Ec Ese-2015 Obj 2 Set A Withkey

Test Booklet Series
Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

(OBJECTIVE TYPE)
PAPER – II A
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:2: E&T Engg. Paper_2
01. A transistor uses potential divider method of 03. An FET-input IC operational amplifier has
biasing. R1 = 50 k, R2 = 10 k and RE = 1 an open loop differential gain of 1,00,000
k. If VCC = 12 V and VBE = 0.1 V, then IC and a common mode gain of 25. Then the
is common mode rejection ratio is
(a) 19 mA (b) 2 mA (a) 46 dB (b) 72 dB
(c) 1.9 mA (d) 0.19 mA (c) 106 dB (d) 144 dB
01. Ans: (c) 03. Ans: (b)
02. Consider the following statements in the 04. In biasing of BJT, the slope of load line can
context of the conditions needed to operate a be calculated using
Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT) in active (a) Operating base current
region in a linear circuit: (b) Operating collector current
1. The emitter diode must be forward (c) Operating point co-ordinates
biased (d) Minimum and maximum values of
2. The collector diode must be reverse collector current.
biased 04. Ans: (d)
3. The voltage across the collector diode
must be greater than the breakdown 05. Leakage current approximately doubles for
voltage. every 10C increase in temperature of a
4. The voltage across the collector diode silicon transistor. If a silicon transistor has
must be less then the breakdown ICBO = 1000 nA at 30C, what is its leakage
voltage. current at 90C?
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 32 A
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 64 A
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 16 A
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 128 A
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
05. Ans: (b)
02. Ans:(c)
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06. Which of the following statements are 2. The high frequency response is limited
correct? by coupling capacitors.
1. ICO for germanium is much greater than 3. The Miller capacitance reduces the gain
for silicon. at high frequencies.
2. The steady-state temperature rise at the 4. As the gain is increased the bandwidth
collector junction is proportional to the gets reduced.
power dissipated at the junction. Which of the above statements are correct?
3. To avoid thermal runaway the required (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
condition is that the rate at which heat (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
is released at the collector junction 08. Ans: (c)
must exceed the rate at which the heat
can be dissipated under steady-state 09. The transfer function of any stable system
conditions. which has no zeros or poles in the right half
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only of the s-plane is said to be
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (a) Minimum phase transfer function
06. Ans: (d) (b) Non-minimum phase transfer function
(c) Minimum frequency response function
07. Upper 3 dB cut-off of common emitter (d) Minimum gain transfer function
amplifier depends on 09. Ans: (a)
(a) E-B junction capacitance
(b) C-B junction capacitance 10. The h-parameters of a CE amplifier feeding
(c) Capacitances of both junctions a load of 10 k are hie = 1 k, hfe = 50,
(d) Coupling capacitor capacitance hre = 0, and 1/hoe = 40 k. The voltage gain
07. Ans: (c) would be
(a) – 40 (b) – 100
08. Consider the following statements in respect (c) – 400 (d) – 500
of an R-C coupled transistor amplifier:
10. Ans: (d)
1. The low frequency response is
determined by the transistor junction
capacitors.
11. Which of the following is the principal 14. Consider the following statements pertaining
factor that contributes to the doubling of the to frequency response of RC coupled
conversion efficiency in a transformer amplifier:
coupled amplifier? 1. Coupling capacitance affects high
(a) Reducing the power dissipated in the frequency response.
transistor 2. Bypass capacitance affects high
(b) Eliminating the power dissipation in the frequency response.
transformer 3. Coupling capacitance affects low
(c) Elimination of dc power dissipated in the frequency response.
load 4. Bypass capacitance affects low
(d) Impedance matching of the transformer frequency response.
11. Ans: (c) Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
12. A power amplifier operated from 12 V
(b) 3 and 4
battery gives an output of 2 W. The
(c) 2 and 3
maximum collector current in the circuit is
(d) 1 and 4
(a) 166.7 A (b) 166.7 mA
14. Ans: (b)
(c) 166.7 A (d) 16.67 mA
12. Ans: (b)
15. An operational amplifier possesses
(a) Very large input resistance and very
13. The selectivity of tuned radio frequency
large output resistance
(TRF) receiver is poor because
(b) Very large input resistance and very
1. Q-factor requirement of tuned circuits in
small output resistance
RF amplifier is not fixed.
(c) Very small input resistance and very
2. Q required for upper side of short wave
small output resistance
is 2000.
(d) Very small input resistance and very
3. Q-factor is zero.
large output resistance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
15. Ans: (b)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
13. Ans: (b)
16. A power supply uses bridge rectifier with 19. In a voltage regulator, zener diode is
capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is 1. Connected in series with filter output.
defective, then 2. Forward biased.
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than 3. Connected in parallel with filter output.
its expected value. 4. Reverse biased.
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its Which of the above are correct?
expected value. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
3. The surge current will increase manifold. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Which of the above statements are correct? 19. Ans: (b)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 20. For an op-Amp phase shift oscillation, the
16. Ans: (d) frequency of oscillations is
17. In an L-section filter, a bleeder resistance is 1 1
(a) (b)
connected across the load to 2 R C 2 R 2 C 2
(a) Provide good regulation for all values of 1 1

(c) (d)
load 2 R C 6 2 R C 3
(b) Ensure lower PIV of the diodes 20. Ans: (c)
(c) Ensure lower values of capacitance in
the filter 21. Consider the following statements:
(d) Reduce ripple content A. Schottky diode is included when a
17. Ans: (a) transistor is fabricated so as to
1. Prevent the transistor from full saturation.
18. A full wave rectifier uses 2 diodes. The
2. Eliminate saturation delay time.
internal resistance of each diode is 20 .
3. Achieve better switching speed.
The transformer RMS secondary voltage
4. Reduce thermal stability.
from centre tap to each end of secondary is
50 V and the load resistance is 980 . Mean (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
load current will be (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4
(a) 45 A (b) 4.5 A 21. Ans: (b)
(c) 45 mA (d) 45 A
18. Ans: (c)
22. The transistors T1 and T2 shown in the figure 25. The minimum number of gates required to
have a threshold voltage of 1 volt. The realize the function AB  C (Using NAND
device parameters K1 and K2 of T1 and T2 gates only) is
are 36 A/V and 9 A/V respectively. The
2 2
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
output voltage V0 is nearly 25. Ans: (a)
5
26. What is the correct sequence when the logic
T1
families TTL, ECL, IIL and CMOS are
arranged in descending order of fan-out
V0
T2
capabilities?
(a) CMOS, TTL, ECL and IIL
(b) IIL, TTL, ECL and CMOS
(c) IIL, ECL TTL and CMOS
(a) 1 V (b) 2 V (c) 3 V (d) 4 V
(d) CMOS, ECL, TTL and IIL
22. Ans: (c)
26. Ans: (d)
23. On simplification of expression 27. K-map method of simplification can be
Y = (A  B  C ) (A  B  C) , using Boolean applied when the given function is in

(a) Product of sum form
algebra, the solution is
(b) Sum of product form
(a) (A  B  C) (A  B  C)
(c) Canonical form (d) Any form
(b) (A  B  C ) (A  B  C)
27. Ans: (d)
(c) (A  B  C ) (A  C  B)
28. If the inverting input terminal of an
(d) ( B  C  A) (A  B  C )
operational amplifier is grounded and a
23. Ans: (b)
sinusoidal voltage waveform is applied at
24. The large signal bandwidth of an operational the non-inverting input terminal, the output
amplifier is limited by its will be
(a) CMRR (b) Slew rate (a) Square wave (b) Triangular wave
(c) Gain-bandwidth product (c) Half-wave rectified sine wave
(d) Input impedance (d) Full-wave rectified sine wave
24. Ans: (c) 28. Ans: (a)
29. The function Y  A  B  C in canonical sum 33. Which of the following statements are
of product form is correct?
(a) Y =  1, 3, 5, 6, 7 1. A magnitude comparator is a sequential

circuit that compares 2 numbers.
(b) Y =  1, 4, 5, 6, 7
2. A decoder with enable input can function
(c) Y =  2, 3, 5, 6
as a demultiplexer.
(d) Y =  2, 3, 5, 7
3. The number of AND gates in a 32-to-1
29. Ans: (b)
line multiplexer is 32.
4. The number of 3 × 8 decoders required to
30. The correct instruction execution sequence
realize a 6 × 64 decoder is 8.
is
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Execute, Decode and Fetch (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Fetch, Execute and Decode 33. Ans: only 2 &3 are correct
(c) Execute, Fetch and Decode
34. The number of branches of the root loci of
(d) Fetch, Decode and Execute
the equation s(s+4) (s+5) +K(s+2) = 0 is
30. Ans: (d)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
31. A half adder can be constructed using When K varies from –  to + .
(a) One XOR and one OR gate with their 34. Ans: (b)
outputs connected in parallel

35. What is the frequency of the output Q for
(b) One XOR and one OR gate with their
the circuit shown in the figure?
outputs connected in series
(c) One XOR gate and one AND gate
Output
(d) Two XNOR gates only Q
31. Ans: (c) D Type FF

CLOCK Q
CLK
32. For and SR flip-flop, S and R are made
equal to (a) Twice the input clock frequency
(b) Half the input clock frequency
1. What is the value of Q? (c) Same as the input clock frequency
(a) Unchanged (b) Clear to 0 (d) Inverse of the propagation delay of the
(c) Set to 1 (d) Indeterminate flip-flop
32. Ans: (d) 35. Ans: (b)
36. Four memory chips of 16 × 4 sizes have 39. The speed of conversion is maximum in
their address buses connected together. This (a) Successive approximation A/D converter
system will be of size (b) Parallel comparative A/D converter
(a) 64 × 4 (c) Counter ramp A/D converter
(b) 32 × 8 (d) Dual slope A/D converter
(c) 16 × 16 39. Ans: (b)
(d) 256 × 1
40. In an 8-bit D/A converter, the reference
36. Ans: (c)
voltage used is 10 V. What voltage is
represented by 10100001?
37. The time required for the step response to
(a) 0.00392 V (b) 6.314 V
decrease and stay within a specified
(c) 6.288 V (d) 5.814 V
percentage of its final value is called
40. Ans: (c)
(a) Delay time (b) Rise time
(c) Lag time (d) Settling time
41. When the unit impulse response of a second
37. Ans: (d)
1  0 .8 t
order system is e sin 0.6t, the natural
6
38. A converter type 8-bit A/D converter is frequency and damping ratio of the system
driven by a 500 kHz clock. What are the are respectively
maximum counts, average conversion time (a) 1 rad/s and 0.8
and maximum conversion rate respectively? (b) 0.64 rad/s and 0.8
–6
(a) 256 counts, 200 × 10 sec and 1000 (c) 1 rad/s and 1
conversions/sec (d) 0.64 rad/s and 1
–6
(b) 256 counts, 256 × 10 sec and 1953 41. Ans: (a)
conversions/sec
(c) 128 counts, 256 × 10–6 sec and 1200 42. The second-order system defined by
conversions/sec 25
is given a step input. The time
s  5s  25
2
(d) 128 counts, 200 × 10–6 sec and 1000

taken for the output to settle within  2% is
conversions/sec
(a) 1.2 s (b) 2 s
38. Ans: (b)
(c) 1.6 s (d) 0.4 s
42. Ans: (c)
43. A 4-bit modulo-6 ripple counter uses J-K 46. The effects of feedback on stability and
flip-flops. If the propagation delay of each sensitivity are
flip-flop is 50 ns, the maximum clock (a) Negative feedback improves stability
frequency that can be used is and system response is less sensitive to
(a) 5 MHz (b) 6.95 MHz external inputs and parameter
(c) 10 MHz (d) 20 MHz variations
43. Ans: (a) (b) Feedback does not affect stability but
system response is insensitive to
44. The following switching functions are to be disturbances and parameter variations
implemented using a Decoder: (c) Feedback does not affect stability and
f1 =  m (1, 2, 4, 8, 10, 14) system response is sensitive to
f2 =  m (2, 5, 9, 11,) disturbances and parameter variations
f3 =  m (2, 4, 5, 6, 7) (d) Negative feedback affects stability and
The minimum configuration of the decoder system response is more sensitive to
should be disturbances and parameter variations
(a) 2 – to – 4 lines 46. Ans: (a)
(b) 3 – to – 8 lines
(c) 4 – to – 16 lines 47. Which of the following techniques are used
(d) 5 – to – 32 lines to determine relative stability of a closed
44. Ans: (c) loop linear system?

1. Bode plot
45. Transistor is in saturation when 2. Nyquist plot
IC 3. Nichol’s chart
(a) IB = IC (b) I B 
dc 4. Routh-Hurwitz criterion
IC (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) IB = 0 (d) I B 
dc (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
45. Ans: (b) (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. Ans: (c)
: 10 : E&T Engg. Paper_2
48. A 4-bit D/A converter gives and output Which of these are correct?
voltage of 4.5 V for an input code of 1001. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
The output voltage for an input code of 0110 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
is 51. Ans: (d)
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V
(c) 3.0 V (d) 4.5 V 52. The oscillation frequency of the system with
48. Ans: (c) the characteristic equation
s6 + 2s5 + 3s4 + 4s3 + 3s2 + 2s + 1 = 0 is
49. Given that the transfer function (a) +1 radian/sec (b) – 1 radian/sec
K (c) j1 radian/sec (d) –j1 radian/sec
G (s)  , the type and order of this
s (1  sT)
2
52. Ans: (a)
system are respectively
(a) 5 and 2 (b) 2 and 2 53. The closed loop transfer function of a unity
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 3 100
negative feedback system is .
49. Ans: (c) s  8s  100
2
Its open loop transfer function is

50. The feedback system with characteristic 100 1
(a) (b)
equation s4 + 20Ks3 + 5s2 + 10s + 15 = 0 is s8 s  8s
2
(a) Stable for all values of K 100 100

(c) (d)
s  8s
2
s  8s
2
(b) Stable for positive values of K

53. Ans: (d)
(c) Stale for 7.0 < K < 
(d) Unstable for any value of K
54. The Laplace transform of e–2t sin 2t is
50. Ans: (d)
2s 2
(a) (b)
(s  2) 2  22 (s  2) 2  42
51. The Bode plot of the transfer function
2 2s
G(s)=s is (c) (d)
(s  2) 2  42 (s  2) 2  22
1. Constant magnitude
2. 20 dB/decade
54. Ans: (c)
3. Constant phase shift angle
4. Constant phase shift of /2
55. In a closed loop system for which the output 59. Consider the following statements:
is the speed of a motor, the output rate The effect of phase lead network is given as
control can be used to 1. Increased velocity constant.
(a) Limit the speed of the motor 2. Increased phase margin.
(b) Limit the torque output of the motor 3. Increased bandwidth.
(c) Reduce the damping of the system 4. Slower response.
(d) Limit the acceleration of the motor Which of the above statements are correct?
55. Ans: (d) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
59. Ans: (a)
56. The roots of the characteristic equation 1 +
G(s) H (s) = 0 are the same as the 60. A binary channel with capacity 63 kbits/s is
(a) Poles of the closed loop transfer function available for PCM voice transmission. If
(b) Poles of the open loop transfer function signal is band limited to 5 kHz, then the
(c) Zeros of the closed loop transfer function appropriate values of quantizing level L and
(d) Zeros of the open loop transfer function the sampling frequency will be
56. Ans: (a) (a) 64 and 7.2 kHz (b) 32 and 10.5 kHz
(c) 64 and 10.5 kHz (d) 32 and 7.2 kHz
57. In a servo-system, the device used for 60. Ans:(c)
providing derivative feedback is known as
61. Which of the following statements are
(a) Synchro (b) Servomotor
correct for Bode plots?
(c) Potentiometer (d) Tachogenerator
1. Gain margin and phase margin can be
57. Ans: (d) easily determined.
2. Absolute and relative stability of only
58. The transfer function of a controller is
minimum-phase systems can be
1  3s determined.
GC(s) = . The maximum phase control
1 s
3. Gain margin is positive and system is
provided by this controller is
stable, if magnitude of L(j) at phase
(a) 30 lead (b) 30 lag
crossover is positive.
(c) 45 lead (d) 45 lag
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
58. Ans: (a) (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
61. Ans: (c)
62. A communication channel disturbed by (a) 20 kHz (b) 32 kHz

Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 6 kHz (c) 22 kHz (d) 44 kHz
and S/N ratio of 15. The maximum 65. Ans: (d)
transmission rate that such a channel can
support is 66. A sinusoidal audio signal is given by es = 15
(a) 2.4 kbits/sec (b) 24 kbits/sec sin 2 (2000t). It modulates a sinusoidal
(c) 32 kbits/sec (d) 48 kbits/sec carrier wave ec = 60 sin 2 (105t). The value
62. Ans: (b) of amplitude modulation index must be
(a) 0.5 (b) 4
63. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 20 kHz (c) 0.6 (d) 0.25
and the highest frequency component 66. Ans: (d)
present is 800 kHz. The carrier frequency
used for this AM signal is 67. A half duty cycle rectangular clock output is
(a) 710 kHz (b) 705 kHz sampled at 5 times its rate. Spectrum of the
(c) 700 kHz (d) 790 kHz sampled clock will be having mirror image
63. Ans: (d) in negative frequency domain of a
(a) Sampled sinc pulse
64. The aerial current of a AM transmitter is (b) Periodic sinc pulse
18A when un-modulated, but increases to 20 (c) Periodic sampled sinc pulse
A when modulated. The modulation index is (d) None of the above
(a) 0.68 (b) 0.73 67. Ans: (a)
(c) 0.89 (d) 0.98
64. Ans: (a) 68. A signal of maximum frequency of 2 MHz
modulated by 4 GHz carrier is DSB/SC. If
65. A carrier wave is phase modulated with the resultant signal is sampled ideally as
frequency deviation of 2 kHz by a single low pass signal, the minimum sampling
tone frequency of 2 kHz. If the single tone frequency should be
frequency is increased to 20 kHz, assuming (a) 4 MHz (b) 8 MHz
that phase deviation remains unchanged, (c) 4.004 GHz (d) 8.008 GHz
bandwidth of the PM signal is 68. Ans: (c)
69. If n1 and n2 are the refractive indices of the 72. The anti-aliasing filter has a higher cut-off
core and cladding respectively, the frequency fm. Its output is sampled
maximum acceptance angle at the air-core periodically every TS seconds. For proper
interface should be recovery of the signal at the receiver, TS
n2 must be
(a) tan 1 (b) sin 1 n 22  n 12
n 1` 1 1
(a) TS  (b) TS 
n1 (2f m ) (2f m )
(c) sin 1 n 12  n 22 (d) tan 1
n2 2 2
(c) TS  (d) TS 
69. Ans: (c) fm fm
72. Ans: (b)
70. Which of the following statements regarding
binary counter are correct ?
73. A binary channel with capacity 36 kbits/s is
1. Clock inputs of all the flip-flops of a
available for PCM voice transmission. If
synchronous counter are applied from
signal is band limited to 3.2 kHz. Then the
the same source whereas those in an
appropriate values of quantizing level L and
asynchronous counter are from different
sampling frequency will be
sources.
(a) 64 and 7.2 kHz
2. Asynchronous counter has ripple effects
(b) 32 and 7.2 kHz
whereas synchronous counter has not.
(c) 64 and 3.6 kHz
3. Only J-K flip-flops can be used in
(d) 32 and 3.6 kHz
synchronous counter whereas
73. Ans: (b)
asynchronous counter can be designed
with any type of flip-flops.
74. A fibre-optic cable has the indices of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
refraction of core of 1.6 and of cladding of
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
1.4. For an angle of incidence 70, the angle
70. Ans: (d)
of return light ray will be
71. Maximum frequency reflected from (a) 35 (b) 61
ionosphere is 9 MHz on a particular day.
(c) 70 (d) 90
The maximum ion density/metre3 is
74. Ans: (d)
8 6 12 9
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 10 (d) 10
71. Ans: (d)
75. In an optical communication system, having 3. Using only a series turned circuit as a
an operating wavelength  in metres, only load on the amplifier.
X% of its source frequency can be used as 4. Using the negative resistance device as a
its channel bandwidth. The system is to be load on the amplifier.
used for transmitting TV signal requiring a Which of the above statements are correct?
bandwidth of f Hz. The number of channels (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
transmitted by this system simultaneously is (b) 1 and 2 only
(c = speed of light) (c) 2 and 3 only
100X C 100 f (d) 3 and 4 only
(a) (b)
f XC 77. Ans: (b)
XC XC
(c) (d)
f 100f 78. For an angle modulated signal
75. Ans: (d) x(t) = 6 cos[2 106t +2 sin (8000 rt) +
4cos(8000 rt)]V. The average power of x(t)
76. An optical fibre communication system works is
on a wavelength of 1.3m. The number of (a) 10 W (b) 18 W
subscribers it can feed, if a channel requires (c) 20 W (d) 28 W
20 kHz, is 78. Ans: (b)
(a) 2.3 10 10
(b) 1 10 5
(c) 1.15 1010 (d) 1010 79. A single tone 4 kHz message signal is
76. Ans: (c) sampled with 10 kHz and 6 kHz. Aliasing
effect will be seen in the reconstructed
77. Consider the following statements regarding signal when the signal is sampled with
a common emitter amplifier. It can be (a) 10 kHz
converted into an oscillator by (b) 6 kHz
1. Providing adequate positive feedback. (c) Both 10 kHz and 6 kHz
2. Phase shifting the output by 180 and (d) Neither 10 kHz nor 6 kHz
feeding this phase – shifted output to the 79. Ans: (b)
input.
80. A source produces 26 symbols with equal Which of the above statements are correct ?
probabilities. What is the average (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
information produced by the source? (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2,3 and 4
(a) Less than 4 bits/symbol 82. Ans: (a)
(b) 6bits/symbol
(c) 7 bits/symbol 83. Consider the following statements for TEM
(d) Between 4 bits/symbol and 6 (Transverse Electro Magnetic) waves:
bits/symbol 1. Only for TEM wave, could the conductor
80. Ans: (d) separation be small compared with a
wavelength.
81. In order to improve the system response 2. TEM mode needs to be considered at low
transient behaviour, the type of controller frequencies.
used is 3. TEM waves are usually no obeying
(a) Phase lead controller Maxwell’s equations.
(b) Phase lag controller 4. TEM waves are usually treated like
(c) PI controller ‘ordinary transmission line signals’.
(d) P controller Which of the above statements are correct?
81. Ans: (a) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
82. The built-in potential (diffusion potential) in (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
a p-n junction (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. is equal to the difference in the Fermi- 83. Ans: (b)
level of the two sides, expressed in volts.
2. increases with the increase in the doping 84. An analog signal is sampled at 36 kHz and
levels of the two sides quantized into 256 levels. The time duration
3. increases with the increase in of a bit of the binary coded signal is
temperature. (a) 7.43 s (b) 6.43 s
4. is equal to the average of the Fermi-levels (c) 3.47 s (d) 1.47 s
of the two sides. 84. Ans: (c)
 88. The ideal gain of a parabolic antenna of

85. The ratio is
 diameter 10 m for a wavelength of 316 cm
1. Intrinsic ratio is
2. Loss tangent (a) 20 dB (b) 30 dB
3. Conduction ratio (c) 40 dB (d) 60 dB
4. Dissipation factor 88. Ans: (a)
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 89. An antenna consists of 4 identical Hertzian
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 dipoles uniformly located along the z-axis
85. Ans: (a) and polarized in z-direction. The spacing

between the dipoles is . The group pattern
86. A transmitting antenna with a 300 MHz 4
carrier frequency produces 2 kW of power. function is
If both transmitting and receiving antennas    
(a) 4 cos cos   cos cos  
have unity power gain, the power received 4  2 
by the receiving antenna at a distance of 1    
(b) 4 cos cos   cos cos  
km is 4  8 
(a) 11.8 mW (b) 18.4 mW    
(c) 4 cos cos   sin  cos  
(c) 18.4 W (d) 12.7 W 4  2 
86. Ans: (d)    

(d) 4 cos cos   sin  cos  
4  8 
 89. Ans: (a)

87. If the diameter of a dipole antenna is
2
  90. Current required to radiate 100 W of power
increased from to then its
100 50 at 100 MHz from 0.01 m dipole will be
(a) Bandwidth increases (a) 131 A (b) 141 A
(b) Bandwidth decreases (c) 151 A (d) 161 A
(c) Gain increases 90. Ans: (c)
(d) Gain decreases
87. Ans: (c)
91. The length of half-wave dipole at 30 MHz 94. The frequency range for satellite
will be communication is
(a) 5 m (b) 10 m (a) 1 kHz – 100 kHz
(c) 15 m (d) 5.5 m (b) 100 kHz – 1 MHz
91. Ans: (a) (c) 10 MHz – 30 MHz
(d) 1 GHz – 30 GHz
92. Microwave impedance measurement is 94. Ans: (d)
carried out by
(a) Slotted line method, Reactive 95. A parabolic dish antenna of 1 m diameter
discontinuity and Reflectometer and efficiency of 70%, operating at 20 GHz,
(b) Wave meter method, Slotted line will have a gain of nearly
method and Down conversion method (a) 20 dB (b) 25 dB
(c) Slotted line method, CW measurement (c) 30 dB (d) 40 dB
and Swept frequency measurement 95. Ans: (d)
(d) None of the above
92. Ans: (a) 96. The decimal equivalent of Binary 110.001
is
93. A modulated signal is given by (a) 6.25 (b) 6.125
st   e  at cosc  t u t  . (c) 62.5 (d) 0.612
The complex envelop of s(t) is 96. Ans: (b)
(a) e  at e  jc   t u t 
97. Given (125)R = (203)5. The value of radix R
(b) e  at e jt u t 
will be
(c) e jt u t  (a) 16 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 6
(d) e u t 
 jc   t 
97. Ans: (d)
Where, a, c and  are positive constants
and c >>  98. The 9’s complement of (25.639)10 is
93. Ans: (b) (a) 74.360 (b) 0.6732

(c) 6.732 (d) 7.436
98. Ans: (a)
99. Consider the following statement: (a) Main memory techniques

1. When two unsigned numbers are added, (b) Virtual memory techniques
an overflow is detected from the carry (c) Cache memory techniques
into the most significant position. (d) Associate mapping techniques
2. An overflow does not occur if the two 101. Ans: (b)
numbers added are both negative.
3. If the carry into the sign bit position and 102. Minimum sampling frequency required to
carry out of the sign bit position are not reconstruct
equal, an overflow condition is 3 2
 sin 21000t   sin 2100t 
y( t )  0.5   0.7  
produced.  t   t 
Which of the above statements is /are is
correct? (a) 1  103 Hz
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 only (b) 2  103 Hz
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only (c) 4  103 Hz
99. Ans: (d) (d) 6 103 Hz
102. Ans: (d)
100. The statement label in a subroutine
(a) May be the same as in the main program 103. In a microprocessor, WAIT states are used
(b) Is always the same as in the main to
program (a) Make the processor WAIT during a
(c) Cannot be the same as in the main DMA operation
program (b) Make the processor WAIT during an
(d) Cannot be used interrupt processing
100. Ans: (c) (c) Make the processor WAIT during a
power shut down
101. Techniques that automatically move (d) Interface SLOW peripheral to the
program and data blocks into the physical processor
main memory when they are required for 103. Ans: (d)
execution are called
104. A register of microprocessor which keeps (a) Read memory (b) Read I/O port
track of the execution of a program and (c) Code Access (d) Write I/O port
which contains the memory address of the 106. Ans: (b)
next instruction to be executed is called
(a) Index register 107. OS that permits multiple programs to be
(b) Memory address register run simultaneously using a single processor
(c) Program counter is referred to as
(d) Instruction register (a) Multitasking (b) Multithreading
104. Ans: (c) (c) Multi-user (d)Multi-processing
107. Ans: (a)
105. Which of the following statements are
correct? 108. In mode 0, Interrupt on terminal count of
1. DRAM offers reduced power 8253, if the gate pin is made low while
consumption. counter is decrementing , which one of the
2. An associative memory is cheaper than following operations will follow?
RAM. (a) Counter stops and cleared to ‘0’ and
3. The fastest and most flexible cache starts decrementing when gate pin is
organization uses content addressable made high
memory. (b) Counter stops and thereafter it
4. The address generated by a segmented increments till gate pin = ‘1’ high
program is called a physical address. (c) Counter stops, the current contents are
(a)1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 held and the decrement operation
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 resumes only after gate pin is made high
105. Ans: (b) (d) Counter stops, the current contents are
held for one clock cycle and the
106. What is the activity of the microprocessor decrement operation resumes
8086/8088 when the signals SS o , DT/ R and 108. Ans: (c)
IO/ M are 1,0 and 1 respectively in

minimum mode?
109. With respect to the default IR7 routine in (c) Acknowledges interrupt and continues
8259 PIC, which of the following (d) Acknowledges interrupt and waits for
statements are correct? the next instruction from the interrupting
1. Default CALL to the IR7 routine when an device
invalid interrupt occurs at IR pin. 111. Ans: (d)
2. A default IR7 CALL does not set the
corresponding ISR bit. 112. Consider the following statements:
3. A default IR7 routine is nothing but the The advantage of cycle stealing in DMA is
same valid IR7 routine with lowest that
priority. 1. It increases the maximum I/O transfer
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only rate.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 2. It reduces the interference by the DMA
109. Ans: (b) controller in the CPU’s memory access.
3. It is beneficially employed for I/O device
110. In a microprocessor system with memory
with shorter bursts of data transfer.
mapped I/O
(a) Devices have 8-bit addresses
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Devices are accessed using IN and OUT
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
instructions
112. Ans: (c)
(c) There can be a maximum of 256 input
devices and 256 output devices
113. D input of a clocked D-flip flop receives an
(d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be
input A  Qn where A is an external logic
directly performed with the I/O data
input and Qn is the output of the nth D-FF
110. Ans: (d)
before the clock appears. The circuit works
111. In a microprocessor when a CPU is as
interrupted , it (a) Ex OR gate (b) T-FF
(a) Stops execution of instructions (c) D-FF (d) JK-FF
(b) Acknowledges interrupt and branches 113. Ans: (b)
of subroutine
114. Which one of the following is the correct Directions: Each of the next three (03) items
answer when 110112 is subtracted from consists of two statements, one labelled as
111012 by using the 1’s complement the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as
method? ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two
(a) 01001 (b) 10001 statements carefully and select the answers
(c) 00011 (d) 00010 to these items using the codes given below:
114. Ans: (d) Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
115. An Excess-3 code arithmetic operation is individually true and Statement (II) is the
used to perform the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(a) Binary addition (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(b) Binary subtraction individually true but Statement (II) is not
(c) BCD addition the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(d) BCD subtraction (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
115. Ans: (d) false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
116. Convert the decimal (41.6875) into octal true
(a) 51.54 (b) 51.13
118. Statement (I): A differential amplifier is
(c) 54.13 (d) 51.51
used at the input stage of an operational
116. Ans: (a)
amplifier.
Statement (II): Differential amplifiers
117. If the variance  2X of d(n) = X(n) – X(n –1)
have very high CMRR.
is one-tenth the variance  2X of a stationary
118. Ans: (a)
zero-mean discrete –time signal X(n), then
the normalized autocorrelation function 119. Statement (I): Lead compensation is used
R XY (K ) /  2X at K = 1 is to improve system stability margins.
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.90 Statement (II): Lead compensation
(c) 0.10 (d) 0.05 achieves the desired result through the
117. Ans: (a) merits of its phase lead contribution.
119. Ans: (c)
120. Statement (I): The bandwidth of AM

signal depends on the bandwidth of the
modulating signal.
Statement (II): The amplitude –modulated
signal contains fc, f c  f m frequency
signals.
120. Ans: (a)

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Test Booklet Series

Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(a) Provide good regulation for all values of 1 1

23. On simplification of expression 27. K-map method of simplification can be

Y = (A  B  C ) (A  B  C) , using Boolean applied when the given function is in

of product form is correct?

(a) Y =  1, 3, 5, 6, 7 1. A magnitude comparator is a sequential

31. A half adder can be constructed using When K varies from –  to + .

outputs connected in parallel

31. Ans: (c) D Type FF

(d) 128 counts, 200 × 10–6 sec and 1000

f3 =  m (2, 4, 5, 6, 7) (d) Negative feedback affects stability and

The minimum configuration of the decoder system response is more sensitive to

should be disturbances and parameter variations

(a) 2 – to – 4 lines 46. Ans: (a)

(d) 5 – to – 32 lines to determine relative stability of a closed

44. Ans: (c) loop linear system?

45. Transistor is in saturation when 2. Nyquist plot

IC (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

Its open loop transfer function is

(a) Stable for all values of K 100 100

(b) Stable for positive values of K

62. A communication channel disturbed by (a) 20 kHz (b) 32 kHz

 88. The ideal gain of a parabolic antenna of

86. Ans: (d)    

 89. Ans: (a)

The complex envelop of s(t) is 96. Ans: (b)

93. Ans: (b) (a) 74.360 (b) 0.6732

99. Consider the following statement: (a) Main memory techniques

IO/ M are 1,0 and 1 respectively in

120. Statement (I): The bandwidth of AM

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