Midterm & Final Ophthalmology Exam Paper

Quiz: 1
1. In which eye disorder does too much intraocular pressure damage optic
nerve fibers?
a) Blind spot
b) Optic neuritis
c) Papilledema
d) Glaucoma
2. Which intraocular muscle is controlled by sympathetic nervous system?
a) Longitudinal fibers of the ciliary body muscle
b) Circular fibers of the ciliary body muscle
c) Radial fibers of the ciliary body muscle
d) Pupil dilator muscle
3. Which of the following conditions can cause a temporary decrease in vision
for several days or weeks, as well as pain in eye when the eye is moved?
a) Optic atrophy
b) Optic neuritis
c) Papilledema
d) Glaucoma
4. Which cranial nerve innervates four of the six extra ocular muscles (Medial
rectus, Superior rectus, Inferior rectus and Inferior oblique)?
a) Cranial Nerve II
b) Cranial Nerve III
c) Cranial Nerve IV
d) Cranial Nerve VI
5. The optic nerve is known also as what cranial nerve?
a) Cranial Nerve II
b) Cranial Nerve III
c) Cranial Nerve IV
d) Cranial Nerve VI
6. The orbicularis oculi muscle is controlled:
a) CN5
 b) CN7
c) CN3
d) CN6
7. Which of these eye colors is produced by the most amount of pigment in the
iris?
a) Blue
b) Green
c) Hazel
d) Brown
8. Which type of photoreceptor is best able to process bright light and color?
a) Iodopsin
b) Rhodopsin
c) Cone
d) Rode
9. Which eye structure determines a person’s eye color?
a) Cornea
b) Conjunctiva
c) Crystalline lens
d) Iris
10.What is the point of sharpest, Most distinct visual acuity within the eye:
a) Fovea centralis
b) Macula
c) Retina
d) Optic nerve disk
11.Which type of inflammation in the body would not be a suspect in causing an
iritis or uveitis?
a) Macula
b) Fovea centralis
c) Plexiform
d) Psoriasis
12.What is a triangular or wedge-shaped patch of blood-vessel-engorged tissue
on the conjunctiva which can encroach onto the cornea and adversely affect
vision?
a) Conjunctivitis
b) Pinguecula
 c) Pterygium
d) Subconjunctival Hemorrhage
13. Pterygium is:
a) Complication of anterior uveitis
b) Complication of keratoconus
c) Complication of conjunctivitis
d) Degeneration condition of conjunctival
14. In the tiny foveola, at the center of the fovea, there are approximately how
many cones?
a) 12,000
b) 25,000
c) 850
d) 70,000
15.Shellen eye chart length:
a) 30Ft
b) 10Ft
c) 20Ft
d) 5Ft
16.As an increasing amount of light enters the eye, the pupil does what?
a) Optic nerve disk
b) Retina
c) Constricts
d) Crystalline lens
17.What is the most common method used to perform a primary extra capsular
cataract extraction (ECCE)?
a) Phacoemulsification
b) Yage laser
c) Argon laser
d) Cryoextraction
18.The vitreous humor, which occupies about 80% of the eye’s interior, is
composed mostly of what?
a) Inoeganic salts
b) Water
c) Hyaluronic acid
d) Collagen fibers
19.“Floaters” (also known as “muscae volitantes“), which sometimes interfere
with vision, can be caused by a what?
a) Cataract
b) Dry eye condition
c) Vitreous detachment
d) Secondary cataract
20. An inherited disease which gradually devastates the rods of the retina,
thereby reducing night vision and ultimately resulting in “tunnel” vision, is
known as what?
a) Retinitis pigmentosa
b) Glaucoma
c) Monochromatism
d) Achromatopsia
21.A palsy of which extra ocular muscle most likely will result in an esotropia
(turning inward) of the affected eye?
a) Medial rectus.
b) Lateral rectus
c) Interior oblique
d) Superior oblique
22.A palsy of which extra ocular muscle most likely will result in an entropy
(turning outward) of the affected eye?
a) Medial rectus
b) Lateral rectus
c) Interior oblique
d) Superior oblique
23.Which eye structure is comparable to the film of a camera because it senses
light focused on it?
a) Pupil
b) Vitreous humor
c) Retina
d) Optic nerve head
24.The longest part of the optic nerve is:
a) The intraocular portion
b) The intraorbital segment
c) The intracanalicular portion
 d) The intracranial segment
25. The lowest part of the optic nerve is:
a) The intraocular portion
b) The orbital segment
c) The intracanalicular portion
d) The intracranial segment
26. Which cells contain the optic nerve?
a) Photoreceptor
b) Amacrine and horizontal cell
c) Ganglion cell axons
d) Retinal pigment epithelium-RPE
27. What test can detect early stages of macular degeneration, a hereditary
ocular disease which is the leading cause of irreversible blindness among
American 65 and older?
a) Color vision tear
b) Amsler grid test
c) Blind spot tear
d) Visual field tear
28.Ophthalmoscopy is the examination of:
a) The cornea
b) The iris
c) The orbit
d) The retina
29.A “cataract” is an opacification of which eye structure?
a) Cornea
b) Conjunctiva
c) Crystalline lens
d) Iris
30.The abducens nerve (VI) innervates:
a) The lateral rectus muscle
b) The superior oblique muscle
c) The inferior oblique muscle
d) The superior rectus muscle
31.The nasolacrimal duct open:
a) The superior meatus of the nasal cavity
 b) The middle meatus of the nasal cavity
c) The inferior meatus of nasal cavity
d) The maxillary sinus
32.“Pink eye” is an inflammation of which eye tissue?
a) Cornea
b) Conjunctiva
c) Crystalline lens
d) iris
33.Most powerful primary focusing structure of eye?
a) Iris
b) Pupil
c) Conjunctiva
d) Cornea
34.What ocular tissue provides protection for the eye and serves as an
attachment for the extra ocular muscles which move the eye?
a) Iris
b) Sclera
c) Cornea
d) Conjunctiva
35.Which disorder is caused by an accumulation of fluid under the retina and
seems to be linked to chronic stress?
a) Sclera
b) Optic atrophy
c) Central serous retinopathy
d) All of the above
36.Which of these usually cause(s) a profound loss of vision?
a) Sclera
b) Optic atrophy
c) Central serous retinopathy
d) All of the above
37.Too much near work, thereby forcing the crystalline lens of the eye to over-
accommodate without providing it with sufficient rest, can result in what?
a) Presbyopia
b) Near point stress
c) Primary cataract
 d) Distal point
38.What will be located between the iris and the crystalline lens is located?
a) Lateral chamber
b) Posterior chamber
c) Middle chamber
d) Anterior chamber
39.What is the ring-like tendon, located in the nasal orbit, through which the
superior oblique passes?
a) Ocular
b) Trigeminal
c) Trochlea
d) Abducens
40.Where are situated the accessory lacrimal glands (glands of Krause and
Wolfing)?
a) In the bulbar conjunctiva
b) In the palpebral conjunctiva
c) Under the Tenon’s capsule
d) Nearby the limbus
41. Which corneal layer does increase in thickness throughout life?
a) The epithelium
b) The stroma
c) Descement’s membrane
d) The endothelium
42. Which saying is not correct:
a) The lens is a biconvex, avascular, colorless and almost completely
transparent structure.
b) The lens consists of about 99% water.
c) The lens has 3 part: Capsule, Nucleus and Cortex.
d) The lens is held in place by a suspensory ligament known as the zonule
(zonule of Zinn).
43. Anterior chamber is full of:
a) Aqueous
b) Tear
c) Blood
d) Air
44. Posterior chamber is full of?
a) Tear
b) Blood
c) Air
d) Aqueous
45. Red eye can be caused:
a) The upper eyelid ptosis
b) Keratitis
c) Retinitis
d) Cataract
46.Yellow eye can be caused?
a) The upper eyelid ptosis
b) Keratitis
c) Retinitis
d) Cataract
47. Which is not avascular structure of the eyeball?
a) Cornea
b) Sclera
c) Lens
d) Vitreous
48.The Fifth neuron is located :
a) In the retina
b) In the chiasm
c) In the lateral geniculate body
d) In the primary visual cortex of the occipital bones

Quiz: 2
1. Hyperopia :
a) Week accommodation.
b) Strong accommodation
c) Regular and irregular cornea
d) Long axial eye
2. Hypoxia:
a) Week accommodation.
 b) Strong accommodation
c) Regular and irregular cornea
d) Long axial eye
3. Myopia means:
a) Too weak refraction system
b) Regular and irregular cornea
c) Strong refraction system
d) Short axial of eye.
4. Testes about refraction:
Myopia symptom is:
a) Blur near and far vision
b) Poor distant vision..
c) Eye too short.
d) Correction only surgery
5. For myopia we use:
a) Astigmatic lenses
b) Plus lenses
c) Minus lenses
d) All kind of lenses
6. Keratoconus is:
a) Hyperopia
b) Irregular astigmatism
c) Myopia
d) Presbyopia
7. Chalazion:
a) Missing of eye tissue
b) Obstruction an oil glands
c) Painful bump.
d) Tearing
8. Ectropion is:
a) Missing piece of eye tissue
b) Drooped eyelid
c) Outward eyelid
d) Trichiasis
9. Entropion is:
 a) Turned inward eyelid
b) Turned outward eyelid
c) Missing piece of eye tissue
d) Drooped eyelid
10.Cornea may be:
a) Regular and irregular
b) Transparent only after 40 age
c) Change the shape by ciliary muscle
d) Has only weak refraction
11.Trichiasis causes:
a) Eyelid ulceration
b) Konjunctival and corneal irritation
c) Drooped eyelid
d) Turned outward eyelid
12.Stay is:
a) Viral infection
b) Bacterial infection.
c) Parasitic infection
d) Eyelid ulceration
13.Stye is:
a) Sebborrheic blepharitis
b) Ulcerative blepharitis
c) Sensitive bump
d) Missing piece of eye tissue
14.Photophobia is:
a) Foreign body sensation
b) Light sensitivity
c) Watering
d) Blur far vision
15.Molluscum contagiosum is :
a) Sensitive bump bacterial infection
b) Obstruction an oil glands
c) Edema
d) Waxi nodules-viral infection.
16.Congenital anomalies of Eyelid are: Cycle incorrect answer
a) eyelid coloboma
b) cicatricial ectropion
c) blepharoptosis
d) entropion
17.Eyelid edema is due to: Cycle incorrect answer
a) orbital cellulitis
b) blepharitis
c) allergic reactions
d) corneal dystrophy
18. Presbyopia is:
a) Too weak refractive system
b) Inequality in density of lens
c) Blurred near vision for ages
19. During injury of cornea may be cause:
a) Hyperopia
b) Myopia
c) Astigmatism
d) Presbyopia
20. We use accommodation:
a) Only for far vision
b) Wearing glasses for far
c) To focus near or far images
d) After 40 ages
21.Bacterial keratitis causes:
a) Herpes zoster
b) Allergy
c) Chlamydia
d) Parazits
22.viral keratitis causes:
a) Allergy
b) Fungi
c) Herpes zoster
d) Parazits
23.Simply bacterial conjunctivitis mean:
a) Asthenopia
b) High temperature
c) Mucoid discharge
d) Pain of eye
24.Bacterial conjunctivitis:
a) May be punctuate keratitis
b) Posterior uveitis
c) Corneal shape change
d) Only near vision blur
25.Viral conjunctivitis:
a) Can wear contact lenses
b) Can’t wear contact lenses
c) Can wear contact lenses and glass
d) Can’t wear contact lenses and glass
26.Conjunctival injection is:
a) Punctate keratitis
b) Red, irritated conjunctiva
c) Eyelid edema
d) Conjunctival hemorrhages
27.Kaposis sarcoma is:
a) Noncancerous tumor
b) Viral infection
c) Orbital cellulitis
d) Cancerous tumor.
28.Meibomian gland dysfunction does not cause:
a) Posterior Blepharitis
b) Styes
c) Chalazion
d) Ulcerative blepharitis
29.Meibomian glands do:
a) Secrete tear
b) Secrete oil
c) Bacterial infection generalization
d) Molluscum contagiosum
30.Blepharitis can cause:
a) loose eyelashes
b) high intraocular pressure
c) eyelid ptosis
d) Infection of the orbit

Quiz: 3
1. Which extra ocular muscle does not begin from annulus of zinn?
a) MR
b) IO
c) SR
d) IR
2. From which sinuses can infection spread into orbit?
a) Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses.
b) Frontal sinus
c) Maxillary sinus
d) Nasal cavity
3. Cycle incorrect answer about hyphema:
a) Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber
b) Mostly it is caused by trauma
c) Must be surgically evacuated immediately
d) Sometimes it causes IOP elevation
4. Enophthalmos of the globe may develop:
a) Orbital walls fracture
b) Orbital tumor
c) High myopia
d) Graves ophthalmopathy
5. Which opinion is false as regard proptosis?
a) This is the sign of orbital disease
b) In this case eyeball will displace forward in orbit
c) It may be axial and nonaxial
d) Pseudoproptosis may due to high hyperopia
6. The eyeball is supplyed:
a) Muscular branches of ophthalmic artery
b) Supraorbital and supratrochlear arteries.
 c) Lacrimal and palpebral arteries
d) Central retinal artery, long and short posterior ciliary artery
7. The superior orbital fissure does not contain:
a) Optic nerve (II)
b) Ophthalmic artery
c) Infraorbital nerve and artery
d) Oculomotor nerve (III)
8. Long-term complications of chemical burns of eyeball include:
a) Glaucoma
b) Keratitis sicca and corneal scarring
c) Symblepharon , entropion
d) All of them.
9. Which orbital wall is more easily damaged by direct trauma?
a) Orbital roof
b) Orbital floor
c) Lateral wall
d) Medial wall
10. Which is the correct answer?
a) The orbital roof is composed Frontal and Lacrimal bone.
b) The orbital lateral wall is composed zygomatic, Sphenoid and Ethmoid bones.
c) The orbital floor is composed Zygomatic, Maxilla and Frontal bones
d) The medial wall is the thinnest part of the orbit
11.Which is the correct answer?
a) The orbital roof is composed Frontal and sphenoid bones.
b) The orbital lateral wall is composed Zygomatic, Sphenoid bones and Frontal
bone
c) The orbital floor is composed Maxilla, Zygomatic, and Palatine bones
d) The orbital Medial wall is composed Ethmoid, Lacrimal, and Frontal bones
e) All of the above

Quiz: 4
1. Posterior scleritis characterized:
a) Blefaritis
b) Konjunctivitis
 c) Optic disc swelling
d) Episcleritis
2. Scleritis may be:
a) Anterior and posterior
b) Anterior, posterior and intermediate
c) Only anterior
d) Only posterior
3. Glaucoma don’t be:
a) Anterior
b) Normotension
c) Congenital
d) Primary
4. In Congenital glaucoma:
a) Eye ball is big
b) Eye ball is small
c) Treated only drops
d) Pupillari block
5. Symptom of acute anterior uveitis is:
a) Hipopyon
b) Mucoid discharge
c) Optic disc cup
d) Wide pupil
6. In which cases can we see anterior chamber precipitats?
a) High eye pressure
b) Posterior uveitis
c) Anterior scleritis
d) Anterior uveitis
7. Corneal high thickness affect:
a) Decrease eye pressure
b) Increase eye pressure
 c) No change eye pressure
d) It isn’t important
8. Corneal low thickness affect?
a) Decrease eye pressure
b) Increase eye pressure
c) No change eye pressure
d) It isn’t important
9. Vitreus cells is sign of:
a) Anterior scleritis
b) Posterior uveitis
c) Posterior scleritis
d) Konjunctivitis
10. Intermediate uveitis is the same as:
a) Iritis
b) Pars planitis
c) Panuveitis
d) Keratitis
11. Posterior synechie is situated:
a) On the retina
b) In anterior chamber
c) Posterior chamber and pupil
d) In vitreus
12. Rubeosis is:
a) On the cornea
b) On the sclera
c) In vitreus
d) On the iris
13. On Precipitates is:
a) On the konjunctiva
b) On the sclera
 c) On the cornea
d) On the iris
14. Pericorneal injection is:
a) Dilation of conjunctival vessels
b) Dilation of corneal vessels
c) Dilation of iris vessels
d) Dilation of limbal vessels
15. Pericorneal injection is:
a) Dilation of conjunctival vessels
b) Dilation of vessels round the cornea
c) Dilation of corneal vessels
d) Dilation of episcleral vessels
16. Vitritis mean is:
a) Corneal precipitates
b) Vasculitis
c) Cells in vitreus
d) Cells in anterior chamber
17. Sign of acute retinal necrosis is:
a) Periphlebitis
b) Anterior uveitis
c) High eye pressure
d) Retinal detachment
18. Posterior uveitis sign is:
a) Iridocyclitis
b) Vasculitis
c) Corneal ulcer
d) Tearing
19. Posterior uveitis sign is:
a) Macula edema
b) Corneal edema
 c) Eyelid edema
d) Anterior chamber precipitates
20. Anterior chamber precipitats is:
a) When is high eye pressure
b) When is posterior uveitis
c) When is anterior scleritis
d) When is anterior uveitis
21. Posterior chamber precipitats is ?
a) When is high eye pressure
b) When is posterior uveitis
c) When is anterior scleritis
d) When is anterior uveitis
22. High eye pressure:
a) Damages anterior chamber
b) Induced papillary block
c) Damage optic disk
d) Induced corneal thinning
23. Panuveitis is:
a) Inflammation of one layer of the uvea
b) Inflammation of two layers of the uvea
c) Inflammation of all layers of the uvea
d) Inflammation of posterior layer of the uvea
24. Posterior uveitis is:
a) Inflammation of all layers of the uvea
b) Inflammation of posterior layer of the uvea
c) Inflammation of the retina
d) Inflammation of the ciliary
25. In Acute glaucoma:
a) Anterior chamber angle is close
b) Anterior chamber angle is open
 c) Eye ball is white
d) Eye pressure is normal
26. Acute glaucoma means:
a) Open angle chamber
b) Papillary block
c) Pigmentary glaucoma
d) Normal-tension glaucoma
27. In Acute glaucoma treatment:
a) Midriatics
b) Miotics
c) Antibiotics
d) Artificial tear
28. Subconjunctival hemorrhage treated:
a) By antibiotics
b) Does not need treatment
c) By antihistamines
d) By surgery
29. Treatment of keratitis is:
a) Corneal rings
b) Corneal transplantation
c) Corneal cross-limking
d) antibiotics
30. Keratoconus sign is:
a) Progressive farsightedness
b) Progressive presbiopia
c) Progresibe nearsightedness
d) Strabismus
31. Keratoconus sign is:
a) Double vision
b) Blurry vision and astigmatism
 c) Near sightedness
d) All of the above
32. Epithelial keratitis means:
a) Precipitates on the cornea
b) Epithelial ulcer on cornea
c) Panus on the cornea
d) Stromal keratitis
33. Episcleritis may be:
a) Anterior and posterior episcleritis
b) Nodular episcleritis
c) Scleromalacia
d) Episcleral thinning
34. Episcleritis is:
a) Acute then scleritis
b) Pain increases with movement of the eye
c) Symptoms are mild then scleritis
d) Is only monolateral
35. During the episcleritis:
a) Eye is white
b) Eye is red
c) Is purulent discharge
d) Is keratitis
36. During open angle glaucoma:
a) Eye redness
b) Corneal edema
c) White eye
d) Papillary block
37. Scleromalacia is:
a) Scleral edema
b) Diffuse redness
c) Scleral nodules
d) Necrotic nodules of the sclera
38. Systemic causes of cataracts include:
 a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Congenital rubella
c) Down’s syndrome
d) Chlorpromazine
39. Corneal rings:
a) Flatten the cornea
b) Lengthen the cornea
c) No change the surface of cornea
d) Strengthen corneal tissue
40. Which answer is correct as regard Anterior chamber:
a) Blockes aqueous fluid
b) Produces aquoues
c) Anterior chamber angel filters aquous
d) Causes pupillary block