IRRIGATION & POWER DEPARTMENT PUNJAB

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(MCQ)

Departmental Professional Examination

PAPER – A

1. IRRIGAITON MANUAL OF PRACTICE

2. IRRIGATION & HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
By: Dr. Iqbal Ali
3. HANDOUTS

PAPER – B: ACCOUNTS CODE

PAPER – C: 1. IRRIGATION MANUAL OF ORDERS

2. PUBLIC WORKS DEPARTMEN CODE

IRRIGATION & POWER DEPARTMENT PUNJAB

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(MCQ)

Departmental Professional Examination

PAPER – A

1. IRRIGAITON MANUAL OF PRACTICE

2. IRRIGATION & HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES

By: Dr. Iqbal Ali

3. HANDOUTS
I. DEFINITION OF TERMS USED IN CONNECTION
WITH IRRIGATION

Q. 1/12th of acre feet is equal to :

a. 2.0 Cusec hour

b. 1.0 cusec hour
c. 3.0 cusec hour

Ans. b

Q. Angularity correction made to velocity when the direction of current of flow is:

a. Right angled to discharge section

b. Exactly not right angle to discharge section
c. In case of calculation of discharge as a general
d. None

Ans. b

Q. Base period of Kharif Crop is :

a. 183 days
b. 182 days
c. 365 days
d. 120 days

Ans. a

Q. The capacity of canal is:

a. Maximum discharge it can carry

b. Authorized full supply discharge
c. Mean supply
d. Indented supply less or greater than full supply

Ans. b

Q. Full supply factor is :

a. Discharge at full supply level

b. Kharif Rabi ratio
c. Duty of canals at design stage
d. Intensity of Irrigation
Ans. c

Q. One cusec is equal to :

a. 2.83 Litre per sec.

b. 28.3 Litre per sec.
c. 15.2 Litre per sec.

Ans. b

Q. One Cumec is equal to :

a. 1.54 cusec
b. 3.54 cusec
c. 35.4 cusec
d. 25.0 cusec

Ans. c

Q. A cross wall constructed in channel to effect uniform distribution of velocity

across section is :

a. Cut off wall

b. Baffle wall
c. Divide wall
d. Toe wall

Ans. b

Q. The ratio of water used by crop to that supplied at canal head is :

a. Irrigation intensity
b. Irrigation efficiency
c. Full supply factor
d. Crop consumptive use

Ans. b

Q. Crop ratio is:

a. Design intensity : Achieved intensity of Irrigation

b. Kharif : Rabi
c. G.C.A : C.C.A

Ans. b
Q. The area irrigated during a base period divided by the mean supply utilized in
cusecs is :

a. Delta
b. Duty
c. Consumptive use of crop

Ans. b

Q. Water allowance is:

a. Allowance to irrigation staff for good performance

b. Total cusecs provided to irrigate one thousand acres of C.C.A.
c. Water supplied for leaching operation
d. Discharge passing in an outlet

Ans. b

Q. The discharge through a triangular notch is measured by the equation:

a. Q = 0.428C tanØ G3/2

b. Q = 4.28C tanØ G3/2
c. Q = 4.28C tanØ G3/2

Ans. c

Q. The formula C =19 √D/b1 x (d+D)/b is used for calculation :

a. Position of Hydraulic Jump

b. Exit gradient
c. Mutual interference of sheet piles on uplift pressure
d. Maximum scour

Ans. c

Q. The formula R 0.9 (q2/f)1/3 is used for calculating:

a. Depth of scour from bed of channel

b. Depth of scour from water surface
c. Depth of foundation of structure below bed
d. Depth of channel in Lacey’s formula

Ans. b
II. SALIENT FEATURES OF IRRIGATION SYSTEM
Q. Upper Bari Doab Canal was opened in:

a. 1830
b. 1859
c. 1880
d. 1890

Ans. b.

Q. Sutlej Valley Project (S.V.P) comprised the construction of :

a. Two head works

b. Three head works
c. Four head works
d. Five head works

Ans. c.

Q. Sutlej Valley Project (S.V.P)

a. Commenced in 1920 and completed in 1930

b. Commenced in 1922 and completed in 1930
c. Commenced in 1922 and completed in 1932
d. Commenced in 1925 and completed in 1935

Ans. c.

Q. Sutlej Valley Project (S.V.P) comprised :

a. 5 canals
b. 9 canals
c. 11 canals
d. 15 canals

Ans. c.

Q. Old Sidhnai Weir on River Ravi was completed in :

a. 1870
b. 1885
c. 1895
d. 1900
Ans. b.
Q. Total catchment area of Indus River System is:
a. 225,000 Sq miles
b. 350,000 Sq miles
c. 450,000 Sq miles
d. 550,000 Sq miles

Ans. c.

Q. The length of main Indus river is :

a. 1500 miles
b. 2000 miles
c. 2500 miles
d. 3000 miles

Ans. b

Q. The river with its source at Verinag in Kashmir Valley is called:

a. Indus River
b. Jhelum River
c. Chenab River
d. Ravi River

Ans. b.

Q. Catchment area of Chenab River is :

a. 15,000 Sq miles
b. 20,210 Sq miles
c. 26,079 Sq miles
d. 3,504 Sq miles

Ans. c.

Q. Length of Chenab River is :

a. 517 miles
b. 772 miles
c. 982 miles
d. 1100 miles

Ans. b.
Q. Average annual run off of Indus River is :

a. 50 MAF
b. 70MAF
c. 90 MAF
d. 100 MAF

Ans. c.

Q. Triple Canal Project comprises:

a. L.C.C. , U.C.C. and L.J.C.

b. L.C.C., M.R.L. and L.B.D.C.
c. U.J.C., U.C.C. and L.B.D.C.
d. U.J.C., L.C.C. and L.B.D.C.

Ans. c.

Q. The famous Triple Canal Project was completed in:

a. 1903
b. 1910
c. 1915
d. 1920

Ans. c.

Q. The concrete used in Upper Jhelum Canal at the time of its construction was :

a. Plain cement concrete

b. Reinforced cement concrete
c. Plain lime concrete

Ans. c.

Q. No. of level crossings on Upper Jhelum Canal are :

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Ans. c.
Q. Haveli Canal Project was completed in :

a. 1925
b. 1939
c. 1946
d. 1955

Ans. b.

Q. Taunsa Project was commissioned in :

a. 1948
b. 1953
c. 1958
d. 1963

Ans. c.

Q. Steel super structure and gates and gearing system of “Taunsa Barrage” were
designed and fabricated by:

a. Mughalpura Irrigation Workshop (MIW)

b. Bhalwal Irrigation Workshop (BIW)
c. Machinery Division Lahore

Ans. b.

Q. Installed capacity of Rasul Power House is:

a. 11 MW
b. 15 MW
c. 22 MW
d. 30 MW

Ans. c.

Q. No of Hydro Power Stations on Upper Jhelum Canal are :

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Ans. a.
Q. Nandipur Hydro Power Station is situated on :

a. Upper Jhelum Canal

b. Lower Jhelum Canal
c. Upper Chenab Canal
d. Q.B. Link

Ans. c.

Q. Shadiwal Hydro Power Station with installed capacity of 13,800 KW is situated

on:

a. Lower Jhelum Canal

b. Upper Jhelum Canal
c. Upper Chenab Canal
d. Lower Chenab Canal

Ans. b.

Q. No of barrages constructed under Indus Basin Project are :

a. 4 barrages
b. 5 barrages
c. 7 barrages

Ans. b.

Q. Total diversion capacity of canals in Pakistan is :

a. 145000 Cusec
b. 190000 Cusec
c. 233000 Cusec
d. 273000 Cusec

Ans. c.

Q. Annual average outflow of river water to sea is of the order of :

a. 25 MAF
b. 38 MAF
c. 45 MAF
d. 55 MAF

Ans. b.
Q. Total No. of outlets in Punjab are about:

a. 40,000 No.
b. 50,000 No.
c. 60,000 No.
d. 70,000 No.

Ans. b.

Q. Length of inter river link canals :

a. 368 miles
b. 431 miles
c. 528 miles
d. 638 miles

Ans. c.

Q. Small dams in Punjab are :

a. 20 No.
b. 25 No.
c. 30 No.
d. 35 No.

Ans. c.

Q. Length of flood embankments in Punjab is:

a. 1200 miles
b. 1400 miles
c. 1600 miles
d. 1800 miles

Ans. c.

Q. Total numbers of Head Works / Barrages in the Punjab are :

a. 22
b. 14
c. 18

Ans. b.
Q. Total number of main canal systems in Punjab is :

a. 44
b. 18
c. 21

Ans. c.
Q. Total off take especially of irrigation canals (apart from link canals) in Punjab is
of the order of :

a. 50,000 c/s
b. 1.2 lac cs
c. 3 lac cs

Ans. b.

Q. Total Culture-able Commander Area of irrigation system in Punjab is of the order

of :

a. 42 million area
b. 50 million acres
c. 21 million acres

Ans. c.

Q. Total off-take capacity of link canal in the Punjab is of the order of :

a. 50,000 c/s
b. 1.1 lac cs
c. 2 lac cs

Ans. b.

Q. As against the overall designed intensity of irrigation of 67% the actual intensity
of irrigation is of the order of

a. 100 %
b. 122 %
c. 80%

Ans. b.
Q. The total mileage of irrigation canals in the Punjab is of the order of :
a. 50,000 miles
b. 23,000 miles
c. 15,000 miles
Ans. b.

Q. Indus River System Authority (IRSA) was established in the year :

a. 1991
b. 1993
c. 1995
d. 1997

Ans. b.

Q. Indus River System Authority (IRSA) comprises :

a. Three members
b. Four members
c. Five members
d. Six members

Ans. c.

Q. No. of Link Canals constructed under Indus Basin Treaty are :

a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 10

Ans. b.

Q. Pakistan's Irrigation system is originally designed to operate

a during Rabi season only
b mainly run-of the river supplies to cover part of CCA annually
c to meet peak crop water demand of entire CCA
d for salinity control
Ans. b.

Q. The total mean annual inflow of Pakistan's three western rivers is nearly
a 25 MAF
b 295 MAF
c 142 MAF
d 67 MAF
Ans. c.

Q. Main canal systems in Pakistan are

a 39 No.
b 33 No.
 c 20 No.
d 43 No.
Ans. d.

Q. Total No. of Head works / Barrages in Punjab are:

a 18 No.
b 10 No.
c 14 No.
d 17 No
Ans. c.

Q. Total off take capacity of canals (apart from link canals)in punjab is nearly
a 0.8 Lac Cusec
b 2.0 Lac Cusec
c 1.2 Lac Cusec
d 1.4 Lac Cusec
Ans. c.

Q. Main canal systems in Punjab are:

a 21No.
b 25 No.
c 29 No.
d 33 No.
Ans. a.

Q. Small Dams in Punjab are

a 20 No.
b 25 No.
c 30 No.
d 35 No.
Ans. c.

Q. The live storage capacity of Tarbela dam is

a 6.1 MAF
b 7.7 MAF
c 8.4 MAF
d 9.4 MAF
Ans. d

Q. The live storage capacity of Mangla dam is

a 3.02 MAF
b 5.34 MAF
c 7.82 MAF
d 9.0 MAF
Ans. b
Q. Maximum number of head works in Pakistan have been constructed on river
a Chenab
b Jhelum
c Indus
d Sutlej
Ans. c.
III. THE STANDING WAVE OR HYDRAULIC JUMP

Q. The position of hydraulic Jump is definite on a :

a) Horizontal floor
b) Sloping glacis
c) Crest

Ans. b.

Q. Hydraulic Jump phenomenon can be used for :

a) Energy dissipation
b) Hydroelectric power generation
c) Sub surface flow analysis
d) None of the above

Ans. a.

Q. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called:

a) Vertical drop fall

b) Glacis fall
c) Montague type fall
d) Inglis fall

Ans. d.

Q. Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation:

a) Vertical drop falls

b) Glacis drop falls
c) Montague type falls
d) Inglis fall

Ans. c.

Q. The most commonly used canal fall in Pakistan is:

a) Vertical drop fall

b) Ogee type
c) Glacis type
d) Mushtaq’s spreading floor type
Ans. c.
Q. Which of the following can be used as a meter fall :

a) Vertical fall
b) Flumed glacis fall
c) Un-flumed glacis fall
d) All of above

Ans. b.

Q. The energy dissipation in an Inglis fall is caused by:

a) A pool of water
b) A hydraulic jumps
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. d.

Q. Friction blocks on the downstream side of the pacca canal fall, can be used to
dissipate the excess energy in the falling water, in case of :

a) A glacis fall
b) A vertical drop fall
c) A baffle fall
d) (a) and (b) both
e) (a) (b) and (c) all
Ans. e.
IV. RIVER TRAINING AND CONTROL

Q. The width within which a river has ranged within historic times is termed as:

a) Meander ratio
b) Limits of oscillation
c) Meander length
d) Meander belt

Ans. b.

Q. The amplitude of swing of a fully developed meander from mid stream to mid
stream is called:

a) Meander width
b) Meander length
c) Meander ratio
d) Sub meander

Ans. a.

Q. A bend in a river imposed by external restraint is called:

a) Meander belt
b) A warp
c) Meander width
d) Meander length

Ans. b.

Q. River which cut’s its channel through the bed of the valley floor is termed as:

a) A meander river
b) An incised river
c) None of above

Ans. b.
Q. For a meandering alluvial river, the ratio of its “channel length” to “direct axial
length” is always:

a) 1
b) >1
c) <1
d) May be less or more than 1, depending upon the river
Ans. b.

Q.67. In a meandering river, the ratio of actual channel length to direct axial length is
called:

a) Tortuousity
b) Inverse of tortuousity
c) Cut off ratio
d) None of these

Ans. a.

Q.68. Tortuosity in a meandering river, is:

a) 1
b) <1
c) >1
d) None of these

Ans. c.

Q.69. A river reach having tortuousity of 1.2, can be said to have:

a) 20% tortuousity of meander

b) 80% of tortuousity of meander
c) 120% tortuousity of meander
d) None of the above

Ans. a.

Q.70. For a meandering alluvial river in flood plains, the meander length is about:

a) 6W
b) 18 W
c) 17 W
d) W

Ans. a.

Q.71. Meander ratio in alluvial meandering river is given by:

a) Meander length / meander with

b) Meander width / meander length
c) (meander width / meander length) x 100
d) None of them
Ans. b.
Q. Sinuosity of a meandering river is :

a) The same as tortuousity

b) Inverse of tortuousity
c) Log of tortuousity
d) None of them

Ans. a.

Q. An alluvial river increases its length by meandering due to :

a) Variation of discharge
b) Variation in land topography
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

Ans. c.

Q. The secondary factor, which is responsible for meander in an alluvial river is :

a) Inadequate land gradient

b) Deficient silt load
c) Constant discharge
d) None of them

Ans. b.

Q. As a result of deepening of D/S sheet pile, the uplift pressure on barrage floor.

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant

Ans. b.

Q. The river has a tendency to change its course when passing through
a Alluvial soil
b Non-alluvial soil
c Rocky mountains
d all of above
Ans. a.

Q. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal
slope S and hydraulic mean radius R is given by
a 4 RS
b 11 RS
 c 7 RS
d 15 RS
Ans. b.

Q. Lacey's wetted perimeter Pw is

a Pw = 1.6 Q1/2
b Pw = 2.668 Q1/2
c Pw = 3.732Q1/2
d Pw =4.831 Q1/2
Ans. b.

Q. Lacey's formula for scour depth "R" with discharge "q" (in FPS system) is
a R = 0.4 (q2/f)1/3
b R = 0.9 (q2/f)1/3
c R = 0.3 (q2/f)2/3
d R = 0.6 (q2/f)1/3
Ans. b.

Q. In order to permit inspection of river embankments, the top width of the

embankment should not be less than

a 20 feet
b 8-10 feet
c 12-16 feet
Ans. c

Q. The water side slope of the embankment should be

a 1 : 2 to 1 :3
b 1 : 4 to 1 : 6
c 1:1
Ans. a

Q. The land side slope of a river embankment should be not less than

a 1:1
b 1:2
c 1:3
Ans. b

Q. Usually (depending upon the nature of material) the embankment is considered

safe against hydraulic gradient if the hydraulic gradient is covered by about

a 5 feet
b 3.5 feet
 c 2 feet
Ans. c

Q. The usually recommended free board of an embankment is

a 5 feet
b 3.5 feet
c 7 feet
Ans. a

Q. As far as possiblem the borrow pits should be laid

a on the land side of the embanbkment

b on the river side of the embankment
Ans. b

Q. Borrow pits laid on the river side of an embankment should be

a continuous in length
b discontinuous in length
Ans. b.

Q. When a river embankment has to be raised, the new earth work should be added
on

a land side of the embankment

b on the river side of the embankment
Ans. b

Q. When a leakage occurs in a river embankment, among other operations

a clay puddle should be poured on the u/s side

b sand should be poured on the u/s side
c saw dust, bran, powdered dung should be thrown on the u/s side
Ans. c
V. IRRIGATION CHANNELS – THEIR DESIGN AND
MAINTENANCE

Q. Lacey’s approach for design of unlined channels:

a. Has specified relationship for sediment transport

b. Completely ignores sediment size and charge
c. Indirectly incorporate the effect of sediment within the operating
conditions of small – medium sized canals in Pakistan.

Ans. c.

Q. Silt ejectors are devices built in :

a. Head reaches of main canal

b. Middle reaches of main canal
c. Under sluices for controlling silt entry into canal
d. The main weir for diverting silt into under sluices

Ans. a.

Q. Silt excluders are devices built in :

a. Canals for silt control

b. Under sluice portion for control of silt entry into canal
c. The main weir for diverting silt to the under sluices
d. The minor canals for proper distribution of silt to the outlets

Ans. b.

Q. Unlined channels in Pakistan are generally designed using:

a. Lacey’s approach
b. Manning’s formula
c. Kennedy’s approach
d. Rational approach

Ans. a.
Q. Lacy’s Silt factor is calculated by the formula :
a. f = 1.76 D50
b. f = 1.76 (D90 + D10)/2
c. f = 0.176 D60
d. f = 0.176 (D60 + D40)/2

Ans. a.
Q. What does the term chak mean:

a. Area of village irrigated by different outlets

b. Area irrigated by an outlet
c. Area irrigated by small minor
d. Total area of village included in C.C.A.

Ans. b.

Q. The minimum slope in the water course is :

a. Between 0.35’ to 0.4’ per thousand ft.

b. Between 0.4’ to 0.5’ per thousand ft.
c. Between 0.1’ to 0.25’ per thousand ft.
d. 0.3 per thousand ft.

Ans. c.

Q. A meter flume is constructed in canal to :

a. To stream line the current of flow in channel

b. To measure discharge
c. To increase velocity of flow to carry silt load
d. To avoid construction of fall

Ans. b.

Q. The efficient maintenance of canal means:

a. The channel is capable to carry its authorized discharge only

b. Capable to carry authorized discharge with authorized supply level
c. Capable to carry extra supply without affecting free board
d. Capable to carry authorized supply with nil free board

Ans. b.

Q. In the case of a distributory , when NSL is below bed level, the free board
provided is :
a. 3.0 ft
b. 2.0 ft
c. 1.5 ft

Ans. c.

Q. The total canal withdrawal in Punjab at the time of partition was of the order of
37 maf which is how of the order of :
 a. 55 maf
b. 80 maf
c. 102 maf

Ans. a.

Q. Which method should be adopted to maintain berms of shallow channel (depth 3’

to 4’):

a. By longitudinal staking and bushing

b. By cross spurs
c. By hanging spurs
d. By a combination of any two or more of the above

Ans. a.

Q. What should be hydraulic gradient in a channel where F.S.L is more than 5.0
above N.S.L. (Bad Soil)

a. 1 :3
b. 1 :4
c. 1 :5
d. 1 :6

Ans. d.

Q. Total total mean annual river discharge in Pakistan is of the order of :

a. 100 Maf
b. 125 Maf
c. 145 Maf
d. 170 Maf
Ans. c.

Q. The total canal culturable command area (CCA) of the Indus plain in Pakistan is:

a. 30.5 Million Acres

b. 35.0 Million Acres
c. 45.1 Million Acres
d. 55.8 Million Acres

Ans. b.
Q. The losses by evaporation and percolation are minimum during irrigation for
crops through :

a. Free flooding method Basin flooding method

b. Sprinkler irrigation method
c. Drip irrigation method

Ans. c.

Q. The relation between duty: “D” in acres /cusec, depth of water “ ∆ “ in feet and
base period “B” in days is given by”

a. ∆ = B/D
b. ∆ = 1.98 B/D
c. ∆ = 3 B/D
d. ∆ = 4 B/D

Ans. b.

Q. Value of Lacey’s silt factor in Punjab canals ranges from:

a 0.75 to 1.2
b 2.8 to 3.6
c 0.35 to 0.51
d 21.33 to 23.76
Ans. a.

Q. For good concrete-lined channels Manning’s “n“ is around

a 0.15
b 0.45
c 0.015
d 1.02
Ans. c.

Q. Unlined channel in Pakistan are generally designed using

a Lacey’s approach
b Kennedy’s approach
c Manning’s formula
d Rational approach
Ans. a.

Q. Silt excluders are devices built in

a Canals for silt control
b Undersluice portion for control of silt entry into canal
c The main weir for diverting silt to the undersluice
d The minor canals for proper distribution of silts to the outlet
Ans. b.
Q.5 Lacey’s approach for design unlined channels
a Has specific relationship for sediment transport
b Completely ignores sediment size and charge
c. Indirectly incorporate the effects of sediments within the operating
conditions of small-medium sized canals in indo-Pakistan
d None of above
Ans. c.

Q. Lacey's silt factor is determined by the formula (where mr is mean particle size in
mm.)
a f = 2.54 (mr)1/2
b f = 1.76 (mr)1/2
c f = 25.4 (mr)1/2
d f = 10.001 (mr)1/2
Ans. b.

Q. If "D' is the depth of the water. Critical velocity expression by Kennedy’s theory
(MKS System) is
a Vo = 0.546 x D0.57
b Vo = 0.546 x D0.64
c Vo = 4.867 x D0.64
d Vo = 9.81 x D0.64
Ans. b.

Q. The relation between Chezy's constant 'C' and Manning's Constant 'n' is (where 'R'
is the hydraulic mean radius.)
a C = n x R1/2
b C = n / R1/2
c C = R1/2 / n
d C = 1 / (n x R1/2)
Ans. c.

Q. The Maning's expression to find out the velocity is (R = hydraulic mean radius&
S=bed slope)
a V = (1/n) x R2/3 x S1/2
b V = (4.864/n) x R2/3 x S1/3
c V = (1/n) x R3/2 x S1/2
d V = (1/n) x R1/2 x S2/3
Ans. a.

Q. Keeping the properties constant like bed slope, roughness coefficient, area of flow
etc. which section will give the maximum discharge
a Circular
b Triangular
c Trapezoidal
d Rectangular
Ans. a.
Q. Silt ejector are devices built in
a Middle reach of the distributry canal
b Head reaches of the main canals
c Undersluice for controlling the silt entry into canals
d The main weir for diverting silt into undersluice
Ans. b.

Q. Lining of canal can

a Increase Velocity
b Increase Efficiency
c Both of above
d None of 'a' and 'b'
Ans. c.

Q. The ratio of the average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the
banks of a channel due to flowing water is
a Less than 1
b Equal to 1
c Greater than 1
d Equal to zero
Ans. c.

Q. If the critical shear stress of a channel is o then the average value of the shear
stress required to move the grain on the bank is
a 0.5 o
b 0.75 o
c to
d 1.33 o
Ans. b.

Q. According to Lacey’s theory, the silt supporting eddies are generated from
a Bottom of channel only
b Sides of the channel only
c Bottom as well as sides of channel
d None of the above
Ans. c.

Q. According to Lacey’s, theory the bed slope is given by (where f is silt factor and
Q is discharge in cumecs)
a f4/3 / 3340 Q1/2
b f2/3 / 3340 Q1/4
c f5/3 / 3340 Q1/6
d f1/3 / 3340 Q5/3
Ans. c.

Q. As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is

a Directly proportional to average particle size
 b Inversely proportional to average particle size
c Directly proportional to square root of average particle size
d Not related to average particle size
Ans. c.

Q. As per Lacey’s regime theory, the flow velocity is equal to the

a (Qf2)1/3
b (Qf2)1/6
c (Q/f2)
d (Q/f2)1/3
Ans. b.

Q. The slope of a channel for which it is designed, in its true sense is:
a Natural Ground Slope
b Bed slope
c The slope of the water surface
d All of above
Ans. c.

Q. Bed load in canal hydraulics is

a Silt and sand rolling in the bed
b Gravel or other deteritus rolling in the bed
c Weight of Stone Pitching
d both a and b
Ans. d.

Q. Lacey's formula for velocity Vo is (fps system)

a Vo = 1.23 f1/2 S 1/2
b Vo = 1.323 f1/2 S 1/3
c Vo = 1.1547 f1/2 S 1/2
d Vo = 1.1547 f1/2 S 2/3
Ans. c.

Q. Laceys silt factor is proportional to (where "d" is the grain size

a d1/2
b d
c d2
d d/2
Ans. a.

Q. The major drawback of the lacey's regime theory as used for the design of an
irrigaton canal is that
a It does not consider the quantum of sediment load, which is likely to flow
into the canal.
b It is applicable to non-cohesive soils.
c It is applicable to alluvial areas of pakistan.
 d All of above
Ans. a.

Q. A meter flume is constructed in canal to

a To stream line the current of flow in channel
b To measure discharge
c to increase the velocity of flow to carry silt load
d To avoid construction of fall
Ans. b.

Q. The losses by evaporation and percolation are minimum during irrigation for
crops through
a Free flooding method
b Basin flooding method
c Sprinkler irrigation method
d drip irrigation method
Ans. d.

Q. Which type of trees are recommended to be grown in canal reaches near rest
houses
a fruit trees
b kikar
c frash
d masquite
Ans. a.

Q. V and R are the regime mean velocity and hydraulic mean depth respectively in
meters. Lacey’s silt factor.

a) f=2V2 b) f=3V2
√3R 4R
c) f=5V2 d) f=2V2
2R 5R

Ans. c.

Q. If average particle size of the silt in millimeters is m, the Lacey’s silt factor f is
proportional to

a) m b) m3
c) m1/2 d) m1/3

Ans. c.

Q. The Lacey’s regime velocity is proportional to

 a) R1/2 S3/4 b) Q3/4 S1/3
c) R3/4 S1/3 d) R2/3 S1/2

Ans. c.

Q. The main cause of silting up of a channel, is

a) Non regime section

b) In-adequate slope.
c) Defective head regulator.
d) Defective outlets
e) All the above.

Ans. e.

Q. F.S.L. of a canal at its head with respect to parent channel is kept

a) At the same level.

b) 15 cm lower.
c) 15 cm higher.
d) None of these.

Ans. b.

Q. In gravity canals, F.S.L. is

a) Always at the ground level.

b) Always below the ground level.
c) Generally 4 to 5 meters above the ground level.
d) Only a few cm above the ground level.

Ans. d.

Q. Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are:

a. 1:1 in cutting and 1½ :1 in filing.

b. 1½ :1 in cutting and 2:1 in filing.
c. Neither (a) nor (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)

Ans. d.

Q. Finally formed berms in canals are provided for

a) Controlling seepage losses.

b) Strengthening of banks.
 c) all the above.

Ans. c.

Q. Borrow pits should preferably be located in

a. Field on the left side of the canal.

b. Field on the right side of the canal.
c. Fields on both sides of the canal.
d. Strengthening of banks.
e. all the above.

Ans. d.

Q. Disposal of extra excavated earth of canals, is utilized to provide a spoil bank on

a. Left side.
b. Right side
c. Both sides
d. All the above

Ans. d.

Q. The measure to remove water logging of land is

a. To reduce percolation from canals and water courses.
b. To increase outflow from the ground water reservoir.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans. c.

Q. A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if

a) ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope.

b) designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope.
c) ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope.
d) None of these.

Ans. a.

Q. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible concrete velocity of water should

not exceed
a). 0.5 m/sec.
b). 1 m/sec
c). 1.5 m/sec
d). 2 m/sec
e). 2.5 m/sec
Ans. d.
Q. Cross regulators in main canals are provided

a) to regulate water supply in the distributaries.

b) To increase water head upstream when a main canal is running
with low supplies.
c) To over flow excessive flood water.
d) None of these.

Ans. b.

Q. Pick up the correct statement from the following.

a) Escape are essential safety values in a canal system.

b) The capacity of escapes should not be less than the capacity of the
canal at its location.
c) The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages.
d) The escapes are aligned to take advantage of contours of lower
values.
e) All the above.

Ans. e.

Q. Bed bars in a canal are provided

a) to watch the general behavior of canal.

b) To measure the discharge.
c) To raise the supply level.
d) To control the silting.
e) All the above.

Ans. a.

Q. The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is

a) to remove silt.
b) To control floods.
c) To store water
d) To raise water level.
e) All the above.

Ans. d.
VI. SILTING TANKS

Q. Silting tanks are constructed and operated

a To raise the level behind the bank of a channel in heavy filling for greater
safety.
b Removing injurious silt charge from irrigation channel
c none of above
d both of a & b
Ans. d

Q. The structure / arrangement at the point where water enters a silting tank as

a inlet
b outlet
c wear
Ans. a

Q. The structure / arrangement at the end of silting tank where water re-enters the
canal is

a inlet
b outlet
c outfall
Ans. c

Q. In the case of a branch canal, the head across the inlet of a silting tank should not
be less than

a 1 foot
b 1.5 feet
c 0.5 feet
Ans. c

Q. In the case of a branch canal, in a silting tank, the head across the outfall should
not be less than

a 1 foot
b 1.5 feet
c 0.4 feet
Ans. c
Q.32 The water surface slope in silting tank is of the order of

a 0.25 feet per thousand

b 0.05 feet per thousand
c 0.5 feet per thousand
Ans. b

Q. In principal in a silting tank, the inlet should be fixed at

a lowest possible level

b near the FSL
c at half the depth of the canal
Ans. a

Q. In principle, in a silting tank, the crest level of the outfall should be fixed at

a lowest possible level

b highest possible level
c at half the depth in the parent channel
Ans. b

Q. In principle, in a silting tank, the crest level of the outfall should be fixed at

a lowest possible level

b highest possible level
c at half the depth in the parent channel
Ans. b

Q. In winter season , the silting tank shoul be

a allowed to run
b closed down

Ans. b
VII. CANAL ROADS
Q. Which is correct.

a canal roads are the properly of irrigation branch and are not open to
public.
b canal roads are open to public / private traffic

Ans. a

Q. To maintain the legal status as private roads belonging to the irrigation branch, all
canal roads are closed for full one day

a from midnight of 30th Sept. to midnight on Ist Oct. each year

b from midnight of 30th June to midnight on Ist July each eyar

Ans. b

Q. A good cross slope should be provided on a kachha road to facilitate rapid

drainage of water.The cross slope should be

a 3 inches
b 1 in 40 to 1 in 60
c 1 in 10 to 1 in 20
Ans. b
VIII. OUTLETS

Q. The sensitivity of a modular outlet is :

a. One
b. Zero
c. Two
d. Three
Ans. b.

Q. The discharge of semi modular outlet is;

a. Independent of water level in Disty

b. Independent of water level in watercourse
c. Independent of water levels both in Disty and watercourse

Ans. b.

Q. The most suitable type of outlet for tail cluster is ;

a. Pipe outlet
b. Scratchley outlet
c. Open flume outlet
d. Adjustable proportional module (A.P.M)

Ans. c.

Q. A device which connects a water course with a distributing channel is called:

a. Inlet
b. Outlet
c. Aqua duct
d. Siphon

Ans. b.

Q. Above the control point in a distributing channel, the most suitable type of outlet
is:

a. Pipe outlet
b. Adjustable proportional module (A.P.M)
c. Scratchley outlet
d. Open flume
Ans. d.
Q. In practice the width of an outlet is limited to :

a. 0.1 foot
b. 0.2 feet
c. 0.3 feet

Ans. b.

Q. The discharge formula for an open flume outlet is :

a. CBH 3/2+
b. 7.3 x B x h
c. 1.23 x B x y

Ans. a.

Q. In the discharge formula for an APM outlet :

7x3 x B x Hs ½

Hs is measured

a. from bottom of roof block to the crest

b. from water level in the channel to crest
c. from water level in channel to bottom of roof block

Ans. c.

Q. In the head reach of a channel, the most suitable type of outlet is:

a. Open flume outlet

b. Adjustable proportional module (A.P.M)
c. Gibb’s module
d. Khanna’s rigid O.S.M

Ans. b.

Q. Crumps open flume outlet is :

a. Non-modular outlet
b. Weir type semi modular outlet
c. Orifice type outlet modular outlet

Ans. b.
Q. The ratio between the rate of change of discharge of the outlet and the rate of
change of discharge of the channel is called:

a. Sensitivity
b. Sensitiveness
c. Flexibility
d. Efficiency

Ans. c.

Q. The fractional increase or decrease of outlet supply per 0.1 ft. rise or fall in the
channel is:

a. Efficiency
b. Sensitiveness
c. Flexibility
d. Sensitivity

Ans. b.

Q. The ratio between rate of change of discharge of an outlet and rate of change in
level of distributory water surface is called:

a. Sensitivity
b. Flexibility
c. Sensitiveness
d. Efficiency

Ans. a.

Q. A fairly approximate formula for MMH of an APM outlet is (Hs is measured

from water surface in canal to bottom of roof block)

a. 20 % of Hs
b. 0.75 Hs
c. 10% of Hs

Ans. b.

Q. The MMH required for an APM is given by the formula MMH = 0.82 Hs x Bt/2,
in which Hs is measured:
a. from bottom of roof block to the crest
b. from water level in the channel to crest
c. from water level in the channel to bottom of the roof block
Ans. c.
Q. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in of an outlet is called:

a. Efficiency
b. Flexibility
c. Sensitivity
d. Minimum Modular Head Ratio

Ans. a.

Q. The Ratio between the minimum modular head and the depth of water in the
channel is called as :

a. Flexibility
b. Efficiency
c. Minimum Modular Head Ratio
d. Sensitivity

Ans. c.

Q. Which one of the following outlets is non-modular:

a. Open flume
b. Pipe outlet
c. A.P.M
d. Gibb’s Module

Ans. b.

Q. The formula for calculating discharge of an open flume outlet is:

(where G is measured from WSL in the channel to the crest )
a. q = K Bt G3/2
b. q = K Bt √G
c. q = K Bt G2
d. q = K Bt G5/2

Ans. a.
Q. In formula for calculating discharge of an open flume outlet for Bt = 0.3’ to 0.4’,
the value of “K” is taken as :

a. = 2.80
b. = 2.90
c. = 2.95
d. = 3.0

Ans. c.
Q. The flexibility F= 1 in the case of open flume outlet can be secured by keeping the
crest of the outlet at :

a. 0.7 of the depth of the channel

b. 0.8 of the depth of the channel
c. 0.9 of the depth of the channel
d. 0.6 of the depth of the channel

Ans. c.

Q. Minimum working head required in an open flume outlet is :

a. 20% of the depth of water above crest of outlet

b. 30% of the depth of water above crest of outlet
c. 40% of the depth of water above crest of outlet
d. 50% of the depth of water above crest of outlet

Ans. a.

Q. The best type of an outlet to check the over drawl is :

a. Pipe outlet
b. Open flume outlet
c. A.P.M.

Ans. c.

Q. Introduction of a large number of control points (consistent with command

requirements) on a distributing channel will:

a. Increase its efficiency

b. Decrease its efficiency
c. No effects on its efficiency
Ans. a.

Q. Shifting the site of an outlet to a point above a fall will :

a. Improve its command

b. Reduce its command
c. Have no effect on its command

Ans. a.

Q. The silt drawing capacity of an outlet should ideally be :

a. = 70 –8-%
 b. = 40 –50%
c. = 110-115%
d. = 200%

Ans. c.

Q. The outlet will draw its fair share of silt charge when its setting is:

a. Below the bed of channel

b. Near the bed of channel
c. Above the bed of channel

Ans. b.

Q. For very small working head, the most suitable type of an outlet is :

a. A.P.M.
b. Pipe outlet
c. Gibb’s module

Ans. b.

Q. Which of the following canal outlets maintain a constant discharge within the
normal working limits.

a. Non – modular outlet

b. Flexible outlet
c. Rigid module
d. None of the above

Ans. c.

Q. The ratio of the depth of cill level of the outlet below F.S.L. of disty to the full
supply depth of the disty is called:

a. Flexibility
b. Sensitivity
c. Setting
d. Efficiency
Ans. c.
Q. Crumps open flume outlet is
a Non-modular outlet
b Weir type semi-modular outlet
c Orifice type outlet
d Modular outlet
Ans. b.
Q. The silt drawing capacity of an outlet should be
a 70 –80%
b 40 – 45%
c 110 –115%
d 200%
Ans. c.

Q. Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge

a Non-modular outlet
b Flexible outlet
c Rigid module
d None of above
Ans. c.

Q. The discharge of semi modular out let is

a Independent of water level in Distributry
b Independent of water level in water course
c Independent of water level both in Distributry and water course
d none of above
Ans. b.

Q. The most suitable type of outlet for tail cluster is

a Pipe outlet
b Scratchley outlet
c Open flume outlet
d Adjustable Proportional Module (APM)
Ans. c.

Q. Above the control point in a distributing channel, the most suitable type of outlet
is
a Pipe outlet
b Adjustable Proportional Module (APM)
c Scratchley outlet
d Open flume outlet
Ans. d.

Q. In the head reach of a channel, the most suitable type of outlet is

a Open flume outlet
b Adjustable Proportional Module (APM)
c Gibb's module
d Khanna's rigid O.S.M.
Ans. b.

Q. The fractional increase or decrease of outlet supply per 0.1 ft rise or fall in the
channel is
a Efficiency
 b Sensitiviteness
c Flexibility
d Sensitivity
Ans. c.

Q. The ratio between the minimum or maximum modular head and the depth of
water in the channel is called
a Flexibility
b Efficiency
c Minimum modular head ratio
d Sensitivity
Ans. c.

Q. Which one of the following outlets is non modular

a Open flume
b Pipe outlet
c A.P.M.
d Gibb's module
Ans. b.

Q. The formula for calculating the discharge of an open flume outlet is ( where G is
the distance between water level in the channel and the crest of the outlet)
a q = K Bt G3/2
b q = K Bt G1/2
c q = K Bt G2
d q = K Bt G5/2
Ans. a.

Q. For very small working head, the most suitable type of an out let is
a A.P.M.
b Pipe outlet
c Gibb's module
d All of above
Ans.

Q. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of
the discharge of distributing channel is called
a proportionality
b flexibility
c setting
d sensitivity
Ans. b.

Q. The formula for calculating the discharge over a broad crested weir is,
a Q = Cd x B x H5/2
b Q = C d x B x H2
 c Q = Cd x B x H2/3
d Q = Cd x B x H3/2
Ans. d.

Q. Canal falls are provided

a to generate additional channel slope
b to cover mismatch between land slope and canal slope
c to improve silt carrying capacity of the canal
d to check the discharge in the canal
Ans. b.

Q. The most commonly used modern canal fall in Pakistan is

a Mushtaq’s spreading floor type
b Vertical drop type
c Ogee type
d Glacis type
Ans. d.

Q. The velocity at which the minimum energy is generated, is called

a Hyper critical velocity
b Critical velocity
c Sub critical velocity
d none of above
Ans. b

Q. The phenomanon which take place when a super critical flow changes into sub
critical flow is called:
a Hydraulic gradient
b Vena Contracta
c Hydraulic Jump
d Cavitation
Ans. c.

Q. Flow is critical and no formation of hydraulic jump takes place when Froude No.
F1 is:
a 1
b <1
c >1
d 0
Ans. a.
Q. hydraulic Jump phenomanon can be used for
a Energy disspation.
b Hydraulic power generation
c Sub surface flow analysis
d none of above
Ans. a.
Q. A Hydraulic jump involves
a super critical flow
b sub critical flow
c critical flow
d All of above
Ans. d.

Q. The percentage of energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump

a increases with the increase in the Froude No. (of the incoming flow)
b decreases with the increase in the Froude No.
c remains unaffected with the increase in the Froude No.
d All of above
Ans. a.

Q. A hydraulic jump ensures

a Change of sub critical flow to super critical flow
b Change of super critical flow to sub critical flow
c Change of sub critical flow to critical flow
d Change of super critical flow to critical flow
Ans. b.

Q. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height up to

a 0.5 m
b 1.5 m
c 3.5 m
d 5.0 m
Ans. b.
IX. DESIGN OF CROSS DRAINAGE WORKS / INLETS
Q. If a canal is carried over a natural drain without affecting FSL/HFL is it called
a Aqueduct
b Siphon
c Level crossing
d Drainage inlet
Ans. a.

Q. An aqueduct is a
a Canal fall
b Cross drainage work
c Measuring device
d A small dam
Ans. b.

Q. The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the

hydrograph of storms of
a Same duration only
b Same and shorter duration
c Same and longer duration
d Any duration
Ans. d.

Q. If the R.L.’s of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and
210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be
a Aqueduct
b Super passage
c Siphon
d Siphon aqueduct
Ans. a.

Q. The aqueduct or super passage types of work are generally used when
a High flood drainage discharge is small
b High discharge is available for irrigation
c High flood drainage discharge is large and continuous for a longtime
d None of the above
Ans. c.
X. DESIGN & O&M OF SMALL DAMS

Q. A current meter is used to measure the

a Velocity of flow of water
b Depth of flow of water
c Discharge
d None of above
Ans. a.

Q. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to

a Useful storage - valley storage
b Useful storage + Surcharge storage
c Useful storage + Surcharge storage + Valley storage
d Useful storage + Surcharge storage - Valley storage
Ans. d.

Q. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to
be equal to
a 0.5 of wave height
b 0.75 of wave height
c 1.25 of wave height
d 1.50 of wave height
Ans. d.

Q. The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between
a Minimum pool level and maximum pool level
b Minimum pool level and normal pool level
c Normal pool level and maximum pool level
d River bed and minimum pool level
Ans. b.

Q. The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is
a Useful storage
b Dead storage
c Valley storage
d Surcharge storage
Ans. b.

Q. The total capacity of the reservoir is 25 million cubic meters and dead storage is 5
million cubic meters. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million
cubic meters per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir starts reducing after
a 50 years
b 150 years
c 200 years
d 250 years
Ans. a.
Q. The major resisting force in the gravity Dam is
a Water pressure
b Wave pressure
c Self-weight of the Dam
d Uplift pressure
Ans. c.

Q. The elementary profile of the Dam is

a A rectangle
b A trapezoid
c An equilateral triangle
d A right angled triangle
Ans. d.

Q. In case of non-availability of space due to topography the most suitable spillway

is
a Straight drop spillway
b chute spillway
c Chute spillway
d Ogee spillway
Ans. b.

Q. Which of the following is not a Dam

a Arch Dam
b Buttress Dam
c Velocity Control Dam
d Coffer Dam
Ans. c.

Q. The uplift pressure on the Dam can be controlled by

i) Constructing cutoff wall under upstream face
ii) Constructing drainage channels between dam and its foundation
iii) By pressure grouting in foundation
a Only (i)
b Both (i) and (ii)
c Both (i) and (iii)
d (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans. d.

Q. The maximum run off of the catchment area is calculated to

a Decide the capacity of reservoir
b Design of spillway of Dam
c Design size of outlet off taking from dam
d Fix dead storage level of Dam
Ans. b
Q. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
a capacity / inflow ratio
b capacity / outflow ratio
c outflow / inflow ratio
d none of above
Ans. a.

Q. The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam
(base width B) is
a B/2
b B/3
c B/4
d B/6
Ans. d.

Q. Presence of tail water in gravity dam

a decreases principal and shear stresses
b increases principal and shear stresses
c increases principal stresses and decreases shear stresses
d none of above
Ans. a.

Q. As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams

a are costlier
b are less susceptible to failure
c require sound rock foundations
d require less skilled labour
Ans. d.

Q. In chute spillway, the flow is usually

a uniform
b subcritical
c critical
d super critical
Ans. d.

Q. In linear reservoir, storage varies linearly with

a time
b inflow rate
c outflow rate
d none of above
Ans. c.
XI. DRAINS

Q.. The alignment of drain should follow:

a. It should be near swamps and ponds

b. It should be along river
c. It should follow the line of depression
d. It should be parallel to Irrigation channel

Ans. c.

Q. Storm water drains should be capable of draining out all accumulation of water
due to normal clouds burst within (Max):

a. 3 days
b. 4 days
c. 6 days
d. 8 days

Ans. c.

Q. The minimum width of a seepage drain at its head should not be less than:

a. 2.0 ft
b. 1.5 ft
c. 3.0 ft
d. 4 ft

Ans. a.

Q. The slope of drain is fixed with reference to:

a. Average natural surface of the alignment

b. Average slope of the nearest river
c. Slope of irrigation channel in the area

Ans. a.

Q. The structure like bridge or other masonry construction should have water way
equal to:

a. b + d where ‘b’ = width and ‘d’ = depth

b. b + 2d
c. b
 d. b + 1.5d

Ans. a.

Q. The type of foundation of any bridge or masonry structure on a drain should

preferably be :

a. Open foundation
b. Pile foundation / well foundation
c. Combined foundation
d. Raft foundation

Ans. b.

Q. Which type of distance marks be used along drains:

a. C.I. marks
b. Concrete / Stone Distance Marks
c. Brick Masonry
d. Any other material

Ans. b.

Q. The side sloughing of drain should be prevented with :

a. Lining of side slopes

b. By staking and bushing
c. Maintaining steeper slope with out removing grass and jungle
d. Flatten the side slopes below sub soil water level to 1:4 or 1:5

Ans. d.

Q. What type of drains are generally constructed in Punjab:

a. Tile drains
b. Open drains
c. Perforated pipe drains
d. Open drains with side pitching with dry bricks / stone

Ans. b.

Q. The Hydraulic structure which is constructed at the crossing of a canal and a drain
to dispose of drainage without interfering with canal supplies, is known as a :

a. Cattle crossing
b. Canal module
 c. Canal regulator
d. Canal crossing

Ans. d.

Q.. The structure which is constructed at the crossing of a canal and a drain, to avoid
the mixing of their respective discharges, is:

a. An aqueduct
b. A super passage
c. A level crossing
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All (a), (b) and (c)

Ans. d.

Q. When an irrigation canal is taken over a drainage channel , the structure is called;

a. An aqueduct
b. A super passage
c. A level crossing
d. None of them

Ans. a.

Q. Where an irrigation canal is freely flowing under a drainage channel, the structure
is called a:

a. Canal junction
b. Canal crossing
c. Canal siphon
d. Super passage

Ans. d.

Q. The crossing arrangement, preferably made at the junction of a large canal and a
river stream carrying short lived-high flood discharge at almost equal bed levels,
is a :

a. Super passage
b. Aqueduct
c. Level crossing
d. Canal siphon

Ans. c.
Q. The drainage water is sometimes allowed to join the canal water to augment canal
supplies, through a hydraulic structure, called a:

a. Canal outlet
b. Canal inlet
c. Module
d. Level crossing

Ans. b.

Q. For initial construction in irrigated tracts, drainage inlets may be provided:

a. Two inlets per mile

b. One inlet per mile
c. Five inlets per mile

Ans. b.

Q. Drainage inlets are provided:

a. To prevent raising of sides

b. Prevent washing in of earth by inflow of drainage water
c. Protection of irrigation system
d. Both a & b above

Ans. d.

Q. The excavated earth from a drawn should by deposited on the :

a. Side of drain adjacent to the smaller catchment area

b. Side of drain adjacent to the larger catchment area

Ans. a.

Q. While constructing a drain, the inspection road provided should be:

a. 15 feet wide and not more than 1 ft above the NSL

b. 20 feet wide and 3 feet above the NSL
c. 10 feet wide and 1.5 feet above the NSL

Ans. a

Q. Drainage in Indus basin is mainly effected by

a Surface drains
b Tile drains
c Surface drains and tube wells
 d Tile drains and tube wells
Ans. c.

Q. The alignment of a drain should

a be close to the swamps and ponds
b be parallel to river
c follow the line of depression
d be parallel to the irrigation channel
Ans. c.

Q. Storm water drains should be capable to drain out all accumulated water due to
normal clouds burst within (Max)
a 3 days
b 4 days
c 6 days
d 8 days
Ans. c.

Q. The storm water drains are designed for a given catchment area, within the
capacity of
a 2 cusecs per sq. mile
b 1 cusecs per sq. mile
c 3 cusecs per sq. mile
d 4 cusecs per sq. mile
Ans. d.

Q. The minimum width of a seepage drain at its head should be

a 2.0 ft
b 1.5 ft
c 3.0 ft
d 4 ft
Ans. a.

Q. The slope of drain is fixed with reference to

a Average natural surface
b Average slope of the nearest river
c Slope of the irrigation channel in the area
d none of above
Ans. a.

Q. Which type of distance marks be used along drains

a C.I. Marks
b Concrete / Stone Distance Marks
c Brick Masonry
d Any of a, b or c
Ans. b.
XII. PREPARATION & REMODELLING OF IRRIGATION &
DRAINAGE SCHEME

Q. One cumec is equal to

a 1.54 cusec
b 3.54 cusec
c 35.4 cusec
d 250.0 cusec
Ans. c.

Q. Full supply factor is

a Discharge at full supply level
b Duty of canal at design stage
c Kharif Rabi ratio
d Intensity of irrigation
Ans. b.

Q. One cusec day is approximately

a 1.98 Acre ft.
b 0.98 Acre ft.
c 4.23 Acre ft.
d 20.00 Acre ft.
Ans. a.

Q. Water allowance is
a Allowance to irrigation staff for good performance
b Total cusecs required at an outlet to irrigate 1000 acres of CCA
c Water supplied for leaching operation
d Allowance of water for Rabi crop
Ans. b.

Q. The ratio of water used by crops to that supplied at canal headworks is

a Irrigation intensity
b Irrigation efficiency
c Full supply factor
d Crop consumptive use
Ans. b.

Q. The main canal should generally run

a across the natural slope
b along the main ridge
c along the main depression
d close to the river
Ans. b.

Q. Bed slope of water course in plain areas is generally

 a 1 in 20000
b 1 in 10000
c 1 in 5000
d 1 in 1000
Ans. c.

Q. One cusec equals

a 1 ft/sec
b 1000 l/s
c 1 ft3/sec
d 1 ft2/sec
Ans. c.

Q. One cumec equals

a 1000 m3/sec
b 35.4 m3/sec
c 1m3/sec
d 3.28 m3/sec
Ans. c.

Q. Mile gauges in main canals and branches are provided at

a 5280 ft
b 1000 ft
c 5000 ft
d None of above
Ans. c.

Q. The Duty is largest

a At the head of the water course
b On the field
c At the head of the main canal
d Same at all places
Ans. b.

Q. The delta of Rice in "inches" is nearly

a 25
b 49
c 94
d 18
Ans. b.

Q. The relation between Duty 'D' in hectares/ cumec, depth of water 'Δ' in meters and
base period 'B' in days is given by
a Δ = 1.98 B /D
b Δ = 8.64 B /D
c Δ = 5.68 B /D
 d Δ = 8.64 D /B
Ans. b.

Q. For supplying water to Rabi crop, Kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is
designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
a Rabi or Kharif
b Rabi and Kharif or sugarcane
c Rabi and sugarcane or Kharif and sugarcane
d Rabi or Kharif or sugarcane
Ans. c.

Q. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of

the crop during its full growth is called
a Effective rainfall
b Annual rainfall
c Consumptive Irrigation requirement
d Net Irrigation requirement
Ans. c.

Q. With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of the most crops
a Increase Continuously
b Decrease Continuously
c Increase upto a certain limit and then become constant
d Increase up to a certain limit and then decreases
Ans. d.

Q. A water shed canal

a Irrigates only on one side
b Is most suitable in hilly area
c Avoids the cross drainage works
d Is generally aligned parallel to the contours of the area
Ans. c.

Q. A canal which is aligned at right angle to the contour is called

a Contour canal
b Branch canal
c Watershed canal
d Side slope canal
Ans. d.
Q. Which of the following methods of applying waters may be used on the rolling
land
a border flooding
b check flooding
c furrow flooding
d free flooding
Ans. d.
Q. The minimum slope in the water course is
a Between 0.2ft to 0.25ft per 1000 ft
b Between 0.4ft to 0.5ft per 1000 ft
c Between 0.1ft to 0.15ft per 1000 ft
d 0.3 per 1000 ft
Ans. c.
XIII. HYDROLOGY
Q. A unit hydrograph has one unit of
a Rainfall duration
b Rainfall excess
c Time base of direct runoff
d Discharge
Ans. b.

Q. Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of

i) unit duration
ii) Unit rainfall excess
iii) Infinitely small duration
iv) Infinitely small rainfall excess
a (i) And (ii)
b (ii) And (iv)
c (ii) And (iii)
d (iii) And (iv)
Ans. c.

Q. Hydrograph is the graphical representation of the

a Runoff and time
b Humidity and time
c Underground water flow and time
d Rainfall and time
Ans. a.

Q. Unit of runoff in MKS system is

a m3 /Sec
b m /Sec
c m3
d m2
Ans. a.

Q. The runoff increases with

a Increase in intensity of rain
b Increase in infiltration capacity
c Increase in permeability of soil
d All of above
Ans. a.
Q. An aggrading river is a
a Silting river
b Scouring river
c Both silting and scouring river
d Neither silting nor scouring river
Ans. a.
Q. The meander pattern of a river is developed by
a Average discharge
b Dominant discharge
c Maximum discharge
d Critical discharge
Ans. b.

Q. The main cause of meandering is

a Presence of excessive fish in the river
b Degradation
c The extra turbulence generated by the excess of the river sediment during
flood
d None of the above
Ans. c.

Q. Select the correct statement

a A meander increases the river length but a cutoff reduces the river
length
b A cutoff increases the river length but a meander reduces the river
length
c Both meander and cutoff increases the river length
d Both meander and cutoff reduces the river length
Ans. a.

Q. A bend in a river imposed by external restraint is called

a Meander belt
b A warp
c Meander width
d Meander length
Ans. b.

Q. Meander ratio of a river is

a meander length to meander width
b total number of meander loops divided by river length
c meander width to meander length
d none of the above
Ans. c.

Q. Amplitude of swing of a fully developed meander from midstream to midstream

is called
a meander width
b meander belt
c tortuousity
d none of above
Ans. a.
Q. "W" being meander width, for a meandering alluvial river in flood plains, the
meander length is about
a 6W
b 18 W
c 17 W
d W
Ans. a

Q. The factor which is not primarily responsible for meander in an alluvial river, is:
a Variation of discharge
b Excess silt load
c Deficient silt load
d none of a, b or c
Ans. c.

Q. Length and width of a meander are proportional to

a discharge
b (discharge)1/2
c (discharge)2/3
d (discharge)2
Ans. b.

Q. Soil reaches field capacity when:-

a) Plastic limit is reached.

b) Irrigation water is applied.
c) Weather is too hot.
d) Retains maximum water against gravity.

Ans. d.

Q. When flood flow on a barrage exceeds the gauge level then the discharge is
calculated:-

a) By current meter.
b) A computer.
c) By mannings formula
d) By integration

Ans. c.

Q.. Wind velocity increases the rate of evapotranspiration by:-

a) Chill effect.
 b) Removing humid air.
c) Causing waves in the water surface.
d) Leaf movement.

Ans. b.

Q.. For the design of a drainage system, the cycle of return period adopted is:-

a) 5 years.
b) 25 years.
c) 1 years.
d) 50 years.

Ans. a.

Q. The runoff in an urban basin due to rainfall increases at the outfall on account of:-

a) Vegetation.
b) Low temperature.
c) Paved surfaces in the basin.
d) Organized culverts.

Ans c.

Q. The time lag in a river basin between two control points describes:-

a) The time taken by a discharge peak to reach from one control point to
another
control point.
b) Time required for total flood discharge to pass a control point.
c) Time taken by flood to pass through under sluices.
d) None

Ans. a.

Q. In a wide river the wetter perimeter can be assumed equal to:-

______
a) b + 2√1+22 d.
b) b + d.
c) Bed width.
d) Bxd

Ans. c.
Q. The heading up of water in a river upstream at a control point is called:-

a) Scouring.
b) Afflux.
c) Potential difference
d) Momentum

Ans. b.

Q. A unit hydrograph is defined as the hydrograph of surface runoff resulting from

effective rainfall falling:-

a) On one square kilometer.

b) In a unit of time.
c) Per foot width of weir
d) Uniformly over the total catchments area.

Ans. b.

Q. For the selection of a storage site on a river basin following survey established the
storage capacity:-

a) Topographical survey
b) Geological survey
c) Hydrological assessment of the river catchments area.
d) Land use

Ans. a.
XIV. ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES RELATED TO IRRIGATION,
DRAINAGE & FLOOD CONTROL PROJECTS
Q. Infilteration rate is always
a More than the infiltration capacity
b Less than the infiltration capacity
c Equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
d Equal to or more than the infiltration capacity
Ans. c.

Q. Infiltration Capacity
a is a constant factor
b changes with time
c changes with location
d changes with both time and location
Ans. d.

Q. Infilteration is the
a Movement of water through the soil
b Absorption of water by soil surface
c Both 'a' and 'b'
d None of above
Ans. b.

Q. A Rain Gauge should preferabily be fixed

a Near the building
b Under the tree
c In an open space
d In the closed space
Ans. c.

Q. If the electrical conductivity of the water is in between 250 and 750 micro
mhos/cm at 250C then it is classified as
a Na+ / √ (Ca++ + Mg++)
b Na+ / 2 √ (Ca++ + Mg++)
c Na+ / √ ((Ca++ + Mg++)/2)
d 2 Na+ / √ (Ca++ + Mg++)
Ans. c.

Q. The value of Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR) for high sodium water lies between
a 00 to 10
b 10 to 18
c 18 to 26
d 26 to 34
Ans. c.
Q. An artesian aquifer is the one where
a Water surface is under the ground and is at atmospheric pressure
b Water surface is under pressure between two impervious strata
c Water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation
d None of above
Ans. b.

Q. A unit hydrograph has one unit of

a Rain fall duration
b Rain fall excess
c Time base of direct runoff
d Discharge
Ans. b.

Q. Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on the
high water marks left over in past
a Slope-area method
b Area-velocity method
c Ultra-sonic method

Ans. a.

Q. The stream which does not have any base flow contributing is called
a Perennial stream
b Nandi stream
c Ephemeral stream
d None of above
Ans. c.

Q. To determine the discharge at a section in the stream from its rating curve, the
required data are:
i)Slope of the water surface at the section
ii) Stage at the section
iii) Current meter reading at the section
The correct answer is;
a (i) And (ii)
b (ii) And (iii)
c Only (ii)
d Only (iii)
Ans. c.

Q. Percentage of raingauge station which should be equipped with self recording

gauge for knowing the intensity of rainfall should be about
a 5%
b 10%
c 15%
 d 20%
Ans. b.

Q. Rain fall intensity is defined as

a Mean annual rain fall
b Monthly rain fall
c Total rain fall during an interval "t"
d Rain fall for unit time
Ans. d

Q. The object of well measurement is

a to note gradual rise and drop of ground water level
b to fix the bed level of drains.
c to design surface drainage system
d to install the vertical drainage system
Ans. a.

Q. The well measurement is carried out

a thrice in a year
b twice in a year
c 4 times in a year
d once in a year
Ans. b.

Q. Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge?

a tipping bucket type raingauge
b Simpson's raingauge
c Steven's weighing type raingauge
d floating type raingauge
Ans. b.

Q. A raingauge should preferably be fixed

a near the building
b under the tree
c in an open space
d in a closed space
Ans. c.

Q. Which of the following types of raingauges are used for measuring rain in remote
hilly inaccessible areas?
a tipping bucket type raingauge
b weighing type raingauge
c floating type raingauge
d Simpson's raingauge
Ans. a.
Q. A 70% index of wetness means
a rain excess of 30%
b rain deficiency of 30%
c rain deficiency of 70%
d none of above
Ans. b.

Q. The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is

a 1 hour
b one-fourth of basin leg
c one-half of basin leg
d equal to basin leg
Ans. b.

Q. Light soils are those which contains

a 1 to 3 % of clay
b 2 to 7 % of clay
c 10-12% of clay
Ans. b

Q. Medium soils are those which contain

a 7 -15 % clay
b 20-30 % clay
c 50% clay
Ans. a

Q. Heavy soils are those which contain

a 20-25 % clay
b 5% clay
c more than 15% of clay
Ans. c

Q. A soil is considered neutral if

a pH value is 7
b pH value is 10
c pH value is 4.3
Ans. a

Q. A soil is acidic if pH value is

a less than 7
b more than 7
 c 7
Ans. a

Q. In Punjab, usually the pH value of soil is

a above 7
b below 7
c 7
Ans. a

Q. Under the same conditions, which shape will give highest rate of evaporation.
a Flat water Surface
b Convex water Surface
c Independent of shape
d All of above
Ans. b.

Q. The total of all those physical, chemical, biological and social economic factors
that impinge on an individual, a community or a population is called.

a. Environment
b. Ecosystem
c. Ecology

Ans. a.

Q. The Pakistan environmental protection act was enacted in :

a. 1995
b. 1996
c. 1997

Ans. c.

Q. The acceptable limit of BOD is :

a. 0.5 mg/l
b. 9 mg/l
c. 16 mg/l

Ans. b.

Q. The biomass of agriculture land has been adversely affected by excessive use of:

a. Pesticides,
 b. Fertilizers
c. Over-irrigation

Ans. a.

Q. Indoor air pollution in the villages is caused by burning of :

a. Wood
b. Animal Excreta
c. Coal

Ans. b.

Q. Land erosion, water logging & salinity and flooding are the main causes of :

a. Low productivity,
b. Low fertility
c. Low alkalinity

Ans. a.

Q. The land, acquisition Act, 1894 often results in :

a. Poverty
b. Forced resettlement
c. Loss of property

Ans. b.

Q. A country is water scarce if per capita availability of water is not more than

a. 500
b. 1000
c. 2000 cubic meter

Ans. b.

Q. The existing water resources are under threat due to :

a. Untreated effluents disposal,

b. Siltation
c. Deforestation
d. All of above

Ans. d.
Q. Legal and institutional systems that promote unsustainable exploitation is one of
the causes of :

a. Loss of land
b. Loss of biodiversity
c. Loss of population

Ans. b.

Q. Recharge tends to occur through the river bed during :

a. High flow
b. Low flow
c. Winter

Ans. a.

Q. Changes to the river morphology may result because of changes to the sediment
carrying capacity of the waters due to :

a. Flood control projects

b. Irrigation schemes
c. Drainage projects

Ans. a.

Q. Saline intrusion along the coast is a problem associated with :

a. A falling ground water level

b. Low flow
c. High watertable

Ans. a.

Q. Good irrigation management, canal lining and provision of drainage will help to
reduce the :

a. Diseases
b. Watertable
c. Water pollution

Ans. b.

Q. The suffocation of fish and other aquatic life is due to :

a. High nutrient level,

 b. High salinity’
c. High silt rate

Ans. a.

Q. Anaerobic conditions also occur when water is :

a. Drained
b. Polluted
c. Purified

Ans. b.

Q. The accumulation of salts in soils can lead to irreversible damage to soil :

a. Structure
b. Texture
c. Formation

Ans. a.

Q. Areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or

temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including
areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres
are called :

a. Wetlands
b. Estuaries
c. Bird sanctuaries

Ans. a.

Q. Malaria, typhoid and hepatitis are :

a. Water borne
b. Air borne
c. Dust born diseases

Ans. a.

Q. For irrigation maintenance, canal desilting is :

a. Cheaper
b. Costly
c. Economical
Ans. b.

Q The first step in the EMP is :

a. Establishment of baselines
b. Impact areas
c. Institutions

Ans. a.

Q Groundwater Regulation is :

a. Amelioration component
b. Monitoring component
c. Institutional component of EMP

Ans. a.

Q. The area of wetlands in Pakistan is:

a. 7.8
b. 15
c. 90 million hectares

Ans. a.

Q. Deterioration of over-pumped shallow fresh groundwater due to up-coning of

underlying saline groundwater is because of :

a. Excessive groundwater development

b. Less O&M
c. Institutional deficiencies

Ans. a.

Q. Computer hardware and software is necessary for establishment of :

a. EDMIS,
b. WMP
c. ESC

Ans. a.

Q. The real problem, as so often in environmental management, is the application

and enforcement of :
 a. Legislation
b. Standards
c. Principles

Ans. a.

Q. Flora and Fauna are:

a. Two sisters
b. Components of biological issues
c. Name of plants

Ans. b.

Q. The number of tubewells in Punjab in 2000 is

a. 500,000
b. 19,000
c. 140,000

Ans. a.

Q. The effluents from industries are being discharged into the irrigation system :

a. After treatment
b. Without treatment

Ans. b.

Q. In environmental issues, the community should be involved in the project at :

a. Planning
b. Execution,
c. Operation or at all stages

Ans. c.
XV. HYDRAULIC & SEDIMENT DISCHARGE
MESUREMENT
Q. "d" being the depth of a canal, the mean velocity is measured at
a 0.2 d
b 0.8 d
c 0.6 d
d 0.7 d
Ans. c.

Q. The state of flow of a stream when discharge across any defined section of the
stream remains constant in respect of time is called
a Laminar Flow
b Regime Flow
c Steady Flow
d Critical Flow
Ans. c.

Q. which of the following can be used as a meter fall

a vertical drop fall
b flumed glacis fall
c unflumed glacis fall
d all of above
Ans. b.

Q. Total silt in cuft, which passes a channel section per day is given by the formula

a silt intensity x discharge x 2

b discharge x (silt intensity) 1/2
c silt intensity in cft per cusec day x discharge in cusecs
Ans. c

Q. For purposes of silt sampling, coarse silt comprises particle size

a above 1 mm dia
b above .5 mm dia
c above .2mm dia
Ans. c

Q. For purposes of silt sampling, medium silt comprises particle size.

a between 0.2 mm to .07 mm
b between 0.5 to 0.1 mm
c between 0.10 to 0.01 8 mm
Ans. a
Q. For purposes of silt sampling, fine silt comprises particle size.

a below .07 mm
b below 1mm
c below .01 mm
Ans. a

Q. Silt intensity in cft % cuft is

a grams per litre x 3.28

b grams per litre x 2.93
c grams per litre x 5/8
Ans. c

Q. Silt intensity in cft per cusce - day is

a grams per litre x 54

b grams per litre x 23
c grams per litre x 38
Ans. a

Q. Silt sampling data of important sites such as canal regulators is supplied on daily /
weekly / monthly basis to

a executive engineer
b superintending engineer
c officer incharge of regulation
Ans. c

Q. Record of flood events obtained at gauging stations serve as a basis for the design
of:
a) Flood Control
b) Flood Warning Center
c) Bridges
d) Culverts
e) All of above

Ans. e.

Q. Recording gauges provide:

a. Intermittent record of gauges
b. Continuous Record of gauges

Ans. b.
Q. On a stream with moveable bed a gauge is installed:
a. In, as uniform reach as possible
b. In a search having backwater effect
c. Near the obstruction in the channel

Ans. a.

Q. Vertical axis current meter is used to determine:

a. Depth of water
b. Velocity of water
c. Turbidity of water

Ans. b.

Q. In a flowing canal the velocity of water is maximum:

a. At the water surface
b. Below the water surface
c. At mid depth of flow

Ans. b.

Q. The most commonly used method for determining mean velocity at the
observation verticals in a measuring section is :
a. Six tenths depth method
b. Two point method
c. Sub-surface method

Ans. b.

Q. Method of computing discharge which is more accurate :

a. Mid section method
b. Mean section method
Ans. a.

Q. The ideal discharge measurement, is one in which no partial section has discharge
more than:

15% of total discharge

a. 5% of total discharge
b. 10% of total discharge

Ans. b.

Q. Suspended sediment samplers are :

a. Point integrating
 b. Depth integrating
c. Both a & b above

Ans. c.

Q. D-49 sediment sampler is used for:

a. Bed load sediment sampling
b. Suspended sediment sampling
c. Bed material sampling

Ans. b.

Q. Unit of suspended sediment concentration is:

a. Cusecs
b. Parts per million (PPM)
c. Millimeter

Ans. b.
XVI. GATES AND GEARINGS

1. How many are the general classifications of types of gates?

a) Three
b) Two hundred
c) Unlimited.
Ans. (a)

2. In case of intake bulkhead gates the hoist machines/gantry cranes are operated
under ?

a) Full hydraulic frictional load on one side of gate.

b) Balanced pressure only
c) Load of gate plus frictional load due to full hydraulic load on one side of
gate.
Ans. (b)

3. In case of intake bulkhead gates the skin plate is usually located on ?

a) Upstream side of gate.

b) Downstream side of gate.
c) Both sides of gate.
Ans. (b)

4. In case of draft tube bulk head gates the nominal size of bulkhead gate is ?

a) Width multiplied by height of draft tube portal.

b) Size of draft tube.
c) Half the size of draft tube.
Ans. (a)

5. In case of timber stop logs/karries the timber with following thickness in general
should not be exceeded ?

a) 14”
b) 6”
c) 30”
Ans. (a)
6. In case of steel stop logs what type of seal should be used against an embedded
metal guide ?

a) Wood
b) Rubber
c) Bronze
 Ans. (a)

7. In outlet works of dams the high pressure emergency gates may normally be
operated under heads upto ?

a) 500 ft.
b) 250 ft.
c) 100 ft.
Ans. (b)

8. Air inlet connections must be provided at down stream side of following type
gates ?

a) High pressure emergency and regulating gates in out let works of a dam.
b) Canal head regulator gates at a barrage.
c) Barrage gates.
Ans. (a)

9. In case of hydraulic cylinder hoists (for lifting of pressure gates) the following is
used as medium of operation ?

a) Water
b) Oil
c) Diesel
Ans. (b)

10. To eliminate draw down and trash accumulation for spillway gates the skin plate
is located at ?

a) Down stream.
b) Up stream.
c) Both sides.
Ans. (b)

11. In spill way gates the bottom edge of skin plate has a rubber sealing strip
projecting the following size below the skin plate ?

a) 1/8”
b) 1/4”
c) 1/2”
Ans. (b)

12. Coaster gates are lowered (closed) by ?

a) Their own weight.

b) Counter weight – attached to other side of gate.
 c) Purely the hoist machines.
Ans. (a)

13. The roller of coaster type gate are usually made of the A151 type 410 stainless
iron heat treated to a minimum of ?

a) 250 Bhn.
b) 300 Bhn.
c) 350 Bhn.
Ans. (a)

14. Generally the stresses are determined on the assumption that following size
corrosion allowance is removed from the gross section of all wetted surface?

a) 1/64”
b) 1/32”
c) 1/8”
Ans. (b)

15. On stony roller type gates the rocking device is provided at ?

a) Gate end girder.

b) Bottom of gate.
c) Top of gate.
Ans. (a)

16. On small low-head fixed wheel gates the wheel used are ?

a) Double flanged.
b) Single flanged.
c) Without flanges.
Ans. (a)

17. For the wrought steel wheel fitted on fixed wheel type gates a minimum tread
hardness required is ?

a) 200 Bhn.
b) 255 Bhn
c) 300 Bhn.
Ans. (b)
XVII. DESIGN & O&M OF BARRAGE / HEADWORKS

Q. The most common method for exclusion of silt at canal headworks, in case of
Pakistan is,
a silt vanes
b marginal bunds and piles
c divide wall and silt excluders
d silt ejectors
Ans. c

Q. Appearance of springs or sand boil downstream of a barrage is

a a common occurrence of no significance
b caused due to hydraulic jump during high floods
c caused by siltation of canals during high floods
d a serious issue indicating piping action
Ans. d.

Q. Critical conditions for the design of downstream floor of the barrage against sub
surface flow is
a During low/no flow water condition
b During high flood conditions
c During normal summer operation
d During annual closure period
Ans. a.

Q. Critical condition for design of downstream floor of the barrage against uplift
pressure is
a During high flood conditions
b During normal summer operation
c During low flow winter condition when canals are running and barrage
gates are closed
d During annual closure period
Ans. c.

Q. To form still water pocket in front of the canal head in weir a structure is built
which is called.
a Divide wall
b Undersluice
c Fish ladder
d Head regulator
Ans. a.

Q. Sounding / probing plans during the first three days of closure should be prepared
on the
a A4 size paper
 b Foolscap size graph sheet or larger
c Scholars sheet
d Letter size tracing paper
Ans. b.

Q. The primary function of inverted filters is to

a Check excessive scour
b Stabilize hydraulic jump
c Check escapage of fine soil particles
d Replace sheet pile lines
Ans. c.

Q. Fish ladder is used for

a Fishing
b U/S and D/S migration of fish
c Reducing velocity of water
d Fish Hatching
Ans. b.

Q. The main function of the divide wall is to

a Control the silt entry in the canal
b Prevent river floods from entering the canal
c Separate the undersluice from weir proper
d Provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
Ans. c.

Q. Considering the usual profile of a hydraulic jump on a hydraulic structure, the

point where the maximum uplift pressure is likely to be experienced would be
a at the beginning of hydraulic jump
b at the end of the hydraulic jump
c on the w/s floor, beyond the hydraulic jump
Ans. a.

Q. A divide wall is provided

a At right angle to the axis of weir
b Parallel to the axis of the weir up stream to it
c Parallel to the axis of the weir down stream to it
d At an inclination to the axis of the weir
Ans. a.

Q. Inverted sand filter is provided at

a U/S side of Dam
b U/S side of Weir
c D/S side of Weir
d U/S of barrage
Ans. c.
Q. The sloping floor D/S of the raised crest of a weir is called
a Cistern
b Apron
c Glacis
d None of a, b & c
Ans. c.

Q. The embankment constructed to stream-line the flow of a stream passing through

Weir / Barrage is termed as
a Marginal Bund
b Defence line
c Guide bunds
d Groynes
Ans. c.

Q. As a result of deepining of D/S sheet pile, exit gradient value

a increases
b decreases
c remains unaffected
d infinite
Ans. b.

Q. As a result of deepining of D/S sheet pile, the uplift pressure on barrage floor
a increases
b decreases
c remain unaffected
d none of above
Ans. a.

Q. The piping with respect to a hydraulic structure means

a The piping arrangement for the oil to lubricate the hoisting machines
b Installation of pipes for water supply
c Migration of soil particles under the weir from U/S to D/S
d The pipes burried underneath the hydraulic structure
Ans. c.

Q. According to khosla's theory of independent variable for seepage below a

hydraulic structure, the exit gradient, in the absence of downstream sheet pile is:
a 0
b 1
c Infinite
d None of above
Ans. c.
Q. The value of Khosla's safe exit gradient for usually existing alluvial sandy soils is:
a 0
b 1
c Infinite
d 1/5 to 1/7
Ans. d.

Q. The back water effect of water is called

a Retrogression
b Afflux
c Accretion
d None of them
Ans. b.

Q. A breast wall is usually provided

a In the weir section
b In the under sluice section
c In the main canal section
d In the head regulator section
Ans. d.

Q. As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under
sluice portion of weir is kept at
a lower level
b higher level
c same level
d any of above depending upon design
Ans. a.

Q. while designing a barrage with regard to over flow cosideration the following
is/are to be estimated
a Design flood
b Length of the Barrage
c Retrogression
d All of above
Ans. d.

Q. Retrogration is a phenomanon which

a is temporary
b occurs after the construction of a weir in a river
c may occur for the first few years after weir construction
d all of above
Ans. d.
Q. Affux is

a difference of u/s & d/s water levels of a barrage during normal operation
b increase in the maximum flood level as a result of construction of a
barrage
c head of water represented by the velocity of approach at a barage
Ans. b

Q. In the Punjab rivers where the sand is quite fine, what would be expected afflux to
obtain a discharge of 250 to 300 cfs per foot run of the barrage width

a 8 to 9 ft
b 1 to 2 ft
c 3 to 4 ft
Ans. c

Q. In the case of a river barrage / bridge, the ratio between the actual width and the
lacey width is known as

a loose ness factor

b working ratio
c laceys ratio
Ans. a

Q. The adoption of higher valus of loose ness factor in the design of a barrage is

a considered desirable for safe passage of higher discharge

b is not considered desirable due to tendency of formation of sand belas
upstream
Ans. b

Q. In the operation of a barrage, to prevent promotion of vortices, a differential

discharge between two adjacent bays considered safe, subject to visual
observation) is

a 5%
b 25%
c 1%
d 10%
Ans. d

Q. In the case of a barrage, the pressure pipe is a device to

a permit carry pressure grouting under the barrage in various areas of concern
b permit determinaton of uplift pressure at various critical points under the
 barrage during its operational life.
c permit under-pressure lubrication of various critical mechanical parts of a
barrage

Ans. b

Q. Immediately after the construction of a barrage, the water passing d/s of the
barrage:

a will be carrying much less silt and sediment than before construction
b there will be no change in the sediment content
c will be carrying higher loads of silt and sediment than before construction
Ans. a

Q. Immediately after the construction of a barrage:

a there will be accretion is the river channel d/s of the barrage

b thare will be retrogrossion in the river channel d/s of the barrage
c there will be no change in the river channel d/s of the barrage
Ans. b

Q. Barrage is a major Hydraulic structure having main functions of:-

a. Power generation
b. Diverting the river supply into canals for irrigation purpose
c. Silt transportation.
Ans. b.

Q. Under sluice of a barrage is provided to

a. Feed the off-taking channel in low supply and also to control the silt
entry into the canal
b. Have a better regulation during high floods.
c. Avoid turbulence in front of canals Head regulator.

Ans. a.

Q. For a constant value of head loss i.e.(difference of Energy level, upstream and
downstream of fall) Level of Downstream floor:-

a. Decreases by increasing discharge intensity.

b. Increases by increasing discharge intensity.
c. Is independent of variation in discharge intensity.

Ans.
Q. For a constant discharge in a canal, the stage height will be more for:-

a. Retrogressed state
b. Normal state
c. Accreted state

Ans. c.

Q. Discharging capacity of a canal fall, having constant width depends upon:-

a. Maximum water level on the upstream side of the Fall only

b. Water level on the downstream side of the Fall.
c. Difference of water level above crest on upstream and downstream side.
Ans. c.

Q. Calculate discharging capacity of canal Fall having clear width of 50 feet:-

a. During slack demand, when gates are opened by 2 feet only and modularity is
95%.
b. During peak demand when gates are fully opened by 10 feet having
modularity of 85%.

Ans. b.

Q. Floor thickness of a canal fall depends upon:

a. Crest level of Fall

b. When gates are fully opened and difference of upstream and downstream
water level is minimum.
c. When gates are completely closed and downstream is Nil.

Ans. c.

Q. Uplift pressure will be maximum on:-

a. Canal Head Regulator

b. Under sluice portion
c. Weir portion

Ans.

Q. Exit Gradient of canal Fall Structure: -

a. Increases by increasing depth of downstream sheet pile.

b. Decreases by increasing depth of downstream sheet pile.
 c. Does not affect by charging the depth of downstream sheet pile.

Ans. b.

Q. Uplift pressure under the canal Fall Structure is maximum:-

a. When gates are fully opened.

b. When the gates are totally closed and there is no water level on the upstream
c. When gates are partially opened.

Ans.

Q. Resistance against failure of hydraulic structure by piping action increases when:-

a. More vertical element of foundation profile is provided than horizontal

flooring
b. Submerged weight of soil is lesser than the uplift at exit.
c. When there is maximum water level on upstream side and downstream is dry.

Ans. a.

Q. Silt entry into canal is controlled by:-

a. Providing head regulator on the inner side of river curvature.

b. By opening the gates of under sluice and closing the weir portion./
c. Providing silt excluder/silt injector in the bed of river and canal respectively.

Ans. c.

Q. Silt movement in the canal will take place when:-

a. Incipient (Threshold) motion condition takes place.

b. Sheer boundary stress is lesser than critical stress.
c. Sheer boundary stress is more than critical stress

Ans.

Q. Uplift pressure under the canal Fall upto any point depends upon:-

a. Ratio of creep length upto that point to the total creep length.
b. Discharge intensity over the structure
c. Upstream high flood level and downstream floor level.

Ans. a.
Q. Crest level of canal Fall is fixed with reference to:-

a. Maximum water level on the upstream sluice.

b. Maximum water level on the downstream sluice
c. None of the above.

Ans. a.
XVIII. INDUS BASIN TREATY, WATER ACCORD

Q. The oldest canal in Punjab Irrigation System is?

a) Lower Chenab Canal

b) Lower Bari Doab Canal
c) Sidhnai Canal
d) Upper Bari Doab Canal

Ans. (d)

Q. Sutlej Valley Canal Project consisted of?

a) 5 Canal System
b) 11 Canal System
c) 15 Canal System
d) None of above
Ans. (b)

Q. Taunsa Canal System from Taunsa Head works was completed in?

a) 1958
b) 1946
c) 1962
d) 1976

Ans (a)

Q. The Number of Head works/Barrages in Punjab Irrigation System are?

a) 16
b) 21
c) 14
d) None of above

Ans. (c)

Q. The ratio of Perennial Irrigation to non Perennial Irrigation in terms of

CCA?

a) 1:2
b) 1½ : 2
c) ½:1
d) 1 : 0.6
Ans. (d)
Q. The off taking capacity of Link Canals is?

a) 60000 Cfs
b) 80000 Cfs
c) 110000 Cfs
d) 130000 Cfs

Ans. (c)

Q. The gross storage capacity of Small Dams in Punjab is about?

a) 0.10 MAF
b) 0.50 MAF
c) 1.0 MAF
d) 2.0 MAF

Ans. (a)

Q. Under Indus Water Treaty India had the right for all the water with un-restrict use
of?

a) Chenab and Indus

b) Jhelum and Kabul
c) Sutlej, Ravi and Beas
d) All of above

Ans. (c)

Q. The International drains specified in Indus Waters Treaty 1960 are?

a) Manka drain and Raiwind drain
b) Fazilka drain, Saleem Shah drain
c) Left bank outfall drain
d) Non of above

Answer (b)

Q. In Tarbela Dam the replacement storage in accordance with the Indus

Water Treaty 1960 is?

a) 2.4 MAF
b) 9.4 MAF
c) 4.5 MAF
d) 7.3 MAF
Ans. (a)
Q. No.11 The designed live storage capacity of Mangla Dam is?

a) 7.0 MAF
b) 5.3 MAF
c) 4.0 MAF
d) Non of above

Ans. (b)

Q. The existing minimum operating pool level of Tarbela Dam is?

a) 1300
b) 1369
c) 1320
d) Non of above

Ans. (b)

Q. The Barrage with largest pond storage capacity in Pakistan is?

a) Kotri Barrage
b) Sukkur Barrage
c) Chashma Barrage
d) Taunsa Barrage

Ans. (c)

Q. The designed live storage capacity of the reservoirs in Indus Basin

System?

a) 15.40 Maf
b) 22.0 MAF
c) 12.20 MAF
d) 7.0 MAF

Ans. (a)

Q. The Punjab share for the balance river supply including surpluses and
future storage as per Water Accord 1991 is?

a) 45%
b) 37%
c) 14%
d) Non of above
Ans. (b)
Q. Historic uses for Canal system in Indus Basin system as per Water Accord
1991 are with reference to the period covering?

a) 1991 – 1996
b) 1977 – 1982
c) 1985 – 1990
d) Non of above

Ans. ( b)

Q. At present the Indus Basin water sharing between Punjab and Sindh is as
per?

a) Para 2 uses of Water Accord 1991

b) Adhoc sharing arrangement
c) Para 14b of Water Accord 1991
d) Non of above

Ans. (c)

Q. Punjab Historic Uses for Kharif period are?

a) 34.65 MAF
b) 37.07 MAAAF
c) 42.0 MAF
d) Non of above

Ans. (a)

Q. Punjab Historic Uses for Rabi period are?

a) 18.87 MAF
b) 14.30 MAF
c) 19.75 MAF
d) Non of above

Ans. (c)

Q. The post Tarbela annual average canal head uses in Indus Basin System
are?

a) 114.0 MAF
b) 107.0 MAF
c) 103.0 MAF
d) 82.0 MAF
Ans. (c)
Q. The average flows in Indus Basin System for Western rivers are about?

a) 140.0 MAF
b) 170.0 MAF
c) 120.0 MAF
d) 103.0 MAF

Ans. (a)

Q. The Indus River System Authority to implement the Water Accord was
established in?

a) March 1991
b) April 1977
c) December 1992
d) Non of above

Ans. (c)

Q. The first Chairman of IRSA was from the Province of?

a) NWFP
b) Balochistan
c) Punjab
d) Sindh

Ans. (b)

Q. The Indus River Rim Station is at?

a) Kalabagh
b) Attock
c) Tarbela
d) Non of above

Ans. (c)

Q. The average releases D/S Kotri for post Tarbela period are about?

a) 40 Maf
b) 34 MAF
c) 55 MAF
d) 22 MAF
Ans. (b)

Q. The optimum requirement for canals during Rabi season are based on?

a) Full supply capacity of perennial and non perennial channels

b) Full supply capacity of non perennial channels
c) Full supply capacity of perennial channels
d) Full supply capacity of perennial channels and the waterings for non
perennial channels

Ans. ( )

Q. Water Management functions include?

a) Equitable distribution of water only

b) Distribution of water keeping in view seasonal crop requirements and
planning canal operations by adjusting canal flows through regulation.
c) Distribution of water as per available supply based on canal capacities?
d) Non of above

Ans. (b)

Q Present crop water requirements for maximum yield are met by?

a) Canal supplies only

b) Canal supplies and Ground Water
c) Canal supplies, Ground Water and rainfall
d) Non of above

Ans. (c)

Q As per Water Accord 1991 Para 2 uses in the Indus Basin System are?

a) 122 MAF
b) 114 MAF
c) 103 MAF
d) 140 MAF

Ans. (b)
Q Water Accord 1991 considers releases D/S Kotri check seawater intrusion
upto?

a) 10 MAF
b) 2 MAF
c) 5 MAF
d) Non of above
Ans (d)

Q No.31 IRSA shares the waters of Indus Basin System for Kharif and Rabi
seasons?

a) Above Rim Stations

b) Below Rim Stations
c) Above and below Rim Stations
d) Non of above

Ans. (b)

Q No.32 Greater Thal water provision by IRSA is out of.

a) Flood supplies only

b) Para 2 allocations of Water Accord 1991
c) Flood Supplies and Para 2 allocations of Water Accord 1991
d) Non of above

Ans. (c)

Q No.33 The reliable source of water supplies for Panjnad Canal is?

a) Indus River
b) Jhelum River
c) Chenab River
d) Sutlej River

Ans. (a)

Q No.34 The storage potential for resources on River Indus is about?

a) 6 MAF
b) 35 MAF
c) 20 MAF
d) 15 MAAF

Ans. (c)

Q No.35 The operational capacity of QB Link at head is?

a) 15000 Cfs
b) 22000 Cfs
c) 18000 Cfs
d) 28000 Cfs
Ans. (b)
Q The operational capacity of Maral Ravi Link Canal is?

a) 22000 Cfs
b) 14000 Cfs
c) 12000 Cfs
d) Non of above

Ans. (a)

Q Mangla Dam contribution towards Marala Command Canals at present is

restricted to about?

a) 12000 Cfs
b) 8000 Cfs
c) 18000 Cfs
d) 30000 Cfs

Ans.

Q The average River reach losses for the post Tarbela period in Indus Basin
System on annual basis are about?

a) The original designed live storage capacity of Tarbela Dam

b) 10% of River flows
c) 20% of River flow
d) Negligible

Ans. (a)
IRRIGATION & POWER DEPARTMENT PUNJAB

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(MCQs)

Departmental Professional Examination

PAPER – B
ACCOUNTS CODE
 ACCOUNTS CODE
M.C.Qs.

Q. Deposit works means a mode of construction or repair the cost of which is met

a. Out of Govt. funds

b. Funds from non Govt. sources
c. Out of non-development Govt. funds
d. Local Loan

Ans. b.

Q. Secured advance means an advance made on the security of

a. Material brought to site of work

b. Against the personal Guarantee
c. Bank Guarantee
d. Security deposited by the contractor

Ans. a.

Q. Divisional Accountant is the representative / appointee of :

a. Public Works Department

b. Accountant General
c. Finance Department
d. Planning & Development Department

Ans. b.

Q. In lump-sum construction it is not required to

a. Record Detail Measurement

b. Execute agreement
c. Specify schedule of rates in order to regulate the amount to be added or
deducted from fixed amount in case of added in or alternately not covered by
the contract
d. Detail measurements in respect of addition & alternation

Ans. a.

Q. In case of lump-sum contract payment can be made before the completion of

contract
 a. For addition & alternation
b. Entire payment in advance
c. Without entering in contract ledger

Ans. a.

Q. Miscellaneous P.W advances includes

a. Expenditure on deposit works in excess of deposit received

b. Secured advance
c. The share of Municipal taxes paid by Govt. on behalf of tenants of Govt.
buildings
d. Advance payments to the contractor

Ans. a.

Q. Balances due in short deliveries, etc. which can not be cleared by recovery of cost
are adjustable

a. If it is declared irrecoverable
b. Write off has been sanctioned by the competent authority
c. Period of ten years are passed
d. Defaulter died

Ans. b.

Q. In workshop accounts of a small shop for the execution of repairs to tools &
plants, the accounts should be kept in the forms prescribed for

a. Manufacture operat1on as
b. Repair work
c. Original works
d. Store Accounts

Ans d.

Q. Work in workshop can be undertaken for Municipalities / TMA or Private parties

on

a. The payment of whole estimated cost

b. On surety bond
c. On the receipt of acceptance for payment
d. On bank guarantee
Ans. a.
Q. Indirect charges of a workshop includes

a. Interest on capital cost of buildings

b. Capital charges of building, plant & Machinery
c. Charges on maintenance of building
d. Charges on up-keep of necessary general establishment

Ans. a.

Q. In case Divisional Officer, over ruled and Divisional Accountant is not satisfied,
he will record the brief note in register of Divisional Accounts audit objection in

a. Form 37
b. Form 60
c. Form 38
d. Form 24

Ans. b.

Q. Divisional Accountant is required to inspect the accounts record of sub-divisional

officer, under the order of Divisional Officer

a. Six monthly
b. Periodically
c. Monthly
d. Yearly

Ans. b.

Q. Liabilities & assets of the division adjustable by transfer credit or debit to

remittance head of accounts should be registered in

a. Form 53
b. Form 57
c. Form 24
d. Form 26

Ans. b.

Q. The terms cash does not include

a. Currency Notes
b. Cheques
c. Revenue stamps
d. Bonds accepted as security deposit
Ans. d.

Q. A wrong entry made in the cash book may be corrected by

a. Erasing
b. Drawing pen through the incorrect entry and inserting by one in red ink
c. By giving note at the close of cash book
d. By modifying the next entries

Ans. b.

Q. When account of cash chest and cash book is found to be in correct and error is
not detected at once

a. Matter should immediately be reported to police

b. Be made to agree with the actual count balance & making the necessary
receipt or payment entry
c. Departmental action be initiated

Ans. b.

Q. Public money in the custody of department should be kept in strong treasure chest
by securing

a. Single lock
b. Double lock
c. In two safes

Ans. b.

Q. When Public money in the custody of department is kept in double lock, then both
the keys be kept in the custody of

a. Single person
b. Two different persons

Ans. b.
Q. In case of material, when purchases are made for the requirements of work
generally, the cost is accounted for under head

a. Various works
b. Suspense head stock
c. Repair work
d. Specific work
Ans. b.
Q. The material received should be entered in register of stock receipts

a. Form 6
b. Form 8
c. Form 3
d. Form 9

Ans. b.

Q. List of labour employed daily on work is called

a. Attendance sheet
b. Muster Roll
c. Appointment Chart
d. Payment bill

Ans. b.

Q. The material from stock can be issued on the authority of indent in

a. Form 6
b. Form 7
c. Form 24
d. Form 26

Ans. b.

Q. Cost per Unit fixed in respect of an article borne on the stock of the departments
at a valuation is called

a. Market rate
b. Issue rates
c. Store rate
d. Departmental rate

Ans. b.

Q. Limits over disbursement by sub-divisional officer can be fixed by

a. Accountant General
b. Divisional Officer
c. Divisional Accountant
d. Works Department

Ans. b.
Q. For the disbursement of salaries of establishment & wages of labours should be
paid by

a. Cash
b. Cheque
c. Bonds
d. Bills

Ans. a.

Q. The currency of cheque should expire owing to its not being presented at the
treasurery for payment in

a. Four months
b. Three months
c. One month
d. Six months

Ans. b.

Q. The Undrawn / items barred cheque should be received back and should be

a. Destroyed
b. Retained in safe custody
c. After cancellation, handed over to the drawer
d. Attached with the counterfoil of new cheque

Ans. a.

Q. The facts of new cheque issued against time barred be entered in cash book on
date of issue with

a. Red ink entry

b. Normal ink entry
c. Green ink entry
d. Black in entry

Ans. a.

Q. Entry of time barred cheque already recorded in the cash book will be dealt by

a. Making deleted entry

b. Recording note
c. Canceling by red ink
d. Making minus entry against closing balance
Ans. b.
Q. If cheque remained un-cashed /unpaid for twelve months of its issue should be

a. Cancelled
b. Marked as un-cashed
c. Add as income
d. Left un-attended

Ans. a.

Q. When money received by a Govt. Officer on behalf of Government Officer, a

receipt be granted to payer in

a. Form 3
b. Form 4
c. Form 6
d. Form 8

Ans. a.

Q. Payment due to contractors may be made to their bank on the discretion of

a. Divisional Officer
b. Contractor
c. Department
d. Bank

Ans. b.

Q. Every voucher must bear a pay order signed or initiated, and dated by the

a. Accountant
b. Drawing disbursing officer
c. Any subordinate
d. Sub Divisional Officer

Ans. b.

Q. Account of cash transactions should be maintained in the cash book in

a. Form 3
b. Form 1
c. Form 2
d. Form 6

Ans. b.
Q. The disbursing officer as responsible to check the entries of cash book to the
following extent

a. All entries
b. 10% entries
c. 50% entries
d. Test check

Ans. a.

Q. The actual balance of cash in chest should be counted on the

a. Last working day of each month

b. After fifteen days of close of month
c. Within week on close of month
d. Within 10 days

Ans. a.

Q. Standing advance of fixed sum of money given to an individual is termed as

a. Temporary advance
b. Imprest
c. Secured advance
d. Petty payment

Ans. b.

Q. The account of imprest cash should be kept in duplicate by the imprest holder in

a. Form 3
b. Form 2
c. Form 6
d. Form 7

Ans. b.

Q. Remittance made to a subordinate officer to enable him to make payments on

muster roll or petty payments of vouchers already passed, will be treated as

a. Permanent advance
b. Temporary advance
c. Petty payment
d. Secured advance
Ans. b.
Q. On receipt of cheque book, the Divisional or sub-divisional officer is responsible
to

a. Count forms contained in each

b. To hand over to the subordinate official
c. Affix his initial on counterfoil

Ans. a.

Q. Counterfoils of used cheque book require the following action promptly

a. Its destruction
b. Return to the Divisional Officer
c. Retained with the cashier
d. No action

Ans. b.

Q. The receipt transactions of the store of entire sub-division should be abstracted

monthly in a single abstract of stock receipt in

a. Form 8
b. Form 9
c. Form 12
d. Form 7

Ans. b.

Q. The issue transactions of the stock of entire sub-division should be abstracted

monthly in a single abstract of stock of issue in

a. Form 8
b. Form 10
c. Form 9
d. Form 7

Ans. b.

Q. The tool & plants required not for general purpose but for a specific work is
called as
a. General tool & plants
b. Ordinary tool & plants
c. Special tool & plants
d. Scientific tool and plants
Ans. c.
Q. A consolidated account of the receipts, issues and balances of tool and plants is
required to be maintained in sub-divisional office in

a. Form 13
b. Form 15
c. Form 11
d. Form 14

Ans. b.

Q. All the payments for all work done are based on the quantities recorded in the

a. Works bill
b. Estimate
c. Measurement book
d. Completion report

Ans. c.

Q. Authorized bill for the payment of works & supplies when single payment is
made for supply or contract is in

a. Form 24
b. Form 25
c. Form 26
d. Form 27

Ans. a.

Q. Form used for running payment / advance payment of works only is known as

a. Form 26
b. Form 25
c. Form 27
d. Form 28

Ans. b.

Q. The record and statement of all records destroyed in the public works office is
required to be maintained in

a. Form 93
b. Form 97
c. Form 70
d. Form 90
Ans. b.

Q. Responsibility for the recovery of the value of material, sold to Municipalities,

Local funds, contractors for private use lies upon

a. Divisional Accountant
b. Sub-Divisional Officer
c. Divisional Officer
d. Public Works Deptt

Ans. b.

Q. Payment made on running account, to contractor in respect of work done or

supplies made by him duly measured is called as

a. On account payment
b. Penalty expenditure
c. Charged expenditure
d. Secured advance

Ans. a.

Q. In account of works the description to the extent of work done, supplies made or
services performed, when these can be measured, weighed or counted is termed as

a. Quality
b. Specification
c. Quantity
d. Description

Ans. c.

Q. The Divisional Officer is primary disbursing officer of the division and all
realizations & payments on Govt. account made by his subordinate are made on
the behalf & responsibility of

a. Subordinate officer
b. Grant releasing authority
c. Divisional officer
d. Sub-Divisional Officer

Ans. c.

Q. Govt. securities, deposits receipts of banks, debentures and bonds accepted as

security deposit can not be treated as
 a. Cash
b. Security
c. Deposits
d. Receipts

Ans. a.

Q. A tenant of Government building or land who is in receipt of pension from Govt.

for recovery of rent be treated as

a. Private Individual
b. Govt. Servant
c. Ex-Service Man

Ans. a.

Q. When the recoveries of rent are to be effected through a treasurery officer or other
disbursing officer, a demand of rent recoverable is required to be made in

a. Form 48
b. Form 50
c. Form 37
d. Form 49

Ans. a.

Q. Secured advance on the basis of material supplied at site can be granted to the
value assessed upto

a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 60%

Ans. b.

Q. Members of work charged establishment are not entitled for

a. Pension
b. Sundays & Gazetted holidays pay
c. Actual traveling allowance
d. Wounded & extra ordinary pension

Ans. a.
Q. Work charged establishment is entitled for wages at

a. Monthly consolidated rates

b. Daily labour
c. On regular pay scale
d. Schedule rate

Ans. a.

Q. The term original work includes

a. Addition alterations
b. Repair
c. Maintenance

Ans. a.

Q. The term head of account ‘repair’ includes

a. Maintenance
b. New works
c. Addition & alternation

Ans. a.

Q. A revised administrative approval is required to be obtained if estimated cost of

the work is exceeding

a. 15%
b. 10%
c. 14.5%
d. 4.5%

Ans. b.

Q. All the works and special repairs will be executed through the agency of public
works department exceeding value

a. 1500/-
b. 2000/-
c. 2500/-
d. 1000/-
Ans. c.
Q. If stock of material is issued to the contractor for bonafide use on works, the
supervision, storage & contingencies charges are recoverable at

a. 10%
b. 15%
c. Exempted
d. 5%

Ans. c.

Q. All anticipated charges which are adjustable as final charges, but have not been
paid regardless of whether or not they have fallen due for payments is called as

a. balance payment
b. liabilities
c. adjustable accounts
d. cost of work

Ans. b.

Q. Transfer of funds from one unit of appropriation to an other such unit is called as

a. budget provision
b. re-appropriation
c. allotment of fund
d. transfer of liabilities

Ans. b.

Q. Payment made to a member of work charged establishment, whether on account

of his wages or in recoupment of actual traveling expenses should be debited to

a. Salary
b. Work on which he is employed
c. Misc. charges
d. Suspense account

Ans. b.
Q. Register for accounts of ordinary measurement books & standard measurement
books are kept in
a. Form 92
b. Form 91
c. Form 86
d. Form 85
Ans. a.
Q. The accounts relating to contracts should be kept in the contractors ledger in

a. Form 43
b. Form 44
c. Form 39
d. Form 92

Ans. a.

Q. Provincial Consolidated Fund is established under

a. Article 170 of the Constitution

b. Article 135 of the Constitution
c. Article 118 of the Constitution
d. Article 119 of the Constitution

Ans. c

Q. Provincial Consolidated Fund stands for

a. Provincial Fund
b. Federal Fund
c. District Government Fund
d. Tehsil Municipal Administration Fund

Ans. a

Q. Local Government accounting system is based on

a. Accrued basis
b. Non-accrued basis
c. Accruable basis
d. Non-accruable basis

Ans. a

Q. Ways & Means stands for

a. Negotiation with Donor Agencies

b. Negotiation with Federal Agencies
c. Adjustment of Finances with local governments
d. Consideration of over-draft with State Bank of Pakistan

Ans. d
Q. Fund of a Local Government has been established under Punjab Local
Government Ordinance 2001 (amended)

a. Section 105
b. Section 107
c. Section 106
d. Section 109

Ans. b.

Q.. Trust monies in a District shall be kept in

a. Federal Consolidated Fund

b. District Fund of District Government
c. Public Account of a District Government
d. Provincial Consolidated Fund

Ans. c

Q. Name the publication containing classification of

a. Audit Code Appendix-II

b. Audit Manual
c. List of Major and Minor Heads

Ans. d

Q. All monies received by a District Government as security deposit will eventually

be accounted for under

a. Consolidated Local Fund

b. District Government Receipts
c. Local Fund
d. Public Account of a District Government

Ans. d

Q. Accounts by a Local Government (District Government) shall:

a. Lapse at year end

b. Work from zero balance
c. Work from balance to balance
d. Begin only when Government grant is received

Ans. c
Q. Comparing cash balance in Bank with Cash Book is called:

a. Consolidation of Accounts
b. Reconciliation of Accounts
c. Compilation of Accounts
d. Reconstruction of Accounts

Ans. b)

Q. Accounting adjustment between two Governments is called:

a. Plus – minus memorandum

b. Adjustment Accounts
c. Deposit – adjustment accounts
d. Reconciliation of Accounts

Ans. b

Q. Name the final Accounts showing, income, expenditure, assets and liabilities of
Government:

a. Final Accounts
b. Civil Accounts
c. Financial Accounts
d. Appropriation Accounts

Ans. c.

Q. Annual Appropriation Accounts of a department reflect:

a. Annual statement of receipts & expenditure of the department

b. Annual budgetary appropriations viz-a-viz annual expenditure of the
department
c. Annual budget statement of the department
d. Annual excess & surrender statement of the department

Ans. b

Q. Re-appropriation of allocations means:

a. Misappropriation
b. Misclassification
c. Transfer of funds from one major head to an other major head
d. Transfer of funds from one minor head to an other minor head under the
major head
Ans. d
Q. 11nd excess & surrender statement becomes due on:

a. 1st January of financial year

b. 31st March of a financial year
c. 1st April of a financial year
d. 30th April of a financial year

Ans. c.

Q. Which book a DDO is required to sign on month to month basis

a. Cash book
b. Plus-minus account book
c. ECR
d. D&C Register

Ans. a

Q. A Local Government cannot

a. Incur debt
b. Undertake deposit work
c. Assign its works to citizen community board
d. Re-appropriate its budgetary allocations

Ans. a

Q. Operation of District Fund is carried out by

a. Nazim
b. DCO
c. DAO
d. XEN

Ans. c

Q. Charged expenditure means the expenditure which is

a. Voted
b. Non-voted
c. Approved by Governor
d. Approved by F.D.

Ans. b
Q. Forms and methods of accounts of a District Government are approved by:

a. Auditor General of Pakistan

b. Finance Department
c. Controller General of Accounts
d. President of Pakistan

Ans. d

Q. Principal Accounting Officer in the District Government is:

a. Zila Nazim
b. District Accounts Officer
c. District Coordination Officer (DCO)
d. Executive District Officer (EDO)

Ans. c

Q. Principal Accounting Officer in TMA is

a. Tehsil Nazim
b. Tehsil Officer, Finance
c. Tehsil Municipal Officer
d. Tehsil Officer (I&S)

Ans. c

Q. The operation of public works deposits in Account No. 1 of SBP is made

a. By XEN of the Division

b. By DAO in the District
c. By SE of the circle concerned

Ans. a

Q. Operation of District Fund in District Government is made through

a. XEN of the Division concerned

b. Nazim of the District Government
c. Divisional Accounts Officer
d. DAO

Ans. d
Q. Operation of Tehsil Local Fund is made through

a. Tehsil Municipal Officer

b. Tehsil Accounts Officer
c. Tehsil Officer, Finance
d. Tehsil Nazim

Ans. b

Q. Operation of Union Local Fund is made through

a. Union Nazim
b. Union Secretary
c. Union Accounts
d. Union Naib Nazim

Ans. c

Q. Funds established for a District Government under Punjab Government

Ordinance, 2001 is called

a. District Provincial Account

b. District Fund
c. District Government Fund
d. District Local Fund

Ans. b

Q. Funds established for a Tehsil Municipal Administration is called:

a. Tehsil Fund
b. Tehsil Municipal Account
c. Tehsil Local Fund
d. Tehsil Provincial Account

Ans. c

Q. Funds established for a Union Municipal Administration is called:

a. Union Fund
b. Union Provincial Account
c. Union Municipal Account
d. Union Local Fund

Ans. d
Q. Annual Accounts of a Provincial Government is certified by

a. Finance Department
b. Auditor General of Pakistan
c. Controller General of Accounts
d. Accountant General of the Province

Ans. b

Q. Accounts of a District Government are certified by

a. Auditor General of Pakistan

b. District Accounts Officer (DAO)
c. Account General of the Province
d. Executive District Officer (EDO) Finance & Planning

Ans. a

Q. Works Audit of the works Accounts of a District Government is conducted by:

a. District Government, Works, Audit

b. Director Local Fund Audit
c. Director General, Civil Audit
d. Controller General of Accounts

Ans. a

Q. Audit Reports on the provincial Government Accounts are placed before :

a. Finance Department
b. Public Accounts Committee
c. Departmental Accounts Committee
d. Accountant General of the Province

Ans. b.

Q. Audit Reports on the Distt. Govt. Accounts are placed before :

a. Accounts Committee of Zila Council

b. Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
c. Finance Department
d. EDO (F,P)

Ans. a.
Q. Local Tax proposal in a local Govt. is approved by

a. Nazim
b. House
c. Local Govt. & Rural Development Department
d. Finance Department

Ans. b.

Q. Property Tax is a tax of

a. District Government
b. Provincial Government
c. Tehsil Municipal Administration
d. Federal Government

Ans. c.

Q. Bottom up planning system has been designed with the objective to

a. Boost up the capital investment

b. Secure community participation in development activities
c. Reduce the cost of establishment
d. Maximize the utilization of annual development budget

Ans. b.

Q. The Accounts of citizen community board (C.C.B) shall be operated by

a. DAO
b. XEN of the Division
c. Nazim Concerned
d. Secretary and Chairman jointly of C.C.B

Ans. d.

Q. Provincial Finance Commission consists of

a. Ten members
b. Nine members
c. Eleven member
d. Eight member

Ans. a.
Q. Provincial Finance Commission is

a. A permanent body
b. To declare the award and disassemble
c. To meet quarterly
d. To meet by annually

Ans. a.

Q. Members of a PFC are nominated by :

a. Provincial Finance Department

b. Provincial Local Government Commission
c. Governor of the Province
d. Provincial Chief Secretary

Ans. c.

Q. Member of a PFC. Is to hold his membership for a period of

a. one year
b. three years
c. four years
d. five years

Ans. b.,

Q. Financial Award for Local Government. is determined on the basis of

a. population of a local area

b. area of a local Govt.
c. Fiscal effort, performance, fiscal nee and fiscal capacity
d. Backwardness

Ans. c.

Q. PFC takes decision

a. with consensus of members present

b. by majority vote of members present
c. with consensus of all members
d. by majority vote of member of private sector

Ans. b.
Q. Fiscal disputes amongst local Governments are to be resolved by Provincial Local
Government Commission
a. Provincial Finance Commission
b. Provincial Finance Depatt.
c. Provincial Assembly

Ans. b.

Q. Whether Account Code Volume III mainly discusses the matter related to the
maintenance of accounts of :

a. Pension Matter
b. Establishment Matter
c. Works Matter

Ans. c.

Q. Whether Cash Book will be maintained on a prescribed form :

a. P.W.A. 1
b. P.W.a. 3
c. P.W.A.5
d. P.W.A. 6

Ans. a. Article (80)

Q.. Whether advance payment means :

a. Work to be done at site by the contractor.

b. Work done at site but not measured
c. Work done at site and also measured

Ans. b. Article 9 (1)

Q. Whether “Bank” means :

a. Muslim Commercial Bank

b. Habib Bank
c. State Bank / National Bank acting as State Bank
d. Allied Bank acting as State Bank

Ans. c. Article 9 (3)

Q. Which Financials year covered 15 months :

a. Appril, 1948 to June, 1949

 b. April, 1958 to June, 1959
c. August, 1947 to October, 1948

Ans. b. Article 9 (43)

Q. Whether “Original Works “ means :

a. New purchased item required for existing building bringing then into use.
b. Addition and alteration in the existing work

Ans. b. Article 22(1)

Q. Whether the “work contingencies” can be expended for :

a. Fixed for P.O.L. charges debitable to the work

b. Salary of work charged established debitable to the concerned works
c. Incidental charges

Ans. c. Article 9(3)

Q. Which expenditure can be directly charged to the work:

a. Cost of work shop building repair where road making machinery is to be

required.
b. Major repair of the Road Roller used for the work.
c. Salary of work charged establishment

Ans. c. Article 9(10)

Q. Whether the Deposit work” can be executed when:

a. Cost is met from Federal Govt.

b. Cost is met from Provincial Govt.
c. Cost is met from non govt. Institution

Ans. c. Article 9(9)

Q.. Who will act a “ Divisional Officer”

a. Incharge of a Division having D.D.O Power working in BS-18

b. Supdt. Engineer appointed in a Division only to supervise the execution of
work, working in BS-18
c. A Divisional Officer of an other Division is posted to look after the work
of a division but he has not D.D.O. Power.
Ans. a. Article 9(13)
Q. When the actual value of the material is not known then which method can be
adopted for the preparation of account :

a. On the basis of estimated figure

b. Wait for the information of actual value (which takes time)

Ans. a. Article (49)

Q. Whether the recovery of an expenditure related to public work will be treated as :

a. Misc. expenditure
b. Misc. irregular expenditure
c. Revenue receipt

Ans. c. Article (66)

Q. Whether recovery of over payment in the same year will be treated as :

a. Revenue receipt
b. Recovery of irregular expenditure
c. Deducted charges from the head previously over charged

Ans. c. Article (66)

Q. Whether the recovery of “Tools & Plants “ from other department will be shown
in the account as :

a. Revenue receipt
b. Adjustment by deduction of expenditure in the relevant head of account.
c. Recovery of expenditure being an independent head of account

Ans. b. Article c-9(ii)

Q. Whether Municipal taxes and rates on public building, residential building and
non residential buildings will be :

a. treated as expenditure on repair and debited to maintenance account of the

relevant building
b. treated as actual expenditure of works and debited to this expenditure

Ans. a. Article (75)

Q. Secured advance can be allowed by the Department on the basis of :

a. Work measured at site
b. Work not measured at site
 c. Material brought at site by the contractor to be used for the work.

And. c. Article (32)

Q. Whether the term “Cash “ also means.

a. Prize Bond
b. Defence Savings Certificate
c. Revenue Stamps.

Ans. c. Articles 9 (4)

Q. Which is the final payment.

a. Final bill is prepared for payment but secured advance is still to be

adjusted.
b. Final bill is prepared after full settlement of the account.
c. Detail measurement at site for payment of work has been made but the
account of penalty for late completion of work has not been recovered
Ans. b. Article 9 (14)

Q.. Whether intermediate payment means.

a. last payment where full statement of account is to be made

b. Final payment after adjustment of secured advance and advance payment

Ans. a. Article 9 (17)

Q. Issue rate of an article for the department include the cost of :

a. all expenditures borne by the Deptt. For the purchase of an article taking
into account storage charges.
b. All cost expended by the Department for the purchase account, without
charging storage charges.

Ans. b. Article 9 (18)

Q. Whether we can call it “Liabilities” when :

a. The payment has not fallen due as a result of contract

b. In case where contract has not been made
Ans. a. Article 9 (20)
IRRIGATION & POWER DEPARTMENT PUNJAB

SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(MCQs)

Departmental Professional Examination

PAPER – C

1. IRRIGATION MANUAL OF ORDERS

2. PUBLIC WORKS DEPARTMENT CODE

 IRRIGATION MANUAL OF ORDERS

Q. The permissible limit in difference of measurement by Sub Engineer and Sub

Divisional Officer check Measurement in an original work (pacca work) is :

1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 2%
4. none of the above

Ans. 3

Q. Repair work (Pacca work)

1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 2%
4. 15%

Ans. 1

Q. What is the Minimum % age required to be checked measured by Sub Divisional

Officer in major works?

1. 25%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 35 %

Ans. 4

Q. What is the Minimum limit of check measurement by Executive Engineer in case

of Major Hydraulic Works and under water works costing more than Rs. 1 lac.

1. 35% in case of foundation work and under water

2. 10%
3. 5% in case of foundation works.

Ans. 3

Q.5. Who is authorized to grant receipt for sum less than Rs. 500/- ?
 1. Revenue clerk of the Division
2. Divisional Accounts Officer
3. Divisional Officer
4. Divisional Head Clerk

Ans. 4

Q. If the Divisional Officer is not at head quarter then how the receipt of a sum more
than Rs. 500/- will be made ?

1. the Head Clerk of the Division will receive the amount and grant the
receipt.
2. the Divisional Accounts Officer will receive the amount
3. the payment be made direct into the Treasury by the depositor

Ans. 3.

Q. Which of the following works is debitable to capital head if the cost exceeds Rs.
1000.

1. additions to existing buildings

2. alterations to outlets
3. replacement of outlets
4. replacement of building

Ans. 1

Q. Which of the following works is debitable to maintenance and repairs ?

1. enlarging the capacity of existing distributory and the masonry works

2. extension of existing irrigation channels.
3. renewal and replacement of masonry works on main canals and branches
4. silt clearance of canals

Ans. 4.

Q. Who is responsible for checking and examining the vouchers before submission
with the monthly account?

1. Auditor of the Divisional Office

2. Sub Divisional Officer
3. Divisional Officer
4. Divisional Accountant
Ans. 4
Q. Which is the very serious irregularity among the following ?

1. correction in measurement books made by conversion of original entries

2. disbursement and receipts not entered in cash books on actual date of
occurrence
3. stock not shown in accounts as issued at the time it is actually removed
from stores
4. payments made without either the Sub Divisional Officers order to check
and bill or the clerks certificate of check

Ans. 4

Q. Which is the ordinary irregularity in the following ?

1. incorrect entries in the Sub Divisional cash book not promptly detected
2. the muster rolls not signed daily by subordinates
3. the articles of stock not entered in the measurement books simultaneously
with their receipt in the stock register or vice versa.
4. measurement not written up in measurement books at the site of work but
copied from some other record

Ans. 3.

Q. Tick the serious irregularity among the following.

1. Unauthorized additions and alterations and conversion of figures fictitious

entries.
2. The entries in the measurement books interpolated or corrected and the
amount of the bill raised
3. Over writing and interpolations in cash books not initialed or initials
incorrectly dated
4. Blank spaces left at the bottom of pages in measurement books and
between entries
Ans. 3

Q. Measurement recorded by subordinates reduced by Sub Divisional Officer on

check measurement, or cancelled on account of having been recorded a second
time or work improperly done. It is an irregularity, please tick from the following
which type of irregularity it is.

1. ordinary
2. serious
3. very serious
Ans. 3
Q. Transfer entry order is initiated when.

1. error detected before submission of the account

2. error detected after submission of the account
3. for transferring the funds to an other head before incurring the expenditure

Ans. 2.

Q. Survey Report is initiated when

1. newly received items after inspection

2. the items become surplus
3. the articles in store become unserviceable

Ans. 3.

Q. Manufacture estimate is initiated for

1. manufacturing the materials for bamboo bushing

2. running of Govt. vehicles
3. recoupment of stone

Ans. 2
Q. The Minimum period for preserving the M.B. is

1. 10 years
2. 15 years
3. 20 years
4. 35 years

Ans. 2.

Q. All the distance marks in his section should be checked by the Overseer.

1. during annual closure

2. First week of October
3. early in April each year

Ans. 3

Q. Who is responsible to check the distance marks every year in April ?

1. Sub Divisional Officer

2. Overseer Incharge
3. Sectional mate
Ans. 2.

Q. The check register of Travelling Allowance bill for all regular Touring Officer is
maintained in

1. Divisional Office
2. Divisional Office & Circle Office
3. Chief Engineer's Office

Ans. 2.

Q. If on check measurement by a Sub Divisional Officer, the difference exceeds the

permissible limits.

1. the amount payable on the basis of Overseers measurements may be

reduced by the margin of error detected and payment made to the
contractor

2. the case may be reported to the higher authorities and the payment with-
held till final decision

3. the work may be re-measured by the SDO himself and payments made
thereon and the case being reported to higher authorities for action against
the subordinate
Ans. 3

Q. When the amount of estimate will cost less than Rs. 5000/- but more than Rs. 200,
check leveling by the SDO should cover not less than following percentage of the
estimated quantity of the earth work.

1. 25%
2. 10%
3. 35%

Ans. 1
 CHAPTER –III OFFICE PROCEDURE
Q. Which is the correct scale for the maps ?

A) Circle map.
1. 1 inch to a statute mile
2. 1/2 inch to a mile
3. 1/4 inch to a mile
4. 2 and 3
Ans. 4.

B. Divisional map.

1. 1/2 inch to a statute mile

2. 1 inch to statute mile
3. 2 inch to statute mile
4. all of the above

Ans. 2

Q. Which is the correct colour for showing .

A) Water ?

1. thick blue line

2. green arrows
3. Prussian blue
4. thin blue line

Ans. 3

B) Drainage ?

1. thick black line

2. green arrows
3. Prussian blue
4. light Indian ink

Ans. 2

C) Canals

1. Prussian blue
2. lake
3. thick blue line
Ans. 3

D) Pacca masonry (for Ferro type)

1. lake or carmine
2. full hatchure
3. lake
4. light red

Ans. 2.
E) Concrete.

1. burnt umber
2. light red
3. red with fine blue dots
4. light burnt

Ans. 3.

F) Pucca Buildings

1. pink
2. lake or carmine
3. burnt umber

Ans. 2.

G) Earth work natural

1. lake
2. burnt umber
3. burnt sienna

Ans. 3.

H) Earth work artificial

1. light red with wash

2. light burnt sienna and Indian ink
3. indigo

Ans. 2.

Q. Who is responsible for maintaining the register of land plans in Divisional Office?
 1. Revenue clerk
2. Divisional Accounts officer
3. Head Draftsman
4. None of the above

Ans. 3

Q. Which one register will be written by the head draftsman in his own hand writing?

1. register of bench marks

2. register of estimates for which completion plans are required
3. register for buildings
4. register of well measurement
Ans. 2

Q. The strength of treasure guard at Divisional Head quarter is

1. two barkandaz and one daffadar

2. one barkandaz and one daffadar
3. two barkandaz and two daffadar
4. two daffadar and one barkandsz
Ans. 2.

Q. In Divisional Office who will make payments and be responsible for the contents
of the chest ?

1. Divisional Accounts Officer

2. Divisional second clerk
3. Divisional Officer
4. all above

Ans. 2.

Q. In Sub Division who is the custodian of the key of the special lock of the treasure
chest ?

1. Sub Divisional Clerk

2. Daffadar
3. Sub Divisional Officer
4. All of above.

Ans. 3.

Q. In the Divisional Office who is responsible for the safe custody of the second key
of the treasure chest ?
 1. Divisional Officer
2. Head Clerk
3. Second Clerk
4. Divisional Accountant

Ans. 4.

Q. Who will open and close the cash chest in the Sub Division ?

1. Sub Divisional Clerk

2. Sub Divisional Officer
3. Daffadar
4. Both 2 & 3

Ans. 4.

Q. In order to check the progress of work, who should maintain a register of

sanctioned estimate ?

1. Divisional head draftsman

2. Divisional Accounts Officer
3. Sub Engineer
4. Sub Divisional Officer

Ans. 3.

Q. Who should examine the register of sanctioned estimates ?

1. Divisional Head Draftsman

2. Sub Divisional Officer
3. Divisional Accounts Officer
4. Head Clerk
5. Executive Engineer
6. Both 2 & 3

Ans. 6.

Q. How often the register of sanctioned estimate should be examined ?

1. once in a year
2. twice in a month
3. once in a month
4. twice in a year

Ans. 3
Q. The circle Officer should inspect the Divisional Office during a period of .

1. six month
2. once in a year
3. after two year
4. once in 3 year

Ans. 2.

Q. On what date the circle officer is required to submit the copy of register of
inspection of Divisional Office to Chief Engineer office ?

1. 10th March each year

2. 10th April each year
3. 10th August each year
4. 30th June each year

Ans. 2.

Q.. Who can sanction the write off of library books lost or rendered unserviceable
through constant use.

1. Executive Engineer
2. Superintending Engineer
3. Chief Engineer
4. None of the above

Ans. 2.

Q. Who is competent to sanction the write off of note books level books field books
and discharge books.

1. Chief Engineer
2. Superintending Engineer
3. Executive Engineer
4. Administrative Department
Ans. 2.

Q. Who can supply the copies of orders regarding special charges of unauthorized
irrigation on payment to the public ?

1. Superintending Engineer
2. Chief Engineer
3. Executive Engineer
4. Administrative Department
Ans. 3.

Q. At Headworks

1. There is prohibition of fishing some distance u/s & d/s of the barrages.
2. There is no prohibition of fishing.

Ans. 1.

Q. In which office the standing order books are maintained?

1. Sub Divisional Office

2. Divisional Office
3. Section
4. All of the above

Ans. 4.

Q. Who is responsible for the maintenance of the cash books and for the contents of
the chest in Divisional Office ?

1. Divisional Officer
2. Divisional Accounts officer
3. Second Clerk
4. All above.

Ans. 3.

Q. The Sub Divisional Officer is required to make a complete check of every current
Measurement Book and have them completed in all respects. This check is carried
out.

1. once every half year

2. once a year
3. once a month

Ans. 1

Q. All measurement books in use are sent on specified dates to Divisional office for
personal scrutiny of the Divisional Officer. This is done :

1. once every half year

2. once a year
3. once in 3 months
Ans. 2

Q When the measurement books are received once a year in the Divisional office for
scrutiny, who will check whether the relevant instructions in PWD code, & IMO
have been complied with.

1. Accounts clerk
2. Divisional Officer
3. Divisional Accountant

Ans. 3.

Q When Measurement Books are received once a year in Divisional office for
scrutiny, what percentage of the value of total measurements record in each book
since last review will be checked personally by the Divisional Accountant.

1. 5%
2. 10 %
3. 2%

Ans. 2

Q All completed Measurement Books filed in the Divisional office will be retained
for a specified period after date of last entry, which is.

1. 20 years
2. 5 years
3. 15 years
Ans. 3.

Q Who is responsible to receive new Measurement Books, examine them to see

each page is correctly numbered and to record his check on the inside of the
cover.

1. Divisional Accountant
2. Divisional Head Clerk
3. Accounts Clerk
Ans. 2.
Q. After what period, the Divisional Officer should inspect the cash book of Sub
Division?
1. once in a year.
2. at least twice in a year
3. every three months

Ans. 2
Q. The agreement or leases, the registration of which is compulsory or is as
considered necessary should be presented for registration within

1. one month of the date of execution

2. six months of the date of execution
3. three months of the date of execution
4. four months of the date of execution

Ans. 4

Q. In the Divisional Office who is responsible for keeping a close watch over the
lease agreements ?

1. Divisional Officer
2. Divisional Accountant
3. Head Clerk
4. Revenue Clerk

Ans. 4.

Q. For the guard establishment, who will maintain roster of duties both for
escorting treasure and for guarding the treasure chest.

1. Sub Divisional Officer

2. Divisional Accountant
3. Daffadar
4. Revenue clerk

Ans. 3.

Q. When guarding treasure chest at night, the rest of the guard shall be within

1. 50 yards of the men on duty

2. 200 yards of the men a duty
3. 100 yards of the men a duty
Ans. 3.

Q. Who is responsible for printing (i) Administration report (ii) Historical statistics
of canals upto the end of the year (iii) Statistics of Irrigation water distribution &
working of distributaries for the year.

1. Superintending Engineer
2. Chief Engineer
3. Administrative Department
Ans. 2
Q. The scale of provision of leveling instruments in a Sub Division (excluding HW
Sub Division) is

1. one per subordinate section with a maximum of four

2. one per subordinate section with one per Sub Division as reserve

Ans. 2.

Q. The scale of provision of prismatic compass in a circle is

1. Two per head works division and one per Revenue Division
2. Number of Divisions in a circle, less one

Ans. 1

Q. Superintending Engineers should submit the (i) Administration Report & (ii)
Historical statistics of canals upto end of the year, so as to reach the Chief
Engineer on

1. Ist of April
2. Ist of October
3. Ist of July

Ans. 2.

Q. Superintending Engineers should submit the report "Statistics of Irrigation Water

Distribution and Working of the Distributaries" so as to reach the Chief Engineer
on )

1. 31st December
2. Ist of July
3. Ist of October
Ans. 2.
 CHAPTER – IV LAND
Q. For acquisition of land the rules and orders under the Land Acquisition Act are
contained in.

1. Section 7 of Act of 1894

2. Financial commissioner standing order No. 28
3. Section 3 © of Act 1 of 1894
4. None of the above.

Ans. 2.

Q. For acquisition of land in case of great urgency procedure can be taken up under

1. Section 17 para graph 68 of financial commissioner standing order no. 28

2. Section 17 para graph 65.66 and 70 of Financial commissioner standing
order No. 28.
3. Section 17 para graph 38 of Financial Commissioner standing order
4. Section 17 para graph 46 of Financial Commissioner standing order 28.

Ans. 2.

Q. Which paragraph of section 17 of Financial Commissioner Standing order No. 28

provides to issue of a notice to Divisional Officer that he may have an
opportunity of making any representation regarding the value of the land

1. 70
2. 38
3. 46
4. 65

Ans. 2

Q. In order to construct a distributory possession of land prior to issue of a

notification is permissible when one of the requirements of the following
paragraph of section 17 of Financial Commissioner Standing order 28 are full
filled.

1. paragraph No. 66
2. .paragraph No. 68
3. paragraph No. 46
4. paragraph No. 70-

Ans. 2.
Q. For Gazette Notification of land to be acquired, the Divisional Officer should
submit.

1. An application to the Collector giving details of land to be acquired

2. Draft notification in sterio IB Form 135
3. An application to the Board of Revenue
Ans. 2.

Q. Along with the draft notification for acquisition of land, index plan of the part of
the country in which the land is located is submitted. The scale of the plans is

1. 1 inch to 1 mile
2. 4 inchs to 1 mile
3. 1/4 inch to 1 mile

Ans. 1.

Q. The scale of the land plan submitted with the draft notification for acquisition of
land is

1. 1/50
2. 1/2000
3. 1/1000

Ans. 2.

Q. The draft notification for acquisition of land is

1. Forwarded directly to the Superintending Engineer

2. Forwarded to the Collector concerned for check and countersignature

Ans. 2

Q. In case of an emergency, the departmental officers can enter upon privately

owned land under the provisions in

1. Land Acquisition Act

2. Financial Commissioner Standing order No. 28
3. Canal & Drainage Act 1873

Ans. 3.

Q. Compensation for damage done to a land during an emergency operation.

1. cannot be claimed by the affectees

 2. can be claimed by the affectees

Ans. 2.

Q. In which office a register of all cattle ghats is maintained

1. Divisional Office
2. Superintending Engineer office
3. Sub Divisional Officer

Ans. 2.

Q. Level and Field Books are permanent records which are never to be destroyed
without the permission of

1. Superintending Engineer
2. Chief Engineer
3. Administrative Department

Ans. 2.

Q. A register of receipts and issues of field and level books is maintained in each
Divisional office by :

1. Head Clerk
2. Divisional Accountant
3. Revenue Clerk

Ans. 1.
PUBLIC WORKS DEPARTMENT CODE

Q. All land, the property of Government should ordinarily be sold through :

a. Public Works Department

b. Provincial Department, that occupies the land
c. Revenue Department
d. District Housing Officer

Ans. c.

Q. The sites attached to Government buildings should be sold by :

a. Board of Revenue
b. The Provincial Government Department occupying such building
c. District Housing Officer
d. Public Works Department

Ans. d.

Q. When land is required for public purposes, what is the limit of the amount of the
sub head for land upto which consultation with the collector of the district can be
dispensed with:

a. Rs. 2000
b. Rs. 5000
c. No Limit
d. Rs. 500

Ans. b

Q. When land is required for public purposes and the amount of sub head for land
does not exceed 5 percent of the total amount of the estimate (works only), the
consultation of the collector of the district may be :

a. Obtained
b. Dispended with

Ans. b.

Q. When possession of land has once been taken under section 16 or 17 of the land
acquisition Act.

a. Government cannot withdraw from the acquisition of the land

 b. Government may withdraw from the acquisition of the land
c. Government should not withdraw from the acquisition of the land

Ans. a.

Q. In cases, the land required is already in possession of another Department of

Government or of a local body they are Governed by special provisions in :

a. Financial Commissioners standing Order 61

b. Land Revenue Manual
c. Financial Commissioners standing order 28
d. P.W.D Code

Ans. c.

Q. Land held for Military purposes should not be taken up or occupied for any
purposes without :

a. Sanction of the Central Government in Defence Department

b. Sanction of the President of Pakistan
c. Sanction of the Central Board of Revenue
d. Sanction of the Cantonment Executive Officer

Ans. a.

Q. The officer who settles the price for acquisition of land by private negotiation,
award should be drawn up in which one of the following proformas:

a. A
b. C
c. F
d. G

Ans. a.

Q. Permission granted by Government in orders on a Budget estimate for the

reduction of an entry of proposed expenditure during the year in a work.

a. Conveys authority for the announcement of the outlay

b. Conveys no authority for the announcement of the outlay

Ans. b.

Q. Any anticipated or actual savings on a sanctioned estimate for a definite project :

 a. Should not be applied to carry out additional work not contemplated in the
original project.
b. Can be applied to carry out additional work not contemplated in the
original project

Ans. b.

Q. The sanction once accorded to an estimate for a public work :

a. Will not lapse

b. Will lapse after a period of 5 years from the date of section
c. Will lapse on the expiry of the financial year in which section was
accorded

Ans. b.

Q.. The monetary limit upto which expenditure on minor additions and alteration may
be classed as repair is :

a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 500
c. Rs. 200

Ans. c.

Q. To cover the cost of petty (work) establishment employed on works, a provision

may be made to the extent of a percentage of the estimated cost of work which is :

a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 2%

Ans. c.

Q. If the actual expenditure is less than the sanctioned amount:

a. completion report is not necessary

b. completion report is necessary

Ans. b.

Q. A detailed Completion in respect of works on which the outlay has been recorded
by Sub – heads is submitted in :

a. Form DFR (PW) 36

b. Form DFR (PW) 37
 Ans. b.

Q. When excess in the execution of a work occurs at an advanced stage of the execution
of the work :

a. a revised estimate may be prepared

b. excess may be explained in the completion report

Ans. b.

Q. Rules Governing the submission of estimates for, and the consuction of Irrigation
works are contained in ;

a. Appendix 4 to the Public Works Account Code.

b. Appendix V to the PWD Code
c. Chapter II of IMO

Ans. b.

Q. The Technical sanction accorded by the officers to whom powers have been
delegated :

a. Is final for all values of estimates

b. Individual works costing more than 1 lac must also be further approved by
Government

Ans. b.

Q. When General charges for establishment, audit and account and tool and plant are
entered in a project estimate:

a. These charges will also appear in any subsidiary estimate

b. These will not appear in any subsidiary estimate

Ans. b.

Q.. After the closure of the construction estimate of a work, the completion report
with all the documents should be submitted within:

a. One month
b. One year
c. Six months

Ans. c.
Q.. For every wok (excluding repairs and petty works) initiated by, or connected with
the requirements of an other department

a. Concurrence of the department concerned to the proposals is not necessary

b. It is necessary to obtain the concurrence of the department concerned to
the proposal before technical sanction to the work is accorded
c. Concurrence of the department concerned to the proposals is obtained
after the technical sanction to the work is accorded

Ans. b.

Q. Revised Administrative Approval is necessary when the detailed estimate, due to

increase of rates, exceeds the amount administratively approved by :

a. 4.5 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 10.25 percent
d. 15 percent

Ans. a.

Q. Revised Administrative Approval is necessary when the detailed estimate, when

prepared, exceeds the amount administratively approved by :

a. 5 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 10.25 percent
d. 15 percent

Ans. c.

Q. Provision of contingencies which can not be foreseen should be made in the

estimate of major works to the extent of:

a. 2 percent
b. 3 percent
c. 5 percent
d. 10 percent

Ans. b.

Q. Provision of contingencies which can not be foreseen should be made in the

estimate of minor works to the extent of :

a. 2 percent
b. 3 percent
 c. 5 percent
d. 10 percent

Ans. c.

Q. The Provision for contingencies in a project may be diverted to any new work on
repair, not provided in the estimate (to the extent provided in S.No. 18 to 21 of
paragraph 20.15 of Financial powers) by:

a. Superintending Engineer
b. Executive Engineer
c. Both a & b
d. None

Ans. c.

Q. To cover the cost of petty establishment employed on works, provision may be

made in an estimate on the estimated cost of works at the rate of :

a. 1 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 5 percent
d. 10 percent

Ans. b.

Q. In the case of intramural drainage, sewage and water supply works provision for
petty establishment is made:

a. upto 1 percent of the estimated cost

b. upto 3 percent of the estimated cost
c. upto 5 percent of the estimated cost
d. upto 10 percent of the estimated cost

Ans. b.

Q. Where petty (work) establishment is employed on works, the work rates for such
estimates should :

a. Exclude all charges for supervision

b. Should include all charges for supervision

Ans. a.
Q. In case of works expenditure of a commercial character (i-e expenditure
connected with self supporting workshops) a proforma charge as an indirect
charge representing the cost of Audit Establishment should be made in the
accounts at the rate of:

a. 1 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 5 percent
d. 10 percent

Ans. a.

Q. Charges for capitalization of abatement of land revenue should be calculated:

a. at 2 times the amount of land revenue remitted

b. at 5 times the amount of land revenue remitted
c. at 10 times the amount of land revenue remitted
d. at 20 times the amount of land revenue remitted

Ans. d

Q. A revised estimate must be submitted when original technically sanctioned

estimate is likely to be exceeded by

a. 1 percent
b. 4.5 percent
c. 5 percent
d. 15 percent

Ans. c.

Q. The estimates for special repair remain current till:

a. completion of the repairs

b. 30th June of the financial year
c. 2 years after sanction
d. 3 years after sanction
Ans. b.

Q. The sanction to an annual ordinary repair estimate lapses

a. on the last day of the working financial year

b. after 2 years of sanction
c. after 3 years of sanction
d. after 5 years of sanction
Ans. a.

Q. If a contractor whose contract is for finished work requires an advance on the

security of materials brought to site, Divisional Officer may in such cases
sanction advances upto:

a. 10 percent of the value of material

b. 20 percent of the value of material
c. 50 percent of the value of material
d. 75 percent of the value of material

Ans. d.

Q. If a contractor, whose contract is for finished work requires an advance on the

security of the material brought to site, the Divisional Officer may sanction
advance upto 75% of the “assessed value” of the material. In such cases who will
assess the value of the material brought to site.

a. Divisional Officer
b. Superintending Engineer
c. Chief Engineer

Ans. a.

Q. For feasibility and Surveys in case of projects/ works to be executed under

Development Programme, the following is prepared

a. P.C-I
b. P.C-II
c. P.C-III
d. P.C-IV

Ans. b.

Q. The completion Report, in case of projects/works to be executed under

Development Programme is submitted on
a. P.C-I
b. P.C-II
c. P.C-III
d. P.C.IV

Ans. d.
Q. The Progress Report in case of projects/works to be executed under Development
Programme is prepared on

a. P.C-I
b. P.C.-II
c. P.C-III
d. P.C.IV

Ans. c.

Q. Who is competent to approve work plans for O&M Works ?

a. Executive Engineer
b. Superintending Engineer
c. Chief Engineer
d. Administrative Department
Ans. c.

Q. Furniture for new offices may be supplied by the Divisional Officer and charged
in his account, Provided Government authorizes the inclusion of the cost of such
furniture in estimates of the offices concerned. This rule does not apply to:

a. Furniture for Dak Bungalows and Civil Rest Houses .

b- Furniture for Rest houses and Inspection Bungalows .
c- For both a & b above .
d- None of both a & b .

Ans. c.

Q. When a building is newly constructed and a supply of furniture is deemed necessary ,

the cost of the furniture should be debited to:

a- Cost estimate of work .

b- Maintenance and repair grant .
c- Suspense .
d- None of these .

Ans. a.

Q. The proceeds of the sale of unserviceable furniture shall be credited to:

a- Provincial Revenue
b- Capital Head
c- None of these
Ans. a.

Q. Provincial buildings incharge of department, may be sold or dismantled according

to Powers laid down in:

a- D.F.R
b- P.W.D Code
c- Book of Financial Power
d- Non of three

Ans. c.

Q.. The sub letting for residential purpose, of building hired as office will require the
approval of:

a. Head of the Department

b. Finance Department
c. Govt. with consent of Finance Department

Ans. b.

Q. When it is necessary to hire a separate building for the office accommodation of

the S.E or Divisional Officer. The amount of office rent to be paid by Government
will be fixed by Superintending Engineer, to the maximum limit of:

a. Rs. 1000 per mensum

b. Rs. 500 per mensum
c. Rs. 100 per mensum

Ans. c.

Q. When Divisional Officer provides accommodation for his office in building (not
being Govt,. building) in which he resides, he may under the order of
Superintending Engineer be allowed to draw office rent which is chargeable to:

a. M&R grant of building

b. Contingent grant
c. Special grant
d. None of three

Ans. b.
Q. When a Zilladar is not provided with a Government quarter, he may under the
sanction of the Executive Engineer be granted an allowance for hiring office
accommodation of the rate of:

a. Rs. 50 per mensum

b. Rs. 200 per mensum
c. Rs. 2 per mensum

Ans. c.

Q. A register of buildings of all buildings in his jurisdiction will be maintained in

stereo IB form No. 349 by:

a. Superintending engineer
b. Divisional Officer
c. both by a & b above.

Ans. c.

Q. The structural repairs to, a leased building are executed by the lessor ;

a. Before the building is occupied

b. Just after the occupation of the building
c. After a period of one year
d. None of three

Ans. a.

Q. Standard rents, of residential buildings are fixed by;

a- Divisional Officer
b- Superintending Engineer
c- Chief Engineer
d- Head of Department.

Ans. b.

Q. On occupation of a residence by a Govt. servant's family, after the headquarter

has been transferred to an other station for a period exceeding 4 months, the rent
liability will be

a. 10% of the pay of the Govt. servant concerned

 b. as for a govt. building let to a private person
c. 50% of a above.

Ans. b.

Q. The Muster Roll in PWA Form 21 must be filed in :

a. daily
b. weekly
c. at the end of the month

Ans. a.

Q. The payment of daily labourer through a contractor instead of Muster Roll is:

a. preferred
b. is objectionable in principle

Ans. b.

Q. Whose duty during tours is to see that the measurement books are properly /
carefully kept and maintained as per rules / instructions.

a. Divisional Officer
b. Superintending Engineer
c. Chief Engineer
Ans. b.

Q. The duplicate key of the Sub Divisional cash chest under the seal of the
Divisional officer, shall be placed in the custody of:

a. Superintending Engineer
b. Chief Engineer
c. Treasury Officer

Ans. c.

Q The initial record of a labour employed each day on a work is:

a) Cash book
b) Muster Roll
c) Measurement book
d) Special measurement book.
Ans. b
Q. The accounts of quantities, whether of work done by daily labour, by contract or
of material received is made on :

a) Muster Roll
b) Cash book
c) Measurement book
d) None

Ans. c.

Q Every measurement taken must be recorded in the measurement book.

a) within 15 days
b) within 7 days
c) within 2 days
d) at the time it is taken.

Ans. d.

Q. Tools and plants belonging to the department may be hired to other Government
Departments, local bodies and bonafide private individuals by :

a) Superintending Engineer
b) Chief Engineer
c) Divisional Officer
d) Sub Divisional Officer

Ans. c.

Q. With the exception of tools & plant articles with the Revenue Staff, all the stores
of a Sub-Division must be checked by the Subordinate in charge of the section.

a) Every year
b) Each half year
c) Every two years
d) Every three months

Ans. b.
Q. When stock materials are sold by the workshops at their full value to other
departments or issued on account of works executed for the public, other
divisions,

a) an addition of 20% is made as supervision and storage charges.

b) an addition of 10% is made as supervision and storage charges.
c) an addition of 50% is made as supervision and storage charges.
d) an addition of 15% is made as supervision and storage charges.

Ans. b.

Q. When stores including tools & plants become unserviceable

a) stores should be destroyed

b) A report must be made in Survey Report Form
c) Stores should be auctioned at once

Ans. b.

Q. When stock materials have been depreciated in value while remaining

serviceable, either through deterioration or through a fall in market price, their
book value can

a) be reduced to a fair market price

b) not be reduced

Ans. a.

Q. Reserve stock of store is:

a) debited at once to any specific work

b) accounted for in a suspense account of stock
c) none of above.

Ans. b.

Q. A loan of T&P shall be reported to the Superintending Engineer by the Divisional

Officer, if the value exceeds.

a. Rs. 20,000
b. Rs. 10,000
 c. Rs. 1000

Ans. c.

Q. When tools & Plants belonging to the Irrigation Branch are lent outside the
Department, the hire charges per mensum are to be levied at the rate of:

a. 2 % on the original purchase price of the plant.

b. 10% on the original purchase price of the plant.
c. 5% on the original purchase price of the plant

Ans. c.

Q. When the Administrative Department sanctions purely temporary increase in the

reserve stock limit, it should be absorbed.

a. by the close of the financial year

b. within 6 months
c. within 1 year .

Ans. b.

Q. When checking the stores of any subordinates section, the SDO:

a. may check a part at one time

b. check whole of the store in a section.

Ans. b.

Q. With the exception of tools & plant with the Revenue staff, each subordinate shall
prepare a distribution list of T&P under his charge.

a) quarterly
b) yearly
c) monthly

Ans. b.

Q. The T&P particles with the Revenue staff will be counted each half year by,

a. Sub Divisional Officer

b. Deputy Collector
c. Zilladar

Ans. c.
Q. The T&P articles with the revenue staff will be counted by the Zilladar:

a) every year
b) every half year
c) once in two years

Ans. b.

Q. In the case of any sudden casualty occurring or any emergent necessity arising for
an officer to quit the Division, Sub Division or the work to which he is posted,
who will immediately take charge of the vacancy created:

a) officer of adjoining jurisdiction

b) The senior most officer of the same rank in the division
c) The next senior officer of the department

Ans. c.

Q. All the stores of a Sub Divisional must be counted by the SDO or the Dy
Collector,within a maximum period of :

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
Ans. a.

Q. In the case of transfer of charge, a relieving SDO/Oversee will make a complete

check of all works, encroachments, road side materials and stores, T&P and report
defects / deficiencies within a period of

a. one week
b. 3 months
c. 6 months.

Ans. b.

Q. Public money in the custody of the Department should be kept in strong treasure
chest secured by:

a. one lock
b. two locks
c. three locks
d. four locks

Ans. b.
Q. The private money can be kept in the same cash chest for a period of:

a. one day only.

b. 3 days only
c. 7 days only
d. None of above.

Ans. d.
 PCS (E&D) RULES, 1999 (M.C.Qs.)

Q. Are these rules operative today in pending cases?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. Can enquiry officer frame a charge sheet on the basis of his own information ?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Can enquiry officer drop the proceedings under E&D Rules at his own level?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Can enquiry officer impose a minor penalty?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. The prescribed period for reply to charge sheet is:

a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. within 7 to 14 days

Ans. c.

Q. In case of major penalty enquiry officer shall provide an opportunity to the

accused to offer his explanation against his recommendations regarding penalty to
be imposed before submitting the case to authority for decision:

a. Yes
b. No
Ans. Yes

Q. Can penalty of stoppage of increment be imposed with cumulative effect?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Who is the competent authority to exercise the powers of revision?

a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. Chief Secretary
d. Government

Ans. d.

Q. The Powers of revision can be exercised within :

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 3 months
d. 1 year

Ans. d.

Q. Does the forum of authorized officer exist in the rules ?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Is it mandatory on authority to proceed against a civil servant under E&D Rules if

so directed by Anti Corruption Establishment?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Who shall frame and communicate the charge sheet ?

a. Authority
 b. Authorized officer
c. Enquiry officer
d. Administrative department

Ans. Enquiry officer

Q. Does statement of allegations accompany with the charge sheet ?

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. No.

Q. Can departmental representative be called a prosecutor ?

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. Yes

Q. Can ex-parte proceedings be initiated on expiry of prescribed period for

submitting reply to the charge sheet ?

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. Yes.

Q. The enquiry proceedings should be held ;

a. From day to day

b. After reasonable intervals
c. Weekly
d. At the convenience of parts

Ans. a.

Q. Is authority competent to sanction leave to accused without recommendations of

board for?

a. One day
b. One week
c. 15 days
d. none

Ans. b.
Q. The enquiry proceedings shall be completed by enquiry officer/enquiry committee
in:

a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 45 days
d. 30 days

Ans. a.

Q. Is enquiry officer himself competent to impose the penalty ?

a. Minor
b. Major
c. None

Ans. a

Q. The order of denovo enquiry under these rules shall be a pending case:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes
 THE PUNJAB CIVIL SERVANTS ACT, 1974

Q. Civil Servant does not include a contract employee :

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. A deputationist is a civil servant:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. A worker or workman is a civil servant:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. A work charged employee is a civil servant:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. The total probation period in case of initial recruitment is for a period of :

a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Four years

Ans. d.

Q. The total probation in case promotion is for a period of :

a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
 d. Like initial recruitment

Ans. c.

Q. A probationer who has been appointed by initial recruitment and failed to pass the
period of probation successfully is liable to be :

a. Dismissed
b. Removed
c. Terminated
d. Dispensed with

Ans. d.

Q. A probationer, who has been appointed by promotion and failed to pass period of
probation successfully is liable to be :

a. Dismissed
b. Removed
c. Terminated
d. Discharged

Ans. c.

Q. Promotion should always be made only against promotion quota posts:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. There are two kinds of posts like selection posts and non selection posts for the
purpose of promotion:

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. Yes

Q. A person whose ACRs are missing is superseded for promotion:

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. No
Q. A civil servant who is deferred for promotion loses his seniority for ever:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Out of turn promotion is admissible in exceptional cases :

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. A civil servant is liable to be transferred anywhere within or outside the province:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. yes

Q. The services of a probationer is liable to be terminated without show cause:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. A civil servant can be retired from service on completion of 10 years of service

qualifying for pension:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Where rules are silent, a representation can be made to the next higher authority
except where the order is passed by Governor, within:

a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

Ans. d.
Q. Governor has absolute powers to relax any rule:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.
 THE PUNJAB REMOVAL FROM SERVICE (SPECIAL POWERS)
ORDINANCE, 2000

Q. Is the Ordinance applicable to employees of corporations, autonomous bodies?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. Is pleas bargaining under NAB Ordinance a ground of penalty?

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. Yes

Q. Is appointment or promotion in violation of law or extraneous ground, a ground

for penalty?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes.

Q. Is reduction to a lower stage in the same pay scale a major penalty?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Is statement of allegations accompanied by charge sheet ?

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. No.

Q. Can pension be recovered under the Ordinance?

a. Yes
b. No.
Ans. Yes

Q. How many kinds of enquires can be conducted under the Ordinance:

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Ans. b.

Q. Can enquiry be conducted in case of conviction by court on moral turpitude or

financial irregularity?

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. The period of suspension is :-

a. Three months
b. Four months
c. None

Ans. None

Q. The reply to the statement of allegations is to be submitted within:

a. 7 days
b. fourteen days
c. one month

Ans. a.

Q. The prescribed period for submitting reply to the statement of allegations counts
from:

a. date charge sheet is communicated

b. date of receipt of charges

Ans. a.

Q. The enquiry should be completed within :

a. 30 days
 b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

Ans. a.

Q. The enquiry officer should be :

a. Senior to the accused.

b. Senior in rank to the accused.

Ans. b.

Q. In case of enquiry committee, each member of the committee should be senior in

rank to the accused:

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. No.

Q. Can the borrowing authority proceed against a BS-17 officer of the lending
authority without its approval:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Enquiry shall be conducted afresh by the lending authority on receipt of enquiry

report submitted by the borrowing authority:-

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.
Q.55. The enquiry officer/enquiry committee shall obtain explanation of the accused
against the proposed penalty after conclusion of enquiry :

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. No.
Q. Denovo enquiry may be ordered by authority on receipt of enquiry report within:

a. 7 days
 b. 14 days
c. one month
d. None

Ans. b.

Q. The representation against order of penalty is to be made within:

a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

Ans. d.

Q. Representation does not lie to the Governor against his order:

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. No

Q. The period of limitation for representation is counted from :

a. Date or order
b. Date of communication of order
c. Date of receipt of order

Ans. b.

Q. Appeal to tribunal lies within 30 days of the final order.

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. Pending proceedings shall be finalized under old rules:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes
 PUNJAB CIVIL SERVANTS (APPOINTMENT& CONDITIONS OF
SERVICE ) RULES, 1974

Q. Absorption from surplus pool of S&GAD shall be made in case of BS-1 to 15 on

the recommendations of :

a. Punjab Public Service Commission

b. Departmental Selection Committee
c. Special Committee

Ans. c.

Q. Seniority in case of appointment by absorption shall be as in case of initial

recruitment:

a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. Yes

Q. Absorption should invariably be made against an equivalent post:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. The departmental selection committee normally consists of :

a. Two members
b. Three members
c. Four members

Ans. b.
Q. The Provincial Selection Board consists of:
a. 8 members
b. 9 members
c. 10 members
d. 11 members

Ans. b.
Q. The jurisdiction of Provincial Selection Board is in promotion of officers from
BS-18 (of few cadres) or 19 and above:
 a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. The appointing authority of BS-19 officers is the Governors:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Appointment on acting charge basis can be made against promotion and initial
quota posts:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. Appointing authority is competent to make acting charge appointments:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. Acting charge appointment is for :

a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Uptill the incumbent gains prescribed length of service

Ans. d.

Q. Current charge appointment is made for a period of :

a. Six months
b. One year

Ans. b.

Q.. Current charge appointment is made against promotion quota :

 a. Yes
b. No.

Ans. Yes

Q. Recommendations of Punjab Public Service Commission is necessary for current

charge appointment:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. Officiating promotion stands on same footing as regular promotion:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. A civil servant of Govt. of the Punjab can be sent on deputation to other

provincial Governments of Federal Government:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. No.

Q. For out of turn promotion of officers in BS-17 and above, competent forum is
Special Selection Board:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. The date of birth of a civil servant cannot be changed after two years:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. A person not having domicile of Punjab except in wedlock cases cannot be

appointed to any post:
 a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes

Q. A post even in case of adhoc appointment has to be advertised:

a. Yes
b. No

Ans. Yes
 Preparation of estimates, Administrative Approval, Technical Sanction and Tenders

Q. Replacement of an outlet by one of the same type and size is chargeable to the
head:

1. Capital
2. Maintenance and Repairs
3. Extension and Improvements
4. None of the above

Ans. 2

Q. Standard Measurement Book is maintained for the purpose of preparing estimates

for:

1. Original works
2. Deposit works
3. Annual maintenance and repairs works
4. Special repairs

Ans. 3

Q. While carrying out survey work for Irrigation Channels, levels and X-sections are
normally taken, unless otherwise instructed by the divisional Officer, at intervals
of:

1. 100 ft
2. 250 ft
3. 500 ft
4. 1000 ft

Ans. 3

Q. The document used for preparing project estimate for construction of a new work
is called:

1. PC-I
2. PC-II
3. PC-III
4. PC-IV

Ans. 1

Q. Revision of an estimate is required when the total outlay is likely to exceed by:
 1. 2 % of the original technical sanction
2. 5 % of the original technical sanction
3. 7 % of the original technical sanction
4. 10 % of the original technical sanction

Ans. 2

Q. As per Punjab Govt. latest instructions, economic analysis is required for:

1. PC-Is costing more than Rs. 60 M

2. PC-Is costing more than Rs. 100 M
3. PC-Is costing more than Rs. 200 M
4. All PC-Is

Ans. 4

Q. Competence for approval of a PC-I worth Rs. 25 M rests with:

1. Chief Engineer
2. Departmental Sub Committee
3. Provincial Development Working Party
4. ECNEC

Ans. 3

Q. Temporary posts provided in the approved PC-I require further separate

sanctioning by:

1. Chief Engineer
2. Administrative Department
3. Finance Department
4. No further sanction required

Ans. 3

Q. Technical sanction of an estimate can not exceed the corresponding administrative

approval by more than:

1. 10 %
2. 8%
3. 5%
4. 2%
Ans. 1
Q. Splitting of technical sanctions for one approved original work of Rs. 0.5 M
requires specific permission by:

1. Executive Engineer
2. Superintending Engineer
3. Chief Engineer
4. Administrative Department

Ans. 3
Q. Technical sanction of the estimate is required (except emergent works):

1. Before invitation of tenders

2. After tender invitation but before opening of bids
3. After tender opening but before allotment of work
4. After tender opening but before releasing payment

Ans. 1

Q. Punjab Govt. procurement procedures require preparation of estimates on the

basis of:

1. CSR, 1998
2. Market rates
3. Last tender rates of similar nature work
4. Rates fixed by the Chief Engineer

Ans. 1

Q. A work costing Rs. 0.1 M requires a minimum clear notice of ------- days for
invitation of tenders:

1. 10 days
2. 15 days
3. 30 days
4. 45 days

Ans. 3

Q. Punjab Government procedures allow Post-Bidding Negotiations for contracts

costing:

1. Upto 1 M
2. Upto 5 M
3. Above 10 M
4. All contracts

Ans. 4

Q. Work orders constitute binding on the parties in respect of:

1. Rate at which work items to be paid

2. Quantity of work to be done and the payment rate
3. Lump sum payment
4. None of above
Ans. 1
Q. A tender costing Rs. 1.5 M but being other than the lowest, requires approval by -
------- before acceptance:

1. Superintending Engineer
2. Chief Engineer
3. Administrative Department
4. Finance Department

Ans. 3

Q. Approval of the competent authority to the contract documents is required:

1. After opening of tenders

2. After allotment of work
3. Before invitation of tenders
4. Before technical sanction

Ans. 3

Q. Acceptance of tenders can not exceed the amount technically sanctioned by more
than:

1. 2%
2. 4.5 %
3. 7%
4. 10 %

Ans. 2

Q. A Bidder is allowed to withdraw his bids without any penalty:

1. Only before the bid opening
2. After tender opening but within the bid validity period
3. Maximum before allotment of work
4. None of above

Ans. 1

Q. A single tender costing Rs. 1.5 M requires at least, prior approval by the
following authority before its acceptance:

1. Superintending Engineer
2. Chief Engineer
3. Administrative Department
4. Finance Department
Ans. 1