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Q.1 In expression, g = g0 (1 + βsin2 ), β is a dimensionless constant and is the latitude angle.

titude angle. The expression defines the variation of g on geographical latitude at

sea level. Find the error in measurement of g if error in measurement of is Δ .

g0βΔ sin2
g0βΔ cos2
g0βΔ sin2
g0βΔ cos2
Q.2 If instead of mass, length and time as fundamental quantities, we choose velocity, acceleration and force as fundamental quantities and express their dimensions
by v, a and F respectively, then the dimensions of Young's modulus will be expressed as

[Fa2v–4]
[F2v–1a]
[Fa2v–1]
[Fav–2]
Q.3
From a high tower at t = 0, one stone is dropped from rest and simultaneously another stone is projected vertically up with some initial velocity from the same position.
The graph of sum of magnitude of displacement travelled by the particles and time before either hits the ground is
Choose one:

Q.4
Two objects A and B are thrown, upward simultaneously, with the same speed. The mass of A is greater than the mass of B. Suppose the air exerts a constant and equal
force of resistance on the two bodies, then
Choose one:

The two bodies will reach the same height


A will go higher than B

B will go higher than A

Any of the above three may happen depending upon the speed with which they are
thrown
Q.5
The least count of a stopwatch is 1.5 s. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25s. What is the maximum percentage error in this measurement?
Choose one:

8%

1%

0.8%

16%
Q.6
A stone is thrown vertically upwards. On its way up it passes point A with speed v and point B,3m higher than A, with speed v/2. The maximum height reached by the
stone above point B is
Choose one:

1m

2m

3m

5m
Q.7
A body is projected vertically upwards at time t = 0 and it is seen at a height H at instants t1and
t2 seconds during its flight. The maximum height attained is
Choose one:

Q.8

The force F, energy E, velocity v and mass m are related as , where α and β are dimensional constants. The dimensional formula for will be
Choose one:
Q.9
In an experiment for measuring g by simple pendulum, the least count of stop clock is 0.5 s. Time for 20 oscillations is measure to be 10.5 s. The effective length
(measured from meter scale) is
100.3 cm. The uncertainty in the measurement is
Choose one:

5.5%

10.5%

5.25%

9.6%
Q.10
A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a fixed sphere of radius R. A small bead slips from A to B. Choose incorrect option about time t taken by the bead A to B. The time t is
(choose incorrectoption)

Choose one:

Proportional to

Proportional to

Inversely proportional to

Independent of angle θ
Q.11
Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. Given R1 = (5.0 ± 0.2) kΩ and R2 = (10 ± 0.1) kΩ. The effective resistance is given by
Choose one:

3.3 kΩ ± 2%

3.3 kΩ ± 1%
3.3 kΩ ± 3%

3.3 kΩ ± 4%
Q.12
The focal length of a concave mirror is found by
u-v method with observations u = 0.45 m, v = 0.90 m. The calculated value with permissible error is given by
Choose one:

[0.29 ± 0.006] m

[0.3 ± 0.004] m

[0.3 ± 0.006] m

[0.3 ± 0.06] m
Q.13
A body travels half of its total distance in last second of its fall from rest, then time of fall is (Assume g = 9.8 ms–2)
Choose one:

3.8 s

3.41 s

4.41 s

3.45 s
Q.14
A particle of 2 kg mass is moving in straight line, along x-axis. Its position is given by x(t) = 4t2 – 3t, where t is in second. Select incorrect option.
Choose one:

Rate of change of position is minimum at


t = 0.375 s
Average velocity of particle will be zero from
t = 0 to t = 0.75 s
Acceleration of particle is time independent

Velocity of particle will be zero at t = 1.50 s


Q.15
Find the number of significant figures in the expression 238.523.
Choose one:

3
5
Q.16
Statement-1 : Area of figure under acceleration-time graph and time axis represents the velocity.
and
Statement-2 : Magnitude of instantaneous velocity is always equal to instantaneous speed.
Choose one:

Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


Q.17
A car travelling with speed 10 km/h can stop within a distance of 20 m. If the car is moving with speed 20 km/h, then stopping distance will be [Assume constant
retardation]
Choose one:

20 m

40 m

60 m

80 m
Q.18
A particle is initially at rest at x = 0. It has acceleration a = 6t. Position of particle x(t) will be.
Choose one:

x = 6t2

x = t3

x = t3/2

x = t2
Q.19
A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along x-axis. Its position varies as x = (2t3 – 2t + 4) m. Find acceleration of particle at t = 1 s.
Choose one:

13 m/s2

12 m/s2

6 m/s2

Zero
Q.20
A particle is moving along x-axis. Its position varies as x = 10 sint, x in metre and t in second. Find average velocity from t = 0 to t = s.
Choose one:

m/s

m/s

Zero

10 m/s
Q.21
A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power (P = Fv, where F is the force and v is the velocity). The distance, moved by the body in
time t, is proportional to (Assume initial velocity of body is zero)
Choose one:

t3/4

t3/2

t2
Q.22
Which of the following graph is possible?
Choose one:

Q.23
A particle is moving with constant acceleration
2 m/s2 in straight line. If particle is at rest at t = 0, then find displacement from t = 1 s to 4 s.
Choose one:

1m
3m

15 m

10 m
Q.24
A particle is projected from tower as shown in figure. Find speed at t = 1 s. [v0 = 10 m/s, g = 10 m/s2]

Choose one:

10 m/s

Zero

Q.25
The point on curve at which particle is retarding

Choose one:

Both B & C
Q.26
A stone is dropped from height of 125 m. If g = 10 ms–2, what is the ratio of distances travelled by it during the first and last second of its motion?
Choose one:

1:9

2:9
1:3

4:9
Q.27
The acceleration of a body moving with initial

velocity u from origin changes with position x as , where K is positive constant. The distance travelled by the body when its velocity becomes 2u
Choose one:

Q.28

A ball is dropped vertically from a height h above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height . Neglect subsequent motion and air resistance,
its velocity v varies with the height h
Choose one:

Q.29
If momentum is increased by 20%, then kinetic energy increases by
Choose one:

44%
55%

66%

77%
Q.30
Figure shows the variation of velocity v of a body with position x from the origin. Which of the graphs shown correctly represent the variation of the acceleration a with
position x?

Choose one:

Q.31
If the magnitude of charge on electron and proton is increased by two-folds, then velocity of the electron moving in Bohr orbit of H-atom
Choose one:

Increases by 4 times

Decreases by 2 times

Increases by 8 times

Decreases by 4 times
Q.32
Which of the following is correct order of first ionisation energy?
Choose one:
Be > He

P>S

Na > Ar

B>O
Q.33
Impure sample contains one mole of glucose (C6H12O6) and impurity. In this sample oxygen is present 50% by mass, then what is the mass percentage of hydrogen in
sample? (Assume impurity does not contain C, H and O)
Choose one:

10%

12.25%

8.5%

6.25%
Q.34
A radiation of wavelength 'λ' is incident on metal surface having 620 nm threshold wavelength. The stopping potential of electron emitted is 4.9 V. What is the value of λ
(in nm)?
Choose one:

179.7

315.1

281.3

151
Q.35
Which of the following species has radius less than ionic radius of K+?
Choose one:

S–2

Kr

Mg+2

Cl–
Q.36
90 mL of 21% (w/v) HNO3 is completely neutralised by 112 mL of x% (w/v) of KOH. The value of x is
Choose one:

21
18

15

12
Q.37
Select the correct statement about 2p orbital.
Choose one:

Its orbital angular momentum is zero

One radial node is present

It do not have any angular node

Radial probability density (Ψ2) versus distance from nucleus curve has only one peak
Q.38
The maximum number of electrons present in Fe+2 ion with same spin is
Choose one:

10

14

13

9
Q.39
The most basic oxide among the following is
Choose one:

CaO

SrO

ZnO

SO2
Q.40
Electronegatives of elements P, Q and R on Pauling scale are 3.5, 1.1 and 2.3 respectively. Which of the following bond is most polar?
Choose one:

P–Q

Q–R

P–R
Data insufficient
Q.41

An element 'X' has two isotopes with atomic mass 3a and 2a. The average atomic mass of X is a. The percentage abundance of heavier isotope is
Choose one:

More than percentage abudnace of lighter isotope

Less than percentage abundance of lighter isotope

Equal to percentage abundance of lighter isotope

40%
Q.42
0.48 g of Br2 is reacted with 0.57 g of F2 to form a
pale yellow liquid, BraFb. The correct relation between a and b is (Atomic mass of Br = 80, F = 19)
Choose one:

a=b

b = 3a

b = 5a

a = 2b
Q.43
Initially electrons in a sample of H-atom are in an energy state that has three nodes and is spherically symmetrical. During de-excitation, 'p' is maximum number of
spectral lines observed and 'q' is number of lines observed in visible region. What is the difference between 'p' and 'q'?
Choose one:

3
Q.44
Which of the following is not a representative element?
Choose one:

37Rb

50Sn

20Ca

57 La
Q.45
When electron is added to an isolated gaseous atom, then
Choose one:

Energy released in S is more than that in O

Energy is released in N is more than O

Energy released in O is more than that in F

Energy released in C is less than that in Li


Q.46
Moving from Al to Cl across the period, oxidizing power of elements
Choose one:

Decreases

Remain same

Increases

No regular trend
Q.47
Identify a pair of isotones.
Choose one:

Q.48
15 mL of 0.5 M H2O2 reacts with 10 mL of 0.5 M KMnO4 in excess of sulphuric acid, according to reaction
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2O2
→ K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5O2
The volume of O2 produced at STP is
Choose one:

1.68 L

99 mL

168 mL

33.6 mL
Q.49
Kinetic energy of electron in nth orbit of He+ ion is 3.4 eV. Then
Choose one:
Radius of nth orbit = 2.116 Å

Number of waves associated with the orbit is 3

Total energy = +3.4 eV

Potential energy = –6.8 eV


Q.50
What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron which is accelerated by 37.5 V potential difference?
Choose one:

2 × 10–10 m

5 × 10–9 m

1.2 × 10–9 m

6.3 × 10–10 m
Q.51
What is the equivalent weight of acid in following reaction?
2KOH + H4P2O7 → K2H2P2O7 + 2H2O
(Atomic mass of P = 31)
Choose one:

178

89

59.33

44.5
Q.52
Consider the hypothetical reaction

The given reaction does not obey


Choose one:

Law of constant proportion

Law of definite proportion

Law of conservation of mass

Gay Lussac's law of gaseous volume


Q.53
Valence shell electronic configuration of an element is
The element violated
Choose one:

de Broglie rule

Heisenberg's Principle

Hund's Rule

Pauli's Exclusion Principle


Q.54
Select the incorrect statement.
Choose one:

Valence shell configuration for d-block elements is always (n – 1)d1–10 ns1–2

Successive electron gain enthalpies are positive

Electronegativity is property of atom in combined state

Electron gain enthalpy of Ne is positive


Q.55
Among 3rd period elements, most electronegative is
Choose one:

Na

Cl
Q.56
Electron in 5th orbit of He+ ion jump to 3rd orbit.
The wavelength of emitted photon is (Take RH =
1.09 × 107 m–1)
Choose one:

112.5 nm

112.5 mm

322.5 nm

322.5 Å
Q.57
Maximum number of atoms are present in
Choose one:
2.45 g of H2SO4

1.6 g of SO2

1.1 g of N2O

0.8 g of O2
Q.58
What is the normality of 50 mL solution of 4.1 g of H2SO3?
Choose one:

1N

2N

0.5 N

3N
Q.59
Which of the following has minimum weight of free SO3?
Choose one:

107% oleum

121% oleum

115% oleum

102% oleum
Q.60
Among the following, which electromagnetic radiation has shortest wavelength?
Choose one:

Blue light

Red light

Orange light

Indigo light
Q.61

The domain of the function is


Choose one:
Q.62 A polynomial function f(x) satisfies ; x ≠ 0 and f(2) = 18, then f(3) is equal to
Choose one:

27

42

56

18
Q.63
The range of the function f(x) = (1 + 4x) (1 + 9x) (1 + 16x) 24–x is
Choose one:

[0, ∞)

[8, ∞)

[6, ∞)

[6, 8]
Q.64

The range of the function , is


Choose one:

[1, ∞)

R ~ {3}
Q.65
The number of real solutions of the equation
||x2 – 1| –3| = 2 is
Choose one:
3

6
Q.66
If log912 = a, then the value of log2448 is equal to
Choose one:

Q.67

If A – B = and B – C = B, then A ∩ C is equal to


Choose one:

B
Q.68
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, AΔB = {1, 7, 8}, then the number of subsets of B having at least one element, is
Choose one:

120

128

127

132
Q.69
A = {2, 3, 4, ..., 10} and B is the range of the relation R = {(x, y) : x, y ∈ A, x is a divisor of y such that x ≠ y}, then the number of relations from B to A – B is
Choose one:

215
218

220

230
Q.70

If and f(a) = 5, then is equal to


Choose one:

16

–10

–16
Q.71

A function f(x) defined as , then the product of the pre-images of 8 and 14, is
Choose one:

28

–84

756
Q.72

A function f(x) = max{x – [x], –x – [–x]}, where [·] denotes the greatest integer function, and an another function is g(x) = 2x2 –
1, then the number of solutions of the equation f(x) = g(x) is

Q.73

The solution of the equation 2[x] + [3x] = 6, where [·] denotes the greatest integer function, is

Choose one:
Q.74

The value of is equal to

Choose one:

abc

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