NAVEDTRA 82414

Naval Education and December 1993 Nonresident Training

Training Command 0503-LP-478-1100 Course (NRTC)

Electronics Technician
Volume 4—Radar Systems

Only one answer sheet is included in the NRTC. Reproduce the

required number of sheets you need or get answer sheets from your
ESO or designated officer.

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 ELECTRONICS TECHNICIAN - VOLUME 4,
RADAR SYSTEMS
NAVEDTRA 82414
Prepared by the Naval Education and Training Program Management
Support Activity, Pensacola, Florida

Congratulations! By enrolling in this course, you have demonstrated a desire to improve

yourself and the Navy. Remember, however, this self-study course is only one part of the
total Navy training program. Practical experience, schools, selected reading, and your
desire to succeed are also necessary to successfully round out a fully meaningful training
program. You have taken an important step in self-improvement. Keep up the good work.

HOW TO COMPLETE THIS COURSE SUCCESSFULLY
ERRATA: If an errata comes with this course,
make all indicated changes or corrections
before you start any assignment. Do not
change or correct the Training Manual
(TRAMAN) or assignments in any other way.
TEXTBOOK ASSIGNMENTS: The TRAMAN for this
course is Electronics Technician, Volume 4,
Radar Systems, NAVEDTRA 12414. The TRAMAN
pages you are to study are listed at the
beginning of each assignment. Study these
pages carefully before attempting to answer
the questions in the course. Pay close
attention to tables and illustrations because
they contain information that will help you
understand the text. Read the learning
objectives provided at the beginning of each
chapter or topic in the text and/or preceding
each set of questions in the course.
Learning objectives state what you should be
able to do after studying the material.
Answering the questions correctly helps you
accomplish the objectives.
BLACK DOT INFORMATION: Black dots (0) may be
used in the text and correspondence course to
emphasize important or supplemental
information and to highlight instructions for
answering certain questions. Read these
black dot entries carefully; they will help
you answer the questions and understand the
material.
SELECTING YOUR ANSWERS: After studying the
TRAMAN, you should be ready to answer the
questions in the assignment. Read each
question carefully, then select the BEST
answer. Be sure to select your answer from
the subject matter in the TRAMAN. You may
refer freely to the TRAMAN and seek advice
and information from others on problems that
may arise in the course. However, the
answers must be the result of your own work
and decisions. You are prohibited from
referring to or copying the answers of
others and from giving answers to anyone
else taking the same course. Failure to
follow these rules can result in suspension
from the course and disciplinary action.
SUBMITTING COMPLETED ANSWER SHEETS:
Complete all assignments as quickly as
possible to derive maximum benefit from the
course. As a minimum, you must submit at
least one assignment per month. This is a
requirement established by the Chief of
Naval Education and Training. Failure to
meet this requirement could result in
disenrollment from the course.
TYPES OF ANSWER SHEETS: If you are a U.S.
Navy enlisted member on active duty or a
drilling U.S. Naval Reserve enlisted member,
you should use the answer sheet attached at
the end of this course and follow the
instructions in section A below. If you are
an enlisted U.S. Naval Reserve member who is
not attached to a drilling unit or if you
are an officer, a civilian, or a member of
the U.S. Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, or
Coast Guard, you should use the Automatic
Data Processing (ADP) answer sheets included
in the course package and follow the
instructions in section B.
A. Manually Scored Answer Sheets

i
 If you are a U.S. Navy enlisted member Recording Information on the ADP
on active duty or attached to a U.S. Naval Answer Sheets: Follow the “MARKING
Reserve drilling unit, your course will be INSTRUCTIONS” on each answer sheet. Be sure
administered by your local command. You must that blocks 1, 2, and 3 are filled in
use the answer sheet designed for manual correctly. This information is necessary
scoring, NETPMSA form 1430/5, Stock Ordering for your course to be properly processed
Number 0502–LP–216–0100. You may get a and for you to receive credit for your work.
supply of the forms from your Educational
Services Officer (ESO), or you may reproduce As you work the course, be sure to mark
the one in the back of this course booklet. your answers in the course booklet because
DO NOT USE THIS FORM FOR COURSES ADMINISTERED your answer sheets will not be returned to
BY NETPMSA. you. When you have completed an assignment,
transfer your answers from the course
Recording Information on the booklet to the answer sheet.
Manually Scored Answer Sheets: As you
complete each assignment, submit the Mailing the Completed ADP Answer
completed answer sheet to your ESO for Sheets: Upon completing an assignment, mail
grading. You may submit more than one answer the completed answer sheet to:
sheet at a time. Remember, you must submit
at least one assignment each month. Commanding Officer
Naval Education and Training
Grading: Your ESO will grade each Program Management Support
answer sheet and notify you of any incorrect Activity, 6490 Saufley Field Rd,
answers. The passing score for each Code 0314
assignment is 3.2. If you receive less than Pensacola, FL 32509–5237
3.2 on any assignment, the ESO will list the
questions you answered incorrectly and give Use envelopes to mail your answer sheets.
you an answer sheet marked “RESUBMIT.” You You must provide your own envelopes or
must redo the assignment and complete the request them from your ESO. You may enclose
RESUBMIT answer sheet. The maximum score you more than one answer sheet in a single
can receive for a resubmitted assignment is envelope. Remember, regardless of how many
3.2. answer sheets you submit at a time, NETPMSA
should receive at least one assignment a
Course Completion: After you have month.
submitted all the answer sheets and have
earned at least 3.2 on each assignment, your NOTE: Do NOT USE THE COURSE COMMENTS
command should give you credit for this PAGE AS AN ENVELOPE FOR RETURNING ANSWER
course by making the appropriate entry in SHEETS OR OTHER COURSE MATERIALS.
your service record.
Grading: NETPMSA will grade the
Student Questions: If you have answer sheets and notify you by letter
questions concerning the administration of concerning your grade for each assignment,
this course, consult your ESO. your incorrect answers, and your final
grade. The passing score for each
B. ADP Answer Sheets assignment is 3.2. If you receive less than
3.2 on any assignment, you must rework the
If you are an enlisted U.S. Naval assignment. NETPMSA will enclose a new ADP
Reserve member who is not attached to a answer sheet in the letter notifying you of
drilling reserve unit or if you are an the questions you answered incorrectly.
officer, a civilian, or a member of the U.S. You will be required to redo the assignment
Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast and resubmit the new answer sheet. The
Guard, use the ADP answer sheets provided in maximum score you can receive for a
your course package. You should use one resubmitted assignment is 3.2.
blank original ADP answer sheet for each
assignment. Use only the original ADP answer Course Completion: When you
sheet provided in your course package; complete the last assignment, fill out the
NETPMSA will not accept reproductions. “Course Completion” form in the back of the
course and enclose it with your last answer

ii
sheet. NETPMSA will issue you a letter identification, friend or foe (IFF) systems,
certifying that you satisfactorily completed direct altitude and identity readout (DAIR)
the course. You should make sure that credit systems, naval tactical data (NTDS) systems,
for the course is recorded in your service and radar distribution switchboards; and
record. YOU MAY RETAIN THE TEXT. identify and explain the safety hazards
associated with radar systems.
NOTE: YOUR OFFICIAL COURSE Completion
DATE WILL BE THE DATE YOUR LAST ASSIGNMENT IS
PROCESSED THROUGH THE NETPMSA ADP SYSTEM--NOT
THE DATE YOU DEPOSIT THE LAST ASSIGNMENT IN
THE MAIL. This is especially important if
you are taking the course for Naval Reserve
retirement credit. You must mail your answer
sheets at least 60 days before your
anniversary date. This will provide you with
enough time for delays in the mail or
reworking failed assignments. DO NOT MAIL
YOUR ASSIGNMENTS TO THE NAVAL RESERVE
PERSONNEL COMMAND (NRPC).

Student Questions: Refer questions

concerning this course to NETPMSA by mail
(use the address on page ii) or by telephone:
DSN 922–1366 or commercial (904) 452-1366.

NAVAL RESERVE RETIREMENT CREDIT

If you are a member of the Naval

Reserve, you will receive retirement points
if you are authorized to receive them under
current directives governing retirement of
Naval Reserve personnel. For the purpose of
Naval Reserve retirement, this edition of the
course is evaluated at 5 points. These
points will be credited to you upon your
satisfactory completion of the entire course.

NOTE: YOUR OFFICIAL COURSE COMPLETION

DATE WILL BE THE DATE YOUR LAST ASSIGNMENT IS
PROCESSED THROUGH THE NETPMSA ADP SYSTEM--NOT
THE DATE YOU DEPOSIT THE LAST ASSIGNMENT IN
THE MAIL. Refer to the Course Completion
paragraph under section B, ADP Answer Sheets.

COURSE OBJECTIVES

After completing this course, you should

be able to: Define the basic terms associated
with radar and radar systems; identify the
basic components of and explain the operation
of the Navy’s standard surface search radars,
air search radars, three–coordinate air
search radars, carrier controlled approach
(CCA) and ground controlled approach (GCA)
radars, and planned position indicators (PPI)
and repeaters; identify the basic components
of and explain the operation of

iii
 Naval courses may include several types of questions —multiple-choice, true-false, matching, etc. The questions
are not grouped by type but by subject matter. They are presented in the same general sequence as the textbook
material upon which they are based. This presentation is designed to preserve continuity of thought, permitting
step-by-step development of ideas. Not all courses use all of the types of questions available. The student can readily
identify the type of each question, and the action required, by inspection of the samples given below.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
Each question contains several alternatives, one of which provides the best answer to the question. Select the
best alternative, and blacken the appropriate box on the answer sheet.
SAMPLE
s-1. Who was the first person appointed Indicate in this way on the answer sheet:
Secretary of Defense under the
National Security Act of 1947?
1. George Marshall
2. James Forrestal
3. Chester Nimitz
4. William Halsey

TRUE-FALSE QUESTIONS
Mark each statement true or false as indicated below. If any part of the statement is false the statement is to
be considered false. Make the decision, and blacken the appropriate box on the answer sheet.
SAMPLE
s-2. All naval officers are authorized to Indicate in this way on the answer sheet:
correspond officially with any systems
command of the Department of the
Navy without their respective com-
manding officer’s endorsement.
1. True
2. False

MATCHING QUESTIONS
Each set of questions consists of two columns, each listing words, phrases or sentences. The task is to select
the item in column B which is the best match for the item in column A that is being considered. Items in column
B maybe used once, more than once, or not at all. Specific instructions are given with each set of questions. Select
the numbers identifying the answers and blacken the appropriate boxes on the answer sheet.
SAMPLE
In questions s-3 through s-6, match the name of the shipboard officer in column A by selecting from column
B the name of the department in which the officer functions. Some responses may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.

A. OFFICER B. DEPARTMENT Indicate in this way on the answer sheet:

s-3 . Damage Control Assistant 1. Operations Department

s-4. CIC Officer 2. Engineering Department

s-5 . Disbursing Officer 3. Supply Department

s-6. Communications Officer

iv
 ASSIGNMENT 1
Textbook Assignment: “Introduction to Basic Radar,” chapter 1, pages 1-1 through 1-8;
and “Radar Systems Equipment Configuration,” chapter 2, pages 2-1
through 2-6.

1-1. A radar transmits a pulse, and 1-6. Which of the following radar units
309 µsec later the radar receives supplies rf energy of high power
an echo. What is the number of for short time intervals?
nautical miles between the radar
and the contact? 1. Transmitter
2. Receiver
1. 6.1 3. Modulator
2. 12.2 4. Duplexer
3. 25
4. 50 1-7. Which of the following radar units
ensures that intervals between
1-2. Which method of transmitting radar pulses are of the proper length?
energy works well with stationary
or slow- moving targets, but is 1. Transmitter
not satisfactory for locating 2. Receiver
fast-moving objects? 3. Modulator
4. Antenna
1. AM
2. CW 1-8. Which of the following radar units
3. FM passes the echo to the receiver
4. Pulse with minimum loss?

1-3. A radar cannot determine range if 1. Transmitter

it uses which of the following 2. Duplexer
types of energy transmission? 3. Modulator
4. Antenna
1. AM
2. CW 1-9. Which of the following radar units
3. FM converts the weak rf echo to a
4. Pulse discernable video signal?

1-4. Which of the following methods of 1. Duplexer

energy transmission is used to a 2. Modulator
great extent in Navy radars? 3. Receiver
4. Indicator
1. AM
2. CW 1-10. Which of the following radar units
3. FM generates all necessary timing
4. Pulse pulses?

1-5. Which radar unit permits the use 1. Duplexer

of a single antenna for both 2. Modulator
transmit and receive functions? 3. Receiver
4. Indicator
1. Antenna
2. Duplexer
3. Indicator
4. Modulator

1
1-11. Which of the following radar units 1-17. To determine if an echo is a false
converts the video output of the target or a true target, what
receiver to a visual display? radar characteristic should you
change?
1. Duplexer
2. Modulator 1. PW
3. Antenna 2. STC
4. Indicator 3. PRR
4. RPM
1-12. Which of the following radar units
ensures that all subsystems 1-18. Which of the following radar
operate in a definite time reference coordinates is an
relationship? imaginary plane parallel to the
earth’s surface?
1. Duplexer
2. Modulator 1. Horizontal plane
3. Antenna 2. Vertical plane
4. Indicator 3. Los
4. Relative bearing
1-13. Which of the following radar units
converts the echo to an 1-19. Which of the following radar
intermediate frequency? reference coordinates is a line
from the radar set directly to the
1. Duplexer object?
2. Antenna
3. Indicator 1. Horizontal plane
4. Receiver 2. Vertical plane
3. LOS
1-14. Which of the following 4. Relative bearing
characteristics influence(s) radar
range performance? 1-20. Which of the following radar
reference coordinates is the angle
1. Height of antenna measured clockwise from true north
2. Peak power of the transmitted in the horizontal plane?
pulse
3. Receiver sensitivity 1. Relative bearing
4. All of the above 2. Elevation angle
3. True azimuth angle
1-15. Which of the following external 4. Vertical plane
characteristics influence(s) radar
performance? 1-21. Which of the following radar
reference coordinates is the angle
1. Darkness measured clockwise from the
2. Rain centerline of a ship or aircraft?
3. PMS
4. Both 2 and 3 above 1. Relative bearing
2. Elevation angle
1-16. Which of the following methods 3. Azimuth angle
should you use to do a radar 4. True bearing
surface angular measurement?

1. Measure counterclockwise from

true north
2. Measure clockwise from true
north
3. Measure clockwise from the
heading line of the ship
4. Both 2 and 3 above

2
1-22. Which of the following radar 1-27. Which of the following systems are
reference coordinates is the plane positioned to the point of maximum
in which all angles in the up signal return?
direction are measured?
1. Weapons control and surface
1. Horizontal plane search
2. Vertical plane 2. Surface search and guidance
3. Los 3. Guidance and weapons control
4. Elevation angle 4. Guidance and navigation

1-23. Which of the following radar 1-28. The refraction index of the lowest
reference coordinates is the angle few-hundred feet of atmosphere
between the horizontal plane and will cause a ducting affect on
LOS? radar waves. Ducting may cause
which of the following results?
1. Relative bearing
2. Azimuth angle 1. Increased bending of radar
3. Elevation angle waves
4. True bearing 2. Extended radar horizon
3. Reduced radar horizon
1-24. Which of the following factors 4. All of the above
will effect range performance if
the leading edge of the rf pulse 1-29. When using a high-frequency radar
is sloping? during a heavy rain storm, you
should expect which of the
1. An increased pulse width following results?
2. Lack of definite point of
measurement for elapsed time 1. Minimum range will increase
on the indicator time base 2. Usable range will be reduced
3. A weaker return echo 3. Range resolution will decrease
4. A decrease in frequency 4. Range ability will NOT change

1-25. Which of the following antenna 1-30. Using table 1-1, classify the
characteristics will provide AN/GPN-27.
greater range capability?
1. Fixed radar for detecting and
1. Higher antenna searching
2. Wider beam width 2. Portable sound in air for fire
3. Faster rotation control or searchlight
4. Electronic scanning directing
3. Mobile radar for detecting and
1-26. A radar’s ability to detect searching
bearing is determined by which of 4. General radar for navigation
the following characteristics?
1-31. Which of the following types of
1. Transmit power out radars would be used to track an
2. Echo signal strength aircraft over land?
3. Receiver sensitivity
4. All of the above 1. Surface search radar
2. Fire control tracking radar
3. Air search radar
4. Height-finding radar

3
1-32. Which of the following types of 1-38. Which of the following types of
radars would be used to provide radars would be used to facilitate
precise information for initial station keeping?
positioning of fire control
tracking radars? 1. Height-finding radar
2. Air search radar
1. Height-finding radar 3. Surface search radar
2. Air search radar 4. GCA/CCA
3. Surface search radar
4. Navigation radar 1-39. Which of the following types of
radars would be used to aid in
1-33. Which of the following types of controlling small craft during a
radars would be used to control search and rescue operation?
aircraft during a search and
rescue operation? 1. Air search radar
2. Height-finding radar
1. Surface search radar 3. Surface search radar
2. Air search radar 4. Fire control tracking radar
3. Height-finding radar
4. Fire control tracking radar 1-40. Which of the following types of
radars would be used to detect
1-34. Which of the following types of submarine periscopes?
radars would be used to aid in
scouting? 1. Surface search radar
2. Fire control tracking radar
1. Height-finding radar 3. Air search radar
2. Fire control tracking radar 4. Height-finding radar
3. Surface search radar
4. Air search radar 1-41. On an AO class ship, what radar is
used as the primary surface search
1-35. Which of the following types of and navigation radar?
radars would be used to guide CAP
to an interception point using 1. AN/SPS-40E
bearing and range only? 2. AN/SPS-55
3. AN/SPS-64(V)9
1. Surface search radar 4. AN/SPS-67(V)1
2. Air search radar
3. Height-finding radar 1-42. Which of the following radars
4. Navigation radar replaces a variety of small
commercial radars?
1-36. Which of the following types of
radars would be used to track a 1. AN/SPS-40E
weather balloon? 2. AN/SPS-55
3. AN/SPS-64(V)9
1. Navigation radar 4. AN/SPS-67(V)1
2. Air search radar
3. Surface search radar 1-43. Which of the following radars was
4. Height-finding radar developed to detect small surface
targets from a range of 50 yards
1-37. Which of the following types of to the radar horizon?
radars could be used for surface
search in an emergency? 1. AN/SPS-40E
2. AN/SPS-55
1. Fire control tracking radar 3. AN/SPS-64(V)9
2. Air search radar 4. AN/SPS-67(V)3
3. Height-finding radar
4. GCA/CCA

4
1-44. A technician must have formal 1-50. The AN/SPS-67(V)1 radar will NOT
training to work on which of the interface with which of the
following equipments, if any? following systems?

1. AN/SPS-64(V)9 1. AN/USQ-82(V)
2. AN/SPS-40E 2. AN/ALA-10( )
3. AN/SPA-25G 3. AN/SPA-25( )
4. None of the above 4. AN/SPG-55B

1-45. If you were unable to isolate a

fault in your radar system, you
could request assistance from
which of the following sources?

1. NAVSEACEN
2. MOTU
3. A tender
4. All of the above

1-46. Which of the following radars

performs navigation, station
keeping, and general surface
search functions on the DDG 51
class ship?

1. AN/SPS-55
2. AN/SPS-64(V)9
3. AN/SPS-65(V)1
4. AN/SPS-67(V)3

1-47. An AN/SPS-67(V) radar operating in

a short pulse mode will have what
pulse repetition frequency?

1. 750
2. 1200
3. 2400
4. 9600

1-48. The AN/SPS-10 antenna and pedestal

assembly on your ship has just
been replaced with a low-profile,
nuclear-survivable antenna
assembly. What new radar has been
installed?

1. AN/SPS-67(V)1
2. AN/SPS-67(V)2
3. AN/SPS-67(V)3
4. AN/SPS-64(V)9

1-49. At which unit of an AN/SPS-67(V)

will the dummy load be mounted?

1. Video processor unit

2. Receiver-transmitter unit
3. Antenna controller unit
4. Radar set control unit

5
 ASSIGNMENT 2
Textbook Assignment: “Radar Systems Equipment Configurations,” chapter 2, pages 2–3
through 2–24.

2-1. Use of BIT circuitry in the 2–5. Which of the following missions is
AN/SPS–67(V) radar will have which NOT supported by the AN/SPS–55
of the following results? radar?

1. It will degrade the 1. ASW

performance of the system 2. AAN
2. It will locate 95% of failures 3. SPW
within the receiver– 4. MOB
transmitter only
3. It will locate 95% of failures 2–6. The AN/SPS–55 radar, without any
within the receiver- modifications, will interface with
transmitter and video which of the following systems?
processor to six possible
modules 1. MK XII IFF
4. It will locate 95% of failures 2. AN/SLA–10
to four possible modules 3. AN/SYS–2(V)2
within the receiver– 4. AN/SYS–1
transmitter and video
processor 2–7. An operating AN/SPS–55 radar goes
into standby mode and an indicator
2-2. What Navy Enlisted Classification is activated at the RSC. What is
code, if any, applies to the the probable cause?
AN/SPS–64(V)9 radar?
1. The magnetron has exceeded
1. NEC ET–1507 safe operating parameters
2. NEC ET–1510 2. The modulator has exceeded
3. NEC ET–1524 safe operating parameters
4. None 3. A low–voltage condition has
occurred
2–3. Which of the following 4. The high–voltage power supply
information/support is available has exceeded safe operating
for the AN/SPS–64(V)9 technician? parameters

1. 2M Electronic Repair Program 2–8. What is the primary function of an

support AN/SPS–49(V) radar?
2. Formal maintenance training
3. Technical Repair Standards 1. Support of AAW
4. Support and Test Equipment 2. Backup to the weapon system
Engineering Program (STEEP) designation radar
3. Surface search
2–4. A radar video converter (RVC) 4. Navigation
modification of the AN/SPS–55 was
developed for which class of ship?

1. DD–963
2. FFG–7
3. FFG–61
4. MCM-1

6
 2–9. Which of the following functions 2-14. Which of the following Navy
is/are collateral to the Enlisted Classification codes
AN/SPS-49(V) radar’s primary applies to the AN/SPS–49(V)1,
function? (V)2, (V)3, (V)4, and (V)6 radars?

1. ATC 1. 1503
2. AIC 2. 1510
3. ASAC 3. 1511
4. All of the above 4. 1516

2–10. You are on an AEGIS cruiser and

your 2D air search radar has been 2-15. The AN/SPS–40B/C/D/E radar
modified to have a direct digital operates at what antenna rate for
interface with the AEGIS combat (a) high data rate capabilities
system. What is the nomenclature and (b) long-range mode?
of your radar after the
modification is complete? 1. (a) 15 rpm (b) 6.7 rpm
2. (a) 15 rpm (b) 7.5 rpm
1. AN/SPS–67(V)3 3. (a) 16 rpm (b) 7.5 rpm
2. AN/SPS–49(V)8 4. (a) 19 rpm (b) 6.7 rpm
3. AN/SPS-49(v)5
4. AN/SPS–40E 2–16. The OMTI field change of the
AN/SPS-40B/C/D radar accomplished
2–11. The AN/SPS–49(V) radar has how which of the following results?
many variant configurations?
1. Replaced the duplexer with a
1. 5 solid state unit
2. 7 2. Allowed interface with the
3. 8 AN/SYS-1
4. 9 3. Changed the nomenclature of
the radar to AN/SPS-40E
2–12. If the AN/SPS–49(V) radar on your 4. Eliminated unit 23
ship has ATD and no cooling
system, which variant 2–17. The AN/SPS–40 nomenclature is
configuration is installed? changed to RN/SPS–40E after
completion of which of the
1. (V)5 following field changes, if any?
2. (V)6
3. (V)7 1. DMTI
4. (V)8 2. SSTX
3. RVC
2–13. Which of the following variant 4. None of the above
configurations of the AN/SPS-49(V)
radar interface(s) with the 2–18. What Navy Enlisted Classification
AN/SYS–2(V) IADT system? code applies to the AN/SPS–40B/C/D
radar with field change 11?
1. (V)7
2. (V)8 1. 1508
3. (V)9 2. 1510
4. All of the above 3. 1511
4. 1516

7
2–19. How often will antenna and 2–24. The operator of which type of
pedestal restoration be performed radar is able to control the
on the AN/SPS–40B/C/D/E radar? antenna when searching in a target
sector?
1. About every 3 years
2. About every 5 years 1. Surface search
3. Every 7 years 2. 2D air search
4. Every 10–15 years 3. 3D air search
4. Ground–controlled approach
2–20. The AN/GPN–27 radar antenna group
provides constant radiation 2–25. Which of the following statements
altitude coverage of how many describes the radiated frequency
degrees above the peak of the of a 3D air search radar during
beam? electronic scanning?

1. 15 degrees 1. It changes in discrete steps

2. 30 degrees at each elevation angle
3. 45 degrees 2. It remains constant at each
4. 60 degrees elevation angle
3. It changes beam width
2–21. In the AN/GPN–27, which of the 4. It changes randomly
following video signals are
provided to the processor unit by 2–26. Which of the following radars is a
the receiver? Precision Approach Landing System
(PALS)?
1. Normal video
2. Log video 1. AN/SPN–42A
3. Moving target indicator video 2. AN/SPN–46(V)
4. fill of the above 3. AN/GPN-27
4. AN/FPN–63
2–22. Which of the intercommunication
system stations are located in the 2—27. Which of the following systems iss
transmitter building group of the installed at naval air stations
AN/GPN–27 radar? for PALS training of flight crews,
operators, and maintenance
1. One master station only personnel
2. One slave station only
3. One master station and one 1. AN/SPN–42T1/3/4
slave station 2. AN/SPN–46(V)1
4. Two master stations and one 3. AN/SPN–46(V)2
slave station 4. AN/FPN-63

2–23. Where is the 16–inch maintenance 2–28. How many aircraft can the
ppi for the AN/GPN–27 located? AN/SPN–46(V) control simul–
taneously and automatically during
1. Display site the final approach and landing
2. Transmitter building phase of carrier recovery
3. Antenna site operations?
4. Air traffic control room
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

8
2–29. In which mode(s) of operation does 2–34. Which unit of the AN/SPN-46(V)
the AN/SPN-46(V) transmit command provides a maintenance intercom
and error signals via Link 4A for for troubleshooting purposes?
automatic control?
1. Power distribution panel (unit
1. Mode I 3)
2. Mode II 2. PRI–FLI indicators (unit 6)
3. Both 1 and 2 above 3. PRI-FLI indicator control
4. Mode III (unit 5)
4. Recorder–converter (unit 8)
2–30. In which mode(s) of operation does
the AN/SPN-46(V) provide manual 2-35. Which of the following units of
control of the aircraft? the AN/SPN–46(V) is NOT designed
to test the system or to aid in
1. Mode I troubleshooting?
2. Mode II
3. Mode III 1. Retractable alignment mast
4. Both 2 and 3 above (unit 23)
2. MLV (unit 13)
2–31. During Mode II operation of the 3. SBBM (unit 15)
AN/SPN–46(V), the pilot receives 4. OCC (unit 2)
command and error information via
what medium? 2–36. Of the following radars, which
would be used at a naval air
1. Link 4A and autopilot station to replace the PAR portion
2. Voice communications of the AN/CPN–4 family of
3. Cockpit display equipment?
4. Operator control console
1. AN/SPN-46(V)1
2–32. Which of the 26 units in the 2. AN/FPN-63(V)
AN/SPN–46(V)1 is/are not used by 3. AN/MPN–23(V)
the AN/SPN-46(V)2? 4. Both 2 or 3 above

1. PRI–FLI indicators (units 6 2–37. Which of the following items are

and 7) generated by the AZ–EL range
2. Recorder–converter (unit 8) indicator of the AN/FPN–63(V)?
3. LSO waveoff light (unit 10)
4. MK 16 stable elements (units 1. Cursors
17 and 18) 2. Range marks
3. Internal map
2-33. Which unit of the AN/SPN–46(V) 4. All of the above
automatically switches the
AN/TPX–42(V)8 into a master 2–38. Which of the following radar
computer configuration of the CCS? repeaters, if any, has range–only
capability?
1. Central computer group (unit
12) 1. Planned position indicator
2. Digital data switchboard (unit 2. A scope
14) 3. RHI
3. Computer processor (unit 19) 4. None of the above
4. Power distribution panel (unit
3)

9
2–39. Which of the following inputs
is/are required for a radar
repeater to be able to display a
detected target at the correct
range and bearing?
2–44. The SB/4229/SP Switchboard can
accept many signal inputs. Which
of the following statements is
most correct about its input
capabilities?

1. Video 1. It can accept aignals from 16

2. Triqger radar sets
3. Antenna position 2. It can accept signals from 16
4. A1l of the above radar sets and four IFF
interrogator sets
2–40. A printed–circuit board in the 3. It can accept signals from six
CV–3989/SP Signal Data Converter radar sets and four IFF
is faulty. The replacement value decoders
of the PCB is $627.00. Who, if 4. It can accept signals from six
anyone, will repair the PCB? radar repeaters and six IFF
decoders
1. The ET responsible for
maintenance of surface search 2–45. The SB-4229/SP can accept RADDS
radars data stream inputs from how many
2. Intermediate level maintenance separate signal data converters?
personnel
3. Depot level maintenance 1. 16
personnel 2. 9
4. No one, it should be discarded 3. 5
4. 4
2–41. The electronic bearing circle
displayed around the AN/SPA–25G 2–46. A total of how many different
has bearing markers labeled operators can select input sensors
numerically at what points? from the SB-4229/SP for display at
their indicator?
1. Every 5°
2. Every 10° 1. 5
3. Every 15° 2. 6
4. Every 25° 3. 9
4. 16
2–42. The AN/SPA-25G will interface with
which of the following systems? 2–47. Which of the following radar
indicators is used to obtain
1. Any Navy missile guidance altitude information?
system
2. Any Navy air search radar 1. Planned position indicator
system 2. A scope
3. Any Navy surface search radar 3. RHI
system 4. AN/SPA-25G
4. Both 2 and 3 above
2-48. On an rhi, which of the following
2–43. The CV–3989/SP provides a RADDS is an indication of a target?
data stream containing which of
the following data? 1. A horizontal line at the
bottom of the screen
1. Ship’s heading 2. A vertical blip
2. Stabilized radar antenna 3. The zenith at the left side of
azimuth the screen
3. Dead–reckoning information 4. Vertical range marks
4. All of the above

10
2-49. How do you determine the target
height when using an rhi?

1. Adjust height line; then read

from the range markers
2. Look at the target; then read
the scale on the screen
3. Adjust height line; then read
it from the altitude counters
4. Read it directly from the
altitude dials

2–50. You are on an NTDS–equipped ship.

What function, if any, does the
AN/SPA-25G perform?

1. Primary radar indicator

2. Backup radar indicator
3. Multipurpose console
4. None

2–51. Which radar repeater is used

primarily by maintenance personnel
to evaluate the operation of a
radar?

1. A scope
2. PPI
3. RHI
4. Both 2 and 3 above

2–52. Which of the following radar

display and distribution system
configurations will be found on
90% of Navy ships?

1. AN/SPA–25G, CV–3989/SP,
SB–4229/SP
2. AN/SPA–50, CV–3989/SP,
SB–4229/SP
3. AN/SPA-66, CV–3989/SP, SB–1505
4. AN/SPA–25G, CV–3989/SP, SB–440

11
 ASSIGNMENT 3
Textbook Assignment: “Radar System Interfacing,” chapter 3, pages 3–1 through 3–11; and
“Radar Safety,” chapter 4, pages 4–1 through 4–4.

3-1. Of the following information, 3-6. Which IFF unit provides the
which could be provided by modern control signals that determine the
IFF systems? MK XII mode of operation?

1. Mission of the target 1. Control monitor

2. What squadron the target 2. Video decoder
belongs to 3. Manual pedestal control
3. The altitude of an aircraft 4. Computer
4. All of the above
3-7. Which of the following modes of
3–2. What are the three basic steps of IFF operation is NOT a selective
the IFF identification process? identification feature (SIF) mode?

1. Challenge, reply, and 1. 1

recognition 2. 2
2. Interrogate, transpond, and 3. C
display 4. 3/A
3. Search, challenge, and
identify 3-8. The transponder of a pilotless
4. Challenge, reply, and decode aircraft, responding to a SIF mode
interrogation, would send which of
3–3. The spacing between IFF the following replies?
interrogation pulse pairs is
determined by which of the 1. I/P
following factors? 2. X–pulse
3. 4X
1. Timing from the primary radar 4. 7700
2. Rpm of the antenna
3. Mode of IFF operation 3–9. Which of the following codes could
4. Amount of power out be selected as an IFF transponder
reply code for mode 1 operation?
3–4. When you use IFF, a dashed line
just beyond the target on your 1. 4300
radar screen indicates which of 2. 4400
the following craft? 3. 7400
4. 7777
1. A craft in distress
2. A friendly craft 3–10. A major failure in your radio room
3. A hostile or unfriendly craft has knocked your communications
4. A craft that the operator has off the air. Which of the
voice communications with following codes should you set in
the IFF transponder for mode 3/A
3–5. The Mark XII IFF aystem is capable replies?
of how many modes of operation?
1. 7500
1. 5 2. 7600
2. 2 3. 7700
3. 3 4. 7777
4. 4

12
3–11. Which of the following IFF mode 3–16. The MK XII IFF system requires
3/A reply codes will trigger an triggers to initiate interro–
alarm at an FAA tower? gations. Where do they come from?

1. 7500 1. The modulator of the primary

2. 7600 radar
3. 7777 2. The pulse generator of the IFF
4. All of the above interrogator
3. Both 1 and 2 above
3-12. Which of the following IFF mode 4. The KIR–1A/TSEC
3/A reply codes may your ship use
in U.S. national air space? 3-17. You would find direct altitude
readouts for IFF mode C replies on
1. 5011 which of the following displays?
2. 5247
3. 6247 1. Planned position indicator
4. 6539 2. Range and height indicator
3. Intratarget data indicator
3–13. Which of the following IFF mode C 4. Alarm monitor
reply codes will your ship use?
3-18. All the indicators on your ship
1. 3564 that are interfaced with IFF have
2. 5732 ring-around. Which of the
3. 6534 following places will the problem
4. 0000 most likely be found?

3–14. A commercial airliner using TCAS 1. Primary radar antenna

could mistake your ship’s IFF mode 2. Radar distribution switchboard
C reply for which of the following 3. IFF interrogator section
structures? 4. IFF transponder section

1. An airport tower 3–19. The antenna pedestal assembly is

2. A small aircraft flying at being rotated at 21 rpm. To what
about 14,000 feet mode of operation is your IFF
3. A small aircraft flying at manual pedestal set?
about 10,000 feet
4. A bigger ship 1. Free run
2. Slave
3–15. Under which of the following 3. Manual
circumstances may you operate IFF 4. Auto
in mode C when your ship is in or
near port? 3–20. Which of the following modes of
IFF operation does/do NOT require
1. In heavy air traffic areas that reply codes be set by
2. To make contact with the FAA thumbwheel switches?
tower
3. When performing operational 1. 3/A
testing 2. C
4. When testing with the antenna 3. 4
disconnected 4. Both 2 and 3 above

13
3–21. You would need written permission 3–27. As an aircraft leaves the CATCC
from the Skipper to work on which controller’s area of respon–
of the following units without sibility, it is passed to which of
formal training? the following controllers?

1. MX-8758/UPX 1. Another CATCC control position

2. AN/UPX–23 2. CIC
3. KIT–1A/TSEC 3. ACLS/PALS
4. TS-1843A/APX 4. Any of the above, as
appropriate
3–22. Which of the following agencies
is/are involved in agreements made 3–28. Which type of DAIR system would be
under the AIMS program? used for amphibious operations?

1. The Air Force 1. Type 5

2. The Navy 2. Type 8
3. The FAA 3. Type 10
4. All of the above 4. Type 12

3–23. Which type of DAIR system is used 3–29. Each DAIR system provides
at major shore installations? information to allow control of
aircraft within a given area.
1. Type 5 Which type has a responsibility
2. Type 8 area of 50 nautical miles
3. Type 10 surrounding the ship?
4. Type 12
1. Type 5
3–24. Which type of DAIR is used at 2. Type 8
expeditory airfields? 3. Type 10
4. Type 12
1. Type 5
2. Type 8 3–30. Which type of DAIR system has the
3. Type 10 AOA as its responsibility area?
4. Type 12
1. Type 5
3–25. You are at a shore installation 2. Type 8
and your DAIR system alarms when 3. Type 10
the target strays ±300 feet from 4. Type 12
the controller–assigned altitude.
What type of DAIR system do you 3–31. On board your carrier you have
have? just updated your AN/TPX–42A(V)8
to a (V)12. Which additional
1. Type 5 system can now interface with your
2. Type 8 DAIR?
3. Type 10
4. Type 12 1. ITAWDS
2. NTDS
3–26. A controller using a CATCC DAIR 3. IFF
system has which of the following 4. PALS
information available at his/her
console? 3–32. A technician trained to maintain a
RATCF DAIR system will have what
1. Flight identity NEC?
2. Flight altitude
3. Ship’s barometric pressure 1. ET–1572
4. All of the above 2. ET-1574
3. ET–1576
4. ET-1578

14
3–33. A technician trained to maintain 3–39. The Combat Systems Technical
an AIMS Mk XII IFF system will Operations Manual provides
have what NEC? information required to take which
of the following actions?
1. ET–1572
2. ET–1574 1. Define the limitations of the
3. ET-1576 NTDS system
4. ET-1578 2. Operate the NTDS system
3. Maintain the material
3–34. A technician trained to maintain readiness of the NTDS system
an AATC DAIR system will have what 4. All of the above
NEC?
3-40. Which of the following are CRT
1. ET-1572 safety hazards?
2. ET–1574
3. ET-1576 1. Violent implosion if broken
4. ET-1578 2. Toxic phosphor coating
3. Very high voltage
3–35. Which of the following systems, if 4. All of the above
any, integrates other systems and
subsystems to perform detection 3–41. When working on an energized radar
and entry functions? and measuring a voltage of 2000
volts, you should wear electrical
1. AIMS safety rubber gloves with which of
2. DAIR the following ratings?
3. NTDS
4. None of the above 1. Class 0
2. Class I
3–36. Which of the following are combat 3. Class II
system functions controlled by 4. Class III
NTDS?
3–42. In which section of the tag-out
1. Tracking and identification log would you place a tag-out
2. Threat evaluation and weapon record sheet that has been cleared
assignment after completion of radar PMS?
3. Engagement and engagement
assessment 1. Section 1
4. All of the above 2. Section 2
3. Section 3
3-37. As an ET you are responsible for 4. Section 5
maintenance on which of the
following NTDS-related equipment? 3-43. RADHAZ labels indicate an RF
electromagnetic field intense
1. Video and sync amps enough to do which of the
2. Operator consoles following damage?
3. Gun systems
4. Missile systems 1. Cause spark ignition of fuel
2. Produce harmful biological
3-38. What publication, if any, provides effects in humans
information on radar and NTDS as 3. Actuate electroexplosive
an integrated system on your ship? devices
4. Any of the above
1. Handbook for shipboard
surveillance radars
2. SORM
3. CSTOM
4. None

15
3–44. When you are in port, who must 3–49. Which of the following
give you permission to test requirements pertain(s) to a
operate your radar system? safety observer for a technician
working on energized equipment?
1. The commanding officer
2. The command duty officer 1. Must be CPR qualified
3. The supervisor in charge of 2. Must know the location of all
operations cut–off switches
4. Both 2 and 3 above 3. Must have a nonconductive
device to pull the technician
3-45. Which of the following hazard from a circuit
conditions is most critical during 4. All of the above
a refueling operation?
3–50. How often is the required PMS
1. HERO performed on a safety harness?
2. HERP
3. HERF 1. Each time it is used
2. Weekly
3–46. Which of the following hazard 3. Monthly
conditions is most critical when a 4. Annually
person is working aloft?

1. HERO
2. HERP
3. HERF

3–47. Which of the following hazard

conditions is most critical during
an ammunition off–loading
operation?

1. HERO
2. HERP
3. HERF

3–48. What parameter(s) is/are used to

determine safe limits associated
with electronic equipment?

1. Power density of the radiation

beam
2. Exposure time of the human
body
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Potential of voltage to cause
a burn injury

16
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