NAME: ________________________ Score: __________________

1. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the
first trimester?
A. Dysuria
B. Frequency
C. Incontinence
D. Burning

2. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?
ABreast, areola, and nipples
B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

3. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?
A. 12 to 22 lb
B. 15 to 25 lb
C. 24 to 30 lb
D. 25 to 40 lb

4. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?
A. Diagnostic signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Probable signs
D. Positive signs

5. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Hegar sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Skin pigmentation changes
D. Positive serum pregnancy test

6. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
D. October 12

7. Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?

A. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical
problems.
B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of
other medical problems.
C. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing
maternal nutrients
D. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal bleeding.

8. You performed the Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation, fetal back at the
right side of the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which
location?
A. Left lower quadrant
B. Right lower quadrant
C. Left upper quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant

9. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the supra pubic area. The
correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
B. The mass palpated is the head.
C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the fetal small part
10. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone

11. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This complaint
maybe explained as:
A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen
B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones
D. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy

12. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?

A. Fetal movement felt by mother
B. Enlargement of the uterus
C. (+) pregnancy test
D. (+) ultrasound

13. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is
A. Oct. 7
B. Oct. 24
C. Nov. 7
D. Nov. 8

14. Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek immediate medical attention?
A. When the first fetal movement is felt
B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation

15. The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a pregnant woman is by giving
A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid

16. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy and the first
pregnancy was a twin. She is considered to be
A.G 4 P 3
B. G 5 P 3
C. G 5 P 4
D. G 4 P 4

17. The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:

A. Chloasma
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea nigra
D. Chadwick’s sign

18. When a pregnant woman goes into a convulsive seizure, the MOST immediate action of the nurse to
ensure safety of the patient is:
A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall out of bed
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not bite her tongue and the tongue will not fall back
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the secretions to drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration
D. Check if the woman is also having a precipitate labor.

19. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs
commonly given are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
20. Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include:
A. Bright red blood
B. Large clots or tissue fragments
C. A foul odor
D. The complete absence of lochia

21. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). The
clinical findings that would warrant use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:
A. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
B. Absent patellar reflexes.
C. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.
D. Rapid rise in blood pressure
22. During vaginal examination of Janna who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse,
correctly interprets it as:
A. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.
B. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.
C. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
D. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
23. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition that warrant the nurse
in-charge to discontinue I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:
A. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
B. Maternal temperature 101.2
C. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
D. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.
24. A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots over the nose, which the nurse knows are caused by retained
sebaceous secretions. When charting this observation, the nurse identifies it as:
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Whiteheads
D. Mongolian spots

25. Milk Code is also known as? ________________________

26-30. Give at least 4 benefits of breastfeeding.
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
31-35. What are the 5 basic disorders that can be detected by NBS?
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
36. New Born Screening Act of 2004 is also known as? ______________________
37. RA 10152 is also known as? ___________________________
38. Number of doses of BCG? ____________________________

39. The nurse decides on a teaching plan for a new mother and her infant. The plan should include:
A. Discussing the matter with her in a non-threatening manner
B. Showing by example and explanation how to care for the infant
C. Setting up a schedule for teaching the mother how to care for her baby
D. Supplying the emotional support to the mother and encouraging her independence

40. Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for which complication following birth?
A. Atelectasis
B. Microcephaly
C. Pneumothorax
D. Macrosomia

41-50. Share your experience. Among the patients that you have handled, who among them is the most
memorable and why.