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JAM 2006

GEOLOGY TEST PAER

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NOTE: Attempt ALL the 44 questions. Questions 1-30 (objective questions)
carry three marks each and questions 31- 44 (subjective questions)
carry fifteen marks each.
Write the answers to the objective questions in the Answer Table
for Objective Questions provided on page 11 only.

1. In phyllosilicates, the tetrahedral cation to oxygen ratio is


(A) 1:2
(B) 1:3
(C) 2:5
(D) 4 : 11
2. Which one of the following groups of organisms belongs to terrestrial / fresh-water
environment?
(A) Echinoids
(B) Brachiopods
(C) Corals
(D) Pulmonate gastropods
3. A hill face slopes at an angle 40o due east. The joint set most likely to cause landslide
is the one dipping at
(A) 20o due west
(B) 30o due east
(C) 60o due east
(D) 65o due south-east
4. Octahedron and Tetrahedron both have the same symbol {111}. The difference
between the two in symmetry is
(A) 3 2/m and 2/m 3
(B) 4/m 3 2/m and 4 3 m
(C) 4 2 m and 4/m 2/m 2/m
(D) 4 and 4 2 m
5. The orthopyroxene – clinopyroxene – plagioclase mineral assemblage in
metabasic rocks is diagnostic of
(A) granulite facies
(B) amphibolite facies
(C) eclogite facies
(D) greenschist facies
6. The optical indicatrix of garnet is
(A) prolate
(B) oblate
(C) sphere
(D) triaxial ellipsoid

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7. Match the following
Group I Group II
(P) Micraster (1) Trilobite
(Q) Phacops (2) Dinosaur
(R) Equus (3) Mammal
(S) Barappasaurus (4) Echinoid

(A) P–1 Q–2 R–3 S–4


(B) P–2 Q–1 R–4 S–3
(C) P–3 Q–4 R–2 S–1
(D) P–4 Q–1 R–3 S–2

8. In clastic sedimentary rocks, grains ranging in size from 0.0625 mm to 2.0 mm are
called
(A) granule
(B) sand
(C) silt
(D) clay
9. Acme zone indicates the
(A) range of a fossil species
(B) absence of a fossil species
(C) maximum abundance of a fossil species
(D) migration of a fossil species
10. Which one of the following sedimentary features can be used to determine the
unidirectional palaeocurrent?
(A) Asymmetrical ripple marks
(B) Symmetrical ripple marks
(C) Parting lineation
(D) Load cast
11. Match the following

Group I Group II
(P) plutonic rocks 1. sanidine
(Q) subduction zone 2. stishovite
(R) impact crater 3. microcline
(S) volcanic rocks 4. jadeite

(A) P–2 Q–3 R–4 S–1


(B) P–3 Q–1 R–2 S–4
(C) P–4 Q–1 R–2 S–3
(D) P–3 Q–4 R–2 S–1
12. The feldspathoid present in phonolite is
(A) nepheline
(B) sanidine
(C) kalsilite
(D) albite

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13. Match the following
Group I Group II
(P) braid bars (1) wind
(Q) moraines (2) riverine
(R) barchans (3) marine
(S) atoll (4) glacial

(A) P–1 Q–2 R–3 S–4


(B) P–2 Q–4 R–1 S–3
(C) P–4 Q–2 R–3 S–1
(D) P–3 Q–4 R–1 S–2
14. The presence of pillow structures in igneous rocks is indicative of
(A) layered basic intrusion
(B) subaerial volcanism
(C) submarine volcanism
(D) shield volcanism
15. Mesas are common in the
(A) Eastern Ghats granulite belt
(B) Himalayan mountain range
(C) Deccan Traps
(D) Dharwar greenstone belt
16. Chromite deposits result from
(A) early magmatic dissemination
(B) early magmatic segregation
(C) early magmatic injection
(D) late magmatic residual fluid injection
17. In a normal stratigraphic sequence, erosion can sometimes expose older rocks within
younger rocks. Such exposures are called
(A) inlier
(B) window
(C) outlier
(D) klippe
18. The largest known kyanite deposit in the world is in
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Bihar
(C) Assam
(D) Tamil Nadu
19. Match the following
Group I Group II
(P) Lameta Formation (1) Elephas
(Q) Raniganj Formation (2) Glossopteris
(R) Pinjor Formation (3) Titanosaurus
(S) Umaria Marine Beds (4) Productus
(A) P–4 Q–1 R–2 S–3
(B) P–1 Q–3 R–4 S–2
(C) P–2 Q–1 R–3 S–4
(D) P–3 Q–2 R–1 S–4

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20. Ophiolitic mélange is characteristic of
(A) Lesser Himalaya
(B) Higher Himalaya
(C) Outer Himalaya
(D) Indus Suture Zone

21. The angle between the “Y” vibration direction and the optic axis of a monoclinic
mineral is
(A) 0o
(B) 45o
(C) 90o
(D) 102o
22. Identify the incorrect pair
(A) Lithostratigraphy - Formation
(B) Biostratigraphy - Interval Zone
(C) Chronostratigraphy - Series
(D) Geochronology - System
23. On a Survey of India toposheet number 53 J/3, a distance of four centimeters between
two points represents an actual ground distance of
(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 16 km
24. A rock that is porous but not permeable is
(A) sandstone
(B) siltstone
(C) shale
(D) marble
25. The upper mantle of the earth is composed largely of
(A) peridotite
(B) gabbro
(C) mafic granulite
(D) eclogite
26. Refer to the geological map, which shows the
development of a metamorphic aureole around a granite
intrusion in a sedimentary sequence. Which one of the
following combinations of rocks exposed at locations X,
Y and Z is correct?
X Y Z
(A) marble quartzite hornfels
(B) quartzite hornfels marble
(C) hornfels quartzite marble
(D) marble hornfels quartzite

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27. Match the following
Group I Group II
(P) Oil (1) Bokaro
(Q) Coal (2) Zawar
(R) Lead – zinc (3) Jamar Kotra
(S) Phosphate (4) Ankleshwar
(A) P–1 Q–3 R–2 S–4
(B) P–2 Q–4 R–3 S–1
(C) P–4 Q–1 R–3 S–2
(D) P–4 Q–1 R–2 S–3
28. Which one of the following series of rock formations is arranged in the correct
stratigraphic order (i.e. from older to younger) ?
(A) Malani volcanics - Panjal volcanics – Rajmahal volcanics – Deccan volcanics
(B) Dhokpathan – Tatrot – Boulder Conglomerate – Pinjor
(C) Uttatur – Ariyalur – Niniyur – Trichinopoly
(D) Talchir – Panchet – Damuda – Mahadeva
29. Match the following
Group I Group II
(P) Plunging antiform
(Q) Plunging synform
(R) Recumbent fold
(S) Reclined fold

(A) P–1 Q–2 R – 3 S–4


(B) P–2 Q–1 R – 4 S–3
(C) P–3 Q–4 R – 1 S–2
(D) P–4 Q–3 R – 2 S–1
30. The method applied for isotope dating of the Holocene rocks involves
(A) K – Ar
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(B) C
(C) U – Pb
(D) Rb - Sr

31. Answer the following with neat sketches


(a) (i) What is a meandering stream ? (3)
(ii) Indicate the sites of erosion and deposition in it. (3+3)
(b) How is an oxbow lake formed? (6)
32. (a) A mineral belonging to the hexagonal crystal system is optically negative with
principal indices of refraction 1.486 and 1.658. Answer the following.
(i) What is the maximum birefringence of the mineral? (3)
(ii) Giving reason, state the value of nω ? (3)

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(b) (i) Draw and label the interference figure of the above mineral for orientation
perpendicular to the c – axis. Show vibration directions of the ordinary and
extraordinary rays in all the quadrants. (3+3)
(ii) Which three optical properties do you study in section parallel to (010) of a
monoclinic crystal? (3)
33. (a) (i) What is an aquifer ? (3)
(ii) Define the term ‘water table’. (3)
(iii) Draw a neat, labeled sketch to show perched water table (3)
(b) (i) Define a confined aquifer. (3)
(ii) Define an aquifuge. (3)
34. (a) (i) Draw a labeled diagram to show the earth’s ‘S-wave shadow zone’. (6)
(ii) Mention its significance. (3)
(b) Name the submarine mechanisms that can trigger a ‘Tsunami’. (6)
35. The map below shows the outcrop pattern of a folded sequence of beds A, B, C and
D. Also shown is the projected cross bed in the north-western part of the map.
(a) (i) Interpret the structure. (6)
(ii) Locate the possible hinge zone on the map, and give justification. (3)
(b) Draw a section along X-Y and establish the stratigraphic sequence, based on the
assumption that there is no stratigraphic inversion of strata. (3+3)

36. The geological map shows the outcrop pattern


of the first appearance of mineral/mineral
assemblage in metamorphic rocks of fixed
bulk composition. Answer the following
questions.
(a) (i) What is the protolith of these rocks? (3)
(ii) What are these lines called? (3)
(iii) Name a model metamorphic reaction,
which produces K-feldspar-sillimanite
assemblage.
(3)
(b) (i) Name the metamorphic facies series and the tectonic setting, which explain the
occurrence of these minerals. (3)
(ii) Can garnet reappear in any other part of the metamorphic sequence? Justify. (3)
37. The cross-section below shows the relationship between different igneous features.
Also shown are the igneous textures related to some of these igneous features.
(a) (i) Name the igneous features in locales B, C and D. (3)
(ii) Identify the igneous textures in A and B. (3)
(iii) Name the rocks at A, B and D. (3)

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(b) What causes textural variation in rocks A, B and D? (6)

38. Study the isobaric binary phase diagram of NaAlSiO4 - SiO2 given below and answer
the following questions.
(i) Find out the mineral assemblages in A, B, C, D, and the line Y and
composition X. (9)
(ii) Using this diagram, explain why nepheline and quartz do not co-exist in nepheline
syenite. (6)

39. (a) Name the three main suture types found in ammonoid cephalopods, and give labeled
diagrams for each. (3+3+3)
(b) (i) How does a brachiopod shell differ from a pelecypod shell with respect to the
valve size and the plane of symmetry? (3)
(ii) Name one formation known for yielding late Cretaceous dinosaurs in India.
(3)
40. (a) Name the following
(i) Precambrian basement underlying the Proterozoic succession in the
Aravalli belt. (3)
(ii) Early Cretaceous continental flood basalts in Peninsular India. (3)
(iii) Youngest formation of the Siwalik Group. (3)
(b) Name the following
(i) Any three chronostratigraphic units and their corresponding geochronologic
equivalents. (3)
(ii) The three successive tectonic divisions of the Himalaya starting from the
southernmost division. (3)

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41. (a) (i) Why does a SiO4 tetrahedra never share edges or faces with its neighbouring
tetrahedra ? (3)
(ii) Why does a five -, seven - or ten - fold symmetry not exist in crystals? (3)
(iii) Deduce the H-M symbol from the stereogram given below. (3)

b) (i) State three reasons that can cause twinning in minerals. (3)
(ii) What is a twin law? (3)
42 a) (i) What is sublimation process?
(ii) What are stockwork and saddle reef ore deposits?
(iii) Name at least three common surface mining methods. (3+3+3)
b) (i) What are eluvial placer deposits? (3)
(ii) Name any two lignite deposits of India. (3)
43. (a) Define
(i) throw and heave of a fault.
(ii) disconformity and nonconformity . (3+3)
(b) A sequence of beds A, B and C dipping due west, is affected by a vertical strike
fault with downthrown block to the east. If the fault is passing through the
western- most bed, show the effect of faulting and erosion on the outcrop pattern
through block diagrams. (9)
44. (a) Draw a labeled diagram to show three major plate boundaries. (3+3+3)
(b) Mention the four evidences for continental drift. (6)

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A A
2011-GG 2011-GG
Test Paper Code: GG

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300 READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE LEFT


SIDE OF THIS PAGE CAREFULLY
INSTRUCTIONS
1. The question-cum-answer booklet has X pages
and has 44 questions. Please ensure that the REGISTRATION NUMBER
copy of the question-cum-answer booklet you
have received contains all the questions.
2. Write your Registration Number, Name and
the name of the Test Centre in the appropriate Name:
space provided on the right side.
3. Write the answers to the objective questions
against each Question No. in the Answer Table
for Objective Questions, provided on Page No.
Y. Do not write anything else on this page.
4. Each objective question has 4 choices for its Test Centre:
answer: (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only ONE of them
is the correct answer. There will be negative
marking for wrong answers to objective
questions. The following marking scheme for
objective questions shall be used:
(a) For each correct answer, you will be
awarded 3 (Three) marks.
(b) For each wrong answer, you will be
awarded -1 (Negative one) mark.
(c) Multiple answers to a question will be Do not write your Registration Number
treated as a wrong answer. or Name anywhere else in this
(d) For each un-attempted question, you will be question-cum-answer booklet.
awarded 0 (Zero) mark.
(e) Negative marks for objective part will be
carried over to total marks.
5. Answer the subjective question only in the
space provided after each question. I have read all the instructions and shall
6. Do not write more than one answer for the same
abide by them.
question. In case you attempt a subjective
question more than once, please cancel the
answer(s) you consider wrong. Otherwise, the
answer appearing last only will be evaluated.
7. All answers must be written in blue/black/blue-
black ink only. Sketch pen, pencil or ink of any ……………………………………………...
other colour should not be used. Signature of the Candidate
8. All rough work should be done in the space
provided and scored out finally.
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form are NOT allowed.
11. The question-cum-answer booklet must be
returned in its entirety to the Invigilator before
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page from this booklet. ……………………………………………...
12. Refer to special instructions/useful data on the
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Signature of the Invigilator

GG- i / 24
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Special Instructions/ Useful Data

GG- ii / 24
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IMPORTANT NOTE FOR CANDIDATES
 Questions 1-30 (objective questions) carry three marks each and questions 31-44
(subjective questions) carry fifteen marks each.
 Write the answers to the objective questions in the Answer Table for Objective Questions
provided on page 7 only.

Q.1 Glaciers are downward moving bodies of

(A) only snow


(B) mostly ice and some snow at the top
(C) mostly snow and some ice at the top
(D) snow and ice in alternate layers

Q.2 The basal section of amphibole is six-sided while the same of pyroxene is eight-sided. This is
because of the absence of the crystal face

(A) {100} (B) {011} (C) {111} (D) {010}

Q.3 The mean density of Earth is about

(A) 2650 kg m-3 (B) 2750 kg m-3 (C) 4400 kg m-3 (D) 5500 kg m-3

Q.4 The surface slope of shield volcano is gentle, but strato-volcano is steep-sided. This is due to
variation in

(A) environment of eruption


(B) duration of eruption
(C) viscosity of magma
(D) position with respect to latitude

Q.5 Identify the correct stereogram depicting the 6 symmetry in crystals.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.6 Match the mineral in Group I with corresponding property in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Fayalite 1. Purple colour
Q. Calcite 2. Specific gravity ~ 4.4
R. Autunite 3. Radioactive
S. Amethyst 4. Scalenohedron

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

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Q.7 Match the item in Group-I with appropriate item in Group-II.

Group I Group II
P. Beach placers 1. Submarine hydrothermal system
Q. Sulfide chimney 2. Mechanical concentration
R. Bauxite 3. Biogenic
S. Phosphorite 4. Residual Concentration

(A). P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B). P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C). P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D). P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Q.8 Which of the following landforms is NOT the result of strike-slip faulting?

(A) stream deflection (B) river terrace (C) pressure ridge (D) sag pond

Q.9 An apatite crystal cut perpendicular to c-axis shows outward movement of isochromes in NE
and SW quadrants on insertion of quartz wedge from SE quadrant because apatite is

(A) uniaxial positive (B) biaxial negative


(C) uniaxial negative (D) biaxial positive

Q.10 Which of the given minerals is a product of reaction between siliceous magmatic fluid and
limestone?

(A) andalusite (B) fayalite (C) muscovite (D) wollastonite

Q.11 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].
Assertion: Blueschist can form in the subduction zone.
Reason: Geothermal gradient in the subduction zone is low compared to that in stable cratons.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.12 A plutonic rock consisting only of plagioclase, pyroxene and hornblende as major minerals is
known as

(A) dunite (B) lherzolite


(C) granite (D) diorite

Q.13 Match the feature in Group I with appropriate taxon in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Monomyarian 1. Echinoidea
Q. Deltidial plates 2. Anthozoa
R. Corona 3. Pelecypoda
S. Epitheca 4. Brachiopoda

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
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Q.14 A normal fault has a dip of 45o towards east, and a throw of 100 metres. The heave of the fault
(in metres) is

(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 400

Q.15 Leakage through rock fractures below a dam can be reduced significantly by

(A) bolting (B) grouting (C) drilling (D) blasting

Q.16 Consider the following statements regarding way-up criteria in sets of trough cross-beds.
P: Cross-beds are concave upwards
Q: Cross-beds are truncated towards the top
R: Cross-beds have tangential contact towards the bottom

(A) P is true, Q is false and R is true


(B) P is false, Q is true and R is true
(C) P is true, Q is true and R is true
(D) P is false, Q is false and R is false

Q.17 Match the fossil group in Group I with corresponding stratigraphic unit in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Equidae 1. Triassic of Spiti
Q. Stromatolites 2. Gondwana Supergroup
R. Dinosaurs 3. Siwalik Group
S. Brachiopoda 4. Vindhyan Supergroup

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Q.18 The correct sequence of rocks from top to bottom in an ophiolite is

(A) radiolarian chert – pillow basalt – dolerite dyke – gabbro – peridotite


(B) peridotite – pillow basalt – gabbro – dolerite dyke – radiolarian chert
(C) pillow basalt – radiolarian chert – dolerite dyke – gabbro – peridotite
(D) gabbro – pillow basalt – dolerite dyke – radiolarian chert – peridotite

Q.19 Extensional regime in an area is characterized by the presence of

(A) synform and antiform (B) thrust fault


(C) normal fault (D) strike-slip fault

Q.20 Adit is an underground excavation, which is

(A) a horizontal opening giving access to main tunnel


(B) a horizontal opening used for transporting water to powerhouse
(C) a vertical opening used for multiple purposes
(D) an inclined opening providing access to main tunnel

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Q.21 Match the scale in Group I with corresponding parameter in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Richter scale 1. Earthquake damage
Q. Mercalli scale 2. Hardness
R. Moh’s scale 3. Particle size
S. Udden-Wentworth scale 4. Earthquake magnitude

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.22 The ratio of volume of underground water released under gravity to the total volume of
saturated aquifer is called

(A) transmissivity (B) permeability


(C) storage coefficient (D) specific yield

Q.23 Hanging valley is developed when rate of glacial erosion

(A) is greater in the main valley as compared to the side valley


(B) is greater in the side valley as compared to the main valley
(C) is the same in both the main valley and the side valley
(D) has no effect on either the main valley or the side valley

Q.24 Match the geomorphic features in Group I with its corresponding details in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Tombol 1. Lowering of sea level
Q. Bajada 2. Sand ridge connecting islands
R. Erratic 3. Coalescence of alluvial fans
S. Rejuvenated valley 4. Rock fragment carried by glacier

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.25 Choose the correct sequence of ore minerals arranged in the increasing order of hardness.

(A) Pyrite < Galena < Sphalerite < Magnetite


(B) Galena < Sphalerite < Magnetite < Pyrite
(C) Pyrite < Magnetite < Sphalerite < Galena
(D) Galena < Sphalerite < Pyrite < Magnetite

Q.26 Ammonoid genus Macrocephalites is found in

(A) Talchir Formation of Satpura Basin


(B) Bijori Formation of Satpura Basin
(C) Patcham Formation of Kachchh
(D) Bhuj Formation of Kachchh

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Q.27 Match the item in Group I with corresponding item in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Compositional zoning 1. High grade metamorphism
Q. Perthitic texture 2. Low grade metamorphism
R. Segregation banding 3. Disequilibrium crystallization
S. Slaty cleavage 4. Exsolution

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.28 Which of the given mineral species of gold is rare to form in nature?

(A) Au-sulfide (B) Au-telluride (C) Native Au (D) Au-Ag alloy

Q. 29 Which of the following sequences of lithostratigraphic units is arranged in the correct order
from older to younger age?

(A) Kamlial – Nagri – Chinji – Dhokpathan – Pinjor – Tatrot


(B) Papaghni – Cheyair – Nallamalai – Kistna
(C) Talchir – Barakar – Pachmarhi – Bijori – Motur – Bagra
(D) Banded Gneissic Complex – Raialo – Aravalli – Delhi

Q. 30 Match the lithostratigraphic unit in Group I with corresponding time unit in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Kolhan Group 1. Triassic
Q. Kaharbari Formation 2. Proterozoic
R. Kota Formation 3. Permian
S. Kamthi Formation 4. Jurassic

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

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Space for rough work

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Answer Table for Objective Questions

Write the Code of your chosen answer only in the ‘Answer’ column against each
Question No. Do not write anything else on this page.

Question Answer Do not write Question Answer Do not write


No. in this column No. in this column
01 16
02 17
03 18
04 19
05 20
06 21
07 22
08 23
09 24
10 25
11 26
12 27
13 28
14 29
15 30

FOR EVALUATION ONLY

No. of Correct Answers Marks (+)


No. of Incorrect Answers Marks ()
Total Marks in Question Nos. 1-30 ( )

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Q.31 (a) Draw a sketch of a Roche moutonnees.

(i) Indicate stoss side and lee side on the sketch. (3)

(ii) Show the direction of movement of glacier on the sketch. (3)

(b) Five features marked 1 to 5 in a coastal environment are shown in the given (9)
diagram. Name any three features along with the corresponding numbers.

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Q.32 (a) (i) Indicate the range of Reynold`s number for laminar flow of groundwater. (3)

(ii) How does ‘acid rain’ form in nature? (3)

(b) A section of a valley along with geological formations is shown in the figure below. A road
is planned to be constructed in the valley. Three sites A, B and C are marked on the section.

(i) Choose a stable site for road construction out of the three locations. (3)

(ii) State two reasons for the site selection. (6)

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Q.33 (a) Name the depositional environment of the following sedimentary structures:

(i) Lateral accretion surfaces (3)

(ii) Herringbone cross stratification (3)

(iii) Hummocky cross stratification (3)

(b) Give the names of the following sedimentary structures.

(i) Fluid-eddy generated erosional scours found at the sole of sandstone beds which (3)
are elongate, subconical, bulbous in the up-current direction and flaring out in the
down-current direction.

(ii) Intrastratal convolutions of laminae that remain confined within the bed and do (3)
not affect overlying and underlying beds.

GG-10 / 24
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Q.34 (a) Distinguish between the following:
(i) Septa and sutures of Cephalopoda (3)

ii) Columella and umbilicus of Gastropoda (3)

(b) Name the following features:


(i) Facial suture of trilobite that meets the cephalon margin behind the genal angle. (3)

(ii) Depression on the calyx of a corallite formed due to absence of prosepta. (3)

(iii) Coiling of a shell on the same plane around a vertical median axis. (3)

GG-11 / 24
A
Q.35 (a) Name the following lithostratigraphic units:

(i) Lower Vindhyan group of rocks (3)

(ii) Early Triassic rocks of the Damodar basin (3)

(iii) Carboniferous rocks of Tethys domain of Himalaya (3)

(b) (i) Distinguish between Assemblage Zone and Acme Zone. (3)

(ii) What is a Formation? Name the unit next higher in rank in lithostratigraphy. (3)

GG-12 / 24
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Q.36 (a) (i) Felsic magmas are more likely to give rise to hydrothermal deposits than mafic (6)
magmas. Why? Name two metals that form deposits associated with felsic
magmatism.

(ii) Mineable humic coal seams occur in the Tertiary rocks of Assam. Name the (3)
Group along with its approximate age.

(b) Differentiate between stratiform and podiform chromite deposits in terms of (6)
(i) age and (ii) tectonic environment.

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A
Q.37 (a) What do you understand by an inverted sedimentary sequence? How does it (6)
develop?

(b) With the help of block diagrams, show how faulting causes repetition of beds. (9)
The block diagrams should depict the situations: (i) before displacement, (ii) after
displacement but before erosion, and (iii) after erosion.

GG-14 / 24
A
Q.38 (a) A gypsum crystal cleaved along {010} section has ZC = 53o ()

i) Name the type of interference figure produced and draw the indicatrix for the (6)
above section.

ii) Determine the extinction angle ‘’. (3)

(b) As shown in the following figure, the transmitted ray PQ entering the gypsum
crystal makes an incident angle of 40o and the refracted ray QR makes an angle of
25o with the normal.

i) Determine the 2V optic angle : _______ (3)

ii) Determine the apparent optic angle 2E : _________ (3)

GG-15 / 24
A
Q.39 (a) The Mg-O and Cr-O bond distances in MgCr2O4 are 1.98 Å and 2.02 Å respectively.
The ionic radius of O2- is 1.40 Å.

i) Determine the ionic radii of Mg2+ and Cr3+. (3)

ii) Determine the radius ratio for each of Mg2+ and Cr3+ ions. Based on the values of (6)
radius ratios, comment on the possible coordination number for each cation.

(b) i) Name a polymorph of silica found in impact craters. (3)

ii) Name the minerals resulting from 100% replacement of Mg by Fe in phlogopite (3)
and diopside.

GG-16 / 24
A
Q.40 a) i) Name two common processes of chemical weathering. (3)

ii) Give the chemical reaction that would lead to the formation of caverns in a limestone (3)
terrain.

b) i) What is a craton? Give examples of two cratonic blocks of India. (6)

(ii) In the Eastern Ghats Mobile Belt (EGMB), granulites are exposed at the surface. (3)
Suggest a mechanism by which these rocks have come to the surface.

GG-17 / 24
A
Q.41 (a) A suite of igneous rocks is formed by differentiation of a parental basic magma (6)
containing 50 weight % SiO2 and 6 weight % MgO along with other components.
Draw a schematic graph to show the variation of MgO with SiO2 in these rocks.

(b) A heating experiment is conducted under isobaric condition in a rock containing (9)
eutectic proportions of anorthite and diopside.
Draw a schematic T (temperature) – X (composition) diagram and show the
following:

(i) beginning of melting;


(ii) end of melting;
(iii) path of evolution of melt with further heating.

GG-18 / 24
A
Q.42 (a) (i) What is a hornfels?
(ii) In which metamorphic facies does the pelitic assemblage quartz + muscovite +
biotite + garnet + kyanite form? (9)
(iii) What metamorphic facies is indicated by the assemblage orthopyroxene +
clinopyroxene + plagioclase?

(b) The following figure shows the microtexture of a metamorphic rock. Interpret the (6)
temporal relation between external foliation and porphyroblasts. What is this type of
porphyroblast called?

GG-19 / 24
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Q.43 The figure given below is the geological map of a flat terrain. It shows three
unconformities and four magmatic bodies, one of which has intruded along a fault.

(a) (I) Identify the type of unconformity: (6)

(i) P-P’: ______________

(ii) Q-Q’: _______________

(iii) R-R’: ______________

(II) Identify the type of fault A-A’ dipping 42 towards east: ______________ (3)

(b) Arrange the three magmatic bodies X, Y and Z from older to younger age. (6)

Youngest: ______

Younger: _______

Older: _______

GG-20 / 24
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Q.44 (a) How do we know that Earth’s magnetic poles underwent reversals many a time in (9)
the geologic past? Explain with a sketch.

(b) (i) Why radiocarbon method cannot be used for dating Precambrian rocks? (3)

(ii) Name two radiometric methods for dating Precambrian rocks. (3)

GG-21 / 24
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Space for rough work

GG-22 / 24
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Space for rough work

GG-23 / 24
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Space for rough work

GG-24 / 24
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2011 - GG
Objective Part
(Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Total Marks Signature

Subjective Part

Q. No Marks Q. No. Marks

31 38
32 39
33 40
34 41
35 42
36 43
37 44

Total Marks in Subjective Part

Total (Objective Part)


Total (Subjective Part)
Grand Total
Total Marks (in words)

Signature of Examiner(s)

Signature of Head Examiner(s)

Signature of Scrutinizer

Signature of Chief Scrutinizer

Signature of Coordinating
Head Examiner

GG-iii / 24
A A
2012-GG 2012-GG
Test Paper Code: GG

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300 READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE LEFT


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GG- i / 24
A
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GG- ii / 24
A
IMPORTANT NOTE FOR CANDIDATES
• Questions 1-30 (objective questions) carry three marks each and questions 31-44
(subjective questions) carry fifteen marks each.
• Write the answers to the objective questions in the Answer Table for Objective Questions
provided on page Y only.

Q.1 Match the properties in Group I with mineral names in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Luminescence under UV light 1. Talc
Q. Pisolitic structure 2. Galena
R. Soapy feel 3. Scheelite
S. High specific gravity 4. Bauxite

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.2 Match the economic deposits in Group I with their Indian occurrences in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Coal 1. Balaghat
Q. Manganese 2. Koderma
R. Magnesite 3. Talcher
S. Mica 4. Salem

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.3 Extensive hydrothermal alteration is generally associated with

(A) Stratiform chromite deposit


(B) Quartz-pebble conglomerate-hosted gold deposit
(C) Superior-type iron deposit
(D) Porphyry copper deposit

Q.4 Match the structural processes in Group I with their products in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Pressure solution 1. Boudin
Q. Layer-parallel extension 2. Bending fold
R. Layer-perpendicular shortening 3. Ptygmatic fold
S. Layer-parallel shortening 4. Stylolite

(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Q.5 A silica undersaturated plutonic igneous rock is

(A) Nepheline syenite (B) Granodiorite (C) Anorthosite (D) Syenite

Q.6 The metamorphic facies series that best characterizes a subduction-zone tectonic setting is

(A) Prehnite-Pumpellyite → Blueschist → Eclogite


GG- 1 / 24
A
(B) Albite-Epidote hornfels → Hornblende hornfels → Pyroxene hornfels → Sanidinite
(C) Greenschist → Amphibolite → Granulite
(D) Pyroxene hornfels → Granulite → Eclogite

Q.7 Match the fold types in Group I with inter-limb angles of folds in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Tight 1. 0°
Q. Open 2. 120° − 70°
R. Isoclinal 3. 70° − 30°
S. Close 4. 30° − 0°

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Q.8 Match the definitions of magmatic bodies in Group I with their nomenclature in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Concordant intrusive body with a flat base and domed roof 1. Phacolith
Q. Plutonic igneous body with an aerial extent > 100 km2 2. Lopolith
R. Large, conformable, saucer-shaped layered intrusive body 3. Batholith
S. Lens-shaped pluton that occupies the crest of an antiform or 4. Laccolith
trough of a synform

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.9 Arrange the following silicate minerals in order of increasing sharing of (SiO4)4– tetrahedra.

(A) Olivine, Augite, Hornblende, Muscovite, Orthoclase


(B) Orthoclase, Muscovite, Hornblende, Augite, Olivine
(C) Olivine, Hornblende, Augite, Muscovite, Orthoclase
(D) Orthoclase, Augite, Hornblende, Muscovite, Olivine

Q.10 Match the crystallographic axes and their angular orientations in Group I with corresponding
crystal systems in Group II
Group I Group II
P. a ≠ b ≠ c, α = β = γ = 90° 1. Monoclinic
Q. a = b ≠ c, α = β = γ = 90° 2. Isometric
R. a ≠ b ≠ c, α = γ = 90°, β ≠ 90° 3. Tetragonal
S. a = b = c, α = β = γ = 90° 4. Orthorhombic

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Q.11 Match igneous rocks in Group I with their most common textures in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Komatiite 1. Porphyritic
Q. Dolerite 2. Spinifex
R. Lamprophyre 3. Ophitic
S. Andesite 4. Panidiomorphic

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
GG- 2 / 24
A
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Q.12 A snowball garnet is an example of

(A) Inter-kinematic mineral growth


(B) Syn-kinematic mineral growth
(C) Post-kinematic mineral growth
(D) Pre-kinematic mineral growth

Q.13 The number of crystal faces in a rhombohedron is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 16

Q.14 Match the following volcanic stratigraphic units in Group I with their given ages in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Malani Rhyolite 1. Meso- to Paleoproterozoic
Q. Dalma Volcanics 2. Paleozoic
R. Panjal Trap 3. Mesozoic
S. Rajmahal Trap 4. Neoproterozoic

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.15 Match mineral textures in Group I with processes in Group II.


Group I Group II
P. Replacement of coesite by quartz 1. Polymorphic transformation
Q. Crystallographically oriented lamellae of albite in orthoclase 2. Exsolution
R. Graphic intergrowth of orthoclase and quartz 3. Eutectic crystallization
S. Cross-hatched twinning in microcline 4. Cation ordering

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.16 Match the lithological units in Group I with hydrogeological nomenclature in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Massive granite 1. Aquitard
Q. Shale 2. Aquifer
R. Clayey sandstone 3. Aquiclude
S. Gravelly sandstone 4. Aquifuge

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.17 Geiger Müller counter is commonly used for the exploration of

(A) Bauxite deposit (B) Pb-Zn deposit (C) Uranium deposit (D) Iron ore deposit

Q.18 Decay of which one of the following isotopes can be used for dating Archean rocks?

(A) 14C (B) 10Be (C) 147


Sm (D) 210
Pb

GG- 3 / 24
A
Q.19 The mass movement process in which cohesive blocks of earth move on a failure plane with
concave-up geometry, is known as

(A) Debris flow (B) Creep


(C) Rotational slide (D) Translational slide

Q.20 Which one of the following tunnel alignments is considered geologically favorable?

(A) Tunnel through the core of a synform with parallel tunnel- and fold axes
(B) Tunnel through the core of an antiform with parallel tunnel- and fold axes
(C) Tunnel through a synform with tunnel- and fold axes perpendicular to each other
(D) Tunnel through an antiform with tunnel- and fold axes perpendicular to each other

Q.21 Match the landforms in Group I with causative processes in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Yardang 1. Aeolian
Q. Drumlin 2. Coastal
R. Doline 3. Dissolution
S. Chenier 4. Glacial

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.22 Which one of the following drainage patterns is typical of a doubly plunging antiformal
terrain?

(A) Dendritic (B) Trellis (C) Rectangular (D) Radial

Q.23 Which one of the following features is NOT associated with an oceanic subduction?

(A) Sea-mount (B) Benioff zone (C) Back-arc (D) Fore-arc

Q.24 The term isostasy refers to

(A) gravitational equilibrium


(B) thermal equilibrium
(C) magnetic equilibrium
(D) electrical equilibrium

Q.25 Match the sedimentary structures in Group I with the processes of their formation in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Flute cast 1. Fluctuating current
Q. Convolute lamination 2. Exposure
R. Rain print 3. Erosion
S. Flaser bedding 4. Syn-depositional deformation

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

GG- 4 / 24
A
Q.26 In which depositional environment are the sand grains best sorted and rounded?

(A) Glacial (B) Aeolian (C) Fluvial (D) Deep marine

Q.27 Which one of the following fossils is found in rocks of Cambrian age?

(A) Redlichia (B) Fenestella (C) Syringothyris (D) Otoceras

Q.28 Match the morphological features described in Group I with their names listed in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Masticatory apparatus in Echinoidea 1. Cameral deposits
Q. Triangular cavity near umbo of Brachiopoda 2. Madreporite
R. Calcareous secretions in siphuncle of Cephalopoda 3. Delthyrium
S. Genital plate in Echinoidea 4. Aristotle’s lantern

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Q.29 Which one of the following flora represents Upper Gondwana?

(A) Noeggerathiopsis (B) Gangamopteris (C) Dicroidium (D) Vertebraria

Q.30 Which one of the following is a Primate fossil?

(A) Hipparion (B) Ramapithecus (C) Equus (D) Stegolophodon

GG- 5 / 24
A

Answer Table for Objective Questions

Write the Code of your chosen answer only in the ‘Answer’ column against each
Question No. Do not write anything else on this page.

Question Answer Do not write Question Answer Do not write


No. in this column No. in this column
01 16
02 17
03 18
04 19
05 20
06 21
07 22
08 23
09 24
10 25
11 26
12 27
13 28
14 29
15 30

FOR EVALUATION ONLY

No. of Correct Answers Marks (+)


No. of Incorrect Answers Marks (−)
Total Marks in Question Nos. 1-30 ( )

GG- 6 / 24
A
Q.31
(a) Shown below are textures of two magmatic rocks in Figures A and B. These rocks
were produced by equilibrium crystallization of two separate melt compositions.
An isobaric T-composition phase diagram in the system Mg2SiO4-SiO2 is shown
in Figure C. Mineral abbreviations used in the Figures are as follows: Opx =
orthopyroxene, Qtz = quartz, Olv = olivine, Fo = Forsterite, En = Enstatite, Cr =
Cristobalite, L = Melt.

Now answer the following questions.


(i) Using the phase diagram in Figure C, write the nature of melt compositions,
which has given rise to these rocks.

(ii) Which rock in the above Figures indicates final crystallization at point Y?

(6+3)

(b) (i) Calculate the variance of the point X in Figure C.

(ii) What is its petrological name?

(3+3)
GG- 7 / 24
A

Q.32
(a) The optic axis interference figure of a hypothetical uniaxial mineral is shown
below. The mineral has indices of refraction (R.I.s) of 1.54 and 1.55. The colors
in the different quadrants of the interference figure reflect the effects of
insertion of gypsum (Gyps) plate, the fast vibration direction of which is
marked in the figure.

(i) What is the optic sign of the mineral?


(ii) State the value of the R.I. of the mineral, corresponding to its E-ray (nε).
(iii) What is the value of the birefringence of the mineral in the optic
orientation shown in the figure above?

(3+3+3)

(b) (i) Name the optical indicatrix of garnet.

(ii) State two diagnostic optical properties, which distinguish diopside from
hornblende.

(3+3)

GG- 8 / 24
A

Q.33
(a) The schematic map below shows the distribution of mineral assemblages (shown
by open symbols) in a regionally metamorphosed rock (X) of uniform bulk rock
composition. Also marked in the map are two lines striking ENE-WSW, which
mark change-over from one mineral assemblage field to the other. Based on the
nature of the mineral assemblages, these lines subdivide the mapped area into
three regions: A, B and C.

(i) Name the bulk rock composition of X.

(ii) Name the metamorphic facies for regions A, B and C.

(3+6)

(b) (i) Name the mineral assemblage that is likely to develop in a normal pelite,
corresponding to the metamorphic condition in region C of the above figure.

(ii) Name the metamorphic facies series that best explains the progressive
variation in metamorphic conditions across regions A, B and C in the figure
above.

(3+3)

GG- 9 / 24
A
Q.34
(a) i) Arrange the following formations of Mesozoic succession of Kutch in order
of increasing age:
Bhuj Formation, Patcham Formation, Chari Formation, Katrol Formation, and
Umia Formation.
ii) Which one of the above mentioned formations contains oolitic limestone?
iii) To which formation does Umia Plant Bed belong?

(3+3+3)

(b) Name the two Cenozoic stratigraphic units of northeastern India, the attributes
of which are briefly described below in i) and ii).
i) The unit is of Oligocene age and consists of sandstone, shale and coal.
ii) The Eocene limestone unit containing Nummulites and Discocyclina.

(3+3)
GG-10 / 24
A
Q.35
(a) (i) Arrange the following stratigraphic units of northwestern India, in order of
younging age:
Erinpura Granite, Banded Gneissic Complex of southern Rajasthan, Delhi
Supergroup, Aravalli Supergroup, and Raialo Group.
(ii) In which of the stratigraphic units of (i) does the Jhamarkotra phosphorite
deposit occur?

(6+3)

(b) Name an acidic and a mafic volcanic stratigraphic unit in the Nandgaon Group of
central India.

(3+3)
GG-11 / 24
A
Q.36
(a) (i) Write the Goldich Dissolution Series, indicating relative weathering potential
of silicate minerals.
(ii) Complete the weathering reaction representing the hydrolysis of orthoclase
feldspar.
2 KAlSi3O8 + 2 CO2 +11 H2O = 2 K+ + ----------- + 4 H4SiO4 + ----------------

(6+3)

(b) (i) What is a braided river?


(ii) List any three essential conditions that promote its formation.

(3+3)

GG-12 / 24
A

Q.37
(a) The figure below shows stress-strain curves for two rocks, designated as X and
Y. Based on the characteristics of the curves, answer the following questions.

(i) What is the mode of failure for Y?


(ii) What do the regions ‘m’ and ‘n’ represent?
(iii) What do the points ‘p’, ‘q’ and ‘r’ represent?

(3+3+3)

(b) A sandstone core of 15 cm length and cross-sectional area of 25 cm2 was


evaluated for permeability, using a constant head permeameter. For a hydraulic
head of 5 cm, a total of 100 ml of water was collected in 10 minutes. Estimate
hydraulic conductivity (cm/min) using the Darcy’s equation, Q = K.A.(dh/dl),
where Q = discharge (cm3/min), K = hydraulic conductivity (cm/min), A =
cross-sectional area (cm2) and (dh/dl) = hydraulic head.

(6)

GG-13 / 24
A
Q.38
(a) Consider the following bivalves:
Pecten, Mytilus, Lima, Lithophaga, Spondylus, Mya, Ostrea, Tridacana,
Posidonia, Solen, Teredo.
From the list above, find out one example each of the following types:
(i) a boring bivalve
(ii) an epifaunal, bysally attached bivalve
(iii) an infaunal deep burrowing bivalve

(3+3+3)

(b) Write the distinguishing features of heterodont and desmodont dentitions in


Bivalvia.

(6)

GG-14 / 24
A

Q.39
(a) A bauxite deposit is found to occur above granite. Answer the following
questions.
(i) Write the names of two characteristic minerals found in bauxite.
(ii) Which mineral in granite predominantly contributes Al to bauxite?
(iii) What climatic conditions are favorable for the formation of bauxite?

(3+3+3)

(b) (i) Name a diamondiferous igneous rock.


(ii) Name an occurrence of diamond deposit in the Vindhyan Basin.

(3+3)

GG-15 / 24
A

Q.40
(a) (i) Name four basic allochemical and two orthochemical constituents of limestone.
(ii) Arrange the following limestones in order of decreasing depositional energy
conditions:
Packstone, Grainstone, Mudstone, Wackestone

(6+3)

(b) (i) What is textural maturity of sandstone?


(ii) Name a sandstone that is texturally and mineralogically mature.

(3+3)

GG-16 / 24
A

Q.41
(a) In a sulfur crystal, the face ‘A’ with Miller indices (111) intersects the mutually
perpendicular crystallographic axes at 4, 5 and 10 Å. Calculate the Miller indices
of another face ‘B’ that intersects the crystallographic axes at 12, 15 and 10 Å,
respectively?

(9)

(b) (i) What is the form symbol of a dodecahedron?


(ii) How many crystal faces are present in it?

(3+3)

GG-17 / 24
A

Q.42
(a) The outcrop patterns of three folds are shown in figures p, q and r. The arrow in each figure
indicates the attitude of the fold axis.

(i) Name the folds in figures p, q and r. Give justifications.

(3+3+3)

(b) (i) Write the difference between a vertical and an upright fold.

(ii) Define a plane non-cylindrical fold.

(3+3)
GG-18 / 24
A

Q.43
(a) (i) What is a meteorite?
(ii) What are the two major groups of stony meteorites?

(3+3)

(b) (i) What is a “Seismic Shadow Zone”?


(ii) Give the arc range (in degrees) of S-wave shadow zone.
(iii) What important information about the Earth’s core does the S-wave
shadow zone provide?

(3+3+3)

GG-19 / 24
A

Q.44
(a) Shown below is a geological section along with its legend. Examine the
section and answer the questions given below.

(i) Name the type of faults X-Y and C-D and give justifications.

(ii) State the temporal relationship of the granite emplacement with the
two phases of faulting mentioned above.

[(3+3)+3]

(b) Name the unconformity surfaces P-Q-R-S-T-U and M-N

(3+3)

GG-20 / 24
A
Space for rough work

GG-21 / 24
A
Space for rough work

GG-22 / 24
A
2012 - GG
Objective Part
(Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Total Marks Signature

Subjective Part

Q. No Marks Q. No. Marks

31 38
32 39
33 40
34 41
35 42
36 43
37 44

Total Marks in Subjective Part

Total (Objective Part)


Total (Subjective Part)
Grand Total
Total Marks (in words)

Signature of Examiner(s)

Signature of Head Examiner(s)

Signature of Scrutinizer

Signature of Chief Scrutinizer

Signature of Coordinating
Head Examiner

GG-iii / 24