Eng;11eering Sef11iCes Examination-201 '3

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T.B.C.: 8 -FRF-M-BUA Test Booklet Series

Serial No. TEST BOOKLET

CIVIL ENGlNEERING
Paper I A
T'unt Allowed : Two 1/oun Maximum Marks : 200

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 I. Which of the following statements are 4. Deterioration of structure of timber due
correct? to dry rot is :

I. Knots in a tree affect the continuity I , Caused by fungi

of fibres.
2. Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
2. Nail knots do not influence the
strength of timber. 3. Due to attack of termites

3. Druxiness of wood is not a defect. 4. Indicated by surface stripes on

scantlings
4. Tall trees with twisted fibres give
good timber for poles. (a) 1 and 2

(a) I, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4

(b) I, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3

(c) I, 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

5. Alternate wetting and drying of timber :

2. E1tcresceoces in wood are : 1. Results in shrinkage and swelling

1. Defects found in trees 2. Brings about wei rot onset

2. Fonned due to injuries inflicted on 3. Increases the durability

trees when they are growing
4. Causes transmission of spores from
3. Defects which render wood suitable germination
as firewood only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) I, 2 and 3
(b) 1,2and4only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) I and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
6. As per I.S. classification, the minimum
3. What treatment is adopted for making compressive strength of a first class
timber frre-resistant ? brick should be

(a) ASCU treatment (a) 75 kg/cm2

(b) Abel's process (b) 100 kg/cm2

(c) Creosoting (c) 125 kg/cm2

(d) Tarring (d) 150 kg/cm2

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 7. When provided with altemar.ing courses 11.
of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, IOON/ mm 1
the front elevation of such brick masonry
is designated as
(a) English bond
(b) Single Flemish bond
(c) Double Flemish bond
(d) Rat-trap bond

8. I.S. Code specifies that the compressive

strength of brick shall be detennined by
keeping the brick :
The principal stresses in N/mrn2 on a
I. On edge
rectangular element are shown in the
2. On bed above figure. The intensity of normal
3. After soaking in water for 2 hrs stress o ~ on the oblique plane BE is
4. After soaking in water for 24 hrs
(a) I and 2 (a) 125 N/ mrn2

(b) 2 and 3
(b) 425 N /mrn2
(c) 3 .and 4
(d) 2 and 4 (c) 375 N/mrn2

9. Soundness test of cement is carried out (d) 250 N/mrn2

to determine its
l
(a) alumina content
12. The strength of concrete depends on :
(b) iron o11ide content
(c) free lime content . I . ~ of mortar
(d) durability under sea water
2. Proportion between coarse and fine
10. The objectives of producing cement aggregates
include:
3. Water cement rar.io
I. Incorporating industrial wastes
2. Increasing free lime 4. Temperature at time of mixing
3. Increasing fineness
4. Saving energy needed in the (a) I and 2
process
(b) 2 and 3
(a) l , 2, 3 and 4
(b) l, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4
(c) l, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2. 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only

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13. Consider the following statements ; Which of these statements are correct ?
I . Strength of slr\lctural concrete is (a) I, 2, 3 and 4
absolutely dependent upon water- (b) 2 and 4 only
cement ratio.
(c) I. 2 and 4 only
2. Increase in temperature during (d) 2. 3 and 4 only
curing period improves the strength.
especially for aluminous cements. 16. Which of the following tests compares
3. The concern for onset of fatigue in the dynamic modulus of elasticity of
concrete can be overcome by samples of concrete 7
increasing design loads in limit (a) Compression rest
state design. (b) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
4. Even though concrete gains (c) Split test
strength after 28 days, such increase
(d) Tension test
is not considered at design stage.
Which of these statements are correct ? 17. UPV method in nondeslnlctive testing
(a) I, 2 and 3 for concrete is used t o determine :
(b) 2. 3 and 4 I. Compressive strength
(c) 3 and 4 only 2. Existence of voids
(d) 2 and 4 only 3. Tensile strength
4. Static modulus of concrete
14. The workability of concrete is assessed 5. Dynamic modulus of concrete
through : (a) I, 2, 3 and 4
I. Slump rest (b) I and 3 only
2. Compaction factor test (c) 2 and 5 only
3. Setting time of cement (d) 3 and 5 only
4. Le-Chatelier's apparatus
18. A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from
(a) I and 2 24 mm dia. to 12 mm dia. over its length
(b) 2 and 3 of 400 mm. The rod when held venical
(c) 3 and 4 is subjected to an ll}{ial tensile load of
12 kN. E = 2 x lOs Ntmml. The exten-
(d) 4 and 1
sion of the rod in mm would be
15. Consider the following statements as 3n
describing the Rheological behaviour of (a) 2
fresh concrete :
2
I . Newtonian (b) 3n
2. Non-Newtonian
3. Ratio of shear stress to shear rate is (c) n
conslant 3
4. Ratio of shear stress to shear rate
depends upon the shear rate (d) 3n:

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19.
r 1 (c) E 9KC
e. =45° 9K+C

(d) E= 3KC
9K+C

zz. Which of the following statements are

correct?
A mild steel bar of square cross-section I. In a ductile material elastic
has a sectional area 200 mm2. It is. deformation is more predominant
subjected to an axia.l force of 20 kN as than plastic one.
shown in the above figure. The' intensity
of the norma.! tensile stress is Nlmm2 on 2. Brittleness is not an absolute
the oblique plane 1·1 at 45• with the property of a ~tal.
YY-axis which is normal to the 3. Rate of loading has no influence in
longitudinal axis will be changing the behaviour of a metal
(a) 25 from 'ductile' to 'brittle' at low
temperatures.
(b) 50
4. Under hydrostatic compression, a
(c) 75 brittle metal may change into a
ductile one.
(d) 100
(a) I and 2
2&. Poisson's ratio of a material is 0·3. Then (b) 2 and 3
the ratio of Young's modulus to bulk
modulus is (c) 3 and 4

(a) 0 ·6 (d) 2 and 4

(b) 0 ·8 23. The total deflection of a structure when

(c) 1·2 subjected simultaneously to different
sets of loading is equal to the sum of
(d) 1-4 the deflections under each such set of
loads as if acting separately on the
Zl. The relationship between Young's structure. Which one of the following
Modulus E, Modulus of Rigidity C and justifies this statement 7
Bulk Modulus Kin an elastic material is
(a) Elastic limit is not exceeded
given by the relation
(b) Elastic limit including buckling is
(a) E= 9KC nOt exceeded
3K+C
(c) Limit state is not exceeded

(b) £ = 3KC (d) Proportional limit without buckling

3K+C is nOt exceeded

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 H
24. A rectangular bar of cross·si:ctional area
II is subjected to an axial tensile load P.
The maximu m shear stress will occur on
(a) "Ji
D and D 3
a plane at X 0 to any normal cross-seCtion
where xo is (b) - D andD -
.fj
~3
(a) 90°
(b) 2700
(c) 180°
(c) o po3
-::j2 and

(d) 45°
(d) D d./¥
Tlan 3
25. A solid circular shaft has been subject ed
to a pure torsion moment. The ratio o f 28. W hich of the following statements arc
maximu m shear stress to maximu m correct ?
normal stress at any point would be I . Experimental results on thin-walled
(a) 1:2 tubes show that maximu m normal
stress theory is valid.
(b) I : I
2. Normal stress theory is valid in case
(c) 2 : 3
of briule materials.
(d) 2: I 3. In case of pure shear, St. Venant' s
theory is more valid than other
26. Which of the followin g sratements are theories.
correct ?
4. Tresca' s theory is very closely sub-
I. All load carrying members transmit stantiated by experimental results.
load through basic modes of 5. In maximum stress theory. the yield
tension. compression, torsion and locus is a hexagon.
shear only.
(a) I. 2 and 3
2. Beams carry transverse loads. (b) 2. 4 and 5
3. Combin ed loading is a complic ated (c) I, 2 and 4
loading. (d) 2, 3 and 4
4. Nature of internal forces decides
the aspect of combin ed loading. 29. A thin cylindrical shell made of mild
steel plate is 1000 mm in diameter. It is
(a) I and 2 to be subjected to an internal pressur e
(b) 2 and 3 of 2 N/mm2 . If the material yields at
(c) 3 and 4 200 N/mm2 . the thickness of the plate in
mm on the basis of Rankin e's theory of
(d) 2 and 4
failure with assumin g a factor of safety
of 3 would be
27. A rectangular beam of dimensions b x d
· is to be cut from a circul ar log of wood (a) 10
of diamete r D. For the beam to be (b) 12
strongest in bending, the dimensions will (c) 15
be (d) 18

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30. 32. A simply supported rolled steel joist of
1-scction has flange widch 250 mm and
overall depth 600 mm. Its moment of
+ + inertia lxx = 12 x 108 mm4• The steel
A II c 5 joist is used as a beam over a simply
supported span of 6 m. It carries a load
of 40 kN/m including it.s self weight
throughout the span. The maximum
Consider the following statements with stress induced in the beam in N I mml
reference to a continuous beam sup- due to bending would be
ported at A, C and £ for which shear
(a) 30
force diagram is shown in the above
figure. (b) 90
There is: (c) 45
I. A concentrated load acting at (d) 60
point B.

2. A concentrated load acting at 33. Which of the following terms represencs

poinc D. the torque that produces a twist of one
radian in a shaft of unit length 7
3. A uniformly distribuced load acting
on the portion CE. (a) Torsional scrcss

Which of chese scacemencs are correct ? (b) Torsional rigidity

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Flexural rigidity

(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Moment of resistance

(c) 2 and 3 on ly 34. A 60 mm dia. shaft is subjecced co a

(d) 1 and 3 only
=
corque of 6 kN-m. C 8 x 104 N/mm2•
The maximum shear stress induced in
!he shaft in N I mm2 will be
31. Which of the following loads should be
applied on a simply supported beam, so
(a) 8000
chat the shear force is constant 9tc
throughout itS span ?

(a) U.D.L. over the entire span (b)~

(b) Two concentrated loads equally
spaced in the span 12000
(c) - -
9tc
(c) A ccncral concentrated load and a
U.D.L. over the entire span 16000
(d) 9tc
(d) A coupl e anywhere in !he span

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35. A water main 160 em dia. contains 37. A three-hinged arch of span L and rise R
water at a pressure head of 200 m. Take is subjected to a concentrated load P at
weight of water to be 1000 kg/m3. The the crown-point. The horizontal thrust at
thickness of the metal shell required the support is
for the water main, given that the maxi-
mum permissible stress in the metal is (a) PL
400 kg/cm2, will be 4R

(a) I em (b) PL
R
(b)' 2 em
(c)
PR
(c) 3 em L

(d) 4 em PL
(d) 3R

36. Which of the following statements is/ are

38.
correct'!

I. For statically determinate struc-

tures, magnitudes for maximum
effects due to a series of concen-
trated loads can be established with
the aid of influence lines. A simply supported beam of span L
shown in the above figure is subjected
2. Cables in suspension bridges will to a concentrated load W at its mid-span
not take the parabolic shape if and also 10 a uniformly distributed load
uniformly loaded along the equivalent 10 W. It has a flexural rigidity
horizontal span. of£/. What is the total deflection at its
mid-point 1
3. In a three-hinged arch structure, tl)e
normal force, shear and moment 5
(a)
at any section are not influenced 384
by the horizontal reaction at the
support.
9
(b) 384
(a) I. 2 and 3

(b) I only (c) 13 wu

384 El
(c) 2 only
(d) ..!t
(d) 3 only - . 384

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 41. Clockwise moments are applied to both
39. the ends of a uniform simply supported
p
beam. If the ratio of the rotation of two
A ends is 2. then the ratio of the applied
moments will be

(a) 5
4
7
(b) 5

5
(c) 3

3
(d) 2
The force in member BC is
42. Which of the following statements are
p correct 7
(a) 2J2
I. It is common practice to discount
(b) zero the influence of axial thrust on
bending stiffness of membe rs of
2P frames.
(c) "J3 2. In a portal frame of single bay, the
columns have different thermal
p.,fj coefficients of expansion. If the
(d) 2
whole frame is subjected to a same
temperature, there will be a
40. component of deformation in the
vertical direction.
3. The flexibili ty method of analysis
cannot be used to solve any kind of
indeterminate structur al problem.
(a) I, 2 and 3 ·
(b) I and 3 only
(c) I and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

The degree of static indeterminacy for 43. Stiffness method of structural analysis
the rigid frame as shown above is starts with
(a) 3
(a) force·dcformation relations
(b) equilibrium condition
(b) 4
(c) compatible ·deformation
(c) 5 (d) equilibrium state of internal stress
(d) 6 components

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 44. 46.

:~
A

~- I I

A stepped circular shaft is fixed at A and

C as shown in the above figure. 1be The stiffness coefficient k 11 for the beam
diameter of the shaft along BC is twice as shown above is
that of as along AB. The torsional
rigidity of AB is GJ. The torqu.e required (a) EJ(-1 + -1)
a3 b3
for unit twist at B is

2GJ (b) 2£/(-1 + - 1 )

(a) --
I
a3 b3

(c) 3£/( -1 +-1)

50.! a3 b3
(b)
I
(d) 4£/( -1 +_I)
. a3 b3
9GJ
(c)
l
47. For which one of the following cases
is the Muller-Breslau principle appli-
11GJ
(d) cable to get influence line 7
I
(a) Reaction at the ends of a simple
beam
45. The force required to produce a unit dis- (b) Bending moment at a section
placement (translation without rotation)
(c) Shear force at a section
at either one-third point of a fixed beam
of span I and of uniform fleJtural rigidity (d) Forces and moments at any section
£1 i:s
48. The area of influence diagram for the
729£/ reaction at the hinged end of a uniform
(a) propped cantilever beam of span l is
p
31
(a) 8
724£/
(b)
p
(b) l
2
724£1
(c) I
31 3 (c)
4
729£/ I
(d) (d) 8
21 3

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49. Consider the following statements : 51. p
£1• Const
I . The virtual worlc method is
preferred to the equilibrium method A
for the determination of collapse
load in a structure.
2. The number of plastic hinges
required for the total collapse of a Mid-span deflection for the beam-load
statically indeterminate structure system shown above can be obtained by
is one less than the degree of
I. Area-moment method
indeterminacy of the srructure.
3. In a large system the uniformly 2. Energy method
distributed load can be replaced by 3. Generalized three moment equation
a number of corx;entrated loads to
simplify the plastic analysis. 4. Conjugate beam method
Which of these statements are correct ? (a) I, 2 and 3 only
(a) I , 2 and 3 (b) l , 2 and 4 only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) I and 3 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only

52. p p
so. 20kN
-+l L/2 L/2 I L/2
2m I 2m c
T
D

4m

1 6m

8 1
For the frame shown above, what is
A fr.une ABCD is supported by a roll.er
at A and is on a hinge at C as shown in
the above figure. The reaction at the
roller end A is given by
the horizontal thrust at A ?
(a) 5 kN (a) P

(b) 8kN (b) 2P

(c) 10 kN (c) Pl2

(d) 12 kN (d) zero

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 I - --+-!+-- I
~ SS. A 1 unit
~~~----~~--~
I unit 8

•I
£1 ~ Const
K • 48 units
Dead load of the beams is wj2 per unit
run. Live load on the beams is wj2 per
C O·S O·S D
unit run. The two segments are hoisted
on simple supports; and then continuity
is established at the mid-support before
live load is applied. The design mid-span The equivalent spring constant (or the
momerit is set up shown in the above figure, where
El = rmiry throughout, is
(a) 30 uni ts
(b) 36 units
(c) 40 units

(b)
wP (d) 48 units
.16 56. Which one of the following four shapes
for a compound column of the same
effective height formed with two equal
angles has the largest axial compressive
load carrying capacity ?
(a)

_j L
54.
hinge (b) _j
I
The static indeterminacy of the frame
shown above is
'''I
,, I I
(a) 4

(b) 6

(c)

(d) 10
8
_j
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57. Two angles of !SA 100 x 100 x 6 have 61. For a stef.'l built-up column subjected to
been used as a tie member. The angles are an axial force of 1200 kN, the lacing
welded on either side of a gusset system is to be designe.d for resisting
and tag welded over its length. The transverse shear of
maximum length .o f the member is : (a) 15 kN
(For ISA I 00 x I 00 x 6, Area= 2334 mm2
and Yxx= 30 mm)
(b) 20 kN
(a) 5-4 m (c) 25 kN
(b) 6·0 m (d) 30 kN
(c) 12·0 m
62. At a certain location of a plate girder of
(d) 24·0 m web size 1000 mm x JO mm, a pair of
bearing stiffeners 100 mm x 5 mm is
58. A crane with two wheels per side has a welded. The effective area of bearing
capacity of 50 kN. Weight of the crane is
stiffeners is
100 kN, weight of the trolley is 10 kN
and the span is 12 m. The maximum (a) 1000 nun2
static wheel load with hook clearance of (b) 2000 mm2
1·0 m from the wheel is (c) 3000 mm2
(a) 50 kN (d) 5000 mm2 ·
(b) 52·5 kN
(c) 55 kN 63. ISMB 250 (Ze = 410 x
J03) mm3 has
been chosen as a beam cross-section
(d) 60 kN
to resist a bending moment. Two plates
59. Gantry girders are designed to resist : I 00 mm x 10 mm are welded to each
flange to enhance the moment capacity.
I . Lateral loads
T he enhanced moment capacity is
2. Longitudinal loads
(a) 71·5 kNm
3. Vertical loads
(b) 79·5 kNm
(a) I and 2 o nly
(c) 99·0 kNm
(b) I and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 148·0 kNm
(d) I. 2 and 3 64. A monorail crane runs on an [-section of
span 6 ·m, which is simply supported.
60. The effective width of outstand in
Estimate the deflection for crane
compound steel columns for design
capacity of 20 kN, crab weight of
purposes is equal to
4 kN, impact factor ·of 25% and
(a) half the flange width El = 10 x 10 12 N-mm2. Deflection due
(b) distance of the free edge from the to self-weight is neglecled.
rivet line
(a) 6 mm
(c) distance of the free edge from the
(b) 9 mm
stiffeners
(c) 12 mm
(d) distance of the free edge to the
nearest row of ri ~ets (d) 18 mm

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An industrial building with 5 bays each
3 m wide has columns of height 4 m.
The two end bays are braced by rods as
shown in the above figure. Each column
carries an axilil load of 120 k.N. The
design force for each brace is
(a) 6 kN
(b) 9 kN
(c) IS kN
(d) 30 k.N
66. Which of the following statements are
correGt ?
I. In a steel compound column
section, the width will be smaller
when they are placed face to face
than when they are placed back to
back.
2. In tl\e design of steel compound
columns the length of bauens are
normally longer than the lacings.
3. Lacings in a steel compound
column are designed as slender
compression members.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) I, 2 and 3
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67. Bearing stiffeners in plate girders are
provided to
(a) decrease the effective depth of web
(b) transfer the load from the top flange
to the bottom flange
(c) prevent buckling of web
(d) increase the bearing capacity of the
flange
68. Which of the following statements
is/ are correct ?
1. A steel structure designer can guar-
antee the safety of the structure.
2. Working stress method of design of
steel structures offers a safer and
economical structure.
3. Strength and serviceability of a
structure cannot be predicted on
account of several unforeseen
factors.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
69. Which one of the following states falls
under the 'Limit state of Serviceability'
as per IS-456 ?
(a) Stability under load
(b) Loss of equilibrium of a structure
(c) Floor vibration
(d) Fonnation of mechanism
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. 70. Splicing of rebars in RCC beams can be 74. Consider the following statements for
done at a section where prediction of yield lines in a reinforced
(a) bending moment is zero concrete slab :
I. They represem the axis of rotation .
(b) bending moment is less than half of
the maximum bending moment in 2. They will propagate outward from a
beam point load.
(c) bending moment is maximum 3. They are straight lines between two
intersecting planes.
(d) shear force is zero
4. They end at the boundary of the
71. Which of the following statements are slab or at another yield line.
correct? Wh.ich of these statem.ents are correct ?
I. The convemional rigid frame {a) l. 2. 3 and 4
system of columns and beams (b) I, 2 and 3 only
works well for carrying both (c) I , 2 and 4 only
venical and lateral loads for
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
buildings up to 28 storeys height.
2. A shear wall does not provide 75.
stability against lateral loads. l+- o---+1
3. Drying shrinkage is caused by the
evaporation of water from concrete T
t .
df2
stored in unsaturated air.
(a) I, 2 and 3
{b) I and 2 only
(c) I and 3 only dh
(d) 2 and 3 only
1 '-----'
72. As per IS-456 : 2000. side face re- The above figure represents a section
inforcement in a beam is provided where of a pre-stressed beam. For a no-tension
depth of the web exceeds design where (Jc is the permissible stress
(a) 750 mm in concrete, the total moment carrying
(b) 250 mm capacity is
(c) 500 mm bd2a c
(a)
(d) 1000 mm 3

73. Factor of safety is the ratio of bd2 (Jc

(b)
(a) tensile stress to working stress 4
(b) compressive stress to working bd2a c
(c)
stress 6
(o) bending stress to working stress bd2<Tc
(d)
(d) yield stress to working stress 12

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76. Spalling stresses are produced in post-
tensioned pre-s~ressed concrete members
because of
(a) bursting force
(b) highly concentrated tendon force
(c) inadequate anchor block
(d) maximum shear zone
79. Which of the following factors would
greatly affect the attainment of best
possible strength of the concrete mix
produced using the weigh-batcher ?
I . Moisture content in the sand and
gravel
2. Inadequate or excess use of
approved admixtures

3. Speed of rotation of the drum

77. Which of the Following statements are
correct? 4. Non-emptying of the drum as fully
as possible
I. Splices in flexural members should
not be at sections where the BM is (a) I and 4
more than 50% of the moment of
resistance. (b) I and 2

2. Normal lap splines can be used for (c) 2 and 3

all types of bars irrespective of the
(d) 3 and 4
sizes.
3. Where bars of two different 80. The initial cost of equipment is
diameters are to be spliced, the lap Rs. 1100, salvage value is Rs. 100 and
length shall be calculated on the life of equipment is 5 years. The rate of
basis of the diameter of the smaller interest for sinking fund is 8%. The
bar. yearly depreciation by straight line
(a) I and 2 only method is

(b) I and 3 only (a) Rs. 200

(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Rs. 400

(d) I, 2 and 3 (c) Rs. 600

(d) Rs. 800
78. A concordant cable profile m pre-
stressed concrete is
81. In a construction project, the cost-slope
(a) parallel to the beam axis of an activity is an indication of

(b) one which coincides with the (a) extra-time needed

centroidal axis of beam
(b) extra cost needed
(c) one which does not cause
secondary stresses (c) reduction of duration of critical
activity
(d) one which eliminates primary
stresses (d) crashing of an activity

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82. Which of the following statements are (a) I and 2
correct ? (b) 2 and 3
lilting type concrete mixers are I and 3
(c)
preferred in situ :
I. Becau$e problem of clogging the
(d) 2 and 4
opening is avoided .
2. For large constructions only. 85. If the free haul distance is 200 m, the
cost of borrow (including excavation and
3. l3ecau$e they are suitable for d ry
mix.
hauling) is Rs. 4/m 3
at station. Cost of
haulage beyond free haul is Rs. 0·75/ m3
4. Whenever the rated capacity is
per station-meter. The limit of econo-
more than 200 litres.
mical haul distanee is
(a) I and 2 ·
(b) 2 and 3
(a) 160m
(c) I and 3 (b) 260m
(d) 2 and 4 (c) 360m

83. An equipment for use in construction (d) 460 m

activity is purchased now for Rs. 15000;
and is used continuousl y on the job. The 86. A four-wheel tractor whose operating
annual OMR costs assignable as lump weight is 15,000 kg is pulled along a
sum at the respective year beginning are level haul road at a uniform speed by
Rs. 5000. 'llle equipment will be used another tractor. The ~verage tension in
for 5 years after which its salvage value the toe cable is 675 kg. The rolling
is estimated to then be Rs. 1000. The resistance of the haul road is
equivalent annual cost as reckoned at the (a) 25 kg/t
end of each year when MACR is 10%
for which Sff for 5 years is 0·163g is (b) 35 kg!t
(a) Rs. 7800 (c) 45 kg/t
(b) Rs. 8000 (d) 55 kg/t
(c) Rs. 8793
(d) Rs. 8957 87. A four-cycle gasoline engine when
tested at temperature 35°C and pressure
84. Which of the following statements are of 740 mm of Hg was found to develop
correct? 75 HP. Its horse power at standard
I . Drag lines are superior to hoes in condition is
excavation jobs.
(a) 75 x~ x 160
740
2. Hoes are more rigid than power 8·
shovels.
(b) 75x~x~
3. For deeper excavations power
shovels give lesser output than
hoes.
(c) 75x ~~5 x~
4. Hoes exert greater tooth power as
compared to draglines. (d) 75x~x~Ms

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8.8. Given that SPCAF. for I 0%, for 1, 2 and
3 years are respectively, 1·1000, 1·2100
and 1·3310. whal is C.R.F. for 10% for
3 years?
(a) 0·7513
(b) 0·5187
(c) 0·3021
(d) 0·4021
89. An equipment costs Rs. 25000 to pur-
chase now. It will be used continuously
for 8 years. At the end, its salvage v;due
is estimated to be Rs. 1600. l ts residual
book value at the beginning of the 6th
year of its use, by the straight I ine method
of depreciation is
(a) Rs. 6250
(b) Rs. 9375
(c) Rs. 10375
(d) Rs. 7450
90. Which of the following statements are
correct in respect of a linked- bar chart ?
I. Any activity can be shown split into
several sub-parts if so desirable.
2. !mer-linkages between WBS groups
· can be depicted.
3. Mandatory pauses between acti-
vities are also. always demonstrated
on the chart.
4. Scheduling of material procurement
can optionally enhance the utility.
(a) I and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) I and 4
B-FRF·M·BUA - A
91. Consider the following statements per-
taining to CPM net work analysis :
I. It is. event-oriented method.
2. It is. activity-oriented method.
3. Time and cost are controlling
factors.
4. Time alone is controlling factor.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) I and 4
92. Wh.ich of the following do not charac-
terize the critical path ?
I. Falls on a single straight line
between start and end nodes
2. Has no dummies
3. Indicates the minimum feasible
duration for the complete project
4. Indicates the maximum sensible
duration in which to complete the
proj-ect
5. Has no parallel sub-paths between
any two nodes on it
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) I, 2 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l. 3 and 4
93. In a critical path network. which of the
following are involved ?
I. A series of interconnected activities
2. Con.siderations for uncertainties in
time estimate
3. A logical sequence of activities is
provided
4. The node number at the arrow head
is numerically smaller than that at
tail end
(a) I and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) I and 3
18
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94. Which o ne of the following relates to
determination of critical path in PERT ?
(a) Event-Qriented slack
(IJ) Al:Livity-v• icutcd ·sla<.:k
(c) Event·oriented float
(d) Activity-oriented float
95. PERT calculations yield a project length
of 70 weeks with a variance of 9 weeks.
The number of weeks required to com-
plete the project with a probability of
95% (probability factor for 95% = 1·647)
is
(a) 73·94 weeks
(b) 74·94 weeks
(c) 75·94 weeks
(d) 76·94 weeks
96. A linear project is split into six identical
activities, each having {J, m and b dura-
tions of 4, 8 and I0 days, which results
in the standard deviation of the duration
for the complete project being Xt· days .
As an altemat.ive attempt at project
planning. the earlier-split six activities
are clubbed as ( lst and 2nd), (3rd and
4th) and (5th and 6th), thus needing to
consider only three (now-modified)
activities; and the standard deviation of
the duration for the complete project is
now reported as X2 days. What wi II be
the ratio x2 ?
Xt
2 4. Activities are so rescheduled that
(a) 3 maximum projected need for any
7 available resources.
(b) 6
5
(c) 6 (b) 2 and 3
(d)
19
97. A father notes that his teenage son uses
the telephone. He takes no less than
5 minutes for a call and sometimes as
much as an hour. 20 minutes calls are
more frequent than calls of any other
duration. Considered as a PERT activity
a phone call's expected duration in
minutes is
(a) 20i
(b) 22i
(c)
(d)
98. A project is estimated to cost Rs. I 00
million inclusive of 20% thereof as cost
of direct labour. However, 60% of the
labour hours budgeted for is non-
productive. If 15% of such wasted
labour hours are intended to be curtailed
by improved methods of control , then
the resulting savings in labour cost
would be
(a) Rs. 1·2 m
(b) Rs. 1·5 m
(c) Rs. 1·8 m
(d) Rs. 2·0 m
99. Consider the following statements
regarding resource allocation/ adjust-
ment:
l. Economical utilization of resources.
2. Adjustment of resources to have
least variation in resource histo-
gram.
3. Gradual increase in resources.
resource does not cross the limit of
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
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100. There is a task involving 160 m2 of 102. Statement (I) : Shutter vibrators are
fixing timber fonnwork for the roof slab preferred over needle
of a single-storey building. The time vibrators for pre-stres·
earmarked for completion is four days. sed precast beams for
working eight hours per day. If a workers' bridges.
team consisting of two skilled workers
and an unskilled worker can install the
fonnwork at the rate of 1·25 m2/hr, then Statement (II) : Needle vibrators may
the number of teams required is get choked by the
leaking-in of cement
.(a) 3
paste.
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6 103. Statement (I) : In concreting f-or large
roof slabs, internal
Directions : vibrators are preferred.
Each of the neJtt Twenty (20) items consists
of two statements, one labelled as the
Statement (II) : Exiemal vibrators con-
'Statement (I)' and the otber as 'Statement
sume more energy and
(II)' . You are to eJtamine these two statements
disturb the fonnwork.
carefully and select the answers to these items
using the codes given below :
Codes : 104. Statement (l) : In the erection of tall
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement buildings, tower crane
0 1) are individually true and is preferred.
Statement (11) is the correct
eJtplanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement Statement em : Tower crane is a
em are . individually true but combination crane and
it is suitable when the
Statement (II) is NOT the correct
area is small and
explanation of Statement (I)
congested.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement
(11) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement 105. Statement (I) : For short distance
(ll) is true bauls, dumpers are well
suited.
101. Statement (I) : Weight batching method
does not produce
concrete of required Statement (ll) : Dumpers have the
strength. advantage of larger
Statement (ll) : B ulking of aggregates capacity of 5 cu-m or
does not influence the more, and they are
weight hatching method. hauled by power units.

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 106. Statement (I) : Power shovels mounted
on trawlers are un iver-
sally used for exca-
vating earth.
Statement (II) : They have a dippu
with hard teeth to break
even hard rocks.
107. Statement (I) : Draw-bar pull exerted
in crawler-IT3Ctors over-
laps between different
speed ranges, which
latter are achieved by
operating in diffe.r ent
gears.
Stat.ement (11) : Variations in rolling
resistance of ground
surfaces and the grade
of the. surfaces rolled
on, influence the
mag nitude of the
needed draw-bar pull.
108. Statement (I) : A wheel type tractor
with a scraper is
employed to move
earth for short hauls.
Statement (II) : Wheel type tractor
moves faster than
crawler type tractor.
109. Statement (I) : Diaphragm pump is
very popular in
constructions requiring
dewatering of trenches.
Statement (II) : Diaphragm pump is
more adaptable in
perfonnance than o ther
types of pumps.
21
I.
ltO. Statement (I) : An air vessel on the
suction side of a
reciprocating pump
contributes much to
increase in efficiency.
Statement (It) : Water gets sucked
into the pump cylinder
faster.
111. Statement (I) : Negative slip is a possi-
bility in reciprocating
pumps.
Statement (II) : Non-<:avitations in a
long suction pipe with
simultaneously a short
delivery pipe may
cause the deli very
va.lve to open before
the discharge stroke
starts.
112. Statement (1) : Reciprocating pumps
may have more severe
restrictions on their
suction piping system
than centri fugal pumps.
Statement (II) : Centrifugal pumps can
have the advantage of
axial balancing to
alleviate possible axial
thrust at the eye of the
pump.
113. Statement (I) : A bar chart may look
awkward when demon-
strating the works to be
executed for external
finishes in multi-storey
constructions.
Statement (ll) : External scaffolding
can be dismantled in a
top·to·- down sequence
only.
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114. Statement (I) : When LSS is drawn as
a squared-diagram. the
respective total float
for each sulrpath will
be shown in full at the
head-end of that sulr
path.
Statement (ll) : By considering LS for
scheduling, the spar·
able time is pushed to
the head-end.
ItS. Statement (I) : Interdependence be·
tween various events is
shown on a milestone
chart.
Statement <m : Milestones are
key
events in time which
occur as the project
progresses.
116. Statement (I) : Probabilistic activity
durations may yet be
relevantly assigned
even when work
outputs have been
standardized for labour
gangs for the specified
project.
Statement (ll) : Results of work-study
are dependent on rest
allowances and wOfk
ratings.
117. Statement (I) : PERT network is event-
oriented and it does not
reflect on time or
resources.
Statement (II) : Planners can decide
about the uncertainties
involved in time
duration while planning
itself.
8-FRF-M -BUA - A 22
118. Statement (I) : When developing the
time-<:ost · srudy of a
project as a whole, the
time-<:ast relationships
of every activity therein
may have necessarily to
be inputted.
S tatement (11) : Any project is consti-
tuted by all the activi-
ties therein.
119. Statement (I) : Inherent weakness of
finished plain concrete
is the presence of
micro-<:racks at the
aggregate interface. It
is min imized by
placing fibres in the
concrete mix.
Statement (II) : The fibres help to
transfer all incidental
loads at the internal
micro-<:racks.
120. Statement (I) : When an equipment is
used at a reduced post
of service, the ROR
cannot be uniquely
determined even when
the·· log book of the
equipment has been
maintained regularly.
Statement (ll) : OMR expenditure may
be very much reduced
when used in reduced
post of service.
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