EASAQUESTIONPAPERS BLOGSPOT PART -66 MODULE 7 PART -7 Q&A

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16a. Aircraft Weight and Balance. Option B. positive.

Option C. negative.
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Correct Answer is. positive.

Question Number. 1. Fore and aft limits Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.2.1.
of the CG.
Option A. are determined by the pilot when
calculating the loading data. Question Number. 5. A Weight and
Option B. are specified by the manufacturer. Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by.
Option C. are determined by the licensed Option A. all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA.
engineer after a major check and weighing.
Correct Answer is. are specified by the Option B. all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg
manufacturer. MTWA.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.3.2. Option C. all aircraft regardless of weight.
Correct Answer is. all aircraft above 2730 kg
MTWA.
Question Number. 2. What angle of turn Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.1 (a).
will double the weight of the aircraft?.
Option A. 30°.
Option B. 60°. Question Number. 6. Aircraft below
Option C. 45°. 5700kg not used for commercial air transport
Correct Answer is. 60°. purposes are required to be reweighed.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. every 2 years.
Option B. every 5 years.
Option C. as required by the CAA.
Question Number. 3. The basic Correct Answer is. as required by the CAA.
equipment of an aircraft is. Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-3 6.4.
Option A. that equipment which is required
for every role of the aircraft for which the aircraft
is operated plus unusable fuel. Question Number. 7. Variable load is
Option B. all equipment including fuel and oil weight of.
necessary for a particular flight. Option A. crew, their baggage and
Option C. the crew equipment, and other equipment relevant to role.
equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a Option B. fuel, oil and non-expendable
particular flight. equipment relevant to role.
Correct Answer is. that equipment which is Option C. basic weight plus operating
required for every role of the aircraft for which the weight.
aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel. Correct Answer is. crew, their baggage and
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 1.2 a. equipment relevant to role.
Explanation. BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (c).
Question Number. 4. Aircraft

measurements aft of the datum are. Question Number. 8. The term 'reaction'
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Option A. either positive or negative. used in weighing an aircraft refers to.
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Option A. the sum of the loads on the main Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.2.1.
landing gear only.
Option B. the individual loads on each

landing gear. Question Number. 12. Where would you
Option C. the sum of the loads on all of the find documented, the fore and aft limits of the C of
landing gear. G position?.
Correct Answer is. the individual loads on Option A. In the aircraft Maintenance
each landing gear. Manual.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 1.2 (f). Option B. In the Flight Manual (or the
documentation associated with the C of A).
Option C. In the technical log.
Question Number. 9. Aircraft must be Correct Answer is. In the Flight Manual (or
reweighed. the documentation associated with the C of A).
Option A. after two years from manufacture Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.4 and 3.3.2.
only.
Option B. after two years from manufacture
then at periods not exceeding five years. Question Number. 13. Previous weighing
Option C. at periods not exceeding five records are.
years. Option A. retained for 2 yrs only.
Correct Answer is. after two years from Option B. are kept with aircraft records.
manufacture then at periods not exceeding five Option C. destroyed after 5 yrs.
years. Correct Answer is. are kept with aircraft
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.2. records.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.7.
Question Number. 10. For purposes of

calculating weight and C of G position, an adult Question Number. 14. A Load Sheet is
male (with baggage) is considered to have a mass compiled in the order of.
of. Option A. Variable Load, Fuel Load,
Option A. 85 kg. Disposable Load, Basic Weight.
Option B. 65 kg. Option B. Basic Weight, Variable Load,
Option C. 75 kg. Disposable Load, Fuel Load.
Correct Answer is. 85 kg. Option C. Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel
Explanation. JAR OPS (with baggage) and Load, Disposable Load.
AN(G)R Para 4 refers to Flight Crew mass of 85 kg. Correct Answer is. Basic Weight, Variable
(Cabin crew 75 kG). Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 Page 24.
Question Number. 11. Points forward of

the datum point are. Question Number. 15. A Weight and
Option A. negative. Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by.
Option B. neutral.
Option C. positive. Option A. the CAA.
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Correct Answer is. negative. Option B. the pilot.
Option C. a Licensed aircraft engineer. Question Number. 19. If the C of G of an

Correct Answer is. a Licensed aircraft aircraft with a full complement of fuel is
engineer. calculated. Then.

Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9. Option A. the C of G will always be within
limits if it was within limits with full fuel tanks.
Option B. the C of G must be recalculated
Question Number. 16. An aircraft which with zero fuel to ensure it will still be within limits.
has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit.
Option C. the C of G will only need to be
Option A. the take-off run will not be recalculated if the fuel weight is behind the aircraft
affected. C of G position.
Option B. will have a longer take-off run. Correct Answer is. the C of G must be
Option C. will have a shorter take-off run. recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be
Correct Answer is. will have a longer take-off within limits.
run. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.3.1.
Question Number. 20. Cargo placed aft of

Question Number. 17. The basic weight the datum will produce a.
of an aircraft is. Option A. neutral moment.
Option A. the pilot, flight crew and their Option B. negative moment.
luggage. Option C. positive moment.
Option B. the passengers, baggage and fuel. Correct Answer is. positive moment.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 5.4.4 (a).
Option C. the aircraft, minimum equipment,
unusable fuel and oil.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft, minimum Question Number. 21. A load sheet.
equipment, unusable fuel and oil.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (b). Option A. need not be carried on the aircraft
if one remains at base.
Option B. is always carried on the aircraft.
Question Number. 18. When an aircraft Option C. is never carried on the aircraft.
has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what should Correct Answer is. is always carried on the
be done to the old Weight and Balance Report?. aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. Kept in the aircraft logbook.
Option B. Destroyed after 3 months.
Option C. Kept in the weight and balance Question Number. 22. The Datum point
schedule. on an aircraft, for measuring C of G position could
Correct Answer is. Destroyed after 3 months. be.
Option A. the front bulkhead.
Explanation. JAR OPS Subpart P. Option B. anywhere on the aircraft.
Option C. the nose of the aircraft.
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Correct Answer is. anywhere on the aircraft. Option A. in triplicate, for the CAA, the
operator and the maintenance organisation.
Explanation. AC43 Page 10-1 para F, and A&P Option B. in duplicate, for the CAA and the
general textbook 6-4 Pg 250 'Datum'. operator.
Option C. once only, for the CAA.
Correct Answer is. in duplicate, for the CAA
Question Number. 23. Increasing the and the operator.
weight of an aircraft. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.4.
Option A. increases the glide range.
Option B. has no affect on the glide range.
Option C. decreases the glide range. Question Number. 27. Where would you
Correct Answer is. has no affect on the glide find the information on the conditions for
range. weighing the aircraft?.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight Kermode Page Option A. Maintenance Manual.
194. Option B. Technical Log.
Option C. Flight Manual in conjunction with
the documents associated with the CofA.
Question Number. 24. A load Sheet must Correct Answer is. Maintenance Manual.
be signed by. Explanation. The information is in both Flight
Option A. a licensed aircraft engineer. Manual and AMM. However the Flight Manual is
Option B. the Commander of the aircraft. for the loaded aircraft, and the AMM is for the
Option C. the Loading Officer. Basic Aircraft, the latter being most relevant to the
Correct Answer is. the Commander of the aircraft engineer.
aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. In aeronautical
weighing terms.
Question Number. 25. What is meant by Option A. all arms for forward of the
empty weight?. reference datum are positive (+) and all arms aft of
Option A. Basic weight only. the reference datum are negative (-).
Option B. Basic weight minus unusable fuel Option B. all reference datum are as per
plus oil. company procedures.
Option C. Basic weight plus unusable fuel Option C. all arms for forward of the
plus oil. reference datum are negative (-) and all arms aft of
Correct Answer is. Basic weight plus unusable the reference datum are positive (+).
fuel plus oil. Correct Answer is. all arms for forward of the
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 6- reference datum are negative (-) and all arms aft of
2. the reference datum are positive (+).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. A Weight and

Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised. Question Number. 29. Details on
recording of weight and C of G position can be
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found in.
Option A. BCAR section A. Question Number. 3. When weighing an

Option B. Air Navigation Order. aircraft with load cells.
Option C. Airworthiness Notices. Option A. only the main wheels are weighed.
Correct Answer is. BCAR section A.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.1. Option B. the aircraft is jacked.
Option C. a load cell should be placed under
each set of wheels.
Question Number. 30. If a new Weight Correct Answer is. the aircraft is jacked.
and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued, the old Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 4.4.
one must be retained for.
Option A. one year.
Option B. two years. Question Number. 4. When weighing an
Option C. six months. aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are
Correct Answer is. six months. positioned.
Explanation. JAR OPS 1.920. Option A. either under or on top of each
jack.
16b. Aircraft Weight and Balance. Option B. one under each jack.
Option C. one on top of each jack.
Correct Answer is. one on top of each jack.
Question Number. 1. A weighing cell is Explanation. NIL.
based on the variation of.
Option A. induced voltage with
displacement. Question Number. 5. When weighing an
Option B. resistance with strain. aircraft, the hydraulic system should be.
Option C. differential currents with stress. Option A. empty.
Correct Answer is. resistance with strain. Option B. completely full.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. filled to 'maximum level' mark.
Correct Answer is. filled to 'maximum level'
mark.
Question Number. 2. When weighing an Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 1.2 (b).
aircraft using elastic load cells, the load cells go.
Option A. as a single unit or combination of Question Number. 6. When weighing an

units under the aircraft wheels. aircraft by the weighbridge method, the aircraft is.
Option B. between undercarriage and
aircraft. Option A. only levelled laterally.
Option C. between top of jack and the Option B. jacked and levelled.
aircraft. Option C. resting on the wheels.
Correct Answer is. as a single unit or Correct Answer is. resting on the wheels.
combination of units under the aircraft wheels. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 4.2.
17. Aircraft Handling and Storage.
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Question Number. 1. When mooring an Question Number. 4. When Ground

aircraft what type of rope should be used?. Power is connected to aircraft, the generators are.
Option A. Nylon. Option A. paralleled to supply.

Option B. Fibre, tied tight due to stretch Option B. paralleled to supply for ground
when wet. starting only.
Option C. Fibre, with some slack due to Option C. never paralleled.
shrinkage when wet. Correct Answer is. never paralleled.
Correct Answer is. Nylon. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Leaflet 10-1 4.3.1. Although fibre
(manila) rope can be used (with some slack) the
A&P Mechanic General Handbook says Nylon is Question Number. 5. If ice and snow is
preferred (Pg.510). Also, fibre rope does not shrink found on the wings of an aircraft. Before flight the.
when wet, it shrinks when it dries.
Option A. snow should be removed but ice
can remain because it has no appreciable affect on
Question Number. 2. Removal of ice by the airflow.
the use of deicing fluid on the aircraft, before Option B. all snow and ice must be removed.
flight.
Option A. must be 1 hour before flight to Option C. ice should be removed but snow
enable fluid to be cleaned from aircraft. can remain because the airflow will remove it.
Option B. will provide sufficient prevention Correct Answer is. all snow and ice must be
of ice formation until take off. removed.
Option C. may remove ice for a period of Explanation. GOL/1-1 7.9.2. AL/11-3 3.1.
time depending on the airfield conditions.
Correct Answer is. may remove ice for a
period of time depending on the airfield Question Number. 6. There is ice and
conditions. snow on a helicopter blade. You.
Explanation. AL/11-3 3.1.4. Option A. wipe off excess snow and leave
ice.
Option B. leave a layer of ice.
Question Number. 3. When deicing an Option C. remove all traces of ice and snow.
aircraft with pressure deicing fluid, the sensors on
the outside of the aircraft should. Correct Answer is. remove all traces of ice
Option A. have their heating switched on. and snow.
Option B. be fitted with blanks or bungs. Explanation. AL/11-3 2.2.
Option C. not be blanked.
Correct Answer is. be fitted with blanks or
bungs. Question Number. 7. Why is the last
Explanation. AL/11-3 5.3.1. part of towing an aircraft, done in a straight line?.
Option A. To relieve side pressure from the

main wheels.
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Option B. To relieve hydraulic pressure from Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems
the steering mechanism. Pg.95.
Option C. To allow nose wheel chocks to be

placed at 90 degrees to the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. To relieve side pressure Question Number. 11. When turning and
from the main wheels. towing an aircraft, why should sharp radiuses be
Explanation. NIL. avoided?.
Option A. Power steering leaks could occur.
Question Number. 8. Aluminium clad Option B. Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres

alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical could occur.
buffing wheels as this. Option C. Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres
Option A. will cause large static charges to could occur.
build up. Correct Answer is. Scrubbing of main-wheel
Option B. may remove the aluminium tyres could occur.
coating. Explanation. Leaflet 10-1 3.2.4.
Option C. may remove the alloy coating.
Correct Answer is. may remove the
aluminium coating. Question Number. 12. When an aircraft is
Explanation. NIL. pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should
be attached to.
Option A. the tail cone.
Question Number. 9. An aircraft should Option B. the main gear.
be cleared of snow. Option C. the nose gear.
Option A. using air blast. Correct Answer is. the main gear.
Option B. using cold fluid. Explanation. CAIP S GOL/ 1-1 Para 3-1-6.
Option C. using hot fluid.
Correct Answer is. using air blast.
Explanation. CAIP S AL/11-3 Para 5.
Question Number. 13. When a helicopter
lands, how does the pilot signal to ground staff
Question Number. 10. When refueling an when it is safe to approach the aircraft?.
aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and
tanker bonded together?. Option A. Turn the anti collision lights off.
Option A. To discharge static electricity from Option B. Flash the landing lights.
the aircraft to the tanker. Option C. Flash the Nav lights.
Option B. To maintain the aircraft and tanker Correct Answer is. Turn the anti collision
at the same electrical potential. lights off.
Option C. To enable the aircraft re-fuel Explanation. ANO Section 2 Rule 9.
pumps to be operated from the tanker electrical
supply.
Correct Answer is. To maintain the aircraft Question Number. 14. When the park
and tanker at the same electrical potential. brake has been applied on an aircraft which has a
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pressurized hydraulic system and is reading
maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to

the left and right main wheels will read. Question Number. 1. Taper pins resist
Option A. no indication. what loads.

Option B. full system pressure. Option A. compression.
Option C. full scale deflection. Option B. shear.
Correct Answer is. full system pressure. Option C. tension.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. shear.
Explanation. A&P Technician General Textbook
8-29.
Question Number. 15. De-icing fluid Type
1 is used.
Option A. for short holdover times. Question Number. 2. What test do you
Option B. where the ambient temperature is do on a bonded join?.
below -10degrees Centigrade. Option A. Shear.
Option C. where holdover times are long. Option B. Peel.
Correct Answer is. for short holdover times. Option C. Tension.
Correct Answer is. Peel.
Explanation. AL/11-3 2.6. Jeppesen A&P Explanation. NIL.
Airframe Technician Textbook Page 13-14.
Question Number. 3. What would you

Question Number. 16. When picketing a use to check the run-out on a control rod?.
helicopter you.
Option A. tie down one blade. Option A. Micrometer + ball bearing.
Option B. fit sleeves to the blades to protect Option B. DTI + V blocks.
them if they strike the ground. Option C. 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge.
Option C. fit sleeves and tie off all blades. Correct Answer is. DTI + V blocks.
Correct Answer is. fit sleeves and tie off all Explanation. NIL.
blades.
Question Number. 4. Taper pins are
used in which of the following applications?.
Question Number. 17. Which is bad
practice for removing the ice and snow in the cold Option A. To take compression loads.
weather?. Option B. To take shear loads.
Option A. Dry snow by hot air. Option C. To take compression and shear
Option B. Deep ice by de-icing fluid. loads.
Option C. Use brush for deep wet snow. Correct Answer is. To take shear loads.
Correct Answer is. Dry snow by hot air. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
Explanation. AL/11-3 5.0. 1-27.
18a. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and

Assembly Techniques.
Page
Question Number. 5. When using a Question Number. 9. After carrying out

D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings of - an identification test of aluminium alloy with
15 to +25 would indicate a run-out of. caustic soda, the caustic soda should be
Option A. 0.025 inches. neutralized with.
Option B. 0.020 inches. Option A. Chromic anhydride solution.
Option C. 0.040 inches. Option B. Copper sulphate solution.
Correct Answer is. 0.020 inches. Option C. Phosphoric acid.
Explanation. CAIP S EL/3-3 Para. 3.2. Correct Answer is. Chromic anhydride
solution.
Explanation. BL/4-2 Para 2-4-5 'Note'.
Question Number. 6. A dent is
measured in a tubular push-pull rod by.
Option A. passing a ball down its bore. Question Number. 10. To neutralize
Option B. callipers and feeler gauges. spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use.
Option C. a steel ball and micrometer.
Correct Answer is. a steel ball and Option A. sulphuric acid.
micrometer. Option B. bicarbonate of soda.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. caustic soda.
Correct Answer is. bicarbonate of soda.
Explanation. BL/4-1 4.1.3.
Question Number. 7. What is used on

Magnesium to re-protect it?. Question Number. 11. Hydrogen
Option A. Selenious Acid. embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it is
Option B. Deoxidine. treated with.
Option C. Chromic Acid. Option A. Zinc Chromate.
Correct Answer is. Selenious Acid. Option B. Nitric acid.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. Phosphoric acid.
Correct Answer is. Phosphoric acid.
Explanation. BL/4-2 3.2.2 (iii) BL/7-4 5.2.
Question Number. 8. In the procedure
to be followed after spillage of battery acid,
neutralizing is carried out.
Option A. by washing with distilled water. Question Number. 12. Dents in a tubular
Option B. by applying a coating of Vaseline. push-pull rod are not allowed.
Option A. anywhere on the rod.
Option C. with a dilute solution of sodium Option B. in the middle third of the rod.
bicarbonate. Option C. in the end thirds of the rod.
Correct Answer is. with a dilute solution of Correct Answer is. in the middle third of the
sodium bicarbonate. rod.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-2 5.4.1. Explanation. NIL.
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Question Number. 13. When checking a Explanation. Bonding - Continuity, Insulation,

diode forward bias function, the positive lead of Function.
the ohmmeter should be placed on the.

Option A. cathode and the negative lead to
the anode. Question Number. 17. When an earth-
Option B. anode and the negative lead to the return terminal assembly has to be replaced which
cathode. of the following checks must be carried out?.
Option C. cathode and the negative lead the
earth. Option A. Bonding and continuity tests.
Correct Answer is. anode and the negative Option B. Bonding and millivolt drop tests.
lead to the cathode.
Explanation. Positive to the anode. Option C. Bonding and insulation resistance
tests.
Correct Answer is. Bonding and millivolt drop
Question Number. 14. The bonding tests.
resistance of primary structure must not exceed. Explanation. EEL/1-6 Para 3.7.2 & Leaflet 9-1
3.7.2.
Option A. 0.05 ohms.
Option B. 0.005 ohms.
Option C. 0.5 ohms. Question Number. 18. When carrying out
Correct Answer is. 0.05 ohms. millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is an
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.8 table 1. approximate guide for a correct reading?.
Option A. 10 millivolts for every 15 amps

Question Number. 15. What is the flowing.
maximum resistance between the main earth Option B. 10 millivolts for every 5 amps
system and a metal plate on which the earthing flowing.
device (tyre) is resting?. Option C. 5 millivolts for every 10 amps
Option A. 100 megohms. flowing.
Option B. 1 megohm. Correct Answer is. 5 millivolts for every 10
Option C. 10 megohms. amps flowing.
Correct Answer is. 10 megohms. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6.
Explanation. EEL/1-6 Para 3.10.8 & Leaflet 9-1
3.10.8.
Question Number. 19. Effective
continuity is not possible unless which of the
Question Number. 16. The three following conditions exists?.
electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1) Option A. All circuit earths are disconnected.
continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation. What is the
order in which they are executed?. Option B. The portion of the circuit under
Option A. 2-3-1. test must constitute a simple series circuit with no
Option B. 1-2-3. parallel paths.
Option C. 2-1-3. Option C. All manually operated switches
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Correct Answer is. 2-1-3. must be off.
Correct Answer is. The portion of the circuit

under test must constitute a simple series circuit Question Number. 22. What is a typical
with no parallel paths. minimum insulation resistance value for an aircraft

Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.2.3. EEL / 1-6 Para 4- undercarriage bay?.
2-3. Option A. 10 megohms.
Option B. 5 megohms.
Option C. 2 megohms.
Question Number. 20. Why is a low Correct Answer is. 2 megohms.
voltage supply used for continuity testing?. Explanation. EEL/1-6 Para 4-5-4 (a) & Leaflet 9-1
4.5.4 (a).
Option A. To prevent fuses 'blowing' and
lamps burning out.
Option B. To avoid damage to the wiring. Question Number. 23. The recommended
Option C. To avoid breaking down a high insulation resistance of a DC motor is.
resistance film that might exist between contacting Option A. 2 megohms.
surfaces. Option B. 0.5 megohms.
Correct Answer is. To avoid breaking down a Option C. 5 megohms.
high resistance film that might exist between Correct Answer is. 0.5 megohms.
contacting surfaces. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Para.4.5.4 (Rotating
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.2. A problem of poor machinery).
continuity could be caused by oxidation at
connectors. Using too high a voltage in a continuity
test might 'overlook' the problem and give a false Question Number. 24. Bonding value for
good reading. secondary structure is a maximum of.
Option A. 0.05 ohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Question Number. 21. When replacing a Option C. 0.5 ohms.
bonding connection and the original conductor Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
cannot be matched exactly, which of the following Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 para.3.8. EEL 1-6 3.8.
replacements would you use?.
Option A. One manufactured from the same
type of material, but of greater cross sectional area Question Number. 25. Wrinkling of an
should be selected. aircraft skin will.
Option B. One manufactured from any piece Option A. cause rivets to pull.
of Nyvin cable having the correct current capacity Option B. weaken the skin.
may be used. Option C. increase drag on the aircraft.
Option C. One manufactured from any Correct Answer is. cause rivets to pull.
conducting material of the same cross sectional Explanation. All three are possibly correct, but c
area be used. is the most probable.
Correct Answer is. One manufactured from
the same type of material, but of greater cross
sectional area should be selected. Question Number. 26. You have removed
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.5.2. a bolt from a critical bolted joint for inspection and
Page
rectification. What action should you take prior to Option A. Selenious acid.
inspection?. Option B. Deoxidine.
Option A. Before any inspection is carried Option C. Chromic acid.

out, the nut/bolt and hole must be cleaned with a Correct Answer is. Selenious acid.
solvent such as trichloroethylene. Explanation. CAIP S BL/7-5 6.3.1.
Option B. Clean the bolt shank and thread
and re-grease and replace bolt and check for side-
play. Question Number. 30. What is used on
Option C. A preliminary inspection should be magnesium to remove corrosion?.
made before the hole is cleaned. Option A. Strontium chromate.
Correct Answer is. A preliminary inspection Option B. Chromic acid / sulphuric acid
should be made before the hole is cleaned. solution.
Explanation. CAIP AL/7-5 5.4. Option C. Selenious acid.
Correct Answer is. Chromic acid / sulphuric
acid solution.
Question Number. 27. On inspection of a Explanation. CAIP S BL/4-2 2.4.4. BL/7-5 9.3.5
critical bolted joint you witness black or grey dust (i).
or paste. What type of corrosion has taken place
and what type of material is involved?.
Option A. Exfoliation corrosion in Question Number. 31. Galvanic corrosion
magnesium alloys. refers to a type of.
Option B. Galvanic corrosion in magnesium Option A. corrosion between two pieces of
alloys. material.
Option C. Fretting corrosion in aluminium Option B. plating process.
alloys. Option C. surface corrosion.
Correct Answer is. Fretting corrosion in Correct Answer is. corrosion between two
aluminium alloys. pieces of material.
Explanation. CAIP BL/4-1 3.1.5. Explanation. AC43 6-20.
Question Number. 28. What is indicated

by the wrinkling of the underside of an aircraft Question Number. 32. Chromating used
skin?. on magnesium alloys produces.
Option A. Hogging. Option A. chromium surface
Option B. Fretting. electrochemically.
Option C. Sagging. Option B. a chromate film surface.
Correct Answer is. Hogging. Option C. metal chromates on the
Explanation. Hogging produces wrinkling on the electrochemically.
underside of the wing. Sagging produces wrinkling Correct Answer is. a chromate film surface.
on the upper side of the wing.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/7-5 Para.4.
Question Number. 29. What is used to re-

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protect magnesium?.
Question Number. 33. Chromating used Question Number. 36. Removal of

on magnesium alloys. corrosion from aluminium clad alloy is best done.
Option A. uses chromium and converts the

surface electrochemically. Option A. mechanically by buffing.
Option B. uses chromates and converts the Option B. chemically by trichloroethylene.
surface chemically. Option C. chemically by sulphuric acid
Option C. uses chromium, which is deposited solution.
on the surface. Correct Answer is. chemically by sulphuric
Correct Answer is. uses chromates and acid solution.
converts the surface chemically. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. BL/7-3 11. Chromate treatment
sometimes called 'chromate conversion'.
Question Number. 37. Control methods
for galvanic corrosion include.
Question Number. 34. When carrying out Option A. reducing cyclic stressing and
a bonding test in the presence of an anodic increasing cross sectional area.
coating, what should you do?. Option B. joining similar metals and using
Option A. Take account of the resistance of jointing compounds.
the coating. Option C. ensuring correct heat treatments
Option B. Disregard the resistance of the and correct alloying.
coating. Correct Answer is. joining similar metals and
Option C. Penetrate the coating so a good using jointing compounds.
electrical contact is made. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. Penetrate the coating so a
good electrical contact is made.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 3.10.6 and Question Number. 38. The treatment for
note from 3.6.6. stress corrosion is.
Option A. not the same as fatigue corrosion.
Question Number. 35. Maximum value of Option B. the same as for surface corrosion
resistance between all isolated parts which may be or surface cracks in sheet metal.
subjected to appreciable electrostatic charging and Option C. always the replacement of the
the main earth. part.
Option A. 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per Correct Answer is. always the replacement of
sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less. the part.
Option B. 1 ohm. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. 0.05 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm
per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less. Question Number. 39. Very light
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.8 Table 1 or EEL/1-6 corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed by.
3.5.
Option A. using a solvent.
Option B. rubbing with wire wool.
Page
Option C. using Alocrom 1200.
Correct Answer is. using a solvent. Correct Answer is. when re-protecting after
Explanation. NIL. corrosion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. To remove

corrosion on Fe metals use. Question Number. 44. When carrying out
Option A. selenious acid rust remover. insulation resistance checks.
Option B. sulphuric acid rust remover. Option A. the measurement is always infinity
Option C. phosphoric acid rust remover. if the cable is installed correctly.
Correct Answer is. phosphoric acid rust Option B. the measurement will also show
remover. cable continuity.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. the measurement varies
depending upon the ambient conditions of the
aircraft under test.
Question Number. 41. The usual Correct Answer is. the measurement varies
manufacturer's anti corrosive process to be depending upon the ambient conditions of the
applied to Fe aircraft parts is. aircraft under test.
Option A. cadmium plating. Explanation. EEL/1-6 4.5.3, Leaflet 9-1 4.5.3.
Option B. anodising.
Option C. metal spraying.
Correct Answer is. cadmium plating. Question Number. 45. How is damage
Explanation. NIL. classified on an aircraft skin?.
Option A. Negligible, repairable,
replacement.
Question Number. 42. An intervention Option B. Negligible, allowable, replacement.
defect is one where.
Option A. the engineer has the discretion on Option C. Negligible, allowable, repairable.
whether to intervene.
Option B. there is a requirement for the Correct Answer is. Negligible, repairable,
maintenance engineer to intervene. replacement.
Option C. the defect occurred because of Explanation. NIL.
some previous maintenance action.
Correct Answer is. the defect occurred
because of some previous maintenance action. Question Number. 46. When carrying out
Explanation. NIL. a millivolt drop test on a terminal, the maximum
value should be.
Option A. 50mV/10A.
Question Number. 43. Vapour phase Option B. 10mV/10A.
inhibitor should be used. Option C. 5mV/10A.
Option A. when re-protecting after Correct Answer is. 5mV/10A.
corrosion. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6.
Option B. when degreasing a component.
Option C. when painting an aircraft.
Page
Question Number. 47. A jury strut is Correct Answer is. Use a multimeter set to
used. millivolts and carry out a millivolts drop test.
Option A. as a reference when checking the Explanation. NIL.

C of G position.
Option B. as a datum when placing the 18b. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
aircraft in a rigging position. Assembly Techniques.
Option C. to support the structure during
repairs.
Correct Answer is. to support the structure Question Number. 1. Damaged
during repairs. chromate film should be repaired by using.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. phosphoric acid 10% by weight in
water.
Question Number. 48. Run out' on a Option B. selenious acid 10% by weight in
control rod is measured by. water.
Option A. micrometer, surface plate and vee- Option C. selenious acid 20% by weight in
blocks. water.
Option B. surface plate, vernier callipers and Correct Answer is. selenious acid 10% by
vee-blocks. weight in water.
Option C. dial test indicator, surface plate Explanation. BL/7-3 5.2.
and vee-blocks.
Correct Answer is. dial test indicator, surface
plate and vee-blocks. Question Number. 2. Stop Drilling' is the
Explanation. NIL. process of.
Option A. drilling holes to stop a crack at the
crack ends.
Question Number. 49. How do you check Option B. drilling holes in a metal prior to
the resistance of a fire bottle cartridge?. riveting.
Option A. Use an insulation tester. Option C. drilling a rivet head to remove it
Option B. Use a multimeter. from the metal.
Option C. Use a light and bulb. Correct Answer is. drilling holes to stop a
Correct Answer is. Use a multimeter. crack at the crack ends.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. If after forming a Question Number. 3. When inserting a

crimp in an electrical condutor a high resistance is helicoil insert, which way does the tang face?.
suspected, how would you carry out a check
without disturbing the connection?. Option A. Away from the hole.
Option A. Use a multimeter set to millivolts Option B. Towards the hole.
and carry out a millivolts drop test. Option C. Towards the mandrel.
Option B. Carry out an insulation check. Correct Answer is. Towards the hole.
Option C. Use a multimeter set to ohms to Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician General
Page
check the resistance. Textbook Page 8-31.
Option B. a stud remover tool fitted into a

drilled hole.
Question Number. 4. On a patch repair Option C. cutting a slot in it and removing

you should use. with a screwdriver.
Option A. material one gauge thicker than Correct Answer is. a stud remover tool fitted
the original structure. into a drilled hole.
Option B. the same rivet spacing as the Explanation. A stud box could only be used if it
original structure. is broken above the surface.
Option C. only aluminium alloy rivets.
Correct Answer is. the same rivet spacing as
the original structure. Question Number. 8. A thread insert is
Explanation. AC43 Page 4-32. made from.
Option A. white metal.
Option B. aluminium alloy.
Question Number. 5. What tap do you Option C. stainless steel.
use when fitting a Helicoil?. Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Option A. The same as the original thread Explanation. NIL.
size.
Option B. The next size up from the original
tap size. Question Number. 9. On a composite
Option C. The tap supplied with the Helicoil repair the vacuum should be.
kit. Option A. above required level.
Correct Answer is. The tap supplied with the Option B. below required level.
Helicoil kit. Option C. at the required level.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. at the required level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. When fitting a

thread insert. Question Number. 10. If bridging strips or
Option A. the insert should be tapped in bonding cords are fractured, what action may be
using a hammer. taken?.
Option B. the hole should be expanded using Option A. The broken ends can be repaired
a tap supplied by the insert manufacturer. with an “in-line” splice.
Option C. a thread the next size up from the Option B. A new conductor should be fitted.
original should be tapped.
Correct Answer is. the hole should be Option C. The broken ends can be soldered.
expanded using a tap supplied by the insert
manufacturer. Correct Answer is. A new conductor should
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10 3.2.2. be fitted.
Question Number. 7. A stud broken off

below the surface is removed by. Question Number. 11. A UNF threaded
Page
Option A. using a stud box. wire thread insert may be identified.
Option A. by a black painted tang. Question Number. 4. When carrying out

Option B. by a red painted tang. a dye penetrant test, after the developer has been
Option C. by an unpainted tang. applied it should be inspected.

Correct Answer is. by a black painted tang. Option A. after 30 minutes.
Explanation. BL/6-22 3.1. Option B. as soon as the developer is dry and
again after approximately 10 minutes.
Option C. after 1 hour.
Correct Answer is. as soon as the developer is
dry and again after approximately 10 minutes.
18c. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Paras 7-1 and
Techniques. 7-2.
Question Number. 1. Transducers used Question Number. 5. During a colour

in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of he following contrast test the penetrant time should be.
effects?.
Option A. Hyper-acoustic. Option A. longer for a small crack.
Option B. Ferromagnetic. Option B. shorter for a small crack.
Option C. Piezoelectric. Option C. longer for a wide crack.
Correct Answer is. Piezoelectric. Correct Answer is. longer for a small crack.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 3 para 3.2. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-1.
Question Number. 6. How should a dye

Question Number. 2. The eddy current penetrant field kit be stored?.
method of N.D.T. uses. Option A. At a cold temperature in a
Option A. AC or DC. darkened room.
Option B. Direct current. Option B. In direct sunlight.
Option C. Alternating current. Option C. At room temperature away from
Correct Answer is. Alternating current. direct sunlight.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 1 para 2.1. Correct Answer is. At room temperature
away from direct sunlight.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
Question Number. 3. To measure the

thickness of a paint finish, what type of NDT Question Number. 7. When carrying out
inspection is used?. a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel.
Option A. A woodpecker.
Option B. Ultrasonic. Option A. the dye should be applied to the
Option C. Radiographic. outside and the developer to the inside.
Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic. Option B. the dye should be applied to the
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 para 1.4. inside and the developer to the outside.
Option C. both the dye and the developer
Page
should be applied to the outside.
Correct Answer is. the dye should be applied Option B. longitudinally.

to the inside and the developer to the outside. Option C. longitudinal and transverse.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1. Correct Answer is. transverse.
Explanation. CAAIP 4-7, 2.2 The flaw must be
between 45 degrees and 90 degrees to the flux
Question Number. 8. When leak testing lines.
with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time for a
component less than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be.
Question Number. 12. Dye penetrant in a
Option A. at least twice the normal soak cold climate.
time. Option A. takes longer to work.
Option B. at least 3 times the normal soak Option B. is not affected.
time. Option C. works more quickly.
Option C. at least the normal soak time. Correct Answer is. takes longer to work.
Correct Answer is. at least 3 times the normal Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2.
soak time.
Question Number. 13. If after spraying
the developer, red blotches appear, the part.
Question Number. 9. When using a
colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small crack Option A. has sub-surface defects.
is suspected in the material. Option B. was not cleaned properly.
Option A. less developer should be used. Option C. is porous.
Option B. less inhibitor should be used. Correct Answer is. is porous.
Option C. a magnifying glass is Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-3.
recommended.
Correct Answer is. a magnifying glass is
recommended. Question Number. 14. What is the
Explanation. CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-2 pg 6 para 7.5. purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant
inspection?.
Option A. It acts a s a blotter to draw out the
penetrant that has seeped into the crack.
Question Number. 10. What NDT method Option B. It is drawn to the crack by
would you use to detect delamination?. electrostatic attraction.
Option A. Colour contrast dye penetrant. Option C. It seeps into the crack and makes it
Option B. Ultrasound. show up.
Option C. Eddy current. Correct Answer is. It acts a s a blotter to draw
Correct Answer is. Ultrasound. out the penetrant that has seeped into the crack.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para.6.
Question Number. 11. Magnetic particle

testing detects faults.
Page
Option A. transverse.
Question Number. 15. The main using either circular or longitudinal

advantage of dye penetrant inspection is. magnetisation?.
Option A. 45°.
Option A. the part to be inspected does not Option B. longitudinal.
require cleaning. Option C. transverse.
Option B. the defect must be opened to the Correct Answer is. 45°.
surface. Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-7 para 2.2.
Option C. the penetrant solution works on
any non-porous material.
Correct Answer is. the penetrant solution Question Number. 19. Surface cracks in
works on any non-porous material. aluminium castings and forgings may usually be
Explanation. NIL. detected by.
Option A. submerging the part in a solution
of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear water.
Question Number. 16. To detect a minute
crack using dye penetrant inspection usually Option B. gamma ray inspection.
requires. Option C. the use of dye penetrants and
Option A. the surface to be highly polished. suitable developers.
Correct Answer is. the use of dye penetrants
Option B. a longer than normal penetrating and suitable developers.
time. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 1.6.2.
Option C. that the developer be applied to a
flat surface.
Correct Answer is. a longer than normal Question Number. 20. Which of these
penetrating time. metals is inspected using the magnetic particle
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-1. inspection method?.
Option A. Magnesium alloys.
Option B. Aluminium alloys.
Question Number. 17. When checking an Option C. Iron alloys.
item with the magnetic particle inspection Correct Answer is. Iron alloys.
method, circular and longitudinal magnetization Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 1.1.
should be used to.
Option A. evenly magnetize the entire part.
Question Number. 21. One way a part
Option B. ensure uniform current flow. may be demagnetized after magnetic particle
Option C. reveal all possible defects. inspection is by.
Correct Answer is. reveal all possible defects. Option A. slowly moving the part out of an
AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 2 and leaflet 4-7, 4.5. Option B. slowly moving the part into an AC
magnetic field of sufficient strength.
Option C. subjecting the part to high voltage,
low amperage AC.
Question Number. 18. Which type crack Correct Answer is. slowly moving the part out
Page
can be detected by magnetic particle inspection of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 4.9.2. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. The testing Question Number. 25. Gamma Ray
medium that is generally used in magnetic particle Testing of combustion chambers will show up.
inspection utilises a ferromagnetic material that
has. Option A. grey on white background.
Option A. low permeability and high Option B. black on lighter background.
retentivity. Option C. light grey on black background.
Option B. high permeability and low Correct Answer is. light grey on black
retentivity. background.
Option C. high permeability and high Explanation. NIL.
retentivity.
Correct Answer is. high permeability and low
retentivity. Question Number. 26. Which of these
Explanation. NIL. non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the
inspection of most metals, plastics and ceramics
for surface and subsurface defects?.
Question Number. 23. The 'Dwell Time' Option A. Eddy current inspection.
of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the. Option B. Magnetic particle inspection.
Option C. Ultrasonic inspection.
Option A. time it takes for a defect to Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic inspection.
develop. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. time the penetrant is allowed to
stand.
Option C. amount of time the developer is Question Number. 27. Ultrasonic flaw
allowed to act. detectors use.
Correct Answer is. time the penetrant is Option A. high frequency sound waves.
allowed to stand. Option B. a magnetic field.
Explanation. A&P General Textbook 12-3 Pg 447 Option C. x-rays.
Para 2. Correct Answer is. high frequency sound
waves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. What non-
destructive testing method requires little or no
part preparation, is used to detect surface or near- Question Number. 28. Defects are
surface defects in most metals, and may also be indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection test
used to separate metals or alloys and their heat- by.
treat conditions?. Option A. red lines on a white background.
Option A. Eddy current inspection.
Option B. Magnetic particle inspection. Option B. yellowish green marks.
Option C. Ultrasonic inspection. Option C. green lines and dots.
Correct Answer is. Eddy current inspection. Correct Answer is. red lines on a white
Page
background.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. Which of the

following metals can be inspected using the
magnetic particle inspection method?.

Question Number. 29. NDT using colour Option A. Aluminium alloys.
dye process at temperatures below 15°C will. Option B. Iron alloys.
Option C. Magnesium alloys.
Option A. not be affected by the Correct Answer is. Iron alloys.
temperature. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. retard the penetrant action of the
dye and penetration time is extended.
Option C. mean choosing alternative NDT Question Number. 33. After completion
method. of electromagnetic crack detection, the test piece
Correct Answer is. retard the penetrant must be.
action of the dye and penetration time is Option A. allowed to cool to room
extended. temperature as slowly as possible.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2. Option B. de-magnetised before returning to
service.
Option C. allowed to lose any residual
Question Number. 30. When using dye magnetism over as long a period possible.
penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should Correct Answer is. de-magnetised before
be applied. returning to service.
Option A. on the outside with developer on Explanation. NIL.
the outside.
Option B. on the inside, with developer on
the outside. Question Number. 34. Which of the
Option C. on the inside with the developer following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a
on the inside. component manufactured from austenitic stainless
Correct Answer is. on the inside, with steel?.
developer on the outside. Option A. Magnetic - particle.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1. Option B. Penetrant dye.
Option C. Hot oil and chalk.
Correct Answer is. Magnetic - particle.
Question Number. 31. In order for dye Explanation. NIL.
penetrant inspection to be effective, the material
being checked must.
Option A. be non-magnetic. Question Number. 35. Fluorescent
Option B. be magnetic. penetrant processes for the detection of cracks or
Option C. have surface cracks. material defects are used with.
Correct Answer is. have surface cracks. Option A. a tungsten light source.
Explanation. A&P General Textbook 12-2 Pg 446 Option B. an ultra-violet radiation source.
(B). Option C. an infra-red light source.
Correct Answer is. an ultra-violet radiation
source.
Page
Option C. when the item is quite cool.

Correct Answer is. when the item is quite
Question Number. 36. What is an isotope cool.

the power source of?. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 3.
Option A. X-Rays.
Option B. Ultra Violet Rays.
Option C. Gamma Rays. Question Number. 40. Circular
Correct Answer is. Gamma Rays. magnetization of a part can be used to detect
Explanation. CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-6 para 2. defects.
Option A. perpendicular to the concentric
circles of magnetisation.
Question Number. 37. The fluid used in Option B. parallel to the long axis of the part.
the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive
testing is a mixture of. Option C. perpendicular to the long axis of
Option A. lubricating oil and petrol. the part.
Option B. lubricating oil and lard oil. Correct Answer is. perpendicular to the
Option C. lubricating oil and paraffin. concentric circles of magnetisation.
Correct Answer is. lubricating oil and paraffin. Explanation. CAIP BL/8-5 para 2.1.

Question Number. 41. An indication of
porosity when using a penetrant dye crack
Question Number. 38. Under magnetic detection method is.
particle inspection, a part will be identified as Option A. areas where dye is not showing.
having a fatigue crack under which condition?. Option B. an area of scattered dots of dye.
Option A. The discontinuity pattern is Option C. closely spaced dots of dye formed
straight. in a line.
Option B. The discontinuity is found in a Correct Answer is. an area of scattered dots
highly stressed area of the part. of dye.
Option C. The discontinuity is found in a non- Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 7.3.
stressed area of the part.
Correct Answer is. The discontinuity is found
in a highly stressed area of the part. Question Number. 42. In a test for
Explanation. NIL. adequate demagnetization of a component after a
magnetic particle test, the test compass should not
deflect.
Question Number. 39. When inspecting a Option A. more than 1° when standing due
component which is being subjected to the hot east of the component.
fluid chalk process, the examination for defects Option B. more than 1° when standing due
should be carried out. south of the component.
Option A. whilst the item is still quite hot. Option C. more than 1° when standing
Option B. immediately on removal of the north-east of the component.
Page
item from the chalk cabinet.
Correct Answer is. more than 1° when Option B. thoroughly degreased.

standing due east of the component. Option C. painted with developer fluid.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-7 4.10.2. Correct Answer is. thoroughly degreased.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 Para 2-4.
Question Number. 43. If on application of

developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what has Question Number. 47. When carrying out
happened?. a dye penetrant inspection, what time should
Option A. Thin porosity. elapse after applying the developer before
Option B. The hue has pinked. inspecting the component?.
Option C. Incorrect cleaning. Option A. Initial inspection after 30 seconds
Correct Answer is. Incorrect cleaning. followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 6-6. Option B. After 15 minutes.
Option C. After 10 minutes.
Correct Answer is. Initial inspection after 30
Question Number. 44. If dye penetrant seconds followed by a 2nd inspection after 10
inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the minutes.
most probable cause is that the part. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-2.
Option A. is not damaged.
Option B. was not correctly degaussed
before the developer was applied. Question Number. 48. When should the
Option C. was not thoroughly cleaned before developer be applied to the component?.
developer was applied.
Correct Answer is. was not thoroughly Option A. After excess penetrant has been
cleaned before developer was applied. removed and the area completely dried.
Explanation. AC43 5.60 G. Option B. Before applying penetrant.
Option C. Before the penetrant dries.
Correct Answer is. After excess penetrant has
Question Number. 45. The pattern for an been removed and the area completely dried.
inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up forming. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 Para 1.5, 5.4.1.
Option A. a single line.

Option B. parallel lines. Question Number. 49. To check the
Option C. a fern-like pattern. structure of a wing.
Correct Answer is. parallel lines. Option A. ultrasound NDT is used.
Explanation. AandP Mechanics General Option B. high voltage X-rays are used.
Handbook Pg 474 para 2. Option C. low voltage X-rays are used.
Correct Answer is. high voltage X-rays are
used.
Question Number. 46. When carrying out Explanation. BL/8-4 2.1.6.
a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is
applied the surface being tested should be.
Question Number. 50. Which of the
Page
Option A. etch primed. following NDT methods requires that the
orientation (or direction) of the defect be known Correct Answer is. Dye-penetrant.
before the test can commence?. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
Option A. Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant.

Option B. Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic.
Question Number. 54. When using the
Option C. X-Ray and Magnetic Particle. colour contrast NDT.
Correct Answer is. Magnetic Particle and Option A. the surface paint should be
Ultrasonic. removed.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 1.2. Option B. the surface should be lightly
scuffed.
Option C. the surface should be bead
Question Number. 51. Which of the blasted.
following defects could not be detected by Eddy Correct Answer is. the surface paint should
Current NDT inspection?. be removed.
Option A. A crack in a glass fibre reinforced Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
plastic cowl.
Option B. A crack in a magnesium alloy
wheel casting. Question Number. 55. When using dye
Option C. Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy penetrant field kit, removal of excess penetrant is
turbine blade. done by applying the solvent by.
Correct Answer is. A crack in a glass fibre Option A. spraying once direct on the part.
reinforced plastic cowl.
Explanation. BL/8-8 2. Option B. spraying twice direct on the part.
Option C. using a lint free cloth.

Question Number. 52. Which of the Correct Answer is. using a lint free cloth.
following methods could be used to detect the Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 5.3.
presence of tiny drops of Mercury in a large area of
aircraft hull structure after an accident with a
mercury thermometer?. Question Number. 56. Liquid penetrant
Option A. X-Ray. tests can be used to detect.
Option B. Magnetic Particle. Option A. internal porosity in castings.
Option C. Ultrasonic. Option B. corrosion wall thinning in pipes
Correct Answer is. X-Ray. and tubes.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy
parts.
Correct Answer is. fatigue cracks in
Question Number. 53. Which of the magnesium alloy parts.
following NDT methods requires that the surface Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 4-2 2.3.
of the test piece is cleaned down to bare metal?.
Option A. Eddy Current. Question Number. 57. Water-washable

Option B. Magnetic Particle. liquid penetrants differ from Post-emulsification
Page
Option C. Dye-penetrant. penetrants in that they.
Option A. do not need an emulsifier added.

Question Number. 61. To check the
Option B. need not be removed from structure of a wing, which NDT is used?.
surfaces prior to development. Option A. Radiographic.
Option C. can only be used on aluminium Option B. Dye penetrant.
alloys. Option C. Magnetic Flaw.
Correct Answer is. do not need an emulsifier Correct Answer is. Radiographic.
added. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. BL/8-2 1.3.
Question Number. 62. Magnetic Flux

Question Number. 58. When using a detection will show defects which are.
post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is most Option A. transverse to the flux direction
critical during. only.
Option A. penetrant removal. Option B. longitudinal to the flux direction
Option B. emulsification. only.
Option C. penetration. Option C. longitudinal and transverse to the
Correct Answer is. emulsification. flux direction.
Explanation. BL/8-7 para 4.2. Correct Answer is. transverse to the flux
direction only.
Question Number. 59. A liquid penetrant
test cannot.
Option A. be used on porous materials. Question Number. 63. A hairline crack
Option B. locate sub-surface discontinuities. would show up on a dye penetrant inspection as.
Option C. be used on non-metallic surfaces. Option A. a continuous line of small dots.

Option B. a thin broken line or chain.
Correct Answer is. locate sub-surface Option C. a group of dots spread over a wide
discontinuities. area.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2, A&P Technician Correct Answer is. a continuous line of small
General Textbook 12-4 Pg 448 Para 3 (B). dots.
Question Number. 60. Hot air drying of

articles during liquid penetrant testing is carried Question Number. 64. When carrying out
out at a temperature of. an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel used for?.
Option A. 75°F.
Option B. 250°F. Option A. To create a good sonic coupling
Option C. 130°F. between the the probe and the test piece.
Correct Answer is. 130°F. Option B. To reduce the friction between the
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 5.4.3. There is no probe and the test piece.
reference in old CAIP S. Option C. To prevent the test piece from
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becoming scratched by the probe.
Correct Answer is. To create a good sonic Question Number. 68. When using dye
coupling between the the probe and the test penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant should be
piece. applied.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 3.4. Option A. on the inside, with developer on
the inside.
Option B. on the outside, with developer on
Question Number. 65. Fluorescent dye the outside.
penetrant is suited for what materials?. Option C. on the inside, with developer on
Option A. Non magnetic non-ferrous the outside.
materials. Correct Answer is. on the inside, with
Option B. Ferrous magnetic materials. developer on the outside.
Option C. Plastics and non magnetic Explanation. BL/8-2 9.
materials.
Correct Answer is. Non magnetic non-ferrous
materials. Question Number. 69. To detect a fault
Explanation. Leaflet 4-3 1.2. CAIP S BL/8-7. with magnetic particle flaw detection, the test
requires.
Option A. two passes in any direction.
Question Number. 66. In film Option B. one pass in any direction.
radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are Option C. two passes at 90 degrees to each
usually placed. other.
Option A. between the intensifying screen Correct Answer is. two passes at 90 degrees
and the film. to each other.
Option B. on the film side of the object. Explanation. BL/8-5 2.1.
Option C. on the source side of the test
object.
Correct Answer is. on the source side of the Question Number. 70. The substance
test object. used in ultrasound inspection is.
Explanation. BL/8-4 3.3.1. Option A. a couplant to allow sound waves
to travel.
Option B. a cleaning agent to keep the
Question Number. 67. Which type crack components clean.
will probably cause the most build-up in the Option C. a developer.
magnetic particle indicating medium?. Correct Answer is. a couplant to allow sound
Option A. Grinding. waves to travel.
Option B. Shrink. Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 4.5.2 BL/8-3 3.3.
Option C. Fatigue.
Correct Answer is. Fatigue.
Explanation. A&P Mechanics General Handbook Question Number. 71. Dye penetrant
Pg.473. defects are marked using.
Option A. crayon, unless used in a highly
stresses area.
Option B. pencil.
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Option C. chalk.
Correct Answer is. crayon, unless used in a Question Number. 75. The liquid applied
highly stresses area. to a component being checked by magnetic
Explanation. Leaflet 4-3 5.4BL/8-2 7.5. particle inspection is for.

Option A. acting as a transmission medium
for the test.
Question Number. 72. A pressure vessel Option B. to prevent corrosion occurring
of thickness 1/16 inch to 1/8 inch is being tested from contact with the probe.
with dye penetrant. The penetrant should be left Option C. to prevent scratching of the
for. surface by the probe.
Option A. 3 times longer than normal. Correct Answer is. acting as a transmission
Option B. less than normal. medium for the test.
Option C. the same length of time as normal. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 3 times longer than

normal. Question Number. 76. Which is the
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 9.2. preferred method of test for aluminium alloy
alloy?.
Option A. Electroflux.
Question Number. 73. Which of the Option B. Magnaflux.
following NDT techniques cannot be used on a Option C. Ultrasonic.
component manufactured from austenitic stainless Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic.
steel?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. Penetrant dye.
Option B. Magnetic particle.
Option C. Hot oil and chalk. Question Number. 77. A composite flap
Correct Answer is. Magnetic particle. panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you
Explanation. Austenitic Stainless Steel is non- use to detect?.
magnetic. Option A. Low voltage x-ray.
Option B. Coin tap test.
Option C. High voltage x-ray.
Question Number. 74. The dye penetrant Correct Answer is. Low voltage x-ray.
field test kit consists of cans of. Explanation. Leaflet 6-9 Appendix 1 Paragraph
Option A. penetrant, cleaner, developer and 4.
a brush.
Option B. spray penetrant, spray cleaner and
spray developer. Question Number. 78. The eddy current
Option C. penetrant, cleaner and developer. method of flaw detection can detect.
Option A. sub surface flaws only.
Correct Answer is. spray penetrant, spray Option B. surface flaws and those just
cleaner and spray developer. beneath the surface.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. surface flaws only.
Correct Answer is. surface flaws and those
just beneath the surface.
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Explanation. Leaflet 4-8.
Option C. subsurface defects on all metals.

Question Number. 79. With dye Correct Answer is. surface and subsurface
penetrant how is the developer applied?. defects on all metals.
Explanation. leaflet 4-5 1.1 and 4.2.2.
Option A. Using a tank.
Option B. As an even layer of chalk applied
over the area. Question Number. 83. Porosity in cast
Option C. At a distance of 10 to 12 inches materials.
with several passes. Option A. only occurs on the surface.
Correct Answer is. At a distance of 10 to 12 Option B. is only detectable on the surface.
inches with several passes.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 6. Option C. is detectable as a surface or sub
surface defect.
Correct Answer is. is detectable as a surface
Question Number. 80. When using the or sub surface defect.
dye penetrant method crack detection, the Explanation. NIL.
indications on a short, deep crack are.
Option A. single dots.
Option B. circles. Question Number. 84. When using the
Option C. long chain. fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the
Correct Answer is. single dots. component should be inspected using an.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 7.
Option A. ultraviolet lamp.
Option B. infrared lamp.
Question Number. 81. A deep internal Option C. ordinary lamp and special glasses.
crack in a structural steel member is detected by.
Correct Answer is. ultraviolet lamp.
Option A. x-ray or ultrasonic process. Explanation. Leaflet 4-3 1.5.
Option B. fluorescent penetrant method.
Option C. magnetic flaw method.
Correct Answer is. x-ray or ultrasonic process. Question Number. 85. When using the
dye penetrant method of crack detection, it should
Explanation. Leaflet 4-6. not normally be used at temperatures.
Option A. above 20°C.
Option B. below 0°C.
Question Number. 82. The ultrasonic Option C. above 15°C.
method of crack detection can be used on. Correct Answer is. below 0°C.
Option A. surface and subsurface defects on
all metals.
Option B. surface and subsurface defects on Question Number. 86. When using the
ferrous metals only. dye penetrant method, the part should be kept
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wet with the penetrant for.
Option A. 5 minutes.
Option B. 15 minutes.
Option C. up to one hour.

Correct Answer is. up to one hour.
Question Number. 87. What NDT would

you carry out on aluminium alloy?.
Option A. Electroflux.
Option B. Magnetic flaw.
Option C. Ultrasonic.
Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Page

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COM PART -66 MODULE 7 PART -7

16a. Aircraft Weight and Balance. Option B. positive.

Correct Answer is. positive.

Question Number. 4. Aircraft

Option A. either positive or negative. used in weighing an aircraft refers to.

Option B. the individual loads on each

Question Number. 10. For purposes of

Question Number. 11. Points forward of

Correct Answer is. negative. Option B. the pilot.

Option C. a Licensed aircraft engineer. Question Number. 19. If the C of G of an

engineer. calculated. Then.

Question Number. 20. Cargo placed aft of

Question Number. 26. A Weight and

Option A. BCAR section A. Question Number. 3. When weighing an

Option A. as a single unit or combination of Question Number. 6. When weighing an

Question Number. 1. When mooring an Question Number. 4. When Ground

Option A. Nylon. Option A. paralleled to supply.

Option A. To relieve side pressure from the

Option C. To allow nose wheel chocks to be

Question Number. 8. Aluminium clad Option B. Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres

pressurized hydraulic system and is reading

maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to

Option A. no indication. what loads.

Question Number. 3. What would you

18a. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and

Question Number. 5. When using a Question Number. 9. After carrying out

Question Number. 7. What is used on

Question Number. 13. When checking a Explanation. Bonding - Continuity, Insulation,

the ohmmeter should be placed on the.

Option A. 10 millivolts for every 15 amps

Correct Answer is. 2-1-3. must be off.

Correct Answer is. The portion of the circuit

with no parallel paths. minimum insulation resistance value for an aircraft

Option A. Before any inspection is carried Option C. Chromic acid.

Question Number. 28. What is indicated

Question Number. 29. What is used to re-

Question Number. 33. Chromating used Question Number. 36. Removal of

Option A. uses chromium and converts the

Option C. using Alocrom 1200.

Question Number. 40. To remove

Option A. as a reference when checking the Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 50. If after forming a Question Number. 3. When inserting a

check the resistance. Textbook Page 8-31.

Option B. a stud remover tool fitted into a

Question Number. 4. On a patch repair Option C. cutting a slot in it and removing

Question Number. 6. When fitting a

Question Number. 7. A stud broken off

Option A. using a stud box. wire thread insert may be identified.

Option A. by a black painted tang. Question Number. 4. When carrying out

Option C. by an unpainted tang. applied it should be inspected.

Question Number. 1. Transducers used Question Number. 5. During a colour

Question Number. 6. How should a dye

Question Number. 3. To measure the

should be applied to the outside.

Correct Answer is. the dye should be applied Option B. longitudinally.

Question Number. 11. Magnetic particle

Question Number. 15. The main using either circular or longitudinal

can be detected by magnetic particle inspection of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.

Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 4.9.2. Explanation. NIL.

Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. Which of the

magnetic particle inspection method?.

Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-3 Para 1-5.