CAREER POINT .

MAINS - 2011

MAINS - 2011
Q.1 The density of a material in CGS system of units
r
is 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the
value of density of material will be (1) decrease by a factor of 2
(2) remain constant
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4
(3) increase by a factor of 2
(3) 40 (4) 400
(4) increase by a factor of 4

Q.2 A particle covers half of its total distance with Q.6 A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from
speed ν1 and the rest half distance with speed ν2. the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The
Its average speed during the complete journey is : mass and the radius of the earth are,
respectively, M and R. G is gravitational
ν1 + ν 2 ν1ν 2 constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on
(1) (2) the surface of the earth. The minimum value of
2 ν1 + ν 2
u so that the particle does not return back to
2ν1ν 2 ν12 ν 22 earth is :
(3) (4)
ν1 + ν 2 ν12 + ν 22 2GM 2GM
(1) (2)
R2 R
Q.3 A mass m moving horizontally (along the
2gM
x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to a (3) (4) 2gR 2
R2
mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the
Q.7 A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of
y-axis) with velocity 2 ν. The final velocity of
a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
the combination is : magnitude of the gravitational potential at a
3 1 1 3 point situated at a/2 distannce from the centre,
(1) ν î + νˆj (2) ν î + νˆj
2 4 4 2 will be :
1 2 2 1 GM 2GM
(3) ν î + νĵ (4) ν î + νĵ (1) (2)
3 3 3 3 a a
3GM 4GM
Q.4 A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of (3) (4)
a a
2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
Q.8 A projectile is fired at an angle of 45º with the
coefficient of friction between them is
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at
µ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move its highest point as seen from the point of
relative to belt before coming to rest on it, taking projection, is :
g = 10 ms–2 is (1) 45º (2) 60º
(1) 0.4 m (2) 1.2 m  3
1
(3) 0.6 m (4) Zero (3) tan–1 (4) tan–1  
2  2 
 
Q.5 A small mass attached to a string rotates on a
Q.9 A mass of diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) at a pressure of 2
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in
atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
the string is increased by pulling the string temperature rises from 27ºC to 927ºC. The
causing the radius of the circular motion to pressure of the gas in the final state is
decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of (1) 8 atm (2) 28 atm
the mass will (3) 68.7 atm (4) 256 atm

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Q.10 Two particles are oscillating along two close 3qQ 3qQ
(1) (2)
parallel straight lines side by side, with the same 4π ∈0 a 8π ∈0 a
frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, qQ
(3) (4) zero
moving in opposite directions when their 4π ∈0 a
displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
positions of the two particles lie on a straight Q.15 The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in
meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The
line perpendicular to the paths of the two electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is :
particles. The phase difference is : (1) 8 along negative X-axis
(1) π/6 (2) 0 (3) 2π/3 (4) π (2) 8 along positive X-axis
(3) 16 along negative X-axis
(4) 16 along positive X-axis
Q.11 Two identical piano wires, kept under the same
tension T have a fundamental frequency of Q.16 In the circuit shown in the figure, if the
potential at point A is taken to be zero, the
600Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of
potential at point B is
one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of R1 2V
D B
6 beats / s when both the wires oscillate together 1A
would be : 2A
R2 2Ω
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04
A 1A C 2A
Q.12 A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of 1V
refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with (1) +1 V (2) – 1 V
(3) +2 V (4) – 2 V
another prism of glass of refractive index
µ2 = 1.75. The combination of the prism Q.17 A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a
produced dispersion without deviation. The angle resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in
the circuit unchanged the resistance to be put in
of the second prism should be :
series with the galvanometer is
(1) 5º (2) 7º (3) 10º (4) 12º
G S2
(1) (2)
(S +G ) (S +G )
Q.13 A converging beam of rays is incident on a
SG G2
diverging lens. Having passed through the lens (3) (4)
(S +G ) (S +G )
the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens
on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the Q.18 A thermocouple of negligible resistance
produces an e.m.f. of 40 µV/ºC in the linear range
point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10
to the lens. The focal length of the lens is : ohm whose sensitivity is 1 µA/division, is
(1) 5 cm (2) – 10 cm employed with the thermocouple. The smallest
(3) 20 cm (4) – 30 cm value of temperature difference that can be
detected by the system will be
(1) 0.25ºC (2) 0.5 ºC
Q.14 Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners (3) 1ºC (4) 0.1ºC
of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and
Q.19 Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of
AC, 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and
radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a
CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of
to E is :
magnetic induction at the center of the ring is
A
µ 0 qf µ 0 qf
E (1) (2)
2πR 2R
B C µ0q µ0q
D (3) (4)
2fR 2πfR

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Q.20 A short bar magnet of magnet moment Q.24 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive
0.4 JT–1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency
0.16 T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-
the potential energy is : off voltage for the photoelectric emission is
(1) 0.064 J (2) – 0.064 J nearly :
(3) Zero (4) – 0.082 J (1) 1 V (2) 2 V (3) 3 V (4) 5 V

Q.25 An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from

Q.21 A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is excited state n to the ground state. The
placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight wavelength so emitted illuminates a
conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a photosensitive material having work function
distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the
The loop will experience : photoelectron is 10V, then the value of n is :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
I1
d I Q.26 Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given
sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time
t = 0, number of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q
I are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1
(1) a net attractive force tawards the conductor minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
(2) a net repulsive force away from the there are no nuclei of R present in the sample.
conductor When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal,
(3) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the number of nuclei of R present in the sample
the horizontal plane would be :
(4) a net torque acting downward normal to the 9N0 5N 0
(1) 2 N0 (2) 3 N0 (3) (4)
horizontal plane 2 2

Q.27 Out of the following which one is not a possible

Q.22 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown
energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen
in the figure is :
atom according to Bohr's atomic model ?
V
(1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.9 eV
(3) 11.1 eV (4) 13.6 eV
V0
Q.28 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal
t to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
0 T/2 T
shown in figure. The current through the diode
(1) V0/ 3 (2) V0 is :
(3) V0/ 2 (4) V0/2 +
250 Ω
Q.23 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive 20 V 1kΩ
15 V
reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across –
(1) 5 mA (2) 10 mA
the coil, the current in the coil will be
(3) 15 mA (4) 20 mA
(1) 2.0 A (2) 4.0 A
20
(3) 8.0 A (4) A
13
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Q.29 In the following figure, the diodes which are Q.32 The half life of a substance in a certain enzyme-
forward biased are : catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required
for the concentration of the substance to fall
+10V from
R 1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1, is-
(a) (1) 276 s (2) 414 s
+5V (3) 552 s (4) 690 s
R
Q.33 Consider the following processes :
(b)
–10V ∆H (kJ/mol)
½A→B + 150
3B → 2C + D –125
E + A → 2D +350
(c) For B + D → E + 2C, ∆H will be-
–12V (1) 325 kJ/mol (2) 525 kJ/mol
R (3) –175 kJ.mol (4) –325 kJ/mol

Q.34 The pairs of species of oxygen and their

–5V magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of
(d) the following presents the correct description?
(1) O, O22− - Both paramagnetic
R
(2) O2− ,O22 − - Both diamagnetic
(3) O + , O22 − - Both paramagnetic
+5V
(4) O2+ , O2 - Both paramagnetic
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (c) only Q.35 According to the Bohr Theory, which of the
(3) (c) and (a) following transitions in the hydrogen atom will
(4) (b) and (d) give rise to the least energetic photon?
(1) n = 5 to n = 3
(2) n = 6 to n = 1
Q.30 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of (3) n = 5 to n = 4
electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of (4) n = 6 to n = 5
1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases nh to Q.36 In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I
4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of : can be separated from other ions by
(1) P-type having electron concentrations precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution
ne = 5 × 10 m 9 –3 initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a
concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added
(2) n-type with electron concentrations
to this solution until the Cl– concentration is
22 –3
ne = 5 × 10 m 0.10 M. What will the concentration of Ag+ and
(3) P-type with electron concentrations Pb2+ be at equilibrium?
ne = 2.5 × 10 m 10 –3 (Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10,
Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10–5)
(4) n-type with electron concentrations
23 –3
(1) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11M;
ne = 2.5 × 10 m [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–4M
(2) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–7M;
Q.31 The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–6M
is - (3) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11M;
[Pb2+] = 8.5 × 10–5M
(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1s–1
(4) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–9M;
–1 –1
(3) L mol s (4) L2 mol–2 s–1 [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–3M

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Q.37 A bubble of air is underwater at temperature Q.42 Match List I with List II for the compositions of
15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises substances and select the correct answer using
to the surface where the temperature is 25°C and the code given below the lists-
the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the List-I List-II
volume of the bubble? Substances Composition
(1) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5
(A) Plaster of (i) CaSO4. 2H2O
(2) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6
paris
(3) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1
(4) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70 (B) Epsomite (ii) CaSO4.½H2O
(C) Kieserite (iii) MgSO4.7H2O
Q.38 A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is (D) Gypsum (iv) MgSO4.H2O
30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86°C/m, the
freezing point of the solution will be - (v) CaSO4
(1) –0.24°C (2) –0.18°C
(3) –0.54°C (4) –0.36°C Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.39 A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for
Fe3+/Fe2+ is +0.77 V and E° for I2/2I– = 0.536 V. (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
The favourable redox reaction is-
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Fe2+ will be oxidized to Fe3+
(2) I2 will be the reduced to I– (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(3) There will be no redox reaction
(4) I– will be oxidized to I2
Q.43 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
(1) CO2 (2) SnO2
Q.40 The rate of the reaction
(3) CaO (4) SiO2
2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2
can be written in three ways:
−d [ N 2 O5 ] Q.44 The following reactions take place in the blast
= k [N2O5] furnace in the preparation of impure iron.
dt
d [ NO2 ] Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation
= k′ [N2O5]
dt of the slag.
d [O2 ] (1) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO (g)
= k′′ [N2O5]
dt (2) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)
The relationship between k and k′ and between (3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
k and k′′ are- (4) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s)
(1) k′ = k, k′′= k (2) k′= 2k; k′′= k
(3) k′= 2k, k′′= k/2 (4) k′ = 2k; k′′= 2k Q.45 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3
Q.41 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein
(2) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid
contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this
ammonia to give blue solution.
solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar.
(3) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium
The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L
bar mol–1 K–1): silicate
(1) 61038 g mol–1 (2) 51022 g mol–1 (4) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give
(3) 122044 g mol–1 (4) 31011 g mol–1 Al(OH)3

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Q.46 What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Q.52 Which of the following compounds is most
+
Na if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV? basic ?
(1) + 10.2 eV (2) –5.1 eV
(1) NH2 (2)
(3) –10.2 eV (4) + 2.55 eV

O2N NH2
Q.47 Which has the maximum number of molecules
among the following? (3) CH2NH2 (4)
(1) 64 g SO2 (2) 44 g CO2
(3) 48 g O3 (4) 8 g H2 N–COCH3
H
Q.48 A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the
radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the Q.53 Which of the following is not a fat soluble
anion (Y–) will be- vitamin ?
(1) 165.7 pm (2) 275.1 pm (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B complex
(3) 322.5 pm (4) 241.5 pm (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
Q.54 Which of the following compounds undergoes
Q.49 Which of the following structures is the most nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?
preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3? Cl Cl
(1) (2)
O O NO2
(1) (2)
Cl Cl
S S
O O O O (3) (4)

O
CH3 OCH3
S Q.55 The IUPAC name of the following compound
(3) (4) S
O O Cl CH2CH3
O O O
CH3 I
is -
Q.50 Which of the following carbonyls will have the (1) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
strongest C–O bond ? (2) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(3) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(1) Fe (CO)5 (2) Mn (CO)6+
(4) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(3) Cr (CO)6 (4) V (CO) 6–
Q.56 An organic compound 'A' on treatment with
NH3 gives 'B', which on heating gives 'C'. 'C'
Q.51 Which of the following complex compounds will when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH
exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour? produces ethylamine. Compound 'A' is -
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (1) CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3COOH
(3) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co (NH3)6]3+
(3) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30) (4) CH3–CHCOOH

CH3

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Q.57 Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II Q.61 Examine the figure given below and select the
and select the suitable option using the code right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d)
given below : correctly identified :
List-I List-II
(a) Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein
(b) Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation
(c) Phenyl benzoate (iii) Oil of wintergreen
(d) Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q.58 Which of the statements about "Denaturation"
(1) Antherid- Male Globule Roots
given below are correct ?
iophore thallus
Statements
(2) Archego- Female Gemma- Rhizoids
(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of
secondary and tertiary structures of the niophore thallus cup
protein (3) Archego- Female Bud Foot
(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of niophore thallus
double strand of DNA into single strand (4) Seta Sporo- Proto- Rhizoids
(c) Denaturation affects primary structure which phyte nema
gets distorted
Q.62 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
Options :
represent a significant step toward evolution of
(1) (a), (b) and (c) seed habit because :
(2) (b) and (c) (1) Embryo develops in female gametophyte
(3) (a) and (c) which is retained on parent sporophyte.
(2) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed
(4) (a) and (b) like seeds.
(3) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia.
Q.59 The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium (4) Megaspore possess endosperm and embryo
bromide (PhMgBr) with the following surrounded by seed coat.
compounds : Q.63 Consider the following four statements whether
CH3 CH3 Ph they are correct or wrong
C=O C=O and C=O (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more
H H3 C Ph elaborate than that in mosses
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous
I II III
(C) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
diplontic
(3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II
(D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne
on different trees
Q.60 Consider the reactions :
The two wrong statements together are :
(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br C2 H 5OH
 → (1) Statements (A) and (B)
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + HBr (2) Statements (A) and (C)
−
(ii) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br C2 H 5O
 → (3) Statements (A) and (D)
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + Br– (4) Statements (B) and (C)
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are Q.64 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the
respectively : spindle fibres by their :
(1) SN 2 and SN1 (2) SN1 and SN 2 (1) Centromere
(3) SN1 and SN1 (4) SN 2 and SN 2 (2) Satellites
(3) Secondary constrictions
(4) Kinetochores
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Q.65 Which one of the following is not considered as Q.71 Which one of the following diagrams represents
a part of the endomembrane system ? the placentation in Dianthus ?
(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi complex
(1) (2)
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Vacuole

Q.66 In history of biology, human genome project led

to the development of :
(1) Biosystematics
(2) Biotechnology
(3) (4)
(3) Biomonitoring
(4) Bioinformatics

Q.67 The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic

material came from the studies on a :
(1) Bacterial virus Q.72 Which one of the following is essential for
(2) Bacterium photolysis of water ?
(1) Boron
(3) Fungus
(2) Manganese
(4) Viroid (3) Zinc
(4) Copper
Q.68 Guttation is the result of :
(1) Root pressure Q.73 In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have :
(2) Diffusion (1) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and
few chloroplasts
(3) Transpiration
(2) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no
(4) Osmosis
chloroplasts
Q.69 Function of companion cells is : (3) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
large number of chloroplasts
(1) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(4) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
(2) Providing energy to sieve elements for active several chloroplasts
transport
Q.74 Sweet potato is homologous to :
(3) Providing water to phloem
(1) Turnip (2) Potato
(4) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by (3) Colocasia (4) Ginger
passive transport
Q.75 Which one of the following is not an essential
Q.70 some vascular bundles are described as open mineral element for plants while the remaining
because these : three are ?
(1) Phosphorus
(1) are not surrounded by pericycle
(2) Iron
(2) are surrounded by pericycle but no
(3) Manganese
endodermis (4) Cadmium
(3) are capable of producing secondary xylem
Q.76 Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation
and phloem
are present in :
(4) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem (1) Alstonia (2) Calotropis
and phloem (3) Neem (4) China Rose

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Q.77 What is common between vegetative reproduction Q.85 The logistic population growth is expressed by
and Apomixis ? the equation :
(1) Both produces progeny identical to the parent N–K
(1) dN/dt = rN  
 N 
(2) Both are applicable to only dicot plants K – N
(3) Both bypass the flowering phase (2) dt/dN = Nr  
 K 
(4) Both occur round the year
K – N
(3) dN/dt = rN  
Q.78 In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the :  K 
(1) Matrix (4) dN/dt = rN
(2) Outer membrane
(3) Inner membrane Q.86 Which one of the following is a wrong matching
(4) Intermembrane space of a microbe and its industrial product, while the
remaining three are correct ?:
Q.79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Aspergillus niger – citric acid
matched while the remaining three are correct ? (2) Yeast – statins
(1) Agave - Bulbils (3) Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid
(2) Penicillium - Conidia (4) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid
(3) Water hyacinth - Runner
(4) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds Q.87 Read the following statement having two blanks
(A and B) :
Q.80 In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops (A) ___ patients is obtained
''A drug used for ______
into : ( B)___ ''.
from a species of the organism ______
(1) Pollen sac
The one correct option for the two blanks is :
(2) Embryo sac Blank-A Blank-B
(3) Ovule (1) AIDS ' Pseudomonas
(4) Endosperm (2) Heart Penicillium
(3) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
Q.81 Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to :
(4) Swine flu Monascus
(1) Excessive wet conditions
(2) Medium water conditions Q.88 Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
(3) Xeric conditions because it is :
(4) Highly dry conditions (1) not an infectious disease
(2) caused by a virus
Q.82 Which one of the following animals may occupy (3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
more than one trophic levels in the same (4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
ecosystem at the same time ?
Q.89 Read the following four statements (A-D) about
(1) Frog (2) Sparrow
certain mistakes in two of them :
(3) Lion (4) Goat (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced
Q.83 The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin
by earthworm is a process called : enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of
(1) Catabolism
DNA from other macro-molecules
(2) Humification
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps
(3) Fragmentation of R-DNA technology
(4) Mineralisation (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in
transfer of R-DNA into the host
Q.84 ''Good ozone'' is found in the : Which are the two statements having mistakes ?
(1) Ionosphere (1) Statements (A) and (B)
(2) Mesosphere (2) Statements (B) and (C)
(3) Troposphere (3) Statements (C) and (D)
(4) Stratosphere (4) Statements (A) and (C)
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 CAREER POINT . MAINS - 2011

Q.90 Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing Q.94 Which one of the following conditions of the
transgenic plants resistant to : zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal
(1) Bacterial blights (2) Bollworms human female child ?
(3) Nematodes (4) White rusts (1) one X and one Y chromosome
Q.91 Which one of the following aspects is an (2) two X chromosomes
exclusive characteristic of living things ? (3) only one Y chromosome
(1) Increase in mass by accumulation of material (4) only one X chromosome
both on surface as well as internally
(2) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro Q.95 Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves
(3) Increase in mass from inside only crossing :
(4) Perception of events happening in the (1) between two genotypes with dominant trait
environment and their memory (2) between two genotypes with recessive trait
Q.92 The type of muscles present in our : (3) between two F1 hybrids
(1) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres (4) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
fusiform in shape
(2) heart are involuntary and unstriated Q.96 Which one of the following correctly represents
smooth muscles the normal adult human dental formula ?
(3) intestine are striated and involuntary 3 1 3 3 3 1 3 1
(4) thigh are straiated and voluntary (1) , , , (2) , , ,
3 1 3 3 3 1 2 1
Q.93 The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3
(d). Select the correct answer with respect to a (3) , , , (4) , ,
2 1 2 3 2 1 2 3
common characetrsitcs of two of these animals.
Q.97 The figure below shows the structure of a
mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A),
(a) (b)
(B), (C). and (D) Select the part correctly
matched with its function. –

(c)

(1) Part (A) : Matrix – major site for

respiratory chain enzymes
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane – gives rise to
inner membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane – forms
(d) infoldings called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae – possess single circular
DNA molecule and ribosome

Q.98 Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from

(1) (c) and (d) have a true coelom
(2) (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall
(3) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry
(4) (a) and (b) have cnidoblasts for selfdefence
body tissues into the blood is present as :
(1) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(2) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(3) Free CO2 in blood plasma
(4) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as
bicarbonate

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 CAREER POINT . MAINS - 2011
Q.99 Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Q.104 Which one of the following structure in pheretima
Which one of its components is correctly is correctly matched with its function ?
interpreted below ? (1) Typhlosole-storage of extra nutrients
(2) Clitellum-secretes cocoon
(3) Gizzard-absorbs digested food
(4) Setae-defence against predators

Q.105 Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :

(1) frog's males
(2) human males
(3) human females
(1) Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only (4) frog's both males and females
(2) Complex QRS-One complete pulse
Q.106 One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice
(3) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction
while poured into the duodenum in humans is :
(4) Peak P and Peak R together-systolic and
(1) Enterokinase (2) Trypsinogen
diastolic blood pressures
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Trypsin
Q.100 Frogs differ from humans in possessing :
(1) thyroid as well as parathyroid Q.107 Which one of the following is a possibility for
(2) paired cerebral hemispheres most of us in regard to breathing , by making a
(3) hepatic portal system conscious effort ?
(4) nucleated red blood cells (1) The lungs can be made fully empty by
forcefully breathings out all air from them
Q.101 The cells lining the blood vessels belongs to the (2) One can breathe out air totally without
category of : oxygen
(1) Connective tissue
(3) One can breathe out air through Eustachian
(2) Smooth muscle tissue
tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) one can consciously breathe in and breathe
(4) Columnar epithelium
out by moving the diaphragm alone,
Q.102 The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the without moving the ribs at all.
sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone : Q.108 What happens during fertilisation in humans
(1) melatonin
after many sperms reach close to the ovum ?
(2) calcitonin
(1) Only two sperms nearest the ovum
(3) prolactin
penetrate zona pellucida
(4) adrenaline
(2) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
Q.103 Three of the following pairs of the human enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
skeletal parts are correctly matched with their pellucida
respective inclusive skeletal category and one (3) All sperms except the one nearest to the
pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching ovum lose their tails
pair. (4) Cells of corona radiate trap all the sperms
except one.
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
Q.109 The technique called gamete intrafallopian
(1) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
(2) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton females :
(1) who cannot provide suitable environment
(3) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle
for fertilisation
cavity (2) who cannot produce an ovum
(4) Humerus and ulna Appendicular (3) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
skeleton (4) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
passage for the sperms
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 CAREER POINT . MAINS - 2011

Q.110 Consider the following four statements (A-D) Q.113 Consider the following statements (A-D) about
organic farming :
related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt
select the correct option stating which ones are cotton
true(T) and which ones are false(F). (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
Statements : compost
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few minerals
days Which of the above statements are correct ?
(B) it has four-chambered heart (1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic (3) (C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (C) only
(D) Its life-history is carried out in pond water Q.114 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) Species endemic to the region
(2) Endangered species found in the region
(1) F T T F
(3) The diversity in the organisms living in the
(2) T F F T
region
(3) T T F F (4) Genetic diversity present in the dominant
(4) F F T T species of the region.
Q.115 Which one of the following options gives the
Q.111 About which day in a normal human menstrual correct matching of a disease with its causative
cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly organism and mode of infection :
called LH-surge) normally occurs ? Causative Mode of
Disease
(1) 11th day (2) 14th day Organisms Infection
(3) 20th day (4) 5th day (1) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
vivax Anopheles
mosquito
Q.112 Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each
(2) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired
with one or two blanks :
typhi air
(A) Bears go into _________
(1) during winter to (3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
_________
( 2) cold weather. pneumoniae infection
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base (4) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected
represents _________
(3) human population. bancrofti water and food
Q.116 The pathogen Microsporum responsible for
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an ringworm disease in humans belongs to the
example of _________
(4 ) . same Kingdom of organisms at that of :
(1) Ascaris, a round worm
(D) An area with high levels of species richness
(2) Taenia, a tapeworm
is known as _________
( 5) . (3) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
Which of the following options, gives the correct (4) Rhizopus, a mould
fill ups for the respective blank numbers from
Q.117 Select the correct statement with respect to
(1) to (5) in the statements ?
disease and immunisation :
(1) (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, (1) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
(3) - expanding, (5) - hot spot bite is an example of active immunisation.
(2) (3) - stable, (4) - commensalism, (2) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes
(5) - marsh are damaged, the body will not produce
(3) (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, antibodies against a pathogen.
(3) - stable, (4) - mutualism (3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens
(4) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, causes passive immunity
(5) - biodiversity park (4) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
produces hepatitis B vaccine

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 CAREER POINT .
Q.118 Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
which contain insecticidal protein.
This protein :
(1) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is
itself resistant to this toxin
(2) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the
insect pest ultimately killing it
(3) is coded by several genes including the gene
cry
(4) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the
insect pest.
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MAINS - 2011
Q.119 Which one of the following techniques made it
possible to genetically engineer living organisms ?
(1) Hybridization
(2) Recombinant DNA techniques
(3) X-ray diffraction
(4) Heavier isotope labeling
Q.120 Which one of the following statements is totally
wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while
the other three are correct ?
(1) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
(2) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(3) It is replaced by vertebral column in adult
frog
(4) It is absent throughout life in humans from
the very beginning
13
 CAREER POINT . MAINS - 2011
ANSWER KEY (MAINS-2011)

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 1 2 2
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 4 2 1 4 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 4 1 4
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 4 3 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 4
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 2 4

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1 [3] 5. [4]
M Sol. From the law of conservation of angular
Sol. M = d.V ⇒ d =
L3 momentum
4 gm 4(1 / 100) gm
⇒d= = = 40 r
cm 3 10 −3 cm 3 mvr = mv′
2
2 [3] v′ = 2v
2v1v 2
Sol. Average velocity = 1
v1 + v 2 mv 2
KE 2 1
so = =
KE1 1
mv′ 2 4
3 [2] 2
Sol. From the law of conservation of linear 6. [2]
momentum
2GM
mv î + (3m)(2v) ˆj = 4 mv′ Sol. vescape =
R
v 3
v′ = î + vĵ Escape velocity from earth surface.
4 2
7. [3]
4. [1]
Sol.
m 2m/s v=0
M
Sol. F=µmg
retardation of the block on the belt a x
F a/2
a= = µg M
m
From v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = 22 – 2(µg) s gravitational potential at x point

4 GM GM 3GM
s= = 0.4 m Vx = + =
2 × 0.5 × 10 a/2 a a
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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2010
8. [3] 12. [3]
Sol. Sol. For without deviation
Y A µ'−1
=−
A' µ −1
u α ucos45º 15º 1.75 − 1
=−
A' 1.50 − 1
hmax 15º 0.75
45º α X
=−
A' 0.50
R/2
A' = –10º
u 2 sin 2 45º 13. [4]
h 2g sol.
tanα = max =
R/2 u 2 sin 90º
O
2g I
1 10cm 5cm
tanα =
4
15cm
α = tan–1(1/4)
1 1 1
9 [4] − =
v u f
Sol. P ∝ Tγ/γ–1 1 1 1
γ / γ −1 − =
P2 T  15 10 f
=  2 
P1 f = –30 cm
 T1 
γ / γ −1
T  14. [4]
P2 = P1  2  Sol. WD→E = Q[VE – VD]
 T1 
Q VE = VD ⇒ WD→E = 0
1.4
 1200  1.4−1 15. [1]
P2 = 2 
 300  r  ∂V ∂V ∂V 
Sol. E = − î + ĵ + k̂ 
P2 = 256 atm  ∂x ∂y ∂z 
r
10 [3] E = − [î (8x )]
r
Sol. E (1,0,2) = – 8î
T/12 T/12 T/6 So electric field is 8 along negative x-axis.
16. [1]
Sol. By KVL along path ACDB
VA + 1 + (1) (2) – 2 = VB
0 + 1 = VB
⇒ VB = 1 volt
17. [4]
A –A/2 x=0 +A/2 A Sol.
G R
T T 2T G
Time interval = + = G
6 6 6
2T 2π
Phase difference ⇒ ≡ S
6 3
Current will be unchanged if resistance remains
same so
11. [2]
GS
Sol. n∝ T G= +R
G +S
∆n 1 ∆T
= ⇒R=G–
GS
n 2 T G +S
∆T ∆n 6
= 2× =2× = 0.02 G2
T n 600 =
G +S
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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2010
18. [1] 13 [2]
Sol. For minimum deflection of 1 division Sol. XL = 2πfL
required current = 1 µA XL ∝ f
⇒ Voltage required = IR = (1µA) (10) = 10 µV X L2 f
= 2 ⇒ X L 2 = 40 Ω
∴ 40 µV ≡ 1ºC X L1 f1
1
⇒ 10 µV ≡ ºC = 0.25ºC R = 30 Ω
4
Z= (30) 2 + (40) 2 = 50 Ω
V 200
I= = = 4A
Z 50
19. [2]
24. [2]
µ I µ qf E Ph – W h (ν – ν 0 )
Sol. B= 0 = 0 Sol. V0 = =
2R 2R e e
q
I= = qf 6.62 × 10 –34 (8.2 × 1014 – 3.3 × 1014 )
T =
1.6 × 10 –19
20. [2] 6.62 × 10 –34
= × 4.9 × 1014+19
Sol. U = –MB cos θ 1.6
U = –MB cos 0 = –0.4 × 0.16 = –0.064 6.62 × 4.9
= × 10 –1 = 2 volt
1.6
25 [2]
21. [1] Sol. EPh = K.Emax + W
= eV0 + W = 10 + 2.75 = 12.75 eV
I1 n=4
Sol. d F1
n=3
F4
n=2
F2
10.2 eV 12.1 eV 12.75 eV
F3 n=1
→ → Differenced of 4 and 1 energy level is 12.75 eV
F2 = − F4 So higher energy level is 4 to ground and
→ µ 0 I1I 2 l Excited state is n = 3.
F1 =
2πd 26. [3]
→ µ II l Sol. P Q
F3 = 0 1 2 4N0 N0
2π(d + l) T1/2 1 min 2 min
→ NP = NQ
F1 > F3 4N 0 N
t /1
= t /02
So wire attract loop. 2 2
4 = 2t/2
22 = 2t/2
t
= 2 ⇒ t = 4 min
22. [3] 2
1/ 2
Disactive nucleus or Nuclei of R
1/ 2
 1 T/2   V2   4N   N 
Sol. Vrms = 
T 0 ∫
V02 dt 

=  0 [ t ]T0 / 2 
 T 
=  4 N 0 − 4 0  +  N 0 − 20 
 2   2 
 
N0 N0 N
1/ 2 1/ 2 = 4 N0 – + N0 – = 5 N0 – 0
 V2   V2  V0 4 4 2
=  0 (T / 2) or Vrms =  0  = 9
 T   2  2 = N0
2

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2010
27. [3] 34. [4]
Sol. 11.1 eV is not possible Sol. O2+ = KKσ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2px2 = π2py2)
(π*2px1)
28. [1]
O2 = KKσ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2px2 = π2py2)
I I1
Sol. (π*2px1 = π*2py1)
250Ω
I2 O2 and O2+ contain unpaired electron in π*
20V 15V 1kΩ ABMO so paramagnetic.

35. [4]
15 hC 1 1
Ι1 = = 15 mA Sol. E= = hC R H  2 − 2 
1kΩ λ  n1 n 2 
20 − 15
I= = 20 mA
250 36. [4]
I2 = I – I1 = 20 mA – 15 mA = 5mA Sol. [Ag+] [Cl–] = 1.8 × 10–10
1.8 × 10 −10
[Ag+] = = 1.8 × 10 −9 M
29. [3] 0.1
Sol. (a), (c) are forward bias. [Pb+2] [Cl–]2 = 1.7 × 10–5
1.7 × 10 −5
[Pb+2] = = 1.7 × 10 −3 M
0.1× 0.1
30. [1]
Sol. ne nh = n i2
ne NA = n i2 37. [2]
Sol. P1 = 1.5 bar P2 = 1
n i2 (1.5 × 1016 ) 2 T1 = 288 K T2 = 298 K
ne = = 22
= 5 × 109/m3
NA 4.5 × 10 V1 = V V2 = ?
31. [2] P1V1 P2 V2
=
T1 T2
Sol. Unit of k = mol1 – n ln – 1 s–1
V2 = 1.55 V
For zero order reaction
38. [1]
n=0
Sol. i = 1 – α + nα
unit of k = mol l–1 s–1 i = 1 – 0.3 + 2(0.3)
i = 1.3
32. [4] ∆Tf = iKf m

Sol. 1.28 → 0.64 → 0.32 → 0.16 → 0.08 = 1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1

∆Tf = + 0.24ºC
→ 0.04
Freezing point of solution = – 0.24ºC
No. of half lifes (n) = 5
Total time 39. [4]
5=
138 Sol. 2Fe+3 + 2I– → I2 + 2Fe+2
time required = 5 × 138
= 690 s 40. [3]
1 d[ N 2 O5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] d[O 2 ]
Sol. Rate = − =+ =
33. [3] 2 dt 4 dt dt
Sol. 2(i) – (iii) + (ii) 1 1
K[ N 2O5 ] = K '[ N 2O5 ]
∆H = 2(150) – 350 – 125 2 4
= – 175 kJ/mol K
K' = 2K and K" =
2
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41. [1] 49. [1]
w Sol. Most preferred structure of SO3 with lowest
Sol. πv = RT
m
energy is as it contain maximum number of
200 1.26
2.57 × 10–3 × = × 0.083 × 300 covalent bond.
1000 m
m = 61038 gm mol–1 O
σ π (pπ–dπ bonding)
42. [3] (pπ–pπ bonding) π S π
σ σ
Sol. Plaster of paris = CaSO4.1/2 H2O O O
Epsomite = MgSO4.7H2O 50. [2]
Kieserite = MgSO4.H2O
Sol. Due to positive oxidation state of Mn back
Gypsum = CaSO4.2H2O
donation in π* ABMO of CO is minimum
therefore C–O bond is strongest.

43. [2] 51. [3]

Sol. SnO2 react with acid as well base Sol. [Cr(NH3)6]+3 [Ar] 3d3 4s0
So amphoteric three unpaired electron are present in t2g orbited
SnO2 + 4HCl → SnCl4 + 2H2O eg
SnO2 + 2NaOH → Na2 SnO3 + H2O
3d t2g
44. [4]
Sol. SiO2 + CaO → CaSiO3 52. [3]
Acidic Basic Slag Sol. Localized l.p. is more basic than delocalized l.p.
impunity flux
53. [2]
45. [4]
Sol. Aluminium dissolve in excess NaOH to Sol. It is a fact
liberating hydrogen and forming metaaluminate
2 Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na [Al(OH)4] 54. [2]
or (2NaAlO2.2H2O) + 3H2 Sol. Intermediate carbanion is involve which is most
stable with –M group.
46. [2]
+
Sol. M M
→ M+ + e– IE1 = 5.1 eV
55. [2]
M+ + e– → M ∆Heg = – 5.1 eV
Sol.
47. [4] 4 5
Cl 2 3 CH2 – CH3
8
Sol. Maximum number of molecules = NA C=C
2 H3 C I
= 4NA 1

Configuration is (trans) OR (E)

48. [4] Name ⇒ 2- chloro-3-iodo- 2-pentene
rc 100
Sol. = 0.414 ⇒ ra = = 241.5 pm
ra 0.414

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2010
56. [1] 58. [4]
Sol. Sol. Primary structure is unaffected by denaturation.
NH3
CH3 – CH2 – COOH CH3 – CH2 – COONH4
(A) (B) 59. [1]
Sol. N.A. R ∝ ⊕ Charge on Sp2
∆ –H2O
−M −I
O carbon ∝ ∝
Br2 + KOH +M +I
CH3 – CH2 – NH2 Hoffmann
CH3 – CH2 – C–NH2
degradation (C)

60. [4]
57. [1] Sol. 1° halide generally shows SN2 reaction.
Sol. (No rearrangement)
alc. KCN
*Ph – C – H +Ph – C – H Ph – CH – C – Ph
O O OH O
(Benzaldehyde) (Benzoin)
O O
C C
*Phthalic Conc. H2SO4
anhydride O O
(– H2O)
C C
O
H + H
OH OH
(Phenolphthalein)

OH OH

* Methyl benzoate is involve in fries rearrangement.

OH OH
H⊕
C – OH + H – OCH3 C – OCH3
*. (– H2O)
O O
Methyl salicylate
OR
Oil of wintergreen

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