NOVEMBER 2009

Local Board
of
Nursing

Nursing Practice I – Foundation of Nursing Professional

Practice
November 2009
Nursing Practice II – Community Health Nurisng and
care The Mother and Child

Nurisng Practice III – A - Care of the Clients with

Physiological and Psychosocial Alterations

Nursing Practice IV – B - Care of Clients with

Physiological and Psychosocial Alterations

Nursing Practice V – C - Care of Clients with

Physiological and Psychosocial Alterations
 NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B
NURSING PRCTICE I – Foundation of PROFESSIONAL Nursing Practice Situation:
Carbon Monoxide poisoning is said to be the 2nd leading cause of poison death.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: Is is said to be the leading cause of inhalation poisoning. Mang Edgardo was rushed to
the hospital after being unconscoius inside an enclosed parking lot. Carbon dioxidee
1. This test booklet contain 100 test question poisoning is suspected.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or 6. The pulse oximetry reading of Mang Edgardo is 100%. This suggests that:
more boxes shaded will be invalid your answer. a. There is no danger of hypoxia
4. AVOID ERASURES. b. There is no carbon monoxide poisoning, it should be ruled out.
_________________________________________________________________________ c. This is not a reliable sign to rule our carbos monoxide poisoning,
further assessment is required.
Situation: d. That the client has an improved chance of surviving, since the is well
Respiration is one of the most iportant vital sign. This is usually the first vital sign to oxygeneted.
be Assessed more than anything for it is easily altered by the patients’ consciousness. The
nurse should be aware of the different changes and lateration in respiration. 7. Which of the following is a sign the nurse will expect to see on Mang
Edgardo?
1. Another name for an abnormal breasth sound is: a. Cherry-red skin c. Cyanotic
a. Adventurous breasth sound c. Adventitious breasth sound b. Pale skin d. Restlessness
b. Excursion d. Dyspnea
8. Initially, in patient with supected inhalation poisoning, the most important
intervention at the scene of poisoning is:
2. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, Kussmauls respiration is exhibited. This is
a. Assess the patient’s airway breasthing and circulation.
evidence that there is the presence of :
b. Conduct a head to toe physical assessment.
a. Respiratory acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis c. Administer oxygen and loosen the client’s clothing
d. Carry the on the fresh air immediately opening all windows and
3. If the nurse will auscultate the base of the lungs, it is expected that she will doors if this is enclosed.
here:
a. Brochovesicular c. Vesicular 9. Which if the following laboratory result is constantly checked in the clients
b. Tubular d. Crackles undergoing treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
a. Oxygen saturation c. Skin color
4. The respiratory center is found in the: b. RBC count d. Carboxyhemoglobin level
a. Pons c. Medulla
b. Hypothalamus d. Lungs 10. If a demonstrates psychoses, visual disturbance, ataxia, amnesia and
confusion even after completion of resucitation and the return of normal
5. Initially in asthma, you are expected that the client’s acid base disturbace is: oxygenation, this will indicate that:
a. Respiratory acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis a. The client suffered from an irreversible brain damage.
b. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis b. That the client still needs to be evaluated for this evidence that
resucitation is not yet complete.
 c. That the clients will need a longer rehabiliation to go back to previous Situation:
functioning. The body fluids move using the principle of Osmosis, and DIFFUSION. Osmosis
d. That the client’s exhibiting secondary gains. is the movement of fluid from an area of lower concentration going to an area of higher
concentration while Diffusion ois the movement of Gas or fluids from an area of higher
Situation: concentration going to an area of lower concentration. This affects the isotonicity or
The physician has ordered 3 units of whole blood to be transfused to WQ following concentration of the body in relation to its solutes and solvents.
a repair of a dissecting aneurysm on the aorta.
16. D5NSS is an example of :
11. You are preparing the first unit of whole blood for transfusion. From the time you a. Isotonic c. Hypertonic
obtain if from the blood bank, how long should you infuse it? b. Hypotonic d. Blood product
a. 6 hours c. 4 hours
b. 1 hour d. 2 hours 17. The most abundant cation in the intracellular fluid is
a. Na- c. K-
12. What should you do FIRST before you administer blood transfusion? b. Na+ d. K+
a. Verify client identity and blood product, serial number, blood typing,
cross matching result, expiration date. 18. Why is insulin given in clients with Burns?
b. Verify client identity and blood product serial number, blood type, cross a. Insulin lowers the potassium level in the blood thus decreasing
Hypokalemia
matching result, expiration date with another nurse.
c. Check IV site and use appropriate BT set and needle b. Insulin lowers the blood glucose level thus decreasing Sugar
d. Verify physician’s order. c. Insulin improves energy, stamina and prevents infection in burn
clients
13. As WQ’s nurse,what will you do AFTER the transfusion has started? d. Insulin improves the metabolism of clients with Burn injury to
a. Add the total amount of blood to be transfused to the intake and output. enhance tissue repair and cellular regeneration
b. Discontinue the primary IV of dextrose 5% water.
c. Check vital signs every 15 minutes 19. Which of the following is NOT an isotonic solution?
d. Stay with the WQ for 15 minutes to note for any possible BT reactions. a. D5 1/2NSS c. LR
b. 0.9% NaCl d. D5W
14. WQ is undegoing blood transfusions of the first unit. The EARLIEST signs of
transfusion reactions are: 20. In clients with Diabetes Mellitus, the greatest complication that could occur is
a. Oliguria and jaundice c. Hypertension and flushing related to:
b. Urticaria and wheezing d. Headache, chill,fever a. Infection c. Stroke
b. Hypovolemic Shock d. Acidosis
15. In case WQ will experience an acute hemolytic reaction, what will be your
PRIORITY intervention? Situation:
a. Immediately stop the blood transfusion, infuse Dextrose 5% in water Cases are classified as CIVIL, ADMISTRATIVE and CRIMINAL
and call the physician.
b. Stop the blood transfusion and monitor the patient closely. 21. If a crime is punishable by imprisonment with fines, this is an example of:
c. Immediately stop the BT, infuse NSS, call the physician, and notify the a. Criminal case c. Civil case
blood bank. b. Administrative case d. Criminal and Civil
d. Immediately stop BT, notify blood bank and admister antihistamines.
 22. A nurse intentionally administered a high dose of medication to the client. The b. 80 ml/hr d. As ordered by th pharmacist
case that will be filed against the nurse is:
a. Criminal case c. Civil case 29. If TPN is not anymore needed, wearing the client from the solution is
b. Administrative case d. Criminal and Civil important to prevent
a. Hyperglycemia c. Hyperinsulinemia
23. Karla a working on a government hospital and she has been caught stealing b. Hypokalemia d. Withdrawal
from a client. She took the client’s phone and cash and she admitted that she
did so. The case that will probably be: 30. The site of choice for TPN by the use of the Central Veins, either via the
a. Criminal case c. Civil case subclavian or the femoral approach. If this will use the femoral vein, the tip of
b. Administrative case d. Criminal and Administrative the catheter is place in the:
a. Aorta c. Superior Vena Cava
24. Jake AWOL after 6 months and fail to complete the 1 year contract set by the b. Abdominal Aorta d. Inferior Vena Cava
hospital. If the hospital will take action, Jake will face which case?
a. Criminal case c. Civil case 31. Why does TPNC use the large central veins?
b. Administrative case d. Criminal and Administrative a. To allow dillution of the solution
b. To prevent hyperglycemia
25. Margarita, a nurse working in PGH, divulged to a patient that Chris, another c. To lessen the risk of infection
patient in the same hospital, has a UTI and working as male escort. You heard d. To allow administration of large amount of solutions
the conversation and apprehended Margarita. You should expect that the type
of case will be filed against her is: 32. The common and important complication associated with TPN is:
a. Civil and Criminal c. Civil and Administrative a. Diarrhea c. Heperglycemia
b. Administrative case d. Criminal and Administrative
Situation: 33. A runaway TPN solution has been identified containing A 5.5 D25 L1. Which
Dave is a client undergoing hyper alimentation therapy via TPN. of the folowing
a. D5W c. D50
26. TPN is delivered at a rate of 50-60 ml/hr during the first 12 hours. Why is this b. D5BSS d. DRLR
so?
a. To keep the vein open 34. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate intervention of clients with TPN
b. To administer the desired amount of the nutrition and amino acids using the Central catheters?
c. To prevent hypoglycemia a. Dressings are changed every 24 hours to prevent infection
d. To let the body adjust to the solution b. IV bags are change every 24 hours even if there are still solutions to
be infused
27. TPN is delivered through the use of infusion pump. Why is this so? c. Patient’s weight is monitored daily
a. To deliver the exact amount of solution at the exact period of time d. Glucose monitoring is done once a day.
b. To properly mix the solution
c. To allow the to self bolus when necessary 35. Who prepares the TPN?
d. Because infusion pump “PUMPS” the hypertonic glucose solution, a. The pharmacist under sterile technique
which is thick in consistency thus, allowing it to enter the vein. b. The physician under sterile technique
c. The Nurse under sterile technique
28. What is the flow rate of TPN? d. The Pharmacist under clean technique
a. 50 ml/hr c. As ordered by the physician Situation:
 ENTEROSTOMAL THERAPY is now considered a specially in nursing. You are a. The perineal would heals and sherwin can sit comfortably on the
participating in the OSTOMY CARE CLASS. commode
b. Sherwin can lie on the side comfortably, about 3rd postoperative day
36. During colostomy irrigation, the complains of a cramping sensation with the c. The abdominal incision is clossed and contamination is no longer a
fluid was introduced. Which of the following is a CORRECT nursing action? danger
a. Temporarily stop the irrigation d. The stool starts to become formed, around the 7th postoperative day.
b. Clamp the irrigating tube
c. Pinch or kink the irrigating tube temporarily 42. When preparing to teach Sherwin how to irrigate colostomy, you should plan
d. Continue the irrigation to do the procedure:
a. When Sherwin would have normal bowel movement
37. When are the colostomy appliance best emptied? b. At least 2 hours before visiting hours
a. When there is the sensation of pressrue c. Prior to breakfast and morning care
b. When there is the sensation of taste d. After Sherwin accepts alteration in body image
c. When there is the sensation of smell
d. When it is full 43. When observing a return demonstation of a colostomy irrigation, you know
that more teaching is required if Sherwin:
38. The client ask the nurse, WHEN is the best time to perform irrigation? The a. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting the stoma
nurse would answer: b. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid
a. Early morning before meals, upon arising insertion
b. Early morning before meals c. Discontinue the insertion of fluid after 500 ml of fluid has been
c. Early morning instilled
d. Early morning after meals d. Clamps of the flow of fluid when feeling uncomfortable

39. The nurse is teaching a how to irrigate his stoma. Which action indicates the 44. You are aware that teaching about colostomy care is understood when
the client needs more teaching? Sherwin states, “I will contact my physician and report:
a. Hanging the irrigation bag 24* to 36* [60 to 90cm] above the stoma a. If I have any difficulty inserting the irrigating tub into the stoma
b. Filing the irrigation bag with 500 to 1,000 ml of lukewarm water. b. If I noticed a loss of sensation to touch in the stoma tissues
c. Stopping irrigation for cramps and clamping the tubing until cramps c. The expulsion of flatus while the irrigating fluid is running out
pass d. When mucus is passed form the stoma between the irrigations
d. Washing hands with soap and water when finished
45. You would know after teaching Sherwin that dietary instrucion for him is
40. The physician orders a stool culture to help diagnose a client with prolonged effective when he states, “ It is important that I eat”
diarrhea. The nurse who obtains the stool specimen from the colostomy stoma a. Soft food that is easily digested and absorbed my large intestines
should: b. Bland food so that my intestine do not become irritated
a. Take the specimen to the laboratory immediately c. Food low in fiber so that there are fewer stools
b. Collect the specimen in a clean container d. Everything that I ate before the operation while avoiding foods that
c. Collect the specimen in a sterile container causes gas
d. Perform a midstream clean catch collection
Situation:
41. You plan teach Sherwin how to irrigate the colostomy when: Mastery of intravenous therapy and all aspects that address the response of the
client to complication related to it will help the new nurse in providing quality care.
 46. One hour after the IV was inserted: Nurse Nora found out that the 1 liter of 52. A diabetic client who is performing self-monitoring o blood glucose at home
D5NSS was empty. Patient was in severe respiratory distress with pinkish frothy asks a clinic nurse why a glycosilated hemoglobin level needs to be
sputum. The most probable complication is: measured. The nurse should plan to incorporate which of the following into a
a. Speed shock c. Congestive heart failure response?
b. Renal failure d. Pulmonary edema a. This laboratory test is done yearly to predict likelihood of long term
complication
47. When an IV D5W is not infusing well on patient, it is best to first: b. This laboratory test gives on indication of glycemic control over the
a. Pinch the rubber part to flush our clogged blood last 3 months
b. Coil tube and squeeze hard c. Its done as method of verifying the accuracy of the meter used at
c. Lower IV to check for return flow home
d. Restart the IV d. It is done to predict risk of hypoglycmeia with the current diet and
medication regime
48. The doctor ordered venoclysis of destrosse 5% in water, one liter KVO for 24
hours as vehicle for IV medications. How many drops per minute should the 53. In teaching the sister of diabetic client about the proper use of a glucometer
fluid is regulated? in determining the blood sugar level of a client. The nurse as focusing in
a. 20 drops per minute c. 10 drops per minute which domain of learning according to bloom.
b. 5 drops per minutes d. 15 drops per minutes a. Cognitive c. Psychomotor
b. Affective d. Affiliative
49. The nurse is administering IV fluids to an infant. Infants is receiving IV Therapy
are particularly vulnerable to: 54. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic client to
a. Hypotension c. Cardiac arrhythmias learn how to control their diet?
b. Fluid overload d. Pulmonary emboli a. Use of pamphlets and effective teaching devices during health
instruction
50. A client with severe inflammatory bowel disease is receiving TPN. When b. Motivation to be symptom free
administering TPN, the nurse must take care to maintain the prescribed flow c. Ability of the client to understand teaching instruction
rate because giving TPN too rapidly may cause: d. Language and appropriateness of the instruction
a. Heperglycemia c. Constipation
b. Air embolism d. Dumping syndrome 55. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive clients, you
first formulate your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the
Situation: nursing process corresponds to the writing of learning V objectives?
Teaching and learning is a nursing responsibility. The ability of a nurse to educate a. Planning c. Evaluating
and change the client’s behavior through health teaching is one important goal of a nursing. b. Implementing d. Assessing

51. A client’s hypertension has been recently dianosed. The nurse would plan to do
which of the following as the first step I teaching a about the disorder?
a. Gather all available resource material
b. Plan for the evaluation of the session
c. Assess the knowledge and needs
d. Decide on the teaching approach
Situation:
Nursing is a profession. Miss Aida is a newly appointed nurse in a hospital in
Manila. Born May 1985, her knowledge of nursing profession developments is required in
order to project the profession in a way that it lifts the standard of nursing.
56. Miss Aida defined nursing as on the following except:
 a. Assisting individual, family and community in attaining in health
b. Assisting basic needs 64. Nurse in the Philippines government also felt the need to organize
c. Establish nursing diagnosis and omplementing care themselves, this leads to the creation of:
d. Diagnosing, treating prescribing medication and doing minor surgery a. National League of Government Nurses
b. National League of Filipino Government Nurses
57. PNS was established in: c. National League of Pilipino Goernment Nurses
1. 1922 3. With Mrs. Rosario Delgado as first president d. Philippines Government Nurses Association
2. 1926 4. With Mrs. Anastacia Tupas as first president
65. The founder of NLPGN, during her lifetime, exemplified professional dignity,
a. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 high level of intelligence and leadership ability, as well as moral integrity. She
b. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4 was a good model, who like Florence Nightingale, initiated reforms and
worked for the improvement of the nursing professional and health care in the
58. As a national nurses association, it is characterized as follow except: Philippines. The same of the NLPGN Recognition award was also named
a. Both a professional body and labor union after her:
b. Affiliated with the international Council of Nurses a. Anastacia Giron Tupas c. Annie
c. Advocating for improved work and life condition of Nurses b. Francisco Delgado d. Annie Sand
d. Accrediting body for continuing education program
Situation:
59. CPE Units per year is needed for license renewal. The number of CPE units in Ellen, 42 years old is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of renal calculi. She
3 years should be: is experiencing severe flank pain, nauseated and with a temperature of 39 C.
a. 20 unit c. 60 units
b. 30 units d. 100 units 66. Given the above assesssment date, the most immediate goal of the nurse
would be which of the following?
60. To manifest that you want to quit form your job and discontinue the services you a. Prevent urinary complication c. Alleviation pain
render after the completion of a contract, you will file a: b. Maintains fluids and electrolytes d. Alleviating nausea
a. Cerficate of resignation c. Certificate of termination
b. Honorable dismissal d. 60 days 67. After IVP a renal stone was confirmed a left nephrectomy was done. Her post
operative order includes “Daily urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory”,
61. In resigning for her job as a staff nurse, she must give advance notice of: Ellen has folley catheter attached to a urinary system. How will you collect the
a. 15 days c. 45 days urine specimen?
b. 30 days d. 60 days a. Remove urine syringe into the specimen container
b. Empty a sample urine from the collecting bag into the specimen
62. In case nurse filed sick leave and plans to return to work after. She must show container
her: c. Disconnect the drainage tube from indwellng catheter and allow urine
a. Back to work certificate c. Death Certificate to flow from catheter into the specimen container
b. Fit to work certificate d. Medical certificate d. Disconnect the drainage from the collecting bag and allow urine to
flow from the catheter into the specimen container.
63. A certificate that will show that a nurse met the requirements set by the
Philippines Governments to practice the profession is: 68. Where would the nurse tape Ellen’s indwelling catheter in order to reduce
a. Diploma c. Nursing License urethral irritation?
b. Certificate of passing d. Board Certificate/CoR a. To the patient’s inner thigh c. To the patient’s buttocks
 b. To the patient’s lower thigh d. To the patient’s lower abdomen
75. A client with deep wounds undergone Hydrocoloid dressing. Which the
69. Which of the following menu is appropritate for one with low sodium diet? following is TRUE with regards to this dressing?
a. Instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea a. They provide good wound visibility
b. Ham and cheese sandwhich , vegetable and fresh fruits b. They could last indefenitely until the wound heals
c. White chicken sandwich, vegetable salad and tea c. They can molded to uneven skin surfaces thus, best used in
d. Canned soup, potato salad and diet soda pressures ulcers
d. The could not shower or bath will such dressing
70. How will you prevent ascending infection to Ellen who has an indwelling
catheter? Situation:
a. See to it that drainage tubing touches the level of the urine. You are a nurse conducting statistical analysis in your research entitled ‘The
b. Change the catheter every eigth hours effect of Gingko Biloba is enhancing memory and retention of 4th year High shool
c. See to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine students”.
d. Clean catheter may be used urethral meatus is not sterile area
76. What is the INDEPENDENT VARIABLE?
Situation: a. The effect of Gingko Biloba
Agatha is an elderly who is immobile and sedentary. b. Memory and Retention
c. Gingko Biloba
71. Agatha is frequent complaining of dry skin. Which of the following is the BEST d. Enhancing Memory and Retention
way to prevent dry skin?
a. Wash the skin with mild soap and water 77. What is the DEPENDENT VARIABLE
b. Avoid exposure to cold or low humidity a. The effect of Gingko Biloba c. Gingko Biloba
c. Apply lotion or skin moisturizer b. Memory and Rentention d. Enhancing Memory and Retention
d. Massage the skin gently to stimulate oil production from the sebaceous
glands 78. The research design best used in the research is:
a. Experimental c. Descriptive
72. Which of the following is a frequently used dressing for pressue sores? b. Non-Experimental d. Qualitative
a. Transparent c. Wet to moist
b. Wet to dry d. Hydrogel 79. The hypothesis developed was: GINGKO BILOBA IMPROVES MEMORY
RETENTION. This is the example of:
73. Heat is an old remedy for aches and pain. People equate heat with comfort and a. Simple, Directional c. Complex, Directional
relief. b. Simple, Non-Directional d. Complex, Non-Directional
a. It is more dangerous that cold application
b. It causes a local anesthetic effect 80. Gingko Biloba has an effect on memory and retention best describe which
c. It promotes blood circulation and tissue oxygenation through type of hypothesis?
vasodilation a. Simple, directional c. Complex, directional
d. Slows bacterial growth b. Simple, non directional d. Complex, non diectional

74. Heat and cold applications should not exceed. 81. Which of the following is the NULL hypothesis for this study? [HO]
a. 10 minutes c. 30 minutes a. Gingko Biloba has no effect on enhancing memory and retention
b. 15 minutes d. 1 hour b. Gingko Biloba has an effect on enhancing memory and retention
 c. Gingko Biloba has no effect on enhancing memory & retention of 4th 88. In the value: 87, 85,88,92, 90: What is the mean?
year HS students a. 88.2 c. 87
d. Gingko Biloba has an effect on enhancing memory & retention of 4th b. 88.4 d. 90
year HS students
89. In the value: 80, 80, 80, 82, 82, 90, 90, 100: What is the mode?
82. Which of the following best represents the ALTERNATIVE hypothesis for this a. 80 c. 90
study? [H1] b. 82 d. 85.5
a. Gingko Biloba has no effect on enhancing memory and retention
b. Gingko Biloba has an effect on enhancing memory and retention 90. In the value: 80, 80,10, 10, 25, 65, 100, 200: What is the median?
c. Gingko Biloba has no effect on enhancing memory & retention of 4th a. 71.25 c. 10 and 25
year HS students b. 22.5 d. 72.5
d. Gingko Biloba has an effect on enhancing memory & retention of 4th
year HS students
Situation:
83. Which of the following is the average P value used as threshold to determine The code of ethics is a bounding code the state the ethical behavior expected
the plausibility of the null hypothesis? from nurses.
a. p=0.05 c. p=0.001%
b. p=0.01% d. p=0.5% 91. Values are said to be the enduring believes about a worth of a person, ideas
and belief. If values are going to be a part of research , this is categorized
84. If the study is statistically is highly significant, it would reflect a p value of: under.
a. p=0.05 c. p=0.001% a. Qualitative c. Experimental
b. p=0.01% d. p=0.5% b. Quantitave d. Non Experimental

85. Supposed that your alternative hypothesis has a 1 in a hundred chance of 92. According to the code of ethics, which of the following is the primary
acceptance the null hypothesis, has a 99% chance of being correct and has a 1 responsibility of the nurse?
in a hundred chance that the null hypothesis is true. You P value will be: a. Assist towards peaceful death
a. p=0.05 c. p=0.001% b. Health is a fundamentals right
b. p=0.01% d. p=0.5% c. Promotion of health, prevention of illness, alleviation of suffering
d. Preservation of Health of all cost
Situation:
Survey and Statistic are important part of research that is necessary to explain the 93. Which of the followng is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?
characteristics of the population. a. The Philippines Nurses Association for being the accredited
professional organization was given the privilege to formulate a
86. All but of the following is not a measure of Central’s Tendency Code of Ethics for Nurses which the board of Nursing promulgalted.
a. Mode c. Standard Deviation b. Code for nurses was first formulated in 1992 published in the
b. Variance d. Range Proceedings of the Third Annual Convention of the PNA House of
Delegates.
87. It reflects the most frequent value that appears in the set data: c. The present code utilized the Code of Good Government for the
a. Mean c. Median Professional in the Philippines
b. Mode d. Ratio d. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or
suspended for violations of any provisions of the Code of Ethics

94. Violations of the code of ethics might equate it the revocation of the nursing
license. Who revokes the license?
a. PRC c. DOH
b. PNA d. BON
95. Base on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the
hallmark of nursing responsibility and accountability?
a. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed and gender
b. The privilege fo being registered professional nurses
c. Health, being a fundamental right of every individual
d. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes
b. Immediate level disinfectants immersion in 12 hours
c. High level disinfectant immersion in 1 hours
d. High level disinfectant immersion in 10 hours
100. Bronchoscope. Thermometer, Endoscope. ET Tube, Cytoscope are all
BEST sterilized using which of the following?
a. Autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes
b. Flash sterilizer at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes
c. Ethylene Oxide gas aeration for 20 hours
d. 2% Glutaraldehyde immersion for 10 hours

Situation:
As a perioperative nurse, you are aware of the correct processing methods for
preparing instruments and other devices for patient use to prevent infection.

96. As an OR nurses, what are your foremost consideration for selecting chemical
agents for disinfection?
a. Material compatibility and effeciency
b. Odor and availability
c. Cost and duration of disinfectant process
d. Duration of disinfectant and efficiency

97. Before you use a disinfectant instrument it is essential that you:

a. Rinse with tap water followed by alcohol
b. Wrap the instrument with sterile water
c. Dry the instrument thoroughly
d. Rinse with sterile water

98. You have a critical heat labile instrument to sterile and are considering using
high level disinfectant. What should you do?
a. Cover that soaking vessel to contain the vapor
b. Double the amount of high level disinfectant
c. Test the potency of the high level disinfectant
d. Prolong the exposure time according to manyfacturer’s direction

99. To achieve sterilization using disinfectant , which of the following is used?

a. Low level disinfects immersion in 24 hours
 NURSING PRACTICE II – SET B a. Administer Meperidine c. Do not administer meperidine
NURSING PRACTICE II – Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child b. Question the Doctor’s order d Notify the nurse supervisor

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 6. At least how many KG body weight is necessary for a child to use an adult dose?
a. 30 kg b. 50 kg c. 25 kg d. 70kg
1. This test booklet contain 100 test question
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet. 7. Leo has been placed on PCA on continuous infusion of pain medication.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or Morphine was used since it is the drug of choice for PCA administration. The
more boxes shaded will be invalid your answer. most important priority of the nurse during this time is:
4. AVOID ERASURES. a. Checking the catheter placement, its location & possible infection on the
_________________________________________________________________________ site.
b. Preparing Naloxone at the bedside
INSTRUCTION: c. Respiratory rate assesssment q 15 to 30 minutes
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer d. Frequent assessment of the level consciousness
Sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice II” on the box provided. 8. Which of the following is not true with regards to PCA?
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box a. The family are allowed to push the button for the patient if the patient is
“B” if your test booklet is Set B. too drowsy to push the button for him.
b. It requires on infusion pump.
Situation: c. The basal rate and the bolus dose are predetermined by the physician
Pain is a universal experience. It affects all people across the lifespan. Leo, is a 6
d. Demerol/Mepridine is not used in PCA.
year old preschool child exhibiting pain after an operation.
9. Preschoolers kike Leo is concerned with needs of:
1. To best localize the pain, which of the following is the best nursing response?
a. Others B. Self c. Parents d. World
a. Can you describe your pain to me? How it feels like?
b. You seem pain?
10. Which of the following is not TRUE with preschoolers
c. Point which of the following FACE accurately describes you pain.
a. Imaginary friend is common
d. Using 1 finger, can you please point where is the painful area?
b. Conscience is not yet developed
c. They are in the stage of INITIATIVE VS GUILT
2. Which of the following is best used in children to know the intensity of pain? d. Magical thinking and Egocentric thinking are common
a. Face pain rating scale c. Numeric pain rating scale
b. Ask the child directly how he feels d. McGill’s Pain questionnaire Situation:
Gerry is an 8 yrs old with Status Epilepticus.
3. At what age could the child start to accurately point the location of pain?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 3 11. What is the most common cause of seizure in children older thatn 3 year old?
a. Birth trauma c. Idiopathic Eplilepsy
4. Wong and Baker’s Pain rating scale is best used in children at least: b. Brain tumors d. Fever
a. 2 yrs old b.. 4 yrs old c. 6 yrs old d. 3 yrs old 12. Which of the following best differentiate SE versus other seizure disorder?
a. The cause in unknown
5. The physician ordered meperidine to Leo, Order reads: meperidine 10 mg IM PRN b. The seizure occurs everyday
q4h STAT. Which of the following should the nurse do?
 c. The seizure occurs at least once a week with no regarding of 20. The monitor, who is also a nurse, hurriedly went to the nurse’s station because
consciousness in between seizure activities. she complains that Gerry is not breasthing and Cardio pulmonary arrest was
d. The seizure is prolonged at last for at least 30 minutes with not regarding of evident. Which of the following is our initial nursing action?
consciousness on between a. Call for a code
b. Bring the Crash car to the patient’s room
13. Which of the following is NOT true in seizure management? c. Assess the patient
a. If the patient is having a seizure on a wheelchair or chair, help the by d. Do CPR
easing the on the floor. Time the seizure carfully.
b. Do not insert anyting on the client’s mouth during seizure Situation:
c. Carefully assess the client’s breasthing and tongue placement during Manyel and Julie are couples asking you about methods of contraception.
seizrue activity.
21. Abstinence is perhaps the SUREST and the most EFFECTIVE WAY to prevent
14. Which of the following drugs is used in children with seizure EXCEPT: pregnancy but obviously not best. Educating the about abstinence leads to less
a. Phenytoin c. Diazepam protection when it comes to sexual intercourse that lead to higher STD rates.
b. Fosphenytoin d. Demerol Julie asked you about a natural way to prevent pregnancy by ckecking her
cervical mucus. This is know as:
15. If a client is taking antisiezure medications. Which of the following Vitamins is a. Symptothermal method c. Cervical Mucus method
necessary for supplementation? b. Billings method d. All of the these
a. A b. B c. C d. D
22. A more effective way that cervical mucus method alone, in this method, Julie will
16. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of antiseizure medications? combine bot BBT as well as Cervical mucus method:
a. Insomnia and Behavioral changes a. Symptothermal method c. LAM
b. Gingival hyperplasia b. Billing mehods d. coitus interruptus
c. Osteoporosis and Osteomalacia c.
d. Respiratory and Cardiac depression 23. In Basal Body Temperature method, the woman should watch for a fall of her
temperature of half a degree Fahrenheit followed by an increase of a full degree.
17. If the client has episodes of seizure, which of the followng activity is This is because of the hormone:
contraindicated? a. Estrogen c. Androgen
a. Swimming c. Dancing b. Progesterone d. Testosterone
b. Mountain climbing d. Hiking
24. May 23, 2009. Julie experience a 0.5 Degree fahrenheit drop on her temperature
18. Which of the following is NOT taken if the child is taking anti convulsants? followed by a 11 degree increase the next day. When should she avoid coitus?
a. Alcohol c. Vitamin B complex a. May 22, 2009 c. May 24, 25,26, and 27, 2009
b. Coffee d. Juice b. May 23, 24, 25, 2009 d. May 24 to June 10, 2009

19. Which of the following is untrue in SE? 25. LAM is only effective during the first:
a. SE are emergencies a. Month c. 3 Months
b. No immediate return of consciousness b. Year d. 6 Months
c. Lasts for 1-2 minutes
d. Generalized seizure is evident
 26. If Julie have a record of the following lenght of menstrual cycle: Cycle 1-26, cycle 2- b. Enlargement of the sternum, femur and facial bones
25, cycle 3-26, cycle 4-29, cycle 5-28, cycle 6-29. When should she abstein sexual c. Adbominal pain
intercourse if she will use the calendar methods? d. Hgb of 12-14 g/dl
a. 7th to 18th day of Menstrual cycle c. 8th to 18th day of mentrual
cycle 33. SCA is diagnose thorugh:
b. 6th to 17th day of the Menstual cycle d. 9th to 19th day of the Menstraul a. Bone marrow aspiration c. Hgb electrophoresis
cycle b. Clinical Manifestation d. CBC; Hgb levels

27. Julie gets her period on Janyary 8, 2009 and then again February 2, 2009. How 34. 4 crises is seen in SCA, which of the following typically does not accurately
long is her Menstrual Cycle Days? describe these crises?
a. 24 b. 25 c. 26 d. 27 a. Sequestration crisis, the pooling of Dead RBC in the liver and spleen that
leds to severe abdominal pain.
28. In detecting the BEST contraceptive methods, which of the following should be at b. Hyperhemolytic crisis, the deminished RBC production the leads to
the highest priority? profound anemia
a. The acceptance of the couple c. The culture of the couple c. Vasoocclusive crises, characterized by the clumping of the sicked RBC
b. The religious belief of the couple d. The expert opinion of the nurse that led to ischemia
d. All are correct
29. Which of the following condition, if Julie possesses, might be a hindrance in IUD
insertion? 35. The MOST difficult problem in children with SCA is not the anemia, but the
a. STD c. She is 30 years old severe pain caused by ischemia. An expected medication that is used to treat
b. Multiply d. History of having twin pregnancy severe pain during vasooclussive crisis is:
a. Paracetamol b. Aspirin c. Meperidene d. Dilaudid
30. The IUD are not recommended for adolescents because of which of the following
reasons? Situation:
a. They have multiple sex partners and usually nulligravida Integrated management for childhood illness is used by the clinicians cases
b. Their uterus is not yet matured and still growing based on sign and symptoms
c. Their uterus is distorted in shape or size
d. They are more likely to acquire TSS 36. A diarrhea for more that 14 days is known as:
a. Acute diarrheaa c. Dysentery
Situation: b. Chronic diarrhea d. Severe Persistent diarrhea
Rommel was rushed to the emergency room due to severe pain brough about by a
sickle cell crisis. 37. A dirrhea for less that 14 days is known as:
a. Acute diarrhea c. Dysentery
31. Which of the following is not true with SCA? b. Chronic diarrhea d. Persistent diarrhea
a. Obstruction of blood flow the leads to ischemia is the cause of Pain
b. Common among African-america or blacks 38. If there is no ear infection, the nurse should assess for:
c. The child is usually immune to stroke a. Fever b. Others c. Immunization d.Malnutrition
d. If follows an Autosomal Recessive patterns of inheritance
39. Baby is 15 months old and weights 5.5 kgs and it is her initial visit. Her mother
32. Which in NOT a manifestation seen in SCA? says that baby is not eating well and unable to breastfeed, he has no vomiting,
a. Jaundice has no convulsion and NOT abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her
 temprature is 38.9 degrees C. Using integrated management of childhood illness or
IMCI strategy, if you were the nurse incharge of baby, how will you classify her
illness? Situation:
a. A child at a general danger sign c. Severe pneumonia You are going to participate in Cancer Consciousness Week. You are assigned to
b. Very severe febrile disease d. Severe malnutrition take charge of the men and woman to make them aware of different types of cancer. You
reviewed their risks, manifestations and managment.
40. An 8 month old has fast breasthing if she has:
a. 40 breasths per minute c. 38 breasths per minute 46. The following are risk factors for lung cancer EXCEPT:
b. 55 breasth per minute d. 45 breasths per minute a. Cigarette smoking c. Tuberculosis
b. Gender d. Sexually transmitted infection
Situation:
The prevalence of metabolic bone disorder on women older that 80 years of age is 47. Late signs and symtoms of breast cancer include the following EXCEPT:
84%, in the aging of the population, the incidence of fractures, disability with osteoposorosis a. Marked pain at presentation c. Ulceration in the breast
and rheumatism is rising. b. Painless lamp d. Breast fungaling lesion

41. Primary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause and later in life in men. 48. To lower the testosterone level as part of the treatment in prostate cancer, this
Lifestyle risk factors are the following EXCEPT. effect is accomplished by orchiectomy, in orchiectomy, which of the following
a. Diets low in calcium and vitamin D organ remove?
b. Cigarette smoking a. Prostate b. Bladder c. Testicles c. Anys
c. Use of alcohol and or caffeine
d. Estrogen deficiency or menopause 49. The primary treatment for most colon and rectal cancers is:
a. Adjuvant therapy c. Bone marroww tranplantation
42. A nutritious diet is particularly important in elderly poeple. Inadequate intake of b. Surgical managment d. Chemotherapy
vitamic D could lead to
a. Osteoarthritis c. Pagets disease 50. A client is under going Brachytherapy. Before entering the client’s room, the
b. Osteomalacia d. Rheumatoid arthristis nurse must wear:
a. Yellow isolation gown c. Bullet proof vest
43. A anaphylactic reaction is the result of an antigen-antibody interaction in a b. Philip Stein watch d. Lead lined apron
sensitized individual who as a consequence of previous exposure. Which of the
following antibody immunoglobin is responsible for allergic response? 51. The endometrium thickness during which phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE a. Secretory phase c. Proliferative phase
b. Menstrual phase d. Ischemic phase
44. The client has gouty arthritis. The drug of choice during acute phase of pain is:
a. Colchicine b. Allopurinol c. Probenecid d. Fasamax 52. The nurse preparing to auscultate fetal heart tones in a pregnant client.
Abdominal palpation reveals a hard, round mass under the leaf of the rib cage; a
45. Which of the following is NOT related to Osteoarthritis? softer, round mass just above the symphysis pubis; small irregular shapes in the
a. It is common in older clients right side of the adbomen; and a long firm mass on the left side of the abdomen.
b. It is common in obese clients Based on the these findings, what is the best to auscultate fetal heart tones?
c. It is manifested with Bouchard & Heberden’s node a. A Right lower abdominal quadrant c. Left upper abdominal quadrant
d. It is common in slim & thin clients b. B Right upper abdominal quadrant d. Left lower abdominal quadrant
 53. A measurement too to articulate the nursing workload for a specific patient or group
of patient over a specific period of time is called? 60. Adriamycin, Vincristine, prednisone and Asparaginase are given to the client for
a. Staffing pattern c. Benchmarking long term therapy. One common side effect, especially of adrimycin is alopecia.
b. Skill mix d. Patient classification The child asks “Will i get my hair back once again?” The nurse best respond is by
saying:
54. The mother of a 9 month old infant is concerned that the head circumfernace of her a. “Don’t be silly, fo course you will get your hair back.
baby is greater than the chest circumference. The BEST response by the nurse is: b. We are not sure, lets hope it’ll grow
a. These circumference normally are the same, but in some babies this just c. The side effect is usually permanent, but I will get the doctor to discuss it
differs for your
b. Perhaps your baby was small for gestational age or premature. d. Your hair will regrow in 3 to 6 month but of different color, usually darker
c. This normal untol age of 1 year, when the chest will be greater & of different texture.
d. Let me ask a few questions and perhap we can figure out the cause of this
difference. Situation:
Gina a primapara client has been diagnosed with Deep Vein Thrombosis. She
55. Karen, a 28 year old post hysterectomy has come to the health center, She complies of pain upon dorsiflexion and a tender painful area on the Leg.
inquired about BSE and asked you when BSE should be performed. You answered
her that BSE is best performed? 61. Through the cause is unknown, A predisposing factor known as Virchows’s Triad
a. 7 days after menstruation c. At the same day each month predisposes a person to thrombophlebitis. Which of the following is NOT included
b. During menstruation c. Before mentruation in Virchow’s Triad?
a. Hypercoagulability of the blood that leads to clot formation.
Situation: b. Venous stasis that lead to stagnation and thrombus formation
Leukemia is the most common type of childhood cancer. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia c. Damage to the endothelial lining that leads to thrombus formation
is the use of almost 1/3 all cancer that occurs in children under age 15. d. Immobility that leads to blood stagnation and eventually thrombus
formation
56. The survival rate for Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is approximately:
a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 95% 62. Which of the following is PROBABLE arterial problem and NOT venous
problems?
57. Whereas acute nonlymphoid leukemia has a survival rate of: a. Affected area is often pale c. Affected area is usually edematous
a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 95% b. Affected area is often painful d. Extremities affected is warm to touch

58. The three main consequence of leukemia that causes the most danger is: 63. Which of the following is a probable manifestation as a result of DVT seen Gina?
a. Neutropenia causing infection, anemia causing impaired oxygenation and a. Absence of pedal pulse c. Weak and thread popliteal pulse
thromboxytopenia leading to bleeding tendencies. b. Severe chest pain d. Present femoral & popliteal pulse
b. Central nevous system infiltration, anemia causing impaired oxygenation
and 64. The doctor prescribed an anticoagulant therapy for Gina. You would expect that
c. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fractures she will be given;
d. Invasion by the leukemia cells to the bone causing severe bone pain a. Aspirin b. Streptokinase c. Heparin d. Warfarin

59. Gold standard in the dignosis of leukemia is by which of the following? 65. An applicable nursing intervention for Gina is:
a. Blood culture and sensitivity c. Bone marrow biopsy a. Put the leg on dependent position c. Message the affected leg
b. CSF aspiration & examination d. Blood biopsy b. Elevate the affected extremity d. Early ambulation
 a. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold
66. Gina is also exhibiting extreme varicosities in the legs. She will have an effective b. Profusion of intestines in the vagina
surgery for Vein stripping. You know that the vein be remove here is the: c. Prolapse of the uterus into th vagina
a. Sphenous b. Popliteal c. Femoral d. Metacarpal d. Hemlation at the bladder into the vagina wall

67. Before Thrombectomy, Venography is performed. An important nursing action 74. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34 days. She told you she had coitus on
during the procedure is. days 8, 10, 15, and 20 of her menstrual cycle. Which is the day on which she is
a. Assess for the allergy to seafoods most like to conceive?
b. Check the site for hematoma and bleeding a. 8th day b. 10th day c. Day 15 d. day 20
c. Assess the LOC after Venography
d. Tell the client that she will feed a warm senstaion when the dye is injected. 75. While talking with Susan , 2 new patients arrive and they are covered with large
towels and the nurse noticed that there are many cameraman and news people
68. Elastic compression stocking are usually applied in clients with venous problem. As out of the OPD. Upon assessment the nurse notice that both of them are still
a nurse you will instruct the that is should be worn: nude and the male client’s penis is still inside the female client’s vagina and the
a. At night c. Before getting up from bed in the male said that “I can’t pull it’
morning
b. In the morning d. Before lying on bed at night Vaginismus was your first impression. You know that the psychological cause of
Vaginismus is related to:
69. Pain upon dorsiflexion is usually seen in clients with DVT. This is know as a. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates vaginal
a. Homan’s sign c. Turner’s sign closure
b. Herman’s sign d. Virchow’s sign b. The penis was too large that is why the vagina triggered it’s defense to
attempt to close it.
70. Which of the following clients is at highest risk in developing DVT? c. The vagina do not want to be penetrated.
a. Jana, 50 year old post hysterectomy d. It is due to learning pattern of the female where she views sex as bad or
b. Miguel, 30 year old sedentary obese sinful.
c. Karen, 38 year old pregnant
d. Linda, a who has placed on complete bed rest. Situation:
Rod is a 17 old male client is interested in sexual health.
Situation: 76. The process of sperm production is known as:
Susan is a patient in the clinic where you work. She is inquiring about pregnancy. a. Spermatogenesis b. Spermatolysis c. Ejaculation d. Sex

71. Susan tell you is worried because she develops breast late than most of her friends. 77. The hormone responsible for sperm production is:
Breast development is termed as: a. Androgen b. Estrogen c. Testosterone d. Progesterone
a. Adrenarche b. Mamarche c. Thelarche d. Menarche
78. Sperm are initially produced in the:
72. Kevin, Susan’s husband tell you that he is considering after the birth of their new a. Seminiferous tubules of the testicles c. Epididymis
child. Vasectomy involves the incision of which organs? b. Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules d. There is no recommended
a. The testes b. The vas deferens c. Epididymis d. The scrotum frequency.

79. The site of sperm maturiy, wherein, it is stored where it matures until ejaculation:
73. On examination , Susan has been found of having a systocele. A cystocele is:
a. Seminiferous tubules of the testicles
 b. Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules most common complication , nursing intervention are directed in the prevention or
c. Epididymis control of hemorrhage. The nurse knows that AP is possibly occurring if which of
d. Vas Deferens the following s/s is noted?
a. Painless vagina bleeding
80. Rod ask, how many times is its advisable for me to masturbate in a day? Your best b. Sharp stabbing pain accomplished by heavy bleeding
response is c. Weak and slow pulse
a. For as long as you want d. Uterus is soft boggy
b. During sickness or in health
c. Masturbation is a sinful behavior, do not masturbate 86. These are temporary and normal increases of FHT due to cord compression
d. There is no recommended frequency. brought about by uterine contraction?
a. Acceleration b. Variable c. Later deceleration
Situation:
Pregnancy is by itself, could cause life threatening effect on the mother as well as 87. Early deceleration is brought about by zofran:
the child. Following question are emergency event common in complication of pregnancy. a. Cord compression c. Hypoxemia
b. Fetal head compresion d. Fetal heart abnormality
81. Abnormal bleeding is a danger sign in pregnancy. The nurse know that the common
bleeding that occurs in the last trimester of pregnancy is caused by: 88. Nursing intervention in early deceleration includes:
a. Abruption placenta c. H-mole a. Place the client on the left side lying position to prevent cord
b. Miscarriage d. Ectopic pregnancy compression
b. Instruct the client to pant
82. The most common cause of miscarriage in the first trimester of pregnancy is: c. Continuously monitor the FHR
a. Abruption placenta c. Rubella d. Place the client in trendrelenburg position to relieve pressure in the vena
b. Poor implantation d. Abnormal fetal formation cava

83. After the rupture of the membranes, either occuring spontaneously or mechanically
induced. The priority of the nurse is to assess:
a. Prolapsed cord b. PH of the BOW c. FHT d. Labor contraction
84. Cord prolapse can occur anytime after the BOW has been ruptured. This is a life
threatening emergency. All but one of the following is an inappropriate nursing
intervention for the condition EXCEPT:
a. Assess the FHT immediately after rupture of the BOW.
b. Insert a glove hand to the vaginal & lift the fetal head up to relieve the
pressure on the cord.
c. If there is a cord outside the vagina, covering it with sterile NSS dressing
will prevent drying of the cord
d. Try to push the prolapsed portion of the cord back to the vagina to prevent
drying o the cord when exposed to the outside air.
85. Abruption placenta is the most common cause of perinatal death. Death is usually
do to hemorrhage and it occurs in 10% of woman undergoing delivery. DIC is the
89. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention in any case that a Late
deceleration is noted?
a. Place the on the left side lying position to prevent cord compression
b. Increase the flow rate of oxytocin
c. Continuously monitor the FHR
d. Place the client in left lying position to relieve pressure in the vena cava
90. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention in any case that a Variable
deceleration is noted?
a. Place the on the left side lying position to prevent cord compression
b. Increase the flow rate of oxytocin
c. Continuously monitor the FHR
d. Place the in left supine to increase blood flow to the uterus
Situation:
Carina, a multipara a is on the health center for her third pregnancy. She is
asking you some normal discomforts associated in pregnancy.
 c. Supplementary food should be given before breastfeeding
91. Carina experiences nause, vomiting and diziness that occurs common in d. If the child is breastfed less that 8 times in 25 hours
pregnancy, You know that it normally disappears:
a. After lightening c. After contraction starts 98. While doing nutritional assessement of a a low-immune family, the community
b. At quickening d. up to the beginning of the third trimester health, nurse determines the family diet inadequate in protein content. The nurse
could suggest which of the following foods to increase protein content with little
92. Which of the following drug is given to Carina to relieve nausea and vomiting? increase I food expenditure?
a. Metoclopramide c. Dry crakers a. Oranges and potatoes c. Rice and macaroni
b. Torsemide d. Amiloride b. Patotoes and rice d. Peas and beans

93. You will instruct Carina to avoid which of the follownig food? 99. A new mother who is breast-feeding her baby asks the nurse when she should
a. Coffee b. Juice c. Fruits d. Milk start her feeding baby vegetables. The nurse suggest the MOST APPROPRIATE
age to begin vegetables is:
94. Carina demonstrate knowledge of proper and healthy pregnancy nutrition when she a. 3 to 4 months c. 6 to 8 months
states that the normal weight during the entire pregnancy should be: b. 4 to 5 months d. 9 to 12 month
a. 10 lbs b. 20 lbs c. 30 lbs d. 60 lbs
100. To show a mother how to help her to have good attachment of the infant during
95. Carina is a vegetarian, which of the following vitamin deficiency could put her at a breast feeding. Which of the following statement SHOULD NOT be included
great risk? a. Place the infants in your most convenient position
a. Iron b. Vitamin C c. Folic acid d. Vitamin B12 b. Touch the infant’s lips with nipples
c. Wait until the infant’s mouth widely open
Situation: d. Move the infact quickly onto her breast, aiming the infants lips well below
A child’s situation is very important for optimum growth and development. the nipple.
Breastfeeding is said to be best food for children ages 0 to and beyond, however, nutrients
such as iron is lacking on woman milk thus, introduction of complementary food is
necessary.

96. If a mother is breast feeding, which of the signs of good breast-infant attachments
is the true in this statement?
a. The chin should touch the breast while the mouth is wide open and while
the lower lip turned inward more areola visible above the below.
b. The chin should touch the breast, the mouth is wide open while the lower lip
turned outward and more areola visible above than below
c. The chin should touch the breast while the mouth is wide open while the
lower lip turned outward and more areola visible above than below
d. The chin should touch the breast while the mouth is wide open while the
lower lip turned inward and more areola visible above than below

97. When should the mother give complementary foods to a 5 months old infant?
a. If the child give adequate weight for his age
b. If the child show interest in semi solid foods
 NURSING PRACTICE III – SET B c. 1 cc syringe 26G 1 inch long needle
NURSING PRACTICE III- Care of Client with Physiologic and Psychosocial d. 1 cc syringe 27G 1.5 inch long needle
Alterations (Part A)
5. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to insulin absorption?
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: a. The fastest absorption occurs in the subcutaneous tissues of the arm
b. The nurse should rotate the injection site to prevent subcutaneous tissue
1. This test booklet contain 100 test question irritation
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet. c. Insulin are administered directly from the refrigerator
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or d. Insulin injection are carefully spaced apart at least an inch away from one
more boxes shaded will be invalid your answer. another to prevent lipodystrophy
4. AVOID ERASURES.
_________________________________________________________________________ 6. Diabetes Millitus is the most common endocrine disorder.
a. A with a family history of diabetes
INSTRUCTION: b. A hypertensive client
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer c. A 50 year old
Sheet Set. d. A40 year old caucasian
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice II” on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box 7. Who among the following has the highest risk in acquiring diabetes mellitus?
“B” if your test booklet is Set B. a. Karen, 19 year old African American
b. Gar, 42 year old with a diabetic mother
Sitution: c. Joe, 21 year old Asian with a diabetic mother & sister with diabetic
Knowledge of insulin preparation and administration is of key importance in the d. Cris, 48 year old with a BMI of 30
management of diabetes.
8. DM is either due to the decrease production of insulin, a decrease insulin
1. If Ketosis is present, the nurse knows that insulin to be given is: response of the cells or both. Where is insulin secreted?
a. NPH b. Humulin R c. Lente d. Humulin a. At the beta cells of the islets of Langerhams of the pancrease
b. At the beta cells of the islets of Langerhams of the liver
2. The acronym NPH stands for: c. At the beta cells of the islets of Langerhams of hypothalamus
a. Normal Protein Humalog c. Normal Protein Hagedorn d. At the beta cells of the islets of Langerhams of adrenal gland
b. Nuetral Protamine Humalog d Neutral Protamine Hagedorn
9. Which of the following is true with regards to the TYPE 2 diabetes mellitus?
3. In Missing two insulins, one in semilente and the other is Humulin N, the should: a. Ketosis is common
a. Draw the insulin first the Semilenter Vial then the Humulin N Vial b. Usually thin at diagnosis with recent weight loss.
b. Draw the insulin first from the Humulin N Vial, then from the Semilente Vial. c. Onset is usually at the early 20s
c. They are both intermediate insulin therefore, order is not necessary. d. There is no islet cells anibiotics
d. They are both cloudy insulin therefore oder is not necessary
10. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the TYPE 1 diabetes mellitus?
4. There is no available insulin syringe for the client and regular insulin is already due a. It accounts for the majority of diabetes.
to be administered. Which of the following are you going to use? b. All clients with type 1 DM has an absolute lack of insulin
a. 1 cc syringe 25G 5/8 inch long needle
b. 1 cc syringe 24G ½ inch long needle
 c. The insulin producing pancreatic beta cells produces NO or LITTLE insulin b. Into the outer third of the lower conjunctive sac
d. Diet, Exercise and OHA are treatment of choice c. Pressing on the lacrimal duct
d. From the inner canthus going towards the side of the eye
11. Osmotic diuresis occurs when the kidneys failed to reabsorb all the filtered glucose
and glucose appears in the urine. This leads to the Glucosuria seen in DM. How 18. When applying eye ointment, the following guidelines apply except:
much blood glucose level is required to reach the Normal kidney glucose threshold a. Squeeze about 2 cm of ointment and gently close but not squeeze the
that lead to Glucosuria?/ eye.
a. 70mg/dl b. 140 mg/dl c. 200 mg/dl d. 800mg/dl b. Apply the ointment from the inner canthus going outward of the affected
eye.
12. In diabetes Meliitus Type 1, insulin deficiency or its total obsence can lead to fat c. Discard the first bead of the eye oitment before application because the
breakdown that can eventually lead to Ketosis. The nurse knows that the acid base tube is likely to expel more than desire amount of ointment
disturbance associated with DKA is: d. Hold the tube above the conjuctival sac, do not let top touch the
a. Mebolic Acidosis c. Respiratory Acidosis conjunctiva
b. Metabolic Alkalosis d. Respoiratory Alkalosis
19. If you are to give 2 nasal inhalation for a client , one is a bronchodilator and the
13. The primary treatment in client with type 1 DM is: other one is a steroid, which guidelines should you follow?
a. Exercise b. Balance Diet c. Insulin d. OHA a. Administer the steroid first ,this is to open the airway by lessening the
edema.
14. While Type 2 Diabetes the primary treatment is: b. Administer the the bronchodilator first, this is to relax the brochial muscle
a. Weight loss b. Exercise c. OHA d. Insulin and dilate the airway.
c. Order is not necessary in administering nasal inhalation as long as the
15. In a client with persistent elevated blood glucose level of 240 md/dl or more, nurse will wait 1 minute between administration of 2 drugs
Ketosis should be suspected. The nurse knows that to detect Ketosis, which of the d. Order is not necessary in administering nasal inahlation as long as the
following speciment is obtained. nurse will wait 30 minuets
a. Blood b. Sputum c. Urine d. Feces
20. When applying eye ointmen, the following guidelines apply except.
Situation: a. Squezze about 2 cm of ointment and gently close but not squeeze the
You are going to apply various mdeication. eye.
b. Apply the ointment from the inner canthus going outward of the affected
16. You are to apply a transdermal patch nitroglycerine to your client. The following area
important guidelines to observe except. c. Hold the tube above the conjunctival sac, do not let tip touch the
a. Apply to hairless area of the skin not subject to too much wrinkling conjunctiva
b. Patches can be appied to distal part of the extremeties like the forearm d. Discard the first bead of the eye ointment before application because the
c. Change application and site regularly to prevent irritation of the skin tube is likely to expel more thatn desire amount of ointment.
d. Wear gloves to avoid any medication on hond.
21. When administering an otic medication to the clients RIGHT ear, the is BEST
17. You will applying eye drop to Miss Sanchez. After checking all the necessary placed on:
information and cleaning the affected eyelid and eyelashes, you adminster the
a. Right sie lying position c. Supine position
opthalmic drop by instilling the eye drops:
b. Left side lying position d. Prone position
a. Directly onto the drops
 22. When administering an otic medication to the s LEFT ear, the is BEST placed on:
a. Right side lying position c. Supine position 30. After Hemorrhoidectomy, a client be positioned:
b. Left side lying position d. Prone position a. Left sim position c. High fowlers position
b. Right side lying position d. Sidelying position
23. To prevent the systemic absorption of medication during opthalmic medication Situation:
administration, the nurse should: Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia is a common pathological condition that affects
a. Press on the nasolacrimal duck for 30 minutes older men.
b. Press on the nasolacrimal duck for 60 minutes
c. Press on the nasolacrimal duck for 30 seconds 31. Which of the following is a common manifestation of BPH?
d. Press on the nasolacrimal duck for 60 seconds a. Painful hematuria c. Dribbling uring
b. Polyuria d. Dysuria
24. If you are to give 2 nasal inhalation for a client, one is a bronchodilator and the other
one is a steroid. Which guidelines should you follow? 32. The cause of BPH is:
a. Administer steriod first, this is to open the airway by lessening the edema a. Unknown c. High levels estrodiol
b. Aging process d. Elevated Dihydrotestosterone
b. Administer the bronchodilator first, this is to relax the bronchial muscle
c. Administer nasal inhalation, the nurse will wait 1 min bet. Administration of 2
drugs 33. An herbal remedy that used in client’s BPH is:
d. Administer nasal inhalation, the nurse will wait 30 minutes between puffs a. Echinacea b. St. Johns Wort c. Saw Palmetto d. Black cohosh

25. In opthalmic medication administration, the nurse uses which aseptic technique? 34. Finasterid [Proscar] and Terazosin [Hytrin] has been prescribed for a client with
a. Clean b. Sterile c. Medical d. Nursing BPH. The nurse knows that the effect of Proscar and Hytrin is:
a. Hytrin is an alpha adrenergic receptor blocker, it relaxes the bladder neck
Situation: and prostate leading to easier urination while proscar is a 5 alpha
Various clients will undergo different post of positioning from various procedures. reductase inhibitor that prevents the conversion of testosterone to
dihydrotestosterone.
26. After Pneumonectomy a client is postioned: b. Proscar is an alpha adrenorgic receptor blocker, it relaxes the bladder
a. Right side lying c. Affected side neck and prostate leading to easier urination while Hytrin is a 5 alpha
b. Left side lying d. Unaffected side reductase inhibitor that prevents the conversion of Testosterone to
Dihydrotestosterone
27. While after labectomy, the client is positioned c. Hytrin is an aplha adrenergic receptor blocker that prevents the
a. Right side lying c. Affected side conversion of testosterone to Dihydrotosterone while Proscar is a 5 alpha
b. Left side lying d. Unaffected side reductase inhibitor
d. Both of these drugs prevent the conversion of Testosterone to
28. After Liver Biopsy, the client is positioned Dihydrotesiosterone.
a. Right side lying c. Supine
b. Left side lying d. Semi Fowlers 35. A client was scheduled for TURP and he ask the nurse, where is the incision.
Your best response is:
29. After thyroidectomy, the nurse should remember that the client positioned a. The incision is on the perineal area.
a. High Fowlers c. High fowlers position b. TURP is an invasive surgery, the prostate is remove through a lower
b. Semi fowler postion d. Prone position with the head on the side adbominal approach.
 c. TURP is a laser surgery, there no incision
d. TURP is an endoscopic surgery, there is no incision
Situation:
Mr. Ramos, 50 is to undergo cystoscopy due to multiple problems like scantly,
urination, hematuria and dysuria
36. You are the nurse in change in Mr. Ramos. When asked what are the organs to be
examined during cystoscopy, you will enumerate as follows;
a. Urethra, kidney bladder, ureteral
b. Urethra, bladder wall, trigone, ureteral opening
c. Bladder wall , uterine wall and urethral wall
d. Urethral opening, ureteral opening bladder
37. In the OR, you will position Mr. Ramos who is cystoscopy in:
a. Supine b. Lithotomy c. Semi-fowler d. Trendelenburg
38. After cystoscopy, Mr. Ramos asked you to explain why there is no incision of any
kind. What do you tell him?
a. Cystoscopy is direct visualized and examination by urologist
b. Cystoscopy is done by x-ray visualization of the urinary tract
c. Cystoscopy is done by using lasers on the urinary tract
d. Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure of the urinary tract
39. Within 24- 48 hours post cystoscopy, it is normal to observe on the following:
a. Pink-tinged urine c. Signs of infection
b. Distended bladder d. Prolonged hematuria
40. Leg cramps are NOT uncommon post cystoscopy. Nursing intervention includes:
a. Bed rest c. Earl ambulation
b. Warm moist soak d. Hot sitz bath
Situation:
Mang Felix, a 79 year old man who is brought to the Surgical Unit from PACU
after a transurethral resection. You are assigned to receive him. You noted that he has a 3-
way indwelling urinary catheter for continuous fast drip bladder irrigration which is
connected to a straight drainage.
42. The purpose of the continuous bladder irrigation is to:
a. Allow continuous monitoring of the fluid output status
b. Provide continuous flushing of clots and debris from the bladder
c. Allow for proper exchange of electrolytes and fluid
d. Ensure accurate monitoring of intake and output
43. Mang Felix informs you that he feels discomfort on the hypogastric area and he
has to void, What will be your most appropriate action?
a. Remove his catheter then allow him to void on his own.
b. Irrigate his catheter
c. Tell him to “Go ahead and void, you have an indwelling catheter”
d. Assess color and rate of outflow, if there is a change to urologist for
possible irrigation
44. You decided to check on Mang Felix’s fluid infusion. You noted a change in flow
rate, pallor and coldness around the insertion site. What is yuor assessment
finding?
a. Phlebitis c. Pyrogenic reaction
b. Air embolism d. Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue
45. Knowing that proper documentation of assessment findings and interventions are
important responsibilities of the nurse during first post operative day, which of the
following is the LEAST relevant to document in the case of Mang Felix?
a. Chest pain and vital sign
b. Intravenous infusion rate
c. Amount color and consistency of bladder irrigation drainage
d. Activities of daily living started
Situation:
Appendicitis is the most common cause of acute abdomen in the world. It is
also most common reason for emergency adbominal surgery
46. Which of the following sign of appendicitis
a. Plain at the McBurney’s point
b. Swelling and Lethargy
c. Headache, fever and loose stools
d. Adbominal rigidity, fever and seizures

41. Immediately after surgery, what would you expect his urine to be? 47. An expected laborary result seen in clients with Appendicitis is:
a. Light yellow b. Amber c. Bright red d. Pinkish to red a. Fever greater that 37.7 degree celsius
b. Anemia as exhibited by RBC less that 4 million/mm3
c. Platelet count falling below 150,000 cells/mm3
 d. WBC count exceeding 10,000/mm3 b. Check for presence dentures d. Check baseline vital signs

48. The nurse knows that the location of the appendicitis is at: 55. Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect postoperative respiratory function. If your
a. LUQ b. LLQ c. RLQ d. RUQ smokes 3 pack of cigarettes a day for the past 10 years, you will anticipate
increase risk for:
49. The greatest complication associated with appendicitis is: a. Perioperative anxiety and stress c. Delayed wound healing
a. Infection b. Hemorrhage c. Rovsing’s Sign d. Abdominal b. Postoperative respiriatory infection d. Physical sterilization
Perforation
Situation:
50. You will ask the to return to the physician’s clinic to remove the sutures, Sutures Sterilization is the process of removing All living micro organism. To be free of
after incisions on the abdomen is usually removed after how many days? ALL living micro organism is sterility.
a. 3 days b. 4 days c. 7days d. 15days
56. There are 3 general types of sterilization use in the hospital, which one is not
Situation: included?
In the OR, there are safety protocol that should be followed. The OR nurse should a. Steam sterilization c. Chemical sterilization
be well versed with all these to safeguard the safety and quality of patient delivery outcome. b. Physical sterilization d. Sterlization by boiling

51. Which of the followng should be given highest priority when receiving patient in the
OR?
a. Asses level of consciousness c. Verity patient identification & inform
consent
b. Assess vital sign d. Check for jewelry manicure, dentures & gown
52. Surgeries like I and D [incision & drainage] and debridement are relatively short
procedures but sonsidered “dirty case”. When these procedure are best scheduled?
a. Last case c. According to availability of anaesthesiologist
b. In between cases d. According to the surgeon’s preference
53. OR nurses should be aware that maintaining the client’s safety is the overall goal
nursing care during the intra operative phase. As the circulating nurse, you make
certain that throughout the procedure.
a. The surgeon greets his before induction of anesthesia
b. The surgeon and anesthesiologist are in tandem
c. Strap made of strong non-abrasive materials are fastened securely around
the joints of the knees and ankles around the 2nd hands around an arm
board
d. is monitored throughout the surgery by the assistant anesthesiologist
54. Another nursing check that should not be missed before the induction of general
anesthesia
a. Check for presence under wear c. Check patient’s ID
57. Autoclave or steam under pressure is the most common method of sterlization in
the hospital. The nurse know the temperature and time is set to the optimum level
to destroy not only the micro organism but also the spores. Which of the following
is the ideal setting the autoclave machine?
a. 10,000 degree celsius for 1 hour c. 5,000 degree celsius for 30 minutes
b. 37 degree celsius for 15 minutes d. 121 degree celsius for 15 minutes
58. It is important that before a nurse prepares the material to be sterilized. A
chemical indicator strip should be placed above the package, preparably. Muslin
sheet, what is the color of the strip produced after auto claving?
a. Black b. Blue c. Gray d. Purple
59. Chemical indicators communicate that:
a. The items are sterile
b. That the items had under gone sterilization process but not necessarily
sterile
c. The items are disinfectant
d. That the items had under gone deinfection process but not necessarily
disinfected
60. If a nurse will sterilize a heat and moisture labile instruments. It is accoding to
AORN recommendation to use which of the following method of sterilization?
a. Ethylene oxide gas c. Flush sterilizer
 b. Autoclaving d. Alcohol immersion The preoperative nurse collaborates with he significant others and health care
providers.
Situation: 66. To control environmental hazards in the OR, the nurse collaborates with the
Nurses hold a variety of roles when providing care to a perioperative patient following departments EXCEPT:
‘ a. Biomedical division c. Infection control commitee
61. Which of the following role would be the responsibility of the scrub nurse? b. Chaptaincy services d. Pathology department
a. Assess th readiness of the client prior to surgery
b. Ensure that the airway is adequate 67. An air crash occurred near the hospital leading to surge of trauma patient. One of
c. Account for the number of sponges needles, supplies used during the the last-patient will need surgical amputation but there are no sterile surgical
surgical procedure. equipments. In this case which of the following will the nurse expect.
d. Evaluate the type of anesthesia appropriate for the surgical a. equipments needed for surgery need not be sterilized if this is an
emergency necessitating life saving measures.
62. As a perioperative nurse, how can you best meet the safety need of the client after b. Forwarding the trauma to the nearest hospital that has available sterile
administering preoperative narcotic? equipments is appropriate.
a. Put side rails up and ask the client not to get our of bed c. The nurse will need to sterilized the item before using it to the client using
b. Send the to OR with the family the regular sterilization setting at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes.
c. Allow to get p to go to the comfort room d. In which cases, flash sterilizer will be used at 132 degree Celsius in 3
d. Obtain concent form minutes

63. It is the responsibility of the pre-op nurse to do skin prep for patient under going 68. Tess the PACU nurse, discovered that Malou, who weight 110 lbs, prior to
surgery. If hair at the operative site is not shaved, what should be done to make surgery, it is in severe pain for 3 hrs. After cholecystectomy. Upon checking the
suturing easy and lesses chance of incision infection? chart, Malou found out that she has an order of Demerol 100 mg 1.M pm for pain.
a. Draped b. Pulled c. Clipped d. shampooed Tess should verify the order with:
a. Nurse supervisor c. Surgeon
64. It is also the nurse’s function to determine when infection is developing in the b. Anesthesiologist d. Intern on duty
surgical incision. The perioperative nurse should observe for what signs of
impending infection? 69. Rosie, 57, who is a diabetic is for debridement if incision wound. When the
a. Localized heat and redness circulating, nurse checked the present IV fluid, she found out that there is no
b. Serosanguinous exudates and skin blanching insulin incorporated as order. What should the circulating nurse do?
c. Separation of the incision a. Double check the doctor’s order and call the attending MD
d. Blood clots and scar tissue are visible b. Communicate with the ward nurse to verify if insulin was incorporated or
not
65. Which of the following nursing interventions is done when examining the incision c. Communicate with to verify if insulin was incorporated
wound and changing the dressing? d. Incorporate insulin as ordered
a. Observe the dressing and type of odor in drainage if any
b. Get patient’s concent 70. The doucmentation of all nursing activities performed is legally and professionally
c. What hands vital. Which of the folowing should NOT be included in the patient’s chart?
d. Request the to expose the incision wound a. Presence of prosthetoid devices such as dentures, artificial limbs hearing
aid etc.
Situation: b. Baseline physical, emotional and psychological date
 c. Arguments between nurse and residents regarding treatment
d. Observed untoward signs and sympoms and intervention including 76. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is the most common form of hypothyroidism is adults. This
contaminant intervening factors. occurs when:
a. The thyroid gland is hypoactive
Situation: b. The pituitary gland is not secreting enough TSH
Team effort is best desmonstrated in the OR. c. The thyroid gland is inflammable due to severe infection & bacterial
infiltration that leads to the decrease production of thyroid hormine
71. If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important d. For some unknown reason. The body is producing an antibody against its
information do you need to ask the surgeon? own thyroid gland
a. Who is your internist
b. Who is your assistant and anaesthesioligist and what is your preferred time 77. Which of the follwing is NOT a sign of hypothyroidism except:
and type of surgery a. Intolerance to perfume
c. Who are your anaesthesiologist, internist and assistant b. Intolerance to nouse
d. Who is you anaesthesiologist c. Intolerance to heat
d. Intolerance to cold
72. In the OR, the nursing tandem for every surgery is:
a. Instrument technician and circulating nurse 78. Which of the follwing drug should be used with exteme caution in clients with
b. Nurse anaesthetist, nurse assistant and instrument technician hypothyroidism?
c. Scrub nurse and nurse anaesthetist a. Fentanyl b. Osiptin c. Trimethobenzamide d.
d. Scrub and circulating nurses colchicine

73. While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, 79. A drug used to treat hypothyroidism by artificially replacing the lost thyroid
we should limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who comprise hormone is:
this team? a. PTU b. SSKI c. Vasopressin d. Synthroid
a. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
b. Surgeon, assistant, srub nurse circulating nurse, anesthesiologist 80. The priority monitoring that a nurse should do when clients start to take prothyroid
c. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anaesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist drug is
d. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anaesthesioligist, intern, scrub nurse. a. Check for the blood pressure level
b. Check for the respiratory rate
74. Who usually act as an important apart of the OR personnal by getting the c. Check for the occurrence for chest pain
wheelchair or stretcher and pushing/pulling them towards the operating room? d. Check for the clients temperature
a. Orderly clerk c. Circulating Nurse
b. Nurse supervisor d. Anaesthesiologist Situation:
Hypokalemia is a life threatening condition that could immediatley lead to death
75. The breakdown in teamwork is ofterm times a failure in: if not assessed properly. It has no spcecific signs that could lead to misdiagnosis.
a. Electricity c. Leg work
b. Inadequate supply d. Communication 81. The most common cause fo Hypokalemia is:
a. Lasix/diuretics c. Acidosis
Situation:
b. Diarrhea d. Hyperaldosteronism
Minda, a 40 old client is exhibiting fatigue and failure to carry out ADLs. Further
examination reveals Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis.
82. Which of the following symptom could the nurse observe being manifested by
clients suspected of Hypokalemia? 90. The common cause of death incases of severe Hypokalemia is brought about by:
a. Oliguria c. Leg weakness a. Respiratory arrest c. Brain Damage
b. Increase bowel motility d. Presence of U wave b. Hypovolemic shock d. Dysrythmias

83. Oral potassium supplements was given to the client to increase potassium levels, Situation:
which of the following instruction is necessary for the client? Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is a condition that can be mistaken with RA
a. Tell the client to report abdominal pain, distention fo GI Bleeding especially at the early stage of the disease process. Jana is a young female client with
b. Tell the client to take postassium on a empty sotmach joint stiffness, joint inflammation and a characteristic butterfly rash on the face.
c. Double the dose incase for a missed dose
91. Which of the following is a risk factor that Jana might have that predisposes her
d. Increase the level for potassium if muscle weakness is still present
to SLE?
a. She is a female c. She is an asias
84. Which of the following is seen in the ECG reading of clients with Hypokalemia?
b. She is of africa-american desent d. She is 25 years old
a. Qwave c. U wave
b. Peaked T wave d. Inverted P wave
92. A complication of advanced SLE that Jana might experience if left untreated is:
a. Join pain
85. The nurse knows that U wave can occur if the potassium level is:
b. Renal failure, Hypertension and Pericarditis
a. 3 meq/l b. 4 meq/l c. 5 meq/l d. 7 meq/l
c. Synovitis
d. Rashes exacerbated by sunlight exposure
86. In client s with Hypokalemia due to diuretic use, a recommended diureric that
prevents Hypolalemia is:
93. There is no single diagnosis test that confirm SLE. Diagnosis is based on clinical
a. Hydrochlorthiazide c. Spironolactone
manifestation as well as skin involvement as evidence by lesion and rashes.
b. Furosemide d. Mannitol
Laboratory analysis is performed just to support the diagnosis. Which of the
following is expected?
87. Which of the following is a contraindication in administering oral or IV potassium
a. Thrombocytosis c. Polycythemia
supplements?
b. Leukocytosis d. Negative ANA
a. Anorexia b. Diarrhea c. Oliguria d. Liver disease

88. To correctly administer a parenteral potassium the nurse knows that when 94. Since SLE is an autoimmune disease without any definitive cause, Treatment
administering potassium she must: management involves suppressing the immune response. Which of the following
a. Agitate the VI bag is the GOLD STANDARD, the single most important drug that controls s/s of
b. Do not use infusion pump, used regular infusion set SLE?
c. Administer the drug IM for a slower absorption and to prevent toxicity a. Methotrexate c. Prednisone
d. Administer the drug via IV Push b. Cystosporine d. Hyrdoxychloroquine

89. In client receiving digitalis, careful assessment is necessary because: 95. Anemia causes fatigue that leads to activity intolerance of client with SLE.
a. Hypokalemia decreases digitalis toxicity Alopecia can occur in s with SLE because of the lesion in the scalp of a can
b. Hypokalemia increases digitalis toxicity destroy the hair follicles that leads to the patches of hair loss. An appropriate
c. Digitalis further decreases potassium level nursing diagnosis for Alopecia is
d. Digitalis further increases potassium level a. Activity intolerance c. Impaired social interation
b. Body image disturbance d. Social Isolation
SItuation: Maintenance of sterility is an important function a nurse shlould perform in any
OR setting.

96. Which of the following is true with regards to sterility?

a. Sterility is time related, items are not considered sterile after a period of 30
days of being not used.
b. For 9 months, sterile items are considered sterile as long as they are
covered with sterile muslin cover and stored in a dust proof covers.
c. Sterility is event related, not time related
d. For 3 weeks, items double covered with muslin are considered sterile as
long as they have undergone the sterilization process
97. Organizations endorse that sterility are affected by factors other that the time itself,
these are:
a. The PNA and the PRC
b. AORN and JCAHO
c. ORNAP and MCNAP
d. MMDA and DILG
98. All of these factors affect the sterility of the OR equipments, these are the following
except:
a. The material used for packaging
b. The handling of the materials as well as its transport
c. Storage
d. The chemical or process as well as its transport

99. When you say sterile, it means:

a. The material is clean
b. The material as well as the equipment are sterilized and had undergone a
rogirous sterilization process
c. There is a black stripe on the paper indicator
d. The material has no microorganism nor spores present that might cause an
infection

100. In using liquid sterilizer versus autoclave machine, which of the following is true?
a. Autoclave is better in sterilizing OR supplies versus liquid sterilizer
b. They are both capabable of sterilizing the equipment however, it is
necessary to soak supplies in the liquid sterilizer for a longer period of time.
c. Sharp are sterilized using autoclave and not cidex
d. If liquid sterilizer is used, rinsing it before using is not necessary
 NURSING PRACTICE IV – SET B
NURSING PRACTICE IV – Care the Clients with Physiologic and Psychosicial 5. A nurse wearing Gloves, Mask, Eyewear/Goggles and Gowns is using which
Aleterations (Part B) Transmission base prescaution
a. Universal precaution c. Airborned Precaution
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: b. Standard Precaution d. Droplet Precautions
Situation:
1. This test booklet contain 100 test question The ability of a person to combat pathogens is directly related to the level of his
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet. immunity.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or
more boxes shaded will be invalid your answer. 6. The protein substance produced by the body to combat the infection in know as:
4. AVOID ERASURES. a. Antigens b. Antibody c. Pathogen d.
_________________________________________________________________________ Albumin

INSTRUCTION: 7. UTI is the most common nosocomial infection. This is usually die to?
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer a. Improper cathererization technique
Sheet Set. b. Client being females
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice II” on the box provided. c. Improper hand washing
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box d. The urine toches the drainage tube
“B” if your test booklet is Set B.
8. Is the there is a simulation of the immune system to directly produce an antibody
Situation: in response to the antigen. The immunity is know as:
Prevention of infection is priority concern in treating an infection : a. Natural Artifical c. Active d. Passive

1. In donning PPEs which of the following is don first? 9. Vaccination of MMR produces which type of immunity?
a. Gloves b. Gown c. Mask d. Eyewear a. Artificial Passive c. Aritificial Active
b. Natural Passive d. Natural Active
2. In removing PPEs which of the following is removed first?
a. Gloves b. Gown c. Mask d. Eyewear 10. What is ATS produce:
a. Artificial Passive c. Artificial Active
3. The rationale for the above number is: b. Natural Passive d. Natural Active
a. It is the easiest to remove
b. It is the fastest to remove Situation
c. It is the cleanest Laryngeal cancer is a malignant tumor in the voice box. Mr Renaro Sauro is your
d. It is most contaminated client diagnosed with the cancer of the larynx.

4. A has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and the nurse is using Airborned
11. Which of the folowing is not true about Laryngeal Cancer?
precautions, When using a respirator mask, when should it be removed?
a. It acquires more commonly in women than in men
a. Before entering the client’s room
b. Alcohol, tobacco, exposures to fumes, paints, dust, asbestos are all
b. When leaving the client’s room
identified
c. In the doorway, before leaving the client’s room
carcinogenic risk factors
d. After the door has been closed. When the nurse left the client’s room
c. Nutritional deficiency can lead to this type of cancer
 d. African American are the race most commonly affected 18. One of the side effects of Adriamycin is Alopecia. Which of the following is the
best nursing action to improve the clients self esteem after chemotherapy?
12. Symptoms noted EARLY in laryngeal cancer includes: a. Tell the that her hair will grow back
a. Dysphagia and Dyspnea b. Encourage the client to wear a cap
b. Foul breasth c. Encourage the client to wear a wig
c. Pain radiation to the ear d. Encourage the client to accept the side effects fo chemotherapy
d. Hoarseness of voice or sore throat
19. Which of the following maybe used to her post operatively.
13. Mr. Sauro Undergone total laryngectomy, you would expect that the nutrition of the a. Cystoclysis bottle c. Jackson Pratt drain
client’s is met through b. 3 way bottle system d. Pleural drainage
a. NGT Tube for feeding c. Permanent Loss of Voice
b. Temporary Tracheal Stoam d. Voice hoarseness 20. The all the following are applicable nursing diagnosis for Joanna except
a. Pain upon lying down c. Potential for sexual dysfunction
14. Immediately after Laryngectomy, the nurse would expect that the nutrition of the b. Body Image Disturbbacne d. Self care deficit of immobility of the
clients is met through: arm
a. TPN b. Jejunostomy c. Oral d. NGT
21. Elevation of the arm is performed in order to improve edema post mastectomy.
15. After 10 days, The physician determined that Mr. Sauro is ready for Oral feedings. Which of the following is an exercise that will help lessen lymphedema?
As nurse, you would expect that the initial feeding for the client post laryngectomy a. Walking c. Swimming
should consist of: b. Wall climbing with both hands d. Wall climbing with affected arm only
a. Clear lquied such as Boillon
b. Seet liquids such as tea 22. After modified radical mastectomy which assessment finding indicates that
c. Thickened liquids such as apple sause Joanna is experiencing a complication related to surgery?
d. Osteorized feeding through NGT a. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson Pratt drain
b. Pain at the incision site
Situation: c. Complaints of decrease sensation in the operative site
Joanna Marie, a 40 year old client was diagnosed with breast cancer d. Arm edema on the operative arm

16. The nurse is instruction Joanna about breast self examination. The nurse instruct 23. Allowing Joanna to perform deep breasthing will prevent:
Joanna to perform Breast Self Examination a. Pneumonia c. Atelectasis
a. At the onset of menstruation c. Every month during ovulation b. Bronchitis d. Lymph edema
b. 1 week after menstruation begin d. Weekly at the same time each day
24. The nurse is teaching the sisters of Joanna about Mammography. The nurse tells
17. Joanna is taking Adriamycin together with tamoxifen you know that Adriamycin the client that:
works by: a. Mammography takes about 1 hour
a. Inhibiting DNA Synthesis b. To avoid the used of deodorant, powders and creams on the day of the
b. Preventing folic acid synthesis test
c. Changing the osmotic gradient of the cell c. There is no discomfort associated with procedure
d. Increase cell wall permeability d. To maintain an NPO status 8 hrs before procedure
25. Joanna was brought to the hospice. During you visit, Jonna expresses that “If i can
just have a little longer to see my 3 sons finish college. I will be ready to die”, Which Situation:
phase of grieving process is Joanna experience. Knowledge of the acids-base disturbabce and the functions of the electrolytes is
a. Danial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Anger necessary to determine appropriate intervention and nursing actions.

26. In the Philippines, The use of this method is strongly suggested and recommended 31. A client with diabetic milletus has a blood glucose level of 644mg/dL. The
that any other methods to decrease the death due to breast cancer; interprets that this client is at most risk for the development of which type of acid-
a. BSE c. Breast Biopsy base
b. Mammography d. Surgery a. Respiratory acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
27. The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The
nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover; 32. In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood gas analysis gives the following
a. Thickness and Fullness results: pH 7.48, PCO 32 mmHg, PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEa/L. The nurse
b. Malignant or Benigh Lumps interpret that the client has which acid base disturbance?
c. Changes from previous self-examinations a. Respiratory acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Fibrocystic masses b. Respiraroy alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

28. Anita, Joanna’s sister is performing BSE and she stand in front of the Mirror. The 33. A client has an order for ABG analysis on radial artery specimens. The nurse
rationale for standing in front of the mirror is the check for: ensures that which of the following has been performed or tested before the ABG
a. Unusual charges coming out from the breast specimens are drawn?
b. Any obvious malignancy a. Guthrie test c. Romberg’s test
b. Allen’s test d. Weber’s test
c. The size of the contour of the breast
d. Thickness and the lumps in the breast
34. A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client and the notes that
the pH is 7.31, PCO2 is 50 mmHg, and the bicorbonage is 27 mEq/L. The nurse
29. The nurse puts a folded towel under the left shoulder of the client to be examined
concludes that which acid base disturbances is present in this ?
for clinical BSE. Why is this so?
a. Respiratory acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis
a. To make the left shoulder nearer to the hands of the clinician for palpation
b. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
b. To make the pectoris muscle prominent, toning the breast tissues to better
palpation
35. Allen’s test checks the patency of the:
c. To put breast in a more lateral position to better ease the palpation
a. Ulnar artery c. Carotid artery
d. To balance and spread the breast tissue thus easing palpation b. Radial artery d. Brachial artery

30. A 52 yr old female tells the nurse that she had found a painless lump in her tight Situation:
breast during her monthly-examination. Which asessment finding would strongly The nurse is performing health education activities for Janevi Segovia, a 30 year
suggest that this client’s lump cancerous? old Dentist with Insulin dependent diatetes Milletus.
1.Non capsulated mass
2. Fixed, irregular and hard 36. Janevi, is preparing a mixed dose of insulin. The nurse is satisfied with the
3.Presence of Orange peel skin performance when she:
4.Soft and mobile a. Draw insulin from the vial of clear insulin first
a. 1, 2,3 b. 1,2 c. 1,2,4 d. 1,3,4 b. Draw insulin from the vial of the immediate acting insulin first
 c. Fill both syringes with prescribed insulin dosage then shake the bottle
vigously
d. Withdraw the intermediate acting insulin first before withdrawing the short
acting insulin first
37. Janevi complains of nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis and headache. Which of the
following nursing intervention are you going to carry out first?
a. Withhold the client’s next insulin injection
b. Test the client’s blood glucose level
c. Administer Tylenol as ordered
d. Offer fruit jbuice, gelatin and chicken bouillon
38. Janevi administered regular insulin at 7 A.M. and the nurse should instruct Jane to
avoid exercising at around:
a. 9 to 11A.M. c. Between 8 A.M. to 9 A.M.
b. After 8 hrs d. In the afternoon, after taking lunch
39. Janevi was brought at the ermergency room after 4 month because she fainted in
her clinic. The nurse should monitor which of the following test to evaluate the
overall therapeutic compliance of a diabetic patient?
a. Glycosylated c. Ketone levels
b. Fasting blood glucose d. Urine glucose level
40. Upon the assessment of Hba 1c of Mrs. Segovia. The nurse had been informed of a
9% Hba 1c result. In this case, She will teach that patient to:
a. Avoid infection c. Prevent and recognized hyperglycemia
b. Take adequate food and nutrition d. Prevent and recognized hypoglycemia
Situation:
41. The nurse is teaching plan of care. For Jane with regards to proper foot care. Which
of the following should be included in the plan?
a. Soak feet in hot water
b. Avoid using mild soap on the feet
c. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet but got between the toes
d. Always have a podiatrist to cut your foot nails; never cut the yourself
42. Another patient was brought to the emergency room in an unresponsive state and a
diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketoc syndrome is made. The nurse
immediately prepare to initiate which of the following anticipated physician’s order
a. Endotracheal intubation
b. 100 units of NPH insulin
c. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
d. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
43. Jane eventaully developed DKA and is being treated in emergency room. Which
finding would the nurses expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?
a. Comatose state
b. Decrease urine output
c. Increased respiration and increased in pH
d. Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate level
44. The nurse teaches Jane to know the difference between hypoglycemia and
ketoacidosis. Jane demonstrates understanding of the teaching by stating that
glucose will be taken if which of the following symptoms develops?
a. Polyuria c. Blurred Vision
b. Shakeness d. Fruit breasth odor
45. Jane has been scheduled to have a FBS taken in the morning. The nurse tells
Jane not to eat or drink after midnight. Prior to taking the blood speciment, the
nurse notice that Jane is holding a bottle of distilled water. The nurse asked Jane
if she drink any, and she said “yes” Which of the following as the best nursing
action?
a. Administer syrup of ipecac to remove the distilled water from the stomach
b. Suction the stomach content using NGT prior to specimen collection
c. Advice to physician to reeschedule, the diagnostic examination next day
d. Continue as usual and have the FBS analysis performed and specimen
be taken
You are a nurse working in the ONCOLOGY department.
46. Which of the following is MALIGNANT rather that benign?
a. Rate of growth is slow
b. Usually encapsulated
c. The tumor grows by expansion.
d. Tumor gains assess to the blood and lymphatic system
47. Which of the following is BENIGN tumor?
a. Sarcoma c. Leukemia
b. Maningioma d. Squamus Cell Carcinoma
 48. The Delivery of radiation via in intermal source such as radioactive strontium rods is c. Emotional support
known as: d. Fluid resuscitation
a. Chemotherapy c. Brachyterapy 55. White in the emergency phase, the nurse knows that the priority is to:
b. Teletherapy d. Hypnotherapy a. Prevent infection
b. Control pain
49. After teletherapy. The is considered as: c. Advice prevent determines and contractures
a. Radioactive for 24 hours c. Urine and feces are sources of radiation d. Return the hemodynamic stability via fluid resuscitation
b. Free from radiation d. Radioactive for a week 56. The Most effective method delivering pain medication during emergent phase is:
a. Instramusculariy c. Orally
50. When caring for client’s undergoing brachytherapy. The nurse should wear LEAD b. Subcutaneously d. Intravenously
APRON and limit total exposure to the in a maximum duration of how many 57. When a client accidentally splashes chemicals to his eyes. The initial priority case
minutes per shift? following the chemical burn is to:
a. 5 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 2 hours a. Irrigate with normal saline for 1 to 15 minutes
b. Transport to a physician immediately
Situation: c. Irrigate with water for 15 minutes or longer
Burn is cause by transfer of heat source of the body. It can be thermal, electrical, d. Cover the eyes with a sterile guaze
radiation or chemical
58. Which of the following can be a total complication of upper airway burns?
51. A burn characterized by Pale white appearance, charred or with flat exposed and a. Astress ulcers
painlessness is: b. Hemorrhage
a. Superficial partial thickness burn c. Shock
b. Deep partial thickness burn d. Laryngeal spasms and swelling
c. Full thickness burn
d. Deep full thickness burn 59. When a client will rush toward you and he has a burning clothes on it, it s your
priority to do which of the following first?
52. Which of the following BEST describes superficial partial thickness burn or first a. Log roll on the grass/ground
degree brun? b. Slap the flames with his hands
a. Structures beneath the skin care damage c. Try to remove the buring clothes
b. Dermis is partially damage
d. Splash with client with 1 bucket of cool water
c. Epidermis and dermis are both damaged
d. Epidermis is damaged 60. Once the flames are extinguised. It is the most important to:
a. Cover with a warm blanket
53. A burn that is said to be “WEEPING” is classified as: b. Give him sips of water
a. Superficial partial thickness burn
c. Calculate the external burns
b. Deep partial thickness burn
d. Assess the Sergio’s breasthing
c. Full thickness burn
d. Deep full thickness burn
61. During the first 24 hours after the thermal injury, you should assess Sergio for
a. Hypokalemia and Hypernatremia
54. During the Acute phase of the burn injury, which of the following is a priority?
b. Hypokalemia and Hyponatremia
a. Wound healing
c. Hyperkalemia and Hyponatremia
b. Reconstructive surgery
 d. Hyperkalemia and Hyponatremia 67. After spinal anesthesia, 30% of the develops spinal headache. This is due to:
a. Severe hypotension associates wih Vasodilation due to the an
62. A client who is sustained deep partial thickness and full thickness burns of the face, anaesthetics.
whole anterior chest and both upper extremities two days ago begins to exhinit b. Increase volume of the cerebrospinal fluid to anesthesia induction.
extreme restlessness. You recognize that the most likely indicates that the client is c. Cerebral due to rapid absorption of anaesthetics
developing: d. CSF leakage due to puncture created by the special needle in the
a. Cerebral hypoxia c. Metabolic acidosis membrane that surrounds the spinal cord.
b. Hypervolemia d. Renal failure
68. After spinal anesthesia, to prevent the spinal headache, the client is place on
63. A 165 lbs trauma was rushed to the emergency room with full thickness burn of the which of the following position?
whole face right and left arm, and at the anterior upper chest sparing the a. Sitting position c.Flat on bed, supine
abdominant area. He also has superficial partial thickness burn at the posterior b. Prone position d. Sidelying position affected side
trunk and the half upper portion of the left leg. He is at the emergent phase burn.
Using the parkland formula, you know that during the first 8 hrs of burn, the amount 69. After spinal anesthesia, to prevent the spinal headache, the client is placed on
of fluid will be given is: which of the following position?
a. 5,400 ml c. 9,450 ml a. Sitting position c. Flat on bed, supine
b. 10,800 ml d. 6,750 ml b. Sidelying position affected side d. Flat on bed, prone

64. The doctor incorporated insulin on the client’s fluid during the emergent phase. The
nurse knows that insulin is given because:
a. Clients with burn also develops metabolic alkalosis
b. Clients with burn also develops hyperglycemia
c. Insulin is needed for additional energy and glucose burning after stressful
incidence to hasten wound healing regain fo consciousness and rapid
return hemodynamic stability
d. For hyperkalemia
70. Another way to prevent spinal headache is by the use of the correct needle
gauge. If the client is an adult , the anesthesiologist might order a pink spinal set.
The nurse knows that the pink spinal set has a gauage at:
a. 12 b. 6 c. 22 d. 26
Situation:
Monica is a 40 year old female client diagnosed with Rheumaoid Arthrisis. She is
experiencing joint pain and morning joint stiffness. She is in severe pain.

65. The IV fluid of choice from burn as well as dehydration: 71. Who among the following commonly affected by RA?
a. 0.45% NaCL c. Sterile water a. Young women c. Older man
b. NSS d. DSLR b. Young man d. Older women

Situation: 72. Which of the following risk factor is stated by Monica, would alert the nurse athat
Anesthesia is use even during ancient time, in its evaluation, modern marvels in the further teaching is needed?
used of anesthesia enables the nurses to develop a more completative approach in patient a. Being female c. 40 years old
care. b. A history of Epstein Bar Infection d. Sedentary lifestyle

66. An anesthesia. 30 % at the patient develops spinal headache. This is due to:
a. Epidural c. General 73. Which of the following is an early sign of the disease?
b. Intrathecal d. Local a. Swan neck deformities
b. Stiffness of the knee joints
 c. Stiffness of the finger joints 80. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) is the gold standard treatment for RA. It suppresses
d. Rheumatoid nodule the immune system thus, lessening the sign and symptoms of immune-
suppression. The nurse should know the potential side effect of this drug,
74. Arthrocentesis was performed. This is removal of the fluid from the synovial cavity. Monitoring includes;
Which of the following characteristics of the fluid would indicate sign of RA? a. Monitor ESR c. Monitor the synovial fluid weekly
a. Bloody with bone fragments b. ALT level weekly monitroing d. AST level monitoring weekly
b. Pinksih and foul smelling
c. Whitish and pus is present Situation:
d. Cloudy, Milky with leukocytes present In a client with wide-spread colon cancer. A colectomy is the surgical procedure
of the choice instead of an Abdominal perineal resection.
75. A normal synovial fluid would appear:
a. Clear viscous, straw colored and scanty in volume with few cells present 81. Ileostomy is performed after colectomy. The nurse will expect that the stool of the
b. Dark yellow and copious client will be:
c. White, milky and viscous a. Mushy b. Spicy c. Liquid d. Soft
d. Clear, colorless and translucent similar to egg-white
82. When should the teaching about ileostomy are care commence?
76. Which of the following diagnostics result is indicative of RA? a. Immediately after operation when the anesthesia is wearing off
a. Negative antinuclear antibiotics b. 72 hours after the operation
b. ESR 25 mm/hr c. When readiness and interest is observed
c. Negative C ractive protein d. As soon as the paitent admitted
d. Positive Rheumatoid Factor
83. Which of the following indicates a need for further teaching in client’s with
77. Which of the following is nursing responsibility in client’s taking aspirin? ileostomy?
a. Assess the for epistaxis and purpose a. “I am expecting a change in my diet”
b. Monitor elderlyclient’s for sign of confusion b. “I can remove the appliance during sleep”
c. Administer or empty stomach to enhance absorption c. “I can still swim”
d. Assess for tinnitus or the ringing of the ears. d. “I can prone to dehydration because of the ileostomy”

78. If the clients with gastric ulcer needing anti-inflammatory medication, which of the 84. For the client’s stool to be “Formed” wihch of the following food are added to the
following would the nurse expect would be physician would prescribed? client’s diet?
a. Meloxicam (mobic) c. Naproxen (Naprosyn) a. Boiled rice
b. Incomethacin (Indocin) d. Celecoxib (Celebex) b. Spagheti and macaroni
c. Cheese
79. Mr Que. 61 years old of age is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. He asks if there is d. Bran
a cure for RA. The MOST appropriate response is::
a. “No, Most patients with RA also develop osteoarthritis” 85. An expert nurser in the field of colostomy and ileostomy is called a/an:
b. “Yes, but the patient must take medication for at least 10 years” a. Enterostoma Therapy Nurse c. Nurse oncologist
c. “Yes new drugs being develop afer the cure” b. Ostomy nurse d. Nurse EntroStomist
d. “No, but new drugs being develop can interfere with the body’s reaction to
the inflammation and better control the disease process” Situation:
 During surgical operation, it is inevitable to utilize sutures. The nurse should know 93. Non absorbable culture material such as cotton, nylon and silk are best used in
the basic principles’s in suturing as well as knowledge in selecting sutures and caring for the suturing which of the following abdominal layer?
sutures. a. Skin b. Peritoneum c. Fascia d. Taper

86. Steel has the highest tensile strength among sutures in the non absorbable 94. When least amount of trauma is desire, or when the client is prone to keloid
category. When you say tensile strength. If refers to: formation, the nurse should prepare which type of the needle?
a. The amount of weight or force necessary to break sutures a. Swaged b. Round c. Blunt d. Taper
b. The cross sectional size of the sutures
c. The ability of the sutures to absorb fluid 95. Another alternative “suture” for skin closure is the use of ________________
d. The force necessary to cause the know to slip a. Staple
b. Absorbent dressing
87. In suturing the internal organs such as kidneys, liver, spleen, pancreas, and c. Therapeutic glue
stomach, the nurse knows the type of suture material that the physician will most d. Invisible suture
likely use is:
a. Steel b. Vicryl c. Cotton d. Silk Situation:
After an abdominal surgery, the circulating and scrub nurse have critical
88. If the suttures is remove to soon, the nurse knows that it could lead to failed healing reponsibility about sponge and instrument count.
of the wound as well as infection if the suture ins removed too late, which of the
following can occur? 96. Counting is performed twice. During the preincision phase, the operative phse
a. Itching b. Swelling c. Scarring d. Pain and closing phase. Who counts the sponges. Needles and instruments?
a. The scrub nurse only
89. The nurse noticed that there are yellow and brown crusting around the area of the b. The circulating use only
suture which of the following is the best cleansing medium to remove such crusting? c. The surgeon and the assistant surgeon
a. Hydrogen Peroxide b. Providone c. NSS d. Alcohol d. The scrub nurse and the cirulating nurse

90. If the suture performed in the clients face. The nurse will reinforce the teaching that 97. The layer of the abdoment is divide into 5. Arrange the following from the first
the should return when for suture removal? layer going to the deepest layer.
a. After 7 day c. After 10 days a. Fascia
b. After 3 to 4 days d. The next day b. Muscle
c. Peritoneum
91. Sizes of sutures denote the diameter. The physicain will perform a corneal d. Subcutaneous/Fat
transplant and will suture the eye, the nurse will prepare of the following suture a. 5,4,3,2,1 c. 5,4,1,3,2
size? b. 5,4,2,1,3 d. 5,4,1,2,3
a. 7 b. 5 c.3 d. 9-0
98. When is the first sponge/instrument count reported?
92. Who holds the packet flaps of the sutures to open it and place in the sterile tubal for a. Before closing the subcutaneous layer
use? b. Before peritoneum is close
a. Scrub nurse c. Assistant surgeon c. Before closing the skin
b. Cicularing S d. Surgeon d. Before the fascia is sutured
99. Like any nursing interventions, counts should be documented. To whom does the
scrub report any discripancy of counts so that immediate and appropriate action is
instituted?
a. Anesthesiologist c. OR nurse supervisor
b. Surgeon d. Circularing nurse

100. Which of the following are 2 interventions of the surgical team when an
instrument was confirmed missing?
a. MRI and incidence report
b. CT scan, MRI, incidence report
c. X-RAY and incidence report
d. CT scan and incidence report
 NURSING PRACTICE V – SET B d. Ganioscopy is used to measure that angle of the anterior chamber. A
NURSING PRACTICE V- Care of Clien with Physiologic and narrowed or close anterior chamber is suggestive of close glaucoma
Psychosocial Alterations Part C)
4. How does DIAMOX (Acetazolamid) decrease IOP?
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: a. It increase AH absorption
b. It opens the angle by causing pupil construction
1. This test booklet contain 100 test question c. It decrease AH production
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet. d. It opens the trabecular meshwork
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or
more boxes shaded will be invalid your answer. 5. In client’s with Sulfonamide/Sulfa allergies. Which of the following is used to
4. AVOID ERASURES. decrease IOP by decreasing AH production?
_________________________________________________________________________ a. Timolol, Betaxotol c. Methazolamide Dorzolamid
b. Pilcarpine, Carbachol d. Acetazolamide
INSTRUCTION:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Situation:
Sheet Set. Mental Retardation is an increasely common childhood disorder that impairs
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice II” on the box provided. learning.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box 6. Mental Retardation is:
“B” if your test booklet is Set B. a. A delay in normal growth and development caused by an inadequate
environment
Situation: b. A lack of development of sensory abilities
Glaucoma is the leading cause a blindess in Adults. c. A condition of subaverage intellectual functioning that originates
during the development period and is associated with impairment in
1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for glaucoma? adaptive behavior
a. Wearing contact lenses c. Diabetes d. A severe lag in neuromuscular development and motor abilities
b. African American d. Prolonged steroid use
7. An important principle for the nurse to follow in interacting with retarded
2. Which of the following is a sign/symptoms of glaucoma? children is:
a. Floaters, Curtains in vision a. Seen that if the child appears contented. His needs are being met
b. Hazy, cloudy vision b. Provide an environement appropriate to their development task as
c. Headache, eye pain scheduled
d. Sudden loss of peripheral vision, Halos around lights c. Treat the child according to his chronological age
d. Treat the child according to his developmental level
3. Which of the following is NOT true in glaucoma examination?
a. Perimetry is used to assess visual fields, giving clue to peripheral vision 8. The child was classified as having an IQ of 55. This is said to be:
loss a. Mild Mental Retardation c. Severe Mental Retardation
b. Tonometry is used to assess IOP Greater than 21 mmHg is suggestive b. Moderate Mental Retardation d. Profound Mental Retardation
of glaucoma
c. Opthalmoscopy is used to inspect eye optic nerve. Readness of the 9. The child of the following is true with regards to Mild Mental Retardation?
optic nerve is suggestive glaucoma a. Trainable, Can reach up to 2nd grade and can reach thematurity of a
7 year old
 b. Custodial and barely trainable b. Agoraphobia d. xenophobia
c. Requires total care throughout life, Metal age of a young infant
d. Educable, can reach up to grade 6 and has a maturity of a 12 year old 17. Cecilia problem is that she always sees and thinks negative thing hence she
is always fearful. Phobia is a symptom described as:
10. A child with an IQ of 35-49 is: a. Organic c. Psychotic
a. Barely trainable c. Educable b. Psychosomatic d. neurotic
b. Trainable d. Requires total cares
18. Cecilia has a lot of irrational thoughts: The goal of therapy is to modify her:
11. Which of the following is true with regards to mental retardation? a. Communication c. Observation
a. Mental retardation is always accompanied by physial features b. Cognition d. Perception
b. Heredity and perinatal factors are known to result to impaired
intellectual functioning 19. Cognitive therapy is indicated for Cecilia when she is already able to handle
anxiety reactions. Which of the should the nurse implement?
12. The onset of mental retardationis before the child reaches what particular age? a. Assist her in recognizing irrational beliefs and thoughts
a. 17 b. 16 c. 15 d. 18 b. Help find meaning in her behavior
c. Provide positive reinforcement for acceptable behavior
13. The possible nursing diagnosis for a mentally retarded child who is hyperactive d. Administer anxiolytic drug
is:
a. Impaired physical mobility 20. After discharge, which of these behavior indicate a positive result of being
b. Potential for injury able to overcome her phobia?
c. Impaired social adjustment a. She reads a book in the public library
d. Ineffective coping b. She drives alone along the long expressway
c. She watches television with the family in the recreation room
14. A tranquilizing in calming a hyperactive mentally retarded is: d. She joins an art therapy group
a. Chlorpromazine [Thorazine] c. Imipramine [Tofranil] Situation:
b. Haloperidol [Haldol] d. Daizepam [Valium] Anxiety is a subjective individual experience characterized by feeling of
apprehension due to threats that can be real or imaginary
15. This form of psychotherapy allows the child to experience and express intensive 21. In this level of anxiety, the indivudual is alert and learning is optimal
or troubling emotion in a safe enrionment with a caring individual: a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Panic
a. Play therapy c. Behavior Therapy
b. Milieu therapy d. Gestalt therapy 22. The client is experiencing an increasing hear rate, hyperventilation and a
loud and rapidspeech. He is sweating profusely. All but one of the following
nursing intervention is the least effective except:
a. Stay calm and stay with the client
Situation: b. Give short specific direction
For more than a month how, Cecilia is persistently feeling restless, worried and
c. Teach the proper breasthing and relaxation technique
feeling as if something dreadful is going to happen. She fears being alone in places and
d. Offer self
situation where she thinks that no one might come to rescue her just in case something
happens to her.
23. Selective in attention is seen in:
16. Cesilia is demonstrating:
a. Mild b.Moderate c. Severe d. Panic
a. Acrophobia c. agoraphobia
 Mrs Andres brought his son Juanito, age 3 to the Pediatric clinic. She noticed that
her son is not speaking and tend to repeat everything she says. The mother also told the
24. While Tunnel vision is seen in: nurse that Juanito prefers to be alone, will cry when someone will come near him and
a. Mild b.Moderate c. Severe d. Panic tend to rock himself from morning till he will fell asleep.

25. Learning and problem solving is not anymore possible beginning in what level of 31. An essential clinical feature of autistic disorder is:
anxiety? a. Inability to concentrate in any task
a. Mild b.Moderate c. Severe d. Panic b. Easily distructed
c. Stereotyped motor behaviors
d. Poor motor skills
Situation:
Miguel is a 7 year old child who is always being teased as “NERD” by schoolmates.
32. Head banging is a common manifestation of a autistic child. A relevant
nursing diagnosis would be:
26. Miguel exhibits are very advanced language for his age. He is quite a loner with a. Activity intolerance c. Risk for injury
poor peer relationship leading to social isolation. He has pervasive interest in b. Temprer tantrums d. Talks incoherently
video games. This initial signs would lead to a probable diagnosis of:
a. Austism b. ADHD c. Reti’s d. Asperger’s 33. According to freud, Juanito is at what psychosexual stage?
a. Anal b. Oral c. Phallic d. Latency
27. Which of the following is not PDD?
a. Austism b. Tourrete’s c. Reti’s d. Asperger’s 34. Typically if there is a change ins the environment, the child will manifest
which of the following:
28. Miguel’s sister, Jana 10 month old child exhibits different manifestation. Instead a. Clinging behavior c. Suicide
of walking. She is bunny hopping movements. Her mother told the nurse that b. Temper tantrums d. Talks incoherently
Jana is normal until last month, when these symptom begun: Non
communicative, Stereotyped hand gestures and frequent holding of breasth that 35. The best treament approach for autistic children is encouraging their desired
leads to cyanosis. This indicative of: behavior through positive reinforcement. This is:
a. Tourrete’s b. ADHD c. Rett’s d.
a. Milieu Therapy c. Play Therapy
Asperger’s
b. Psychoanalysis d. Behavior Therapy
29. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for children with rett’s
disorder? 36. There is no definite cause identified for autism, but a strong link has been
found on:
a. Risk for injury c. Impaired social interaction
a. Environment factors c. Upbringing
b. Ineffective individual coping d. Altered thought process
b. Genetic factors d. MMR vaccination
30. A group os disorder characterized by severe and pervasive abnormalities in
37. Which of the following is try about Autism?
social interaction skills, communication skills, presence of stereotyped behavior
a. Autism is common among boys that girls?
and activitues in know as:
b. Autism is common among girls than boys?
a. ADHD b. Autism c. PDD d. Asperger’s
c. MMR vaccination has been strongly linked in the development of
autism
Situation:
d. Autistic children usually develops normal social skills
 c. Gait disturbance, Muscle rigity, Bradykinase
38. The mother of Juanito the nurse. When Autism diagnose? The nurse will d. Pill rolling tremors, Cogwheel rigity, Bradykinesia
response:
a. Autism diagnosed after 3 year old 43. The characteristic tremor in client’s with parkinson described as:
b. Autism diagnosed after 6 years old a. Initention tremors c. Rest in tremors
c. At 4 years old autism is diagnosed b. Tremors that increases during motion d. Tremors that decreases
d. Autism is diagnose before 3 year old during motions

39. If a child with autism develop destructive behavior. The drug of choice that the 44. Levodopa is the most effective treatment in Parkinson’s disease. You know
nurse will expected that the physician will give to control self injury is: that it is exerts action by:
a. Chlorpromazine (Thhorazine) a. Counteracts the action of acetylcholin thus reducing exitation
b. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) b. Increases dopamine by releasing it in neuronal storage sites
c. Time-out c. Enhances the response of dopamine receptor to dopamine
d. Valium, Librium or other Anxiolytic d. The drug is converted to dopamine in the basal ganglia producing
relief of symptoms
40. Chlorpromazine was given to the chil. Which is true the regard to this
medication? 45. The most common defense mechanism used by phobic client is:
a. Expect that the child will be usually alert and hyperactive during the the a. Supression c. Denial
rapeutic period b. Rationalization d. Displacement
b. The mother should decrease the fluid intake of the child as this drug
causes fluid retention 46. The goal of the therapy is Phobia is:
c. The the drug is given in order to decrease the child hyperactivity a. Change her lifestyle
d. The mother should avoid overesposing the shild to sunlight for the child
b. Ignore tension producing situation
might develop rashes due to photosensitivity
c. Change her reaction towards anxiety
d. Eliminate fear producing situations
Situation:
Rene, a bank manager exhibits tremors and muscular rigidity. He was prescending
47. The therapy most effective for client’s with phobia is:
sign and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
a. Hypnotherapy c. Cognitive
41. Though the cause is unknown. It was believed that the sign and symptoms of b. Group therapy d. Behavior therapy
Parkinson’s disease is brought by the:
48. The fear and anxiety relate to phobia is said to be abruptly decrease when
a. Destruction of the acethylcholine receptor in the neuromotor junction
the patient is exposed to what feared is through:
b. Increase in the production dopamine by the subtantia nigra of the basal
a. Guided imagry c. Flooding
ganglia
c. Autoimmune encephalopathy b. Systemaric desensitization d. Hypotherapy
d. Destrcution of the dopaminergic cell in the basal ganglia
49. Based on the presence of symptoms. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
42. The three cardinal signs associates with parkinson’s disease are: a. Self esteem disturbance
a. Bradykinesia, tremor, Muscle rigity b. ACTIVITY intolerance
c. Impaired adjustment
b. Hypolinesia, Gald disturbance, Muscle rigity
d. Ineffective individual coping
 d. Thick liquids or Soft, semisolid diet are given to reduce aspiration
Situation: risk, avoiding thin liquids
Mang Jose, a 39 years old farmer unmarried, had been confined in the National
Situation:
center of mental health for three year with a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
Stroke is the primary cerebrovascular disorder in the Philippines and in the world.
Although preventive efforts have brought about a steady decline in incidence over the last
50. The most cmmon defense mechanism used by aparanoid client is:
several tear. Cerebrovascular disorder are still the second leading cause of death in the
a. Displacement c. Rationalization
country.
b. Suppression d. Projection
56. There are major type and causes of stroke. Which of the following are due to
51. When Mang Jose say to you. “The voices are telling me bad things again” the the atherosclerotic plaques in the large blood vessels of the brain.
best response is:
a. Large artery thrombotic stroke c. Cyotogenic stroke
a. “Whose voice are those?”
b. Cardiogenic stroke d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. “I doubt what the voices are teling you”
c. “ do not hear the voice you say you hear”
d. “Are you sure you hear these voice?” 57. Stroke is the common cause of aphasia. The following are dysfunction of
language and communications.EXCEPT:
52. A relevant nursing diagnosis for the client with auditory hallucination is: a. Dysarthria c. Apraxia
b. Aphasia d. Hemianopsia
a. Sensory perceptual alteration
b. Altered though process
58. The patient picks up a fork and attempt comb his hair with it, this is
c. Impaired social interaction
d. Impaired wever communication a. Anomia b. Aphasia c. Apraxia d. Agnosia

53. During mealtime, Jose refuse to eat telling that the food was poisoend. The 59. The patient develops cognitive deficits. Which nursing implication is
nurse should: appropriate?
a. Ignore his remark a. Remind patient to turn head in the direction visual loss
b. Instruct patient to exercise the unaffected side
b. Offer him food in his own container
c. Encourage patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet
c. She him how rational his thinking is
d. Respect his refusal to eat d. Reorient patient to time place and situation frequently

54. When communicating with Jose, the nurse considers the following except: 60. Antiplatelet medication decrease the incidence of cerebral infarction.
a. Be warm and enthusiastic Currently, the most cost effective antiplatelet regimen is
b. Refrain from touching Jose a. Plavix b. Aspirin c. Ticlid d. Tissue plaminogen
Situation:
c. Do not argue regarding his hallucination and delusion
Autoimmune disorders are usually have a slow, progressive course, requiring the
d. Use simple, clear language
nurse to manage symptoms and facilitate patients and families understanding of the
55. A with parkinson’s high risk for aspiration due to the weakness of the muscle of disease process.
swallowing. Which of the following is NOT an applicable nursing intervention to
61. Autoimmune nervous system disorders include, EXCEPT:
prevent aspiration?
a. Crutzfeidth-jakob disease
a. The should sit upright during eating
b. Multiple sclrerosis
b. When swallowing, ask the to look up
c. Myasthenia gravis
c. When swallowing, ask the to look down
 d. Guillain barre’s syndrome
68. Which of the following is suitable activity that a nurse should assign for a
62. The client has multiple sclerosis. The primary symptoms most common reported manic client?
are a. Delivering supply of linen to other rooms
a. Fatigue depression, diplopia b. Conducting a drama workshop
b. Ptosiplopia, generalized weakness c. Engaging in activity therapy and group exercises
c. Ascending paralysis and diminished reflexes of lower extremeties d. Painting a mural with others patients
d. Fatigue, fasciculation and failure of respiratory muscles
69. The doctor ordered lithium. You know that this drug is taken:
63. The cause of multiple sclerosis is in area of ongoing research. The most a. As long as s/s mania is evident
common effect of autoimmune is b. A long as the phycician continues the order
a. Lesion a the myoneural junction c. Untill mania and the bipolar disorder has been cured
b. Demyelination of the brain and spinal cord d. For life
c. Paralysis in the feet then goes to the lungs
d. Excessive firing of neurons 70. The defense mechanism associated with the manic stage of bipolar disorder
is:
64. The patient with mysthenia gravis have undergone tension test. The test show a. Denial c. Sublimation
mysthenic crisis. The nurse must prepare b. Displacement d. Projection
a. Atropine sulface c. Levadopa
b. Neostigmine d. Baclofen Situation:
Schizophrenia is mental illness that leads to a disturbing datachment from reality.
65. The possible cause of guillian barre’ syndrome is
a. A recent upper respiratory tract infection 71. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with active psychosis. The
b. A recent GIT infection physician diagnoses schizophrenia after ruling out several other conditions.
c. A recent flu vaccine Schizophrenia is characterized by:
d. All of the above a. Loss of identity and self-esteem
Situation: b. Multiple personalities and decreased self-estemm
Bipolar disorder involves extreme mood swings from mania to Depression. clients c. Disturbance in affect, perception, and thought content and form
with Bipolar disorder receive a very high nursing attention due to the increasing rate of d. Persistent memory immpairment and confusion
suicide related to the stress. Gerard is a with Bipolar I disorder: Manic episode.
72. The nurse is caring for a client who experiences false sensory perceptions
66. Which of the following is true about reaction? with not basis in reality. These perceptions are known as:
a. It is a expression of destruction impulse a. Looseness of association c. Delusion
b. A means of coping with frustration and disappointments b. Hallucination d. Perseveration
c. A means of ignoring reality
d. An attempt to ward of fallings of underlying depression 73. A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse. “My intestines are rotted from the
warms chewing on them” This statement indicates a:
67. During a nurse patient interaction, Gerald jumps rapidly from one topic to a. Delusion of persecution c. Somatic delusion
another, this is known as: b. Delusion of grandeur d. Jealous delusion
a. Flight of ideas c. Ideas of reference
b. Clang association d. Neologism
74. A client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with diagnosis of catatonic a. Dryness of the mouth, constipation and urinary retention
schizophrenia. During the physical examination, the client’s arm remains b. Fatifur, sleepness, nausea and vomiting
outstretched after the nurse obtains, the pulse and blood pressure, and the c. Amenorrhea, terratogenicity, decreased sperm motility, osteoporosis
nurse must reposition the arm. This client is exhibiting d. Jaundice, aranylocytosis, pseudoparkinsonism, NMS
a. Akathisia c. Echopraxia
b. Waxy flexibility d. echolalia Situation:
Jimmy, 43 year old father of 8 has been diagnosed with Alcoholism.
75. An agitated and incoherent client, age 29 come to the emergency department
with complaints of visual and auditory hallucinations. The history reveals that 81. Alcoholics are said to have problems during the:
the client was hopitalized for paranoid schizophrenia from ages 20 to 21. The a. Oral stage b. Anal stage c. Phallic stage d. Genital stage
physician prescribed haloperidol (haldol). 5 mg I.M. the nurse understands that
this drugs is used in this client to treat: 82. Blood alcohol level is the best evidence of alcohol use. It should be
a. Psychoses c. Tardive dyskinesia withdrawn as soon as possible within 24 hours. A level that indicates
b. Dementia d. Dyskinesia intoxication is a least.
a. 0.10 b. 0.15 c. 0.20 d. .025
76. A client age 36, with paranoid schizophrenia believes the room is bugged by the
central intelligence agency and that his roommate is a foreign spy. The client 83. Which of the following is the drug of choice to ease the withdrawal symptom
has never has a romantic years. Based on Erikson’s theories, the nurse should of an alcholic client?
recognize that this client is in which stage of psychosocial development? a. Flumazenil b. Naltrexone c. Disulfiram d.Librium
a. Autonomy versus shame and doubt c. Generativity versus stagnation
b. Integrity versus despair d. Trust versus mistrust 84. The nurse in the subtance abuse unit is trying to encourage a client to attend
alcoholics anonymous meetings. When the client asks the nurse what he
77. Problems with paranoia often originates during which stage of development? must do to become a member, the nurse should respond:
a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Latency a. “you must first stop drinking.”
b. “your physician must refer you to this program.”
78. Since admission 4 days ago, a client has refused to take a shower stating. c. “admitted you’re powerless over alcohol and that you need help.”
“There was poison cyrstals hidden in the showerhead. They’ll kill me if I take a d. “you must bring along a fiends who will support you.”
shower.” Which nursing action is most appropriate? 85. The nurse knows that in group theraphy, the maximum number of members
a. Dismantling the showerheard and showing the client that there is to include is:
nothing in it a. 4 b.8 c. 10 d. 16
b. Explaining that the other clients are complaining about the client’s body 86. A client with alcohol problems start talk to nurse about wanting a drink. Which
odor of the following terms best described wtht this client is pexperiencing?
c. Asking a security officer to assist in giving the client a shower a. Craving c. Recidivism
d. Accepting thes fears and allowing the client to take a sponge bath b. Potentiation d. Tolerance

79. Thoranize (chlorpromazine) is a phenothiazine class medication and is 87. A client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus
classified as: sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated
a. Antimanic b. Minor tranquilizer c. Antidepressant d. a the time of the accident. Laboraroty test reveals a blood alcohol level o .
Major tranquilizer 020% (200 mg/dL). The client later admits to drinking heavily for year. During
hoptalization, the client periodically complains for tingling and numbness in
80. Which of the following is an adverse effect of thorazine?
 the hands and feet. The nurse realizes that these symptoms probably result 94. This mineral works with vitamin E to strengthen the immunisystem and
from. increase the absorption of Vitamin E leading to an increased of antioxidant
a. Acetate accumulation c. Triglyceride build cup effect:
b. Thriamine deficiency d. A below-normal serum patassium level a. Zinc b. Iodine c. Magnesium d. Selenium

88. Which assessement finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal? 95. One of your client in the wellness center is Jodie 23 year old client weighing
a. Heart rate 120 to 140 beats/ minute c. Blood pressure of 100/70 190lbs standing 6”3 in height. Jodie ask if she should lose weight. Using the
mmHg MNI calculation, you know that Jodie is
b. Heart rate 50 to 60 beats/ minute d. Blood pressure of 130/80 a. Overweight c Obese
mmHg b. Underweigh d. Normal

89. An increasing intake of a medication or substance to achieve the same desired Situation:
effect is known as: Anorexia and Bulimia nervosa are both an eating disorder that can cause that
a. Abuse b. Dependence c. Tolerance d. Intoxication consequences

Situation: 96. The nurse is caring for a female client who was admitted to he mental helath
You are handling a nutrition class on the hospital wellness center. unit recently for anorexia nervosa. The client with anorexia nervosa manages
anxiety by:
90. Recitivism in alcoholism is best described as: a. Always reinforcing self approval
a. Denying the he is drinking alcohol b. Having the need always to make the right decision
b. After a log rehabilitation, the client has been able to refrain from c. Engaging in immoral acts
drinking alcohol again d. Observing rigid rules and rugulations
c. The client still has a residual effect from alcohol even though the
stopped drinking such as chronic lethargy, constipation and decreased 97. For a client anorexia nervosa, which goal takes the highest priority?
concentration as well as evidence of liver damage a. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
d. Relapse after rehabilitation b. The client will make a contact with the nrse that sets a target weight
c. The client will identify sell-perception about body size as unrealistic
d. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of
91. Some vitamins are stored by the body therefore, people not need to take them
self-starvation
daily. Which of the following vitamin is stored?
a. A c. C
b. Riboflaving d. Thiamine 98. A nurse is assessing an adolescent gift recently diagnosed with an eating
disorder and symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings
92. 80% of the mineral found in the body are? is expected based on the laboratory test result?
a. Sodium and magnesium c. Flouride and iron a. Hypocalcemia c. Hypokalemia
b. Zinc and selenium d. Calcium and phosphorus b. Hyperkalemia d. Hypoglycemia

93. Which of the following are micro minerals? 99. While in bulimia nervosa. An electrolyte disturbance that usually occurs is”
a. Iron, zinc, manganese c. Sodium, magnesium, potassium a. Hypocalcemia c. Hypokalemia
b. Copper, cobalt, chromium d. Selenium, flouride, iodine b. Hyperkalemia d. Hypoglycemia
100. The most common cause of death, associated with Electrolyte disturbance
seen in anorexia nervosa is”
a. Liver damage c. Kidney failure
b. Cardiac arrhythmias d. Irreversible brain damage