhaust to the engine bleed air system. 24. FUNCTION OF THE APU BLEED CHECK VALVE IS
b. The IP stage to the engine bleed air system. TO:
c. The booster stage to the engine bleed air system. a. Protect the APU from reverse flow.
11. THE HP VALVE IS: b. Regulate APU air bleed pressure.
a. Spring loaded closed in the absence of upstream pressure. c. Isolate APU air bleed in case of overheat
b. Spring loaded opened in the absence of upstream pressure.
c. Pneumatically closed in the absence of upstream pressure. 25. THE APU (GARRET)VALVE IS:
a. Spring loaded opened in the absence of air pressure.
12. THE IP AIR IS CONTROLLED BY A : b. Spring loaded closed in the absence of air pressure.
1
 ATA 36 –PNEUMATIC
c. Pressure regulating and shut-off valve. b. Wings and packs.
c. A and B.
26. THE APU (APIC) VALVE IS:
a. Spring loaded closed in the absence of fuel pressure. 38. APU LEAK IS MONITORED BY:
b. Spring loaded opened in the absence of air pressure. a. Both BMC.
c. Spring loaded closed in the absence of air pressure. b. BMC 1.
27. THE GARRET APU BLEED VALVE OPERATES: c. BMC 2.
a. As a pressure regulating valve.
b. As an ON/OFF valve. 39. IN NORMAL CONFIGURATION:
c. A and B. a. BMC1 monitors the left and BMC2 the right bleed system.
b. BMC2 monitors the left and BMC1 the right bleed system.
28. THE APIC APU BLEED VALVE OPERATES: c. BMC1 monitors all systems, BMC2 standby.
a. Pneumatically.
b. Fuel operated. 40. IN CASE OF BMC 1 FAILURE:
c. Electrically. a. BMC 2 ensures the complete leak detection.
b. The leak detection is completely lost.
29. THE CROSS BLEED VALVE IS: c. BMC 2 ensures its wing leak detection.
a. Electrically controlled.
b. Pneumatically controlled. 41. PNEUMATIC SYSTEMS IS MONITORED BY:
c. Pneumatically operated. a. Pilots by using the ECAM system page.
b. Two Bleed Monitoring Computer.
30. THE CROSS BLEED VALVE IS ELECTRICALLY c. One Bleed Monitoring Computer.
CONTROLLED BY:
a. Two servo-valves. 42. AIR SUPPLIED BY THE HP STAGE IS:
b. One electrical motor a. Regulated by the HPV.
c. Two independent electrical motors. b. Regulated by the PRV.
c. Not regulated
31. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
a. The APU bleed valve has priority over the engine bleed 43. AIR SUPPLIED BY THE IP STAGE IS:
valves. a. Regulated by the HPV.
b. The Engines bleed valves have priority over the APU bleed b. Regulated by the PRV
valves. c. Regulated by the IP check valve.
c. There is no priority
44. THE SWITCHING BETWEEN INTERMEDIATE
32. IN MANUAL MODE, CROSS BLEED VALVE IS PRESSURE (IP) AND HIGH PRESSURE (HP) IS
CONTROLLED: ACHIEVED:
a. To the same position as the APU bleed valve. a. Pneumatically.
b. To the same position as the engine bleed valves. b. Electrically.
c. Independently . c. By using the coss-bleed valve.

33. IN AUTO MODE, THE CROSS BLEED VALVE IS 45. WHEN THE PRV IS CLOSED:
CONTROLLED: a. The HPV regulates air bleed pressure.
a. Independently . b. The HPV is forced closed via the PRV/HPV sense line.
b. To the same position as the engine bleed valves. c. The HPV is fully opened.
c. To the same position as the APU bleed valve.
46. WHEN THE HPV OPEN:
34. A LEAK OCCURS DURING AN ENGINE START: a. The IPC valve closed to protects the IP stage from reverse
a. APU valve and X Bleed valve remain opened. flow.
b. APU valve remain open, X bleed valve close. b. The IPC valve open to protects the IP stage from reverse
c. APU valve and X Bleed valve close. flow.
c. The PRV closes to protect the system against overpressure.
35. THE LEAK DETECTION SYSTEM MONITORS THE
FOLLOWING ZONES: 47. THE CTS IS LOCATED:
a. Only wings and packs. a. Upstream from the precooler.
b. Pylons and APU bleed duct. b. Downstream from the precooler.
c. A and B. c. Upstream from PRV.
36. DOUBLE LOOP LOCATED ON:
a. The pylon. 48. THE CTS OPERATES:
b. Wings and packs. a. Pneumatically and electrically
c. APU bleed duct. b. Pneumatically .
c. Electrically
37. SINGLE LOOP LOCATED ON:
a. The pylon, APU bleed duct.
2
 ATA 36 –PNEUMATIC
49. THE ENGINE BLEED VALVE (PRV) IS
PNEUMATICALLY CONTROLLED TO CLOSE BY:
a. Bleed monitoring computer (BMC)
b. The CTS
c. A torque motor.

50. WHICH TRANSDUCER GIVE PRESSURE

INDICATION ON ECAM?
a. Regulated pressure transducer (Pr).
b. Transferred pressure transducer (Pt).
c. A and B.

3
 ATA 38 –W ATER & WASTE
a. To drain easier.
ATA 38 - WATER&WASTE b. For hot water usage purpose.
c. To avoid ice to be formed.
GENERAL 14. The main fill/drain valve open:
** System Presentation (1) a. Simultaneously opens the overflow valve
POTABLE WATER SYSTEM (A320) b. Simultaneously opens the overflow valve for venting.
** Description/Operation (2) c. One minute before opens the overflow valve for venting.
1. The potable water tank is pressurized 15. In automatic mode, the potable water quantity transmitter
a. To ease draining operation. sends a tank-full signal to:
b. To prevent cavitation condition. a. Open the fill/drain valve.
c. To enable water supply from the tank to the service users. b. Close the fill/drain valve.
2. lavatory can be isolated from the potable water c. Shut off the ground supply unit.
distribution system through 16. In manual operation is possible control drain via:
a. A manual shut-off valve. a. Handle dedicated to main valve.
b. A fill/drain valve. b. Handle dedicated to additional overflow valve.
c. An automatically shut-off valve. c. Handles dedicated to each drain valve.
3. How many valves are used during draining operation of 17. Maximum permissible pressure to fill the potable water
A320? tank is:
a. Two. a. 50 psi (3.4 bars).
b. Three. b. 60 psi (4.6 bars).
c. Four. c. Define by ground supply unit.
4. For tank filling of the A320 need to operate 18. The potable water controls and indicating includes:
a. One handle, one filling valve. a. On each panels located at the bottom of the aircraft fuselage.
b. One handle, two valves. b. On the Forward Attendant Panel (FAP) and each panels
c. Two handles, two valves. located at the bottom of the aircraft fuselage.
5. Without electric the water system c. Only on the potable water service panel.
a. Can be filled or drained using manual control handles
dedicated to each valve. ** Controls and Indicating (1)
b. Can not be filled or drained. 19. How many potable water service and drain panels are
c. Can be drained only fitted on the aircraft?
6. Using the fill/drain control handle: a. One.
a. can not electrically control other valves b. Two.
b. can electrically control other valves c. Three.
c. can electrically control overflow valve only 20. The fill and drain valve port located:
7. The water and waste system consists of: a. On the potable water service panel.
a. A pneumatically pressurized potable water system, a waste b. On the forward water drain panel.
disposal system and a vacuum toilet system. c. On both.
b. A pneumatically pressurized potable water system and a waste 21. How many potable water quantity indicators are there?
disposal system. a. One.
c. A pneumatically pressurized waste water system and a waste b. Two.
disposal system. c. Three.
8. The water system is pressurized by: 22. The water quantity on FAP is displayed when:
a. Bleed air system. a. The "IND ON" pushbutton is pressed in.
b. A ground external supply. b. The potable water service door is open.
c. Both A and B. c. Both A and B
9. The waste water from lavatory wash basins and galley 23. Signal from the door microswitch of the potable water
sinks to be: service panel use to control:
a. Discharged overboard via drain masts. a. the indicating system and the electric motor of the compressor
b. Drains into a tank onboard. (if installed)
c. Keeps in integral container with lavatory. b. the panel lights
10. The water drain masts is necessary heated: c. the fill/drain valves
a. On Flight only. 24. The tank full light comes on when:
b. Yes. a. The overflow valve is open.
c. No. b. The water tank is full.
11. Compressed air is tapped from: c. The tank drain valve is open.
a. Only from engine pneumatic air. ** Components (3)
b. The cross feed line of the bleed air. 25. Signal from the high-level switch use to
c. Engine # 1 or APU. a. Closes the fill/drain valve.
12. On ground, you can pressurize the water system by: b. Opens the fill/drain valve.
a. The bleed air system. c. To disconnect electrical supply to the water heaters in the
b. The ground air pressure supply system. lavatories.
c. A or B. 26. When the control handle is pulled out and select it to
13. Some of water distribution lines are heated: "FILL" or "DRAIN" position
1
 ATA 38 –W ATER & WASTE
a. The fill/drain valve closes 39. Signal from the pressure switch use to
b. The fill/drain valve opens. a. Control fill/overflow drain valve open and close
c. The valve open the related “fill” or “drain” facility b. energize the indicating system
27. When the tank is full, the control handle of the A320: c. Switch the compressor on and off
a. Has to be manually put back to the "NORMAL" position.
b. Automatic back to the "NORMAL" position WASTE WATER SYSTEM
c. Not nee to put back to the “NORMAN” position ** Description/Operation (3)
28. Without electrical power, the forward drain valve 40. The drain valves installed in the waste water drain system
a. Can be controlled by operating the fill/drain valve handle. to
b. Can not be controlled a. Allow the sinks and wash basins to be isolated.
c. Is mechanically controlled by the forward drain valve handle. b. Prevent a permanent loss of cabin air pressurization.
29. The over temperature safety device of the water heater c. Prevent wash basins from being isolated.
a. Can not be reset at line maintenance. 41. The drain masts are
b. Can be reset with the reset pushbutton (under the cover). a. Electrically heated to prevent ice formation.
c. Can not be reset b. Heated by bleed air.
30. the manual shut-off valve under the toilet c. Heated by both electrical and hot air.
a. Isolates the lavatory from the potable water distribution system 42. In flight, the waste water discards by
and from the toilet. a. The control knob is operated by the lavatory user
b. Isolates only the toilet from the potable water distribution b. Gravity of the waste water.
system c. Differential pressure between the cabin and the drain mast
c. Isolates only the lavatory from the potable water distribution outlet
system
31. Shut-off valves are equipped with. ** Components (3)
a. Dry galleys. 43. The drain valve
b. Wet galleys. a. is open on ground only
c. Both dry and wet galleys. b. can be manually operated
32. The pressure reducing/relief valve reduces pressure of c. Opens only when a certain amount of water is collected.
a. the bleed air TOILET SYSTEM
b. The filling water. ** Principle (2)
c. The supply water 44. On ground, the vacuum generator start to operate As soon
as the
POTABLE WATER SYSTEM (A321) a. Aircraft is energized.
** Description/Operation (2) b. Flush switch is pressed in,
33. How many valves are used during draining operation of c. Altitude pressure switch open.
the A321? 45. When the flush switch is pressed at high altitude, the
a. Two. vacuum generator:
b. Three. a. Does not operate as the differential pressure between the cabin
c. Four. and the atmosphere is sufficient.
34. The filling operation of the A321 is accomplished by b. Does not operate as the differential pressure between the cabin
a. Opening the fill/overflow drain valve and forward drain valve. and the atmosphere is not sufficient.
b. Opening the fill/drain valve and the overflow valve. c. Operate as the differential pressure between the cabin and the
c. Opening the fill/overflow drain valve and closing the forward atmosphere is sufficient.
drain valve. 46. Water use to rinse the toilet bowl is:
35. Servicing of the potable water system can be done a. Potable water from the aircraft pressurized potable water
a. With or without electrical power. system
b. With electrical power only. b. Waste water
c. Manually only. c. Both potable and waste water.
** Controls and Indicating (1) 47. the waste moves from the toilet bowl to the waste holding
36. How many potable water service and drain panels are tank by
fitted on the aircraft A321? a. Differential pressure between the cabin and the atmosphere
a. One. b. Differential pressure between the waste tank and the
b. Two. atmosphere
c. Three. c. Pressure of the rinse water.
** Components (3) 48. The difference of pressure between the cabin and the
37. When the tank is full, the control handle of the A321: atmosphere can be caused by
a. Has to be manually put back to the "NORMAL" position. a. The vacuum generator only
b. Automatic come back to the "NORMAL" position b. By aircraft pressurization.
c. Not nee to put back to the “NORMAN” position c. the vacuum generator or by aircraft pressurization
38. The fill/overflow drain valve have 49. A Flush Control Unit (FCU) per toilet controls the
a. The "FILL", "DRAIN" facility, overflow outlet and a vent for a. The differential pressure between the cabin and the
the tank. atmosphere
b. The "FILL", "DRAIN" function only. b. rinse and flush cycle
c. The "FILL", "DRAIN" facility and overflow outlet c. the vacuum generator
2
 ATA 38 –W ATER & WASTE
** Description (2) b. During flight only.
50. Where does the toilet bowl rinsing water come from? c. Continuously when A/c power-up or in flight.
a. Waste holding tank. ** Components (3)
b. Waste water tank. ** Assembly Components (3)
c. Potable water tank. MAINTENANCE PRACTICES
51. How is the waste transported to the waste holding tank? ** Potable Water SYS Servicing (2) (A320)
a. By the vacuum created in the waste tank. ** Potable Water SYS Servicing (2) (A321)
b. By water flushing and gravity. ** Toilet System Servicing (2)
c. By water pressure.
52. When does the vacuum generator operate?
a. On ground only.
b. Up to an altitude of 4877 m. (16000ft.) during climb and
below 3658 m. (12000ft.) during descent.
c. During servicing operations.
53. When the flush switch is pressed, the flush sequence
initiates by
a. The Flush Control Unit (FCU).
b. The vacuum generator.
c. The water valve.
54. During servicing of the toilet system.
a. Toilet must be manually inhibited.
b. The FCUs are automatically de-activated.
c. The VSC shuts down the toilet systems.
55. When the tank is full,
a. The VSC shuts down the toilet systems.
b. The VSC sends a "LAV INOP" message to the forward
attendant panel.
c. the FCUs are automatically de-activated

** Controls and Indicating (1)

56. How many toilet service panels are fitted on the aircraft?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
57. the waste quantity is displayed on
a. The toilet service panel.
b. The Forward Attendant Panel.
c. Both FAP and Toilet service panel (optional) .
58. The "LAVatory INOPerative" light comes on when
a. The related lavatory Flush Control Unit has failed.
b. The waste holding tank is full.
c. The vacuum generator failure.
59. On ground, when the toilet service panel is open
a. The "SYS INOP" light comes on.
b. The "LAVatory INOPerative" light comes on
c. The WASTE QUANTITY INDICATOR displays comes on

** Monitoring (3)
60. The toilet system is monitored by:
a. The FCU BITE.
b. The CFDS.
c. The VSC BITE.
61. The water valve and the flush valve are monitored by :
a. The Vacuum System Controller.
b. The vacuum generator.
c. The associated Flush Control Unit BITE.
62. The functions of the VSC are:
a. System control and monitoring and fault reporting.
b. System control and monitoring.
c. Fault reporting.
63. The operation of the VSC internal and external circuits are
monitored:
a. During aircraft power-up on ground only.
3
 ATA 49 –APU
ATA 49 - APU a) From the cockpit, push and release the APU FIRE P/B
b) From the EXT panel, push the APU FIRE indicator
1. What happen if the APU LOW OIL LEVEL is shown on APU c) All of the above
page? d) None of the above
a) APU will automatically shut down and the APU cannot be Ref. AMM 26-22-00 PB 001
started again
b) You have to shut down the APU immediately
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Ref. AMM 49-93-00 PB 001
The oil level sensor is energised and the output voltage is observed
during a period of 8 seconds after ECB power-up. If the
voltage differential exceeds a certain limit the oil level is too
low. When the EIS receives the low oil level signals it
automatically shows the APU system page with the advisory
'LOW OIL LEVEL' on the lower ECAM display unit.
When you enter the CFDS, the MCDU shows on the APU
DATA/OIL page the status of the oil level.
This occurs when the aircraft is on ground and APU not running.

2. What you do to prevent the APU fire bottle from being

discharged during the test of APU loop/squib? (A)
a) Keep the Master S/W OFF, Batteries OFF.
b) Pull C/B L40 on 121VU.
c) Release APU fire Push Button.
d) None of the above.
Ref. AMM 26-22-00-710-001
8. What is the possibility to emergency shutdown the APU? A
3. You do the APU self test from the MCDU when?
a) The APU is running. a) From the cockpit, push and release the APU FIRE P/B
b) During the APU start sequence. b) From the EXT panel, push the APU FIRE indicator (indicator
c) The START pushbutton is pressed in. sao mà ấn được)
c) All of the above
d) Master S/W ON, APU is not running.
d) None of the above
Ref. AMM 49-00-00-710-001 (GARRETT) & AMM 49-00-00-710-
005 (APIC) Ref. AMM 49-62-00 PB 001

4. What are the Safety Precautions for the Operation of the APU? 9. What is the correct configuration for start the APU from
electrical external power? (A)
a) Make sure that the APU access door is open.
a) BAT 1 and BAT 2 AUTO
b) Do not restart the APU for more than 4 times without cooling
b) APU FIRE AUTO EXT TEST OK
down of the starter.
c) Do not start the APU during refuel operation. c) All LH fuel pumps are ON x
d) None of the above. d) All of the above
Ref. AMM 49-00-00-910-001 (GARRETT) & AMM 49-00-00-910- Ref. AMM 49-00-00-860-003 (GARRETT) & AMM 49-00-00-860-
005 (APIC)
002 (APIC)
NOTE: If the APU is to be started on BAT, and the OAT is 0 deg. C
or less, to avoid APU AUTO S/D due to air in the APU fuel
5. What need to be observed before APU start?
a) Door 811 is close x delivery line, it is recommended that immediately after the
b) APU fire and overheat detection system is fully serviceable x APU has started and the "AVAIL" light is on, select APU GEN
c) All of the above to provide A/C electrical power and start L1 or L2 main fuel
boost pump.
d) None of the above
NOTE: If the APU is to be started on EXT POWER, make sure that
Ref. AMM 49-00-00 PB 201
the batteries are witched ON. If not, the APU may not start
6. During pressure refuel, you found a fuel spillage and APU is and shut down.
running. What should you do? 10. You do the bleeding of APU fuel line? (A, B1, B2)
a) Always with Master switch ON
a) Stop refuel immediately, APU can still running
b) With APU PUSH P/B pressed and hold
b) APU Emergency shutdown procedure must be established
c) With APU running
c) Stop refuel immediately and arm the APU extinguishing
system d) With EXT PWR AVAIL
d) Stop refuel and APU Normal shutdown procedure must be Ref. AMM 28-22-00-710-001
established (1)Energize the aircraft electrical circuits
(Ref. AMM TASK 24-41-00-861-002) .
Ref. AMM 12-11-28-650-001
(2)On the APU section of the overhead panel 25VU, make sure that
the APU MASTER SW is in the off position (the ON
7. What is the possibility to fire the APU fire bottle?
1
 ATA 49 –APU
legend is off).
(3)On the FUEL overhead panel 40VU, make sure that all L TK
PUMPS and R TK PUMPS pushbutton switches are
released (the OFF legends are on).
17. If APU intake FLAP failed to open, you? (B1, B2)
11. After APU reached AVAIL speed, APU GEN can supply
network if? (A, B1, B2) a) Can only dispatch with APU INOP
a) EXT power is not available regardless APU GEN P/B position b) Can dispatch with FLAP open and deactivated manually
c) Can dispatch with FLAP open and deactivated using the
b) APU GEN P/B is ON as EXT power has less priority.
electrical torque motor
c) EXT power is switched off manually and APU GEN P/B light
d) Have to replace the IGV assembly to correct the root cause of
is exshtinguised
d) None of the above the problem
Ref. AMM 24-00-00 PB 001 Ref. AMM 49-16-00-040-001

18. To deactivate the APU intake FLAP for flight you have to?
12. What is the difference when you shutdown the APU from EXT
(B1, B2)
PWR and from Batteries?
a) Pull the C/B of the air intake FLAP before dispatch
a) The required 2 minutes time (after APU AVAIL light goes off,
before select BAT OFF) b) Use the dummy connector to close the FLAP OPEN circuit
b) Possibility for oil fumes in cabin c) Insert the locking pin to lock the flap at the Open position
d) None of the above
c) All of the above
Ref. AMM 49-16-00-040-001
d) None of the above
Ref. AMM 49-00-00 PB 201 (Tasks related to APU shutdown)
19. To deactivate the APU for flight you have to? (B1, B2)
13. If you see the APU BLEED Pressure indication on APU page a) Pull the C/Bs supplied to ECB and place all APU control
is amber XX, switches to OFF
b) Use the substitution kit
what could be a reason? (B1, B2)
c) Either of the above
a) Information from related ADIRU is not available
d) Neither of the above
b) APU bleed pressure lost due to leak
Ref. AMM 49-10-00-040-005
c) This can only be a indication problem
d) None of the above
Ref. AMM 49-00-00-710-004 (GARRETT) & AMM 49-00-00-710-
20. Which could be the consequence if you turn off the batteries
008 (APIC)
before APU completely stop? (A, B1, B2)
a) Oil fumes and/or smoke in the cabin
14. What is NOT allowed during APU seft test?A
a) Maintenance work on APU b) Incorrect low oil level on the APU reservoir (vì dầu không hồi
b) APU compartment doors open về hết bình chứa)
c) All of the above
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
d) None of the above
Ref. AMM 49-00-00-860-004
Ref. AMM 49-00-00-710-001 (GARRETT) & AMM 49-00-00-710-
005 (APIC)
21. GTCP 36-300 - Which of the following components are
WARNING:BEFORE YOU DO A SELF-TEST OF THE ECB,
operated by high pressure fuel from the FCU? (B1)
MAKE SURE THAT THERE IS NO OTHER
a) Inlet guide vane actuator and Surge control Valve
MAINTENANCE TASK ON THE APU AT
b) Inlet guide vane actuator and Load bleed valve
THE SAME TIME.
c) Inlet guide vane actuator
DURING THE SELF-TEST, THE ECB WILL
d) None of the above
CAUSE THE IGNITION PLUG TO FIRE A
Ref. AMM 49 51 00 PB001
NUMBER OF TIMES.
22. APIC - Which of the following components are operated by
15. What of the following is/are shown on the ECAM APU page?
high pressure fuel from the FCU? (A321) (B1)
(A)
a) Inlet guide vane actuator and Surge control Valve
a) OIL LEVEL OK
b) APU SHUT DOWN b) Inlet guide vane actuator and Load bleed valve
c) FLAP OPEN c) Inlet guide vane actuator and De-oil valve
d) All of the above d) None of the above
Ref. AMM 49-51-00 PB 001
Ref. AMM 49-00-00-710-004 (GARRETT) & AMM 49-00-00-710-
008 (APIC)
23. APU Cooling fan is used for? (B1)
16. Message APU “LOW OIL LEVEL” will show? a) Provide cooling air for APU oil cooler
a) On the ECAM UPPER page b) Provide air for cooling the APU compartment
c) All of the above
b) On ng the CFDS APU page and ECAM UPPER page
d) None of the above
c) On GND, when APU not running and Master switch ON
Ref. Airbus TTM ATA 49 page 106
d) None of the above
Ref. FCOM 1.49.20
2
 ATA 49 –APU

ATA 49 - APIC 14. THE APU IS :

a. Single shaft assembly
1. WHEN DOES THE APU AIR INTAKE FLAP OPEN ? b. Two shaft assembly
a. As soon as MASTER SW in `ON` position c. Two shaft assembly interconnected through a gearbox
b. As soon as N>7% 15. HOW IS THE IGV SYSTEM CONTROLLED?
c. As soon as ignition is activated a. By BMC1
2. THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF THE LOAD b. By BMC2
COMPRESSOR IS : c. By ECB
a. To provide bleed air for the combustion 16. PRESS AND HOLD THE APU FUEL LINE VENT
b. To provide air for oil and compartment cooling PUSHBUTTON :
c. To provide bleed air for the A/C pneumatic system a. APU pump runs and fuel LP valve opens
3. HOW DO YOU CHECK THE OIL QUANTITY ? b. APU pump runs and fuel LP valve opens if master switch is
a. On ECAM APU page “ON”
b. On a sight glass on the gear box or CFDS interrogation c. APU pump runs and fuel LP valve opens if the external power
c. A and B is connected to the aircraft
4. WHEN THE APU MASTER SW IS SET TO ON, THE 17. THE APU OIL COOLER IS USED TO REMOVE HEAT
APU FUEL PUMP WILL RUN : FROM THE OIL SYSTEM:
a. Only if low fuel pressure is detected a. With RAM air
b. Only if R/H wing pumps are not running b. With fuel
c. As soon as START pushbutton is pressed c. With the air vented by a fan
5. THE STARTER MOTOR ASSISTS THE APU UP TO 18. THE APU MAGNETIC CHIP DETECTOR IS
WHICH SPEED ? LOCATED:
a. 55% a. On the generator oil scavange line
b. 7% b. On the oil supply line
c. 95% c. On the gearbox
6. GENERALLY , DURING APU OPERATION : 19. THE IGV SYSTEM IS LOCATED AT:
a. The electric power supply has priority over the bleed air a. The inlet of the load compressor
supply b. The inlet of the power section
b. The bleed air supply has priority over the electric power c. The outlet of the load compressor
supply 20. IN THE APU FUEL SYSTEM THE ECB CONTROLS:
c. There is no priority order a. The fuel metering valve and the pressure regulator
7. THE ONLY OIL SYSTEM COMPONENT b. The fuel metering valve and 3 way solenoid valve
CONTROLLED BY THE ECB IS? c. The fuel metering valve , the pressure regulator and 3 way
a. Low oil level sensor solenoid valve
b. Low oil pressure sensor 21. THE APU SPEED (RPM):
c. Deoiling solenoid valve a. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition.
8. WITH APU BLEED VALVE OPEN , RELEASING THE b. runs at idle and automatically accelerates to rated speed
MASTER SW WILL CAUSE THE APU TO SHUT according to the load.
DOWN : c. Is controlled by a rotary selector in the cockpit.
a. Immediately 22. MOST OF THE LOAD APPLIED ON AN APU OCCURS
b. The APU cannot be shut down. WHEN
c. Only after the cool down period has elapsed a. the bleed air valve is closed.
9. DURING APU START, AT FUEL ON : b. an electrical load is on the generator
a. The main injector valve opens first c. the bleed air valve is opened.
b. The pilot injector valve opens first 23. THE FUNCTION OF AN APU AIR INLET PLENUM IS
c. Both valves open at the same time TO
10. THE APU BLEED CONTROL VALVE IS : a. increase the velocity of the air before entering the compressor.
a. Pneumatically operated b. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the compressor.
b. Electrically operated c. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor.
c. Hydraulically operated 24. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT REGARDING
11. THE STARTER OF APU IS: IGNITION SYSTEM:
a. Pneumatically operated a. Dual system with 2 igniter plugs
b. Electrically operated b. Single altenate system with 2 igniter plugs
c. Hydraulically operated c. Single system with 1 plug
12. NORMAL APU SHUTDOWN IS PERFORMED BY: 25. THE MESSAGE “FUEL LOW PR” ON LOWER ECAM
a. Releasing the APU shut-off pushbutton located on the external IS INITIATED FROM:
power control panel a. APU fuel inlet pressure sensor
b. Releasing the APU fire pushbutton b. Fuel crossfeed line pressure sensor
c. Releasing the APU master switch pushbutton c. A and B
13. THE APU DRAIN TANK IS EMPTIED: 26. WHICH COMPONENT REGULATES THE AIRFLOW?
a. By RAM air effect a. Bleed Control Valve
b. By the maintenance b. Inlet Guide Valve
c. By cabin pressure c. Bleed Control Valve and Inlet Guide Valve
3
ATA 49 –APU

4
 ATA 52 -DOOR
h) None of the above.
ATA 52 - DOOR Ref. AMM 71-00-00-710-002 for CFM56, AMM 71-00-00-710-046
for V2500 (wet motor check)
1. To open the passengerdoorsyou must:
A. Unlockinwards, and then move upwards, outwards.
12. Which important safety procedure should be performed before
B. Unlockinwards, and then move upwards.
any maintenance work on or near the „C‟ ducts or reverser
C. Unlockinwards, and then move upwards, outwards and
system?(A, B1, B2)
forwardparallel to the fuselage.
i) Unlock and pin the actuators.
2. One of the emergency opening system of passengerdooris:
j) Lock out the translating sleeves.
A. Damper/emergency operationcylinder.
k) Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU.
B. Emergency handle.
l) Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU and lock out
C. Red light.
translating sleeves.
3. In "ARMED" mode, the slideis:
Ref. AMM 78-30-00-481-041 & 78-30-00-081-041 (make the thrust
A. Connected to the floor.
reverser unserviceable for maintenance)
B. Locked on the door.
C. In the neutral position.
13.Which statement is NOT correct regarding warning to be taken
4. In "ARMED" mode, if you open a
prior to get contact with IGN system? B1, B2
passengerdoorfrominside of the cabin:
m) The ignition system usually operates when the engine starts
A. The dooris open manuallyand to deploy the escape slide/raft.
but the ignition system can also operate when the engine is not
B. The dooris open automatically and the escape slide/raft not
operated???
deploys.
n) After IGN system has been used, wait several minutes before
C. The dooris open automatically and to deploy the escape
removal components.
slide/raft.
o) After removing IGN cable, wait several minutes before ground
5. You canfind on ECAM :
its terminal.
A. Lock/Unlock indication of the door system.
p) None of the above
B. Armed/Disarmed indication of the slide system.
(AMM 74-21-10 PB 401 for CFM56, AMM 74-21-43 PB 401 for
C. All above.
V2500)
6. The red CABIN PRESSURE light flashes when:
A. There isresidual pressure in the cabin.
B. There isresidual pressure in the cabinwithslidearmed.
14. To start the CFM 56/ V2500 engine with Starter Air Valve
C. There isresidual pressure in the cabinwithslidedisarmed.
manual procedure, you? (A, B1, B2)
7. Afterdisarm of the door, itisrequired:
q) Open the SAV once you heard the sound of IGN spark
A. Install the safety pin with the red flag to
r) Open the SAV upon request from the flight deck
avoidinadvertentmovement of the arminglever.
s) Make sure the SAV is Open before pneumatic is supplied
B. Install the safety pin with the red flag to avoidslidedeploy.
t) Open SAV and do not hold the valve control mechanism
C. Do nothing.
during engine starting process
8. Accidentalopening of the coverflap of A320 emergency exit
Ref. AMM 80-11-00-040-045 for CFM56, AMM 80-11-00-040-043
for access to the inner control handlewill:
for V2500, FCOM 3-04-70, MEL 80-11-01
A. Automaticallyactivate the white indication light.
B. Automaticallyactivate the amber indication light.
15. Operational test of the ignition system is?
C. Automaticallyactivate the red indication light.
u) To do a visual check of the igniter plug operation
9. Whichstatementbelowis correct for cargo door:
v) To do a leak check of the igniter plug operation
A. Eachshaftisequippedwithindividuallockingindicatorswhich are
w) To do an aural check of the igniter plug operation
seenthrough indication windows.
x) To check the engine fuel light-off time within limit
B. Eachhookisequippedwithindividuallockingindicatorswhich are
(Ref. AMM 74-00-00-710-043 for CFM56, AMM 74-00-00-710-
seenthrough indication windows.
041 for V2500).
C. Eachhookisequippedwith green lockingindicatorswhich are
seenthrough ECAM
16. Operational Test of the Thrust Reverser System?
10. Whichstatementbelowis correct for cargo door:
y) Is performed from the MCDU. Hydraulic power is not
A. The FWD/AFT cargo dooroperates by hydraulic, lock/unlock
necessary
by mechanic.
z) You required to cycle the throttle control lever within a certain
B. The FWD/AFT cargo dooroperates by hydraulic, lock/unlock
time.
by hydraulic.
aa) Is to test the Reverser Indication
C. The FWD/AFT/BULK cargo dooroperates by hydraulic,
bb) Is the proper mean to deploy the T/R for maintenance purpose
lock/unlock by mechanic.
(Ref. AMM 78-31-00-710-042)
11. The misty white smoke comes out at engine exhaust is: (A,
17. The Operational Test of the FADEC on the Ground with
B1, B2)
Engine Motoring is for?
e) Normal indication due to fuel vapor comes out if ENG is
cc) Checking Engine correct Indication.
running.
dd) Checking if engine driven pump can produce sufficient HYD
f) Normal indication due to fuel vapor comes out if ENG is wet
pressure
cranked
ee) Checking engine fluids leak
g) Normal indication due to fuel vapor comes out if ENG is
ff) None of the above
starting in either extreme hot or cold conditions.
(Ref. A320 AMM 73-29-00-710-040)
1
 ATA 52 -DOOR

ATA 71-72 c) Carries the engine thrust, vertical and side loads
Ref. AMM 71-21-00 PB 001
1. The thrust of CFM56-5B4 on VNA‟s A320 Aircraft fleet is:
(A,B1,B2) 8. The aft mount: (A,B1,B2)
a) 26.000lbs a) Carries the engine torque, thrust and side loads.
b) 27.000lbs b) Carries the engine torque, vertical and side loads
c) 28.000lbs c) Carries the engine thrust, vertical and side loads.
Ref. CFM 56-5B Technical Training Manual Ref. AMM 71-22-00 PB 001

9. The engine inlet pressure (PS12) is sensed by: (A,B1,B2)

a) 3 small holes in the acoustic panels which provide an average
pressure to the ECU
b) One small hole in the acoustic panels at 1 o‟clock position.
c) A sensor which also provides T12 value.
Ref. AMM 72-23-00-000-040 and 72-23-00-400-040

10. How is the fan blades numbered? (A,B1,B2)

a) The blades are counted counter-clockwise (forward looking
2. For CFM56-5B, the fan cowl is equipped with: (A,B1,B2) aft) with the first blade on the left of the spherical mark
a) Three (3) latches machined on the Fan spinner rear cone
b) Four (4) latches b) The blades are counted clockwise (forward looking aft) with
c) Five (5) latches the first blade on the left of the spherical mark machined on
Ref. AMM 71-00-00 PB 001 the Fan spinner rear cone.
c) The blades are counted counter-clockwise (forward looking
3. For CFM56-5B, the thrust reverser cowl is equipped with: aft) with the first blade on the left of the asterisk machined on
(A,B1,B2) the Fan spinner rear cone.
a) Three (3) latches Ref. AMM 71-00-00-750-001
b) Four (4) latches
c) Five (5) latches 11. Where are the balancing screws located? (level 3)
Ref. AMM 78-36-00 PB 001 a) On the spinner front cone.
b) On the spinner rear cone
4. How many bearing compartments are there? (A,B1,B2) c) On the fan blade roots.
a) Forward (No 1, 2 and 3 bearing) and Aft (No 4 and 5 bearing) (Ref. AMM 72-21-00 PB 001)
b) Forward (No 1, 2 and 3 bearing), No 4 bearing compartment
and Rear (No 5 bearing) compartment. 12. Where can the maximum value (N1, N2 or EGT) be read if the
c) Forward (No 1 and 2 bearing) and Aft (No 3, 4 and 5 bearing) engine has exceeded the operational limits? (level3)
compartment. a) From DMC
Ref. AMM 72-00-00 PB 001 b) From ECU last leg report.
The engine rotors are supported by bearings installed in the sump c) From DMU.
cavities provided by the two frames. The forward sump is in (Ref. AMM 72-00-00-200-008 & AMM 77-00-00-710-043).
the fan frame and is the location of bearings No. 1, No. 2 If an exceedance occurs, the DMC memorizes in its memory the
(fan/booster shaft) and No. 3 (HP shaft forward part). maximum value reached during the last flight leg for N1, N2
The aft sump is in the turbine rear frame where are bearings No. 4 and EGT.
(HP shaft aft part) and No. 5 (LP shaft aft part).

5. For CFM56-5B, what bearings support the HP rotor?

(A,B1,B2)
a) Nº3 (dual bearing) and Nº4
b) Nº2 and Nº4.
c) Nº2 and Nº3 (dual bearing).
Ref. AMM 72-00-00 PB 001

6. For CFM56-5B, what bearings support the LP rotor?

(A,B1,B2)
a) N01, N02 and N03 (dual bearing).
b) N03 (dual bearing) and N04.
c) N01, N02 and N05
Ref. AMM 72-00-00 PB 001

7. The forward mount: (A,B1,B2)

a) Carries the engine torque, thrust and side loads.
b) Carries the engine torque, vertical and side loads.
2
 ATA 7X -ENGINE
c) manually using the
ATA 73 - ENGINE - FUEL AND CONTROL ENG/MODE/CRANK/NORM/IGN/START selector switch to
IGN/START
1. After engine shut-down, the FADEC is powered by the aircraft (Ref. AMM 74-31-00 PB001)
network for: (A,B1,B2)
a) Three (3) minutes.
b) Four (4) minutes.
c) Five (5) minutes ATA 75 - BLEED AIR (Engine Air)
d) Six (6) minutes. 1. What is the purpose of compressor airflow control? (level 3)
Ref. AMM 73-25-00 PB001 a) To limit compressor surge and to provide good acceleration
As son engine is running above 15 percent N2 the FADEC b) To control the bypass compressor airflow
automatically switches from aircraft electrical network power c) To control the bleed air used for pneumatic system
to the engine alternator power supply. (Ref. CFM56-5B Technical Training Manual)
After engine shut down the ECU is powered by the aircraft 28 VDC
network for 5 minutes to allow the engine parameters 2. The VSV system controls airflow through the HP compressor
monitoring by: (level 3)
a) Using the first three rows of pivoting vanes
2. Before performing the operational test of the FADEC on GND b) Using the first four rows of pivoting vanes
(with Engine monitoring), you must: (level3) c) Using the last four rows of pivoting vanes
a) Make sure that the travel ranges of the flight control surfaces (Ref. AMM 75-32-010 PB001)
are clear before you motor the engine. Movement of the flight
control surfaces can be dangerous and/or cause damage 3. A nacelle temperature sensor monitors: (level 3)
b) Make sure that the safety pin is installed in the N/W-steering a) The accessory gearbox area temperature only
deactivation electrical-box. Movement of nose wheels can b) The pylon area temperature only
cause damage. c) The High Pressure turbine area temperature only
c) Make sure that the thrust reverser is locked. If not, the thrust d) The core compartment temperature
reverser can operate accidentally and cause injury to personnel (Ref. AMM 75-41-00 PB001)
and/or damage to the reverser.
(Ref. AMM 73-29-00-710-040).

3. What is the purpose of the Burner Staging Valve (BSV)?

(level 3) ATA 76 - ENGINE CONTROLS
a) To bleed the air downward LP compressor at low power
engine condition. 1. The A320/321 engines throttle control levers can: (A,B1,B2)
b) To close the second fuel nozzles manifold at low power engine a) only be moved manually
c) To supply the bleed air for pneumatic system at low power b) automatically in autothrust mode
engine condition. c) be moved manually or automatically.
(Ref. AMM 73-10-00 PB 001) Ref. Airbus Training Manual 76-00-00

4. The engine parameters sent directly to the ECAM by the 2. The ENG FADEC GND PWR is used to: (A,B1,B2)
Electronic Control Unit (ECU), are: (level3) a) Enable the pilots to start the engines automatically.
a) N1, N2, Fuel Used, EGT. b) Supply the computers dedicated to the engines when the
b) N1, Fuel Flow, T2. engines are not running
c) N1, N2, EGT, Fuel Flow c) Enable the pilots to start the engines manually.
d) N2, EGT, P2. Ref. ASM 73-25-00 SCH 05, CFM56-5B Technical Training
Manual 73-20-00
3. What is the purpose of the ENGINE MASTER switch? (level
5. The FADEC provides two idle mode selections: (level 3) 3)
a) Flight idle and approach idle. a) To open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve.
b) Approach idle and landing idle. b) To command and reset the FADEC functions.
c) Approach idle and minimum idle c) Both to open or close the HP fuel Shut-Off Valve and to
d) High and medium idle. command and reset the FADEC functions
(Ref. AMM 73-20-00 PB001) (Ref. AMM 76-12-00 PB001 and AMM 73-29-00-710-040 & 73-
29-00-710-040-01, and ASM 73-25-00 SCH 11 P101)

4. The ENGine MANual START push buttons to operate the

ATA 74 - IGNITION and starting corresponding start valves in: (level 3)
1. With engine running, continuous ignition can be selected via a) the manual start mode or during an engine cranking
the ECU: (level3) b) the manual start mode.
a) automatically by the EIU. c) during an engine cranking.
b) manually using the master switch. (Ref. AMM 71-00-00-710-001&002&004, AMM 74-31-00 PB 001)
5. The HP fuel Shut-Off Valve is: (level 3)
a) A line replaceable unit upstream of the HMU.
1
 ATA 7X -ENGINE
b) A line replaceable unit downstream of the HMU. Ref. AMM 12-13-79-610-002
c) Not a line replaceable unit, inside the HMU
(Ref. CFM 56-5B Technical Training Manual 73-10-00) 2. Before you add the oil in the oil tank during its servicing,
make sure: (A,B1,B2)
d) The oil in the tank does not contain fuel
ATA 77 - ENGINE INDICATING e) There are no fumes from the engine center body exhaust.
f) The engine has been shut down for at least 1 hour.
1. Which systems interface with the EVMU? (level3) Ref. AMM 12-13-79-610-002
a) ECAM-FADEC-AIDS. 3. The main supply oil filter must be changed: (level3)
b) ECAM-CFDS-AIDS a) On a regular basis.
c) CFDS-ACARS-FADEC. b) After ENG running, clogging message appears permanently on
(Ref. CFM 56-5B Technical Training Manual 77-30-00, AMM 73- ECAM.
30-00 PB 001) c) Both a and b
(Ref. TSM 79-00-00-810-820 & 79-00-00-810-821, and MPD Task
2. Can the N1 speed sensor be replaced with the engine on wing? 792000-C4)
(level3)
a) Yes, it can be replaced on wing.
b) No, it can be replaced only when the fan module assembly is
removed.
c) No, it takes a lot of time to remove. ATA 80 - ENGINE STARTING
(Ref. AMM 77-11-10 PB401) 1. What shaft does the air starter rotate? (A,B1,B2)
a) LP shaft
b) HP shaft
c) Intermediate shaft
ATA 78 - EXHAUST Ref. AMM 80-11-00 PB001
1. Where is the HCU located? (A,B1,B2) 2. Where is the access panel to starter valve? (A,B1,B2)
a) On the upper right hand side of fan frame d) On the left fan cowl door.
b) On the lower right hand side of fan frame. e) On right fan cowl door
c) On the upper left hand side of fan frame. f) Both fan cowl doors need to be opened.
Ref. AMM 78-33-00 PB001 Ref. AMM 80-11-00 PB401 & AMM 80-11-20 PB401
The hydraulic control unit controls hydraulic fluid flow to the thrust 3. How long is the minimum cooling period for the starter after a
reverser latches and blocker door actuator. Control and duty cycle has been carried out? (level 3)
feedback signals are exchanged with the engine ECU. a) 15minutes.
The HCU is mounted on the upper forward face of the right b) 30minutes.
hand thrust reverser forward frame c) 45minutes.
2. Is there any mechanical links to open 4 blocker doors (Ref. AMM 80-10-00 PB001)
manually at the same time? (level3)
a) No, each blocker door is opened individually 4. No engagement of the starter is permitted when the core speed
b) Yes, by means of the manual drives to turn the flexible shaft of is: (level3)
synchronizing system. a) Above 10 percent.
c) Yes, through the CFDS menu. b) Above 15 percent.
(Ref. AMM 78-32-41-860-001) c) Above 20 percent.
(Ref. AMM 80-10-00 PB001)
3. CFM 56 – When do you do deactivation of T/R system? B1, 5. When illuminated the start control panel FAULT light
B2 indicates that: (level3)
a) There is the leakage on T/R actuator a) The SAV is not in the commanded position
b) There is a message: REV PRESSURIZED b) The SAV is commanded to open.
c) There is a message: REVERSE UNLOCKED c) The SAV is commanded to close.
d) None of the above (Ref. AMM 80-10-00 PB001)
(Ref. AMM 78-30-00 PB 401, MEL 78-30-01)

6. CFM56 – If the starter air valve solenoid is INOP? (A, B1,

ATA 79 - OIL B2)
a) You cannot start the engine.
1. Before servicing the engine oil, you should: (A,B1,B2) b) You can still start the engine using manual start sequence.
a) Let the oil pressure decrease for a minimum of 5 minutes after (manual sequence là điều khiển các giai đoạn khởi động, mở
the engine shutdown valve từ cockpit)
b) Switch on the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton to check the oil c) You can only start engine by operating the SAV manually
quantity first. using the cranking tool.
c) Remove the filler cap of the oil tank immediately after engine d) You can only start engine by operating the SAV manually
operation. using its P/B & handle.
Ref. AMM 80-11-00-040-045, FCOM 3-04-70, MEL 80-11-01
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 ATA 7X -ENGINE

A. Start the Engine:

CAUTION:DO NOT OPERATE THE MANUAL HANDLE OF
THE PNEUMATIC STARTER VALVE, IF
THE STARTER SYSTEM IS NOT
PRESSURIZED. IF NOT DAMAGE TO THE
PNEUMATIC STARTER VALVE CAN
OCCUR.
(1)Start the engine by operating manually the pneumatic starter
valve through the access door with 0.375 in. (9.5 mm)
square drive.
(2)After engine start cycle, position the pneumatic starter valve
manually in closed position (clockwise).