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P06-17 C OD E - 0
Academic Session: 2018-19
MAJOR TEST-3(MT-3)
Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.
same.
10mg
(1) (1) L/12
5
9mg (2) L/3
(2)
5
11mg (3) 5L /12
(3)
5 (4) 2L/3
12mg
(4)
5
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5. A student working with a spring mass 8. A man can swim with speed u with respect to
systems finds the values of mass, spring river. The width of river is d. The speed of the
constant and damping constant in CGS unit river is zero at the banks and increases
+3
as 90, 4.5 x 10 and 180 respectively. linearly to v0 till mid stream of the river then
What will be the time period of the spring decreases to zero to the other bank. When
mass system? man crosses the river in shortest time, drift is
(1) 2/7 equal to : (given u > v0)
ud
(2) 14 (1)
v0
(3) ud
(2)
2v 0
(4) 2/ 50
v 0d
(3)
2u
6. A sonometer wire vibrating in first overtone v 0d
(4)
has length of 31.25cm. Tension in the wire u
is 256N and mass per unit length is 9. A uniform sphere of mass m is positioned
10gm/m. When it is sounded together with between two horizontal planks A and B of
a tuning fork 10 beats are heard. If tension mass 2 m and m respectively as shown.
in the wire is slightly increased no beats Ground surface is smooth and friction
are heard. What is the possible frequency
between planks and sphere is sufficient so
of the tuning fork?
that no slipping takes place. Horizontal
(1) 502 Hz
(2) 510 Hz forces F1 and F2 are applied on plank so
(3) 505 Hz that acceleration of sphere is zero. Plank B
(4) None of these is moving toward right with acceleration a.
Which of the following is/are correct?
7. A travelling wave travelled in string in A
F2
+x direction with 2 cm/s, particle at x =0
oscillates according to equation y (in mm)
= 2 sin (t+/3). What will be the slope of
the wave at x = 3cm and t = 1s?
smooth
B F1
(1) – 3 / 2
(2) tan–1 – 3 / 2 (1) Both planks have same acceleration
(2) Net force on sphere is non-zero
17
(3) – 3 / 20 (3) F1 + F2 = ma
5
(4) – 3 (4) f = 5 ma
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10. Air offers a retardation of 6 m/s2 to a 12. A hinged construction has a rhombus made
particle. If it is projected vertically upward of 4 rods of length 2 3m . C is fixed. Vertex
with a speed of 96 m/s from ground then A is moving with a speed of 10 m/s as
2
the time of flight is : (g = 10 m/s ) shown and whole system is rotating about
(1) 19.2 s symmetrical axis with angular velocity
(2) 12 s 4 2 rad / s. What will be speed of vertex B
at this instant ?
(3) 18 s
B
(4) 24 s
C 30° A = 10 m/s
mg sin
(1)
2hcos N2
mg cos2 He
(2)
2hsin
(1) 2T0
mg sin cos2 3T0
(3) (2)
2h 2
7T0
mg (3)
(4) 4
2hsin cos2
5T0
(4)
2
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14. An open cubical container of side ‘H’ is filled 16. A uniform rod of length is applied upon by
H
with a liquid up to height . Mass of liquid two forces at its either end as shown.
4
inside container is ‘m’ (neglect atmospheric Surface is smooth. Which of the following
Pressure). When container is moved with
maximum possible acceleration what will be option is correct ?
the value of force applied by liquid on front
wall parallel to plane of paper? F F
a
(1) Length of rod will remains same
2V0 V0
o
30
x (1) 10
P Q(3,0)
(2) 5
(1) 10 m/s
(3) 0.5
(2)2 10 m/s
(4) 1
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s
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18. Two disks A and B are free to rotate about 20. Two particle are projected from an inclined
passing through their centre as shown. (RA incline and B down the incline. If RA and RB
3 3 4
(1)
3 3 4
3 3 4
A (2)
3 3 4
(1) 8 rad/s
3 3 2
(2) 4 rad/s (3)
3 3 2
(3) 12 rad/s
4 3
(4) 5 rad/s (4)
4 3
(2) 5% (2) 6 kJ
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22. Equation motion of a particle is given as 24. A skier plans to ski a smooth fixed
(2) Periodic but not oscillatory (R/4). The angle at which he leaves the
B
(4) cos–1 (5/ 2 3 )
5 m/s
A 53º
5 m/s 25. The work done in increasing the size of a
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28. A car starts accelerating with an
SECTION - II
Integer value correct Type 1 2
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to acceleration of m/s when its speed was
each question is a single digit integer, ranging 3
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
18 km/h. If the displacement of car in nth
26. A trolley is moving in horizontal x – y plane
with a velocity of 36 km/h towards x- minute after it starts accelerating is 4.8 km
direction. When trolley is at (100, 0, 0), a
bullet is fired with a muzzle velocity of then n is :
50 2 m/s at angle of 45º with horizontal in
a plane making 53º with x-axis as shown.
After 5 sec bullet splits into two equal part.
One of the part strikes trolley 5 sec after
splitting. If the distance of other part from 29. A composite rod whose upper half has a
origin is M 100 2 at this instant then,
M is : (Assume mass of bullet is very small
density and lower half has a density of
in comparison to trolley). 4
y
3
is immersed vertically in a liquid of
2
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30. An uniform sphere is at rest and in
equilibrium with the help of two vertical
strings of unequal length larger string has
length ' 2 ' and shorter string has length
'7 '
. Both strings and centre of sphere
5
are in one plane.
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PART – B 33. Dissolving 180 g of glucose (mol. wt. 180) in
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, (1) 1.78 M (2) 2.00 M
Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,
(3) 0.97 M (4) 2.22 M
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137,
Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
34. How many litres of water must be added to
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type 2 litre aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for
(1) 10 L (2) 0.9 L
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(3) 2 L (4) 18 L
31. The Poisson's ratio () for O2 is 1.4. Select
2cal
incorrect option for O2 (R = ): 35. Molar volume of an Ideal gas is 0.45 dm /mol.
3
mol K
2.0 D
32. The electrons identified by quantum
Z 1.5 C
numbers n and : (Compressibility 1.0 B
factor)
(a) n = 5, = 1 (b) n = 5, = 0 0.5 A
(c) n = 4, = 2 (d) n = 4, = 1
P
can be placed in order of increasing energy
(1) B
as:
(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (2) D
(2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(3) A
(3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(4) None of these
(4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
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P 38. When 1 mole of strong diprotic acid H2A
36. 'A' 'B' (completely ionised) is completely neutralized
60 g He 96 g O2 by NaOH then amount of heat is released is
–1
"E" KJ mol . Calculate amount of heat
L1 L2
released when one mole of weak monoprotic
A cylindrical diathermic chamber fitted with
acid HB is completely neutralized by NaOH.
movable, massless & frictionless piston.
(1) E
Initially piston was at rest by the stop pin P
as shown in figure. Compartment (A) is filled (2) less than E/2
with 60g He gas & compartment (B) is filled (3) greater than E/2
stop pin is suddenly removed ? H = +200 KJ, the forward reaction is not
(1) 2 favoured by :
temperature and low pressure, the pressure 40. Enthalpy of atomisation of diamond is
Vm (1) 30 KJ/mol.
(2)
a.b
(2) 300 KJ/mol.
a
(3) (3) 15 KJ/mol.
Vm . b
(4) None of these
b
(4)
a. Vm
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41. A(s) 2B(g) + C(g) 44. When borax is dissolved in water :
removed so that its partial pressure at new (3) both B(OH)3 and [B(OH)4]– are formed
pressure. Ratio of total pressure at new 45. Correct order of bond strength for the
equilibrium and at initial equilibrium will be : following molecule or ions is :
(3) 3 (1) X = Y=
+ –
N2Cl OH
(1) (2)
(3) X = Y=
N2Cl
(3) (4)
(4) X = Y=
O
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47. Which of the following order is correct ? 50. The correct stability order of following species
is :
(1) B < C < N < O (First ionisation energy)
(1) Double chain silicates are known as 51. Which of the following is the pair of functional
isomers ?
amphiboles.
OH
(2) In cyclic silicates two oxygen atoms per (1) &
O
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53. The d-orbitals which are not involved in SECTION - II
OH 1 It is a Reversible process.
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58. What is the ratio of moles of Mg(OH)2 and
–12
of Mg(OH)2 = 4 × 10 and Ksp of Al(OH)3 is
–33
1 × 10 ).
–17
10 .
possible :
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PART – C 64. In a cricket match against Zimbabwe, Azhar
wants to bat before Jadeja and Jadeja wants
SECTION - I to bat before Ganguli. Number of possible
Straight Objective Type batting orders with the above restrictions, if
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. the remaining eight team members are
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for prepared to bat at any given place, is
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
11!
(1)
10
r 10 1 8r 8!
61. Sum of the series (–1)
r 0
Cr r 2r is
3 3 11!
(2)
10 3
(1) 2 1
3 20 11!
(3)
10 10 3!
2 1
(2) – 11!
3 9 (4)
2!
10
(3) 3 1
3 20 65. An Investigator interviewed 100 students to
10
6 1 determine the performance of three drinks
(4)
320 milk, coffee and tea. The investigator
reported that 10 students take all three
62. A point A(2, 1) is outside the circle drinks, 20 students take milk and coffee, 30
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 & AP, AQ are students take coffee and tea; 25 students
tangents to the circle. The equation of the take milk and tea; 12 students take milk only.
circle circumscribing the triangle APQ is: 5 students take coffee only and 8 student
take tea only. Then the number of students
(1) (x + g) (x 2) + (y + f) (y 1) = 0
who did not take any of the three drinks is .
(2) (x + g) (x 2) (y + f) (y 1) = 0
(3) (x g) (x + 2) + (y f) (y + 1) = 0 The value of is equal to
4
(4) (x + g) (x 2) (y + f) (y 1) = 0 (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
63. The range of ‘’ for which the point (, ) lies
(4) 5
in minor arc bounded by the curves
x2 + y2 = 1 and x + y = 1 is
66. The joint equation of 2 altitudes of an
1 1
(1) << equilateral triangle is
2 2
x 2 3y 2 4x 6 3 y 5 0 . The third
1 1
(2) – << altitude has equation
2 2
(1) x 2 0
1
(3) > (2) y 3
2
1 (3) x = 2
(4) 0 < <
2 (4) None of these
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67. Equation of the hyperbola whose axes are 71. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 and 5x2 + 6x + 12 = 0 have
the axes of coordinates (focus lying on a common root. where a, b and c are sides of
x-axis) and which passes through the point a triangle ABC, then
13 is
(4)
15 (1) independent of b
(2) independent of a
69. If the expansion of (x + y)m has 3 consecutive (3) independent of both a & b
coefficients in A.P., then smallest possible (4) dependent on both a & b.
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1 79. If a, b, c and d are four positive real numbers
75. –1 < cos 2x – < has solution set
3 2 such that abcd = 1, then the minimum value
5 of (1 + a) (1 + b) (1 + c) (1 + d) is
(1) x 2n, 2n , n I
3 3 (1) 4
(2) 1
(2) x 2n, 2 2n 2 2n, (2n 1) ,
3 3 3 (3) 16
nI (4) 18
(3) x 2n, 2n 2n, 5 2n ,
3 3
80. If a,b,c denote sides of a triangle ABC with
nI
usual notation such that c2 = a2 + b2,
(4) x n, 2 n 2 n, (n 1) ,
3 3 3 2s = a + b + c, then 4s(s – a)(s – b) (s – c) =
nI (1) s4
(2) b2c2
76. The series of natural numbers is divided into
groups as (1), (2, 3, 4), (3, 4, 5, 6, 7), (3) c2a2
(4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10) ......... (4) a2b2
If sum of elements in the 20th group is , then
is equal to
(1) 1368 81. The mean and standard deviation of the
2
(2) (38) marks of 200 candidates in half early exam
(3) (39)2
were found to be 40 and 15 respectively. The
(4) 38 × 39
marks of the candidates exceeds their marks
77. Eccentricity of ellipse by 10 in final exam. The mean and standard
2 (x – y + 1)2 + 3 (x + y + 2)2 = 5 is
deviation of the marks in final exam are
1
(1) respectively?
2
1 (1) 50, 25
(2)
3 (2) 50, 15
1 (3) 30, 25
(3)
2 (4) 30, 15
2
(4)
3 82. The number of distinct terms in the expansion
15
1 1 1 1 1
78. If Sn = 1 + + + ...... + , n N, of x x 2 2 is/are (with respect to
2 22 2n 1 x x
1
then least value of n such that 2 – Sn < is different power of x)
100
(1) 8 (1) 255
(2) 7 (2) 61
(3) 9 (3) 127
(4) 6 (4) 99
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n
SECTION - II
83. If (1 + x)(1 + x2)(1 + x4)....(1 + x128) = x r
,
Integer value correct Type
r 0
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to
each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
then n is equal to
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
(1) 256
86. If (1 – cot 1º) . (1 – cot 2º) . (1 – cot 3º) .......
(2) 255
n
(1 – cot 44º) = 2n , then is equal to
(3) 254 11
(4) 257
(2) x= 2
(3) x + y = 4
89. If , are the roots of 4x2 – 15x + = 0,
(4) 2x + y = 4 where R, such that 1 < < 2 and 2 < <
3, then the number of integral values of
is
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P06-17 MAJOR TEST-3(MT-3) (JEE MAIN PATTERN)
DATE : 05-01-2018 | COURSE : VIJETA (01JP) C OD E - 0
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS :
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilators.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
4. Write you name and roll number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
5. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. On breaking the seals of the booklet check that it contains all the 90 questions and corresponding answer choices
are legible. Read carefully the Instructions printed at the beginning of each section.
B. Filling the ORS
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space
provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point
pen.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken
the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.
13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be
taken as final.
C. Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of Three parts (Physics Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists are two
section.
14. Section 1 contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has Four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which only ONE is correct.
15. Section 2 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).
D. Marking Scheme
16. For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section 2, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
I have read all the instructions and shall I have verified all the information filled by
abide by them the candidate.
...................................... ......................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator