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P06-17 C OD E - 0
Academic Session: 2018-19

MAJOR TEST-3(MT-3)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


(JEE MAIN PATTERN)
Target : JEE (Main+Advanced) 2018
Date: 05-01-2018 | Duration : 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 360

COURSE : VIJETA (01JP)

Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.

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PART – A 3. A steel ball of 50mm radius is kept on a

SECTION - I hole of concrete. The diameter of the hole


Straight Objective Type is 0.05 mm less then the diameter of the
This section contains 25 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) steel ball at 20oC. Coefficient of volume
and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is -6
expansion of the steel ball is 3.2x 10 /°C
correct.
and coefficient of volume expansion of the

1. If tan   then minimum force needed to concrete is 36x10-6/°C. At what temperature


stay block at rest is –
the ball will be inside the hole?
m 
(1) 30oC

(1) mgsin   mgcos  (2) 55oC
mgsin   mgcos  o
(2) (3) 65 C
1  2
o
(3) mgsin   mgcos  (4) 70 C
(4) Zero

2. An uniform hollow hemisphere of mass m


4. A rod of length L can be hinged at various
and radius r is released from rest on a
smooth horizontal surface with its open
points on it to work as a compound
face vertical initially. Maximum normal
reaction between hemisphere and ground
pendulum. At what distance from one end
during motion is –
of the rod should be hinged so that there

are only two point on the rod (each side of

centre of mass) for which time period is

same.
10mg
(1) (1) L/12
5
9mg (2) L/3
(2)
5
11mg (3) 5L /12
(3)
5 (4) 2L/3
12mg
(4)
5

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5. A student working with a spring mass 8. A man can swim with speed u with respect to
systems finds the values of mass, spring river. The width of river is d. The speed of the
constant and damping constant in CGS unit river is zero at the banks and increases
+3
as 90, 4.5 x 10 and 180 respectively. linearly to v0 till mid stream of the river then
What will be the time period of the spring decreases to zero to the other bank. When
mass system? man crosses the river in shortest time, drift is
(1) 2/7 equal to : (given u > v0)
ud
(2) 14  (1)
v0
 (3)    ud
(2)
2v 0
(4) 2/ 50
v 0d
(3)
2u
6. A sonometer wire vibrating in first overtone v 0d
(4)
has length of 31.25cm. Tension in the wire u
is 256N and mass per unit length is 9. A uniform sphere of mass m is positioned
10gm/m. When it is sounded together with between two horizontal planks A and B of
a tuning fork 10 beats are heard. If tension mass 2 m and m respectively as shown.
in the wire is slightly increased no beats Ground surface is smooth and friction
are heard. What is the possible frequency
between planks and sphere is sufficient so
of the tuning fork?
that no slipping takes place. Horizontal
(1) 502 Hz
(2) 510 Hz forces F1 and F2 are applied on plank so
(3) 505 Hz that acceleration of sphere is zero. Plank B
(4) None of these is moving toward right with acceleration a.
Which of the following is/are correct?
7. A travelling wave travelled in string in A
F2
+x direction with 2 cm/s, particle at x =0
oscillates according to equation y (in mm)
= 2 sin (t+/3). What will be the slope of
the wave at x = 3cm and t = 1s?
smooth
B F1
(1) – 3  / 2


(2) tan–1 – 3  / 2  (1) Both planks have same acceleration
(2) Net force on sphere is non-zero
17
(3) – 3  / 20 (3) F1 + F2 = ma
5
(4) – 3 (4) f = 5 ma

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10. Air offers a retardation of 6 m/s2 to a 12. A hinged construction has a rhombus made
particle. If it is projected vertically upward of 4 rods of length 2 3m . C is fixed. Vertex
with a speed of 96 m/s from ground then A is moving with a speed of 10 m/s as
2
the time of flight is : (g = 10 m/s ) shown and whole system is rotating about
(1) 19.2 s symmetrical axis with angular velocity
(2) 12 s 4 2 rad / s. What will be speed of vertex B
at this instant ?
(3) 18 s
B
(4) 24 s
C 30° A  = 10 m/s

11. A uniform rod is rested on a wall and its lower   4 2rad / s

end is tied to the wall with the help of a


(1) 10 m/s
horizontal string of negligible mass as shown. (2) 7 m/s

Length of rod is L and height of the wall is h. (3) 20 m/s


(4) 14 m/s
What will be tension in the string?

13. In adiabatic container with adiabatic piston


contains 4gm N2 gas and 0.8 gm He gas
are separated by a weakly conducting light
 partition. Both piston and partition are free
 to move. Initial temperature of N2 and He
h gases are ‘3 T0’ and ‘T0’ respectively.
Initially system is at Rest and in
equilibrium. Final temperature of the gas is.

mg sin 
(1)
2hcos  N2

mg cos2  He
(2)
2hsin 
(1) 2T0
mg sin  cos2  3T0
(3) (2)
2h 2
7T0
mg (3)
(4) 4
2hsin  cos2 
5T0
(4)
2

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14. An open cubical container of side ‘H’ is filled 16. A uniform rod of length  is applied upon by
H
with a liquid up to height . Mass of liquid two forces at its either end as shown.
4
inside container is ‘m’ (neglect atmospheric Surface is smooth. Which of the following
Pressure). When container is moved with
maximum possible acceleration what will be option is correct ?
the value of force applied by liquid on front
wall parallel to plane of paper? F F
a
(1) Length of rod will remains same

(2) Length of rod will decrease

H (3) Length of rod will increase


4 (4) None of these
(1) mg
(2) 2mg
mg
(3)
3 17. A transverse wave is travelling in
2mg
(4) x-direction on a string having tension 5N
3
15. Two particles P and Q are having initial and linear mass density 50gm/m. Shape of
velocities 2V0 and V0 respectively in
horizontal x-y plane as shown in figure. the string at a particular instant is shown in
P moves with constant velocity and Q
moves with constant acceleration of 5m/s2 figure. Both x and y are in meter. Tangent
opposite to direction of initial velocity. at point P of string makes angle 45º with
 10 
 V0  m / s  . Speed of P relative to Q x-axis. What is the speed of point P of
3 
 
when they are at minimum separation is: string in m/s ?
y

2V0 V0

o
30
x (1) 10
P Q(3,0)
(2) 5
(1) 10 m/s
(3) 0.5
(2)2 10 m/s
(4) 1
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

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18. Two disks A and B are free to rotate about 20. Two particle are projected from an inclined

their respective vertical smooth axis plane as shown. A is projected up the

passing through their centre as shown. (RA incline and B down the incline. If RA and RB

= 2RB, A = 16 B). Disc is rotating about its RB


are range of A and B respectively then
RA
axis with an angular velocity of
will be equal to :
5 rad/sec. The two disks are moved near to
u
each other till they are in contact. What will
30º B
be the angular velocity of the smaller disk
u
when slipping between two stops ? 30º
A
 = 37º
B

3 3 4
(1)
3 3 4

3 3 4
A (2)
3 3 4
(1) 8 rad/s
3 3 2
(2) 4 rad/s (3)
3 3 2
(3) 12 rad/s
4 3
(4) 5 rad/s (4)
4 3

21. In an refrigerator, compressor motor is of


19. In a resonance tube experiment, resonance 1 kW power. Heat is transferred from –3ºC
to 27ºC. What amount of heat is coming out
occurs first at 32.0 cm and then at
of the refrigerator per second assuming
100.0 cm. What is the percentage error in
that efficiency of refrigerator is 50% of a
the measurement of end correction. perfect engine ?
(1) 2.5% (1) 5 kJ

(2) 5% (2) 6 kJ

(3) 7.5% (3) 19 kJ


(4) 10% (4) 20 kJ

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22. Equation motion of a particle is given as 24. A skier plans to ski a smooth fixed

x = A cos(t)2. Motion of the particle is hemisphere of radius R. He starts from rest

(1) Periodic and oscillatory from a curved smooth surface of height

(2) Periodic but not oscillatory (R/4). The angle  at which he leaves the

(3) Oscillatory but not periodic hemisphere is

(4) Neither oscillatory nor periodic

23. Point B of the rod is always in contract with

block and point A of the rod is moving

parallel to ground with 5 m/s. Block also (1) cos–1 (2/3)

has velocity of 5 m/s. What will be speed of


(2) cos–1 (5/ 3 )
point B at this instant ?
(3) cos–1 (5/6)

B
(4) cos–1 (5/ 2 3 )

5 m/s

A 53º
5 m/s 25. The work done in increasing the size of a

15 soap film from 10 cm × 6 cm to 10 cm × 11


(1) m/s
2
cm is 3 × 10–4 J. The surface tension of the
(2) 5 m/s
film is :
5
(3) 15 m/s (1) 3.0 × 10–2 N/m
2
(2) 6.0 × 10–2 N/m
5
(4) 13 m/s
2 (3) 1.5 × 10–2 N/m

(4) 11.0 × 10–2 N/m

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28. A car starts accelerating with an
SECTION - II
Integer value correct Type 1 2
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to acceleration of m/s when its speed was
each question is a single digit integer, ranging 3
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
18 km/h. If the displacement of car in nth
26. A trolley is moving in horizontal x – y plane
with a velocity of 36 km/h towards x- minute after it starts accelerating is 4.8 km
direction. When trolley is at (100, 0, 0), a
bullet is fired with a muzzle velocity of then n is :
50 2 m/s at angle of 45º with horizontal in
a plane making 53º with x-axis as shown.
After 5 sec bullet splits into two equal part.
One of the part strikes trolley 5 sec after
splitting. If the distance of other part from 29. A composite rod whose upper half has a
origin is M  100 2 at this instant then,
M is : (Assume mass of bullet is very small 
density and lower half has a density of
in comparison to trolley). 4
y
3
is immersed vertically in a liquid of
2

density . To what length it should be

immersed so that centre of buoyancy

53° coincides with centre of mass of the rod ?


36 km/h
x
suppose the length is . Find x.
14
27. A frustum of a uniform solid cone has base
radius R and height H as shown. Radius of
R
top surface is . If height of centre of /2
2
11 H
mass of frustum is from base then n
4n
will be.
R/2
/2

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30. An uniform sphere is at rest and in
equilibrium with the help of two vertical
strings of unequal length larger string has
length ' 2 ' and shorter string has length
'7 '
. Both strings and centre of sphere
5
are in one plane.

Radius of sphere is . If ratio of


fundamental frequency in longer wire to
shorter wire is k then 5 5k is (both strings
are of same material)

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PART – B 33. Dissolving 180 g of glucose (mol. wt. 180) in

1000 g of water gave a solution of density


Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12,
N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is :

Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, (1) 1.78 M (2) 2.00 M
Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,
(3) 0.97 M (4) 2.22 M
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137,
Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
34. How many litres of water must be added to
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type 2 litre aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for
(1) 10 L (2) 0.9 L
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(3) 2 L (4) 18 L
31. The Poisson's ratio () for O2 is 1.4. Select
2cal
incorrect option for O2 (R = ): 35. Molar volume of an Ideal gas is 0.45 dm /mol.
3
mol K

(1) CV = 5 cal/mol K The molar volume of air (assuming as real


(2) cV or sV = 0. 45 cal/mol K
gas) under the same condition is
R
(3) CP = 0.9 dm3/mol. The point which corresponds to
 –1
R air in the given graph is :
(4) CV =
(  – 1)

2.0 D
32. The electrons identified by quantum
Z 1.5 C
numbers n and  : (Compressibility 1.0 B
factor)
(a) n = 5,  = 1 (b) n = 5,  = 0 0.5 A
(c) n = 4,  = 2 (d) n = 4,  = 1
P
can be placed in order of increasing energy
(1) B
as:
(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (2) D
(2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(3) A
(3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(4) None of these
(4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)

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P 38. When 1 mole of strong diprotic acid H2A
36. 'A' 'B' (completely ionised) is completely neutralized
60 g He 96 g O2 by NaOH then amount of heat is released is
–1
"E" KJ mol . Calculate amount of heat
L1 L2
released when one mole of weak monoprotic
A cylindrical diathermic chamber fitted with
acid HB is completely neutralized by NaOH.
movable, massless & frictionless piston.
(1) E
Initially piston was at rest by the stop pin P
as shown in figure. Compartment (A) is filled (2) less than E/2

with 60g He gas & compartment (B) is filled (3) greater than E/2

with 96 g of O2 gas at 27°C. Assume ideal (4) None of these


L1
behaviour of gas, then calculate ratio , if
L2 39. For a reversible reaction KC > KP at 298 K and

stop pin is suddenly removed ? H = +200 KJ, the forward reaction is not
(1) 2 favoured by :

(2) 4 (1) Increase in pressure

(3) 5 (2) Increase in temperature

(4) 6 (3) Decrease in pressure

(4) Increase in concentration of reactants


37. For a real gas (vander Waal's gas) at Boyle's

temperature and low pressure, the pressure 40. Enthalpy of atomisation of diamond is

may be (Vm  molar volume) : 600 kJ/mol. C (diamond)  C (g).

(1) a.b.Vm Find the bond energy of C – C bond.

Vm (1) 30 KJ/mol.
(2)
a.b
(2) 300 KJ/mol.
a
(3) (3) 15 KJ/mol.
Vm . b
(4) None of these
b
(4)
a. Vm

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41. A(s) 2B(g) + C(g) 44. When borax is dissolved in water :

The above equilibrium was established by (1) B(OH)3 is formed only

initially taking A(s) only. At equilibrium, B is (2) [B(OH)4]– is formed only

removed so that its partial pressure at new (3) both B(OH)3 and [B(OH)4]– are formed

equilibrium becomes 1/3rd of original total (4) [B3O3(OH)4]– is formed only

pressure. Ratio of total pressure at new 45. Correct order of bond strength for the
equilibrium and at initial equilibrium will be : following molecule or ions is :

 (1) 2/3 (2) 14/13 (1) O2  O2  O2

(3) 5/3  (4) 17/19 (2) O2  O2  O2–

(3) O2  O2–  O2


42. Determine the pH of an acidic buffer solution

(HA + NaA) having acid and salt (4) O2  O2–  O2

concentration respectively 0.1 M and 0.2


46. Identify the X and Y in the following reaction.
M. (Given pKa = 4.7, log 2 = 0.30, NH2
log 5 = 0.70) NaNO2, HCl 
  X  Y
H2O, 5ºC H2O
(1) 4
+ –
OH N2Cl
(2) 5

(3) 3 (1) X = Y=

(4) None of these OH

43. Which of the following species is aromatic : (2) X = Y=

+ –
N2Cl OH
(1) (2)
(3) X = Y=

N2Cl
(3) (4)
(4) X = Y=
O

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47. Which of the following order is correct ? 50. The correct stability order of following species
is :
(1) B < C < N < O (First ionisation energy)

(2) Li < Na < Rb < K (size)

(3) Cl > F > Br >  (Magnitude of Heg.)

(4) F < O < N < C (Electronegativity)


(1) x > y > z (2) y > x > z
(3) x > z > y (4) z > x > y
48. Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) Double chain silicates are known as 51. Which of the following is the pair of functional
isomers ?
amphiboles.
OH
(2) In cyclic silicates two oxygen atoms per (1) &
O

tetrahedron are shared. O

(3) Orthosilicates contain discrete (SiO4)4– O O Ph


(2) Ph &
O
units.
O
(4) All are correct statements NH
(3) CH3 &
O NH2
49. What is the product of the following reaction O O

HBr (4) O & CH=O


CH3–C=CH2 peroxide
CH3
52. A solid compound 'X' on heating gives CO2
(1) CH3–CH–CH2–Br
gas and a residue. The residue mixed with
CH3
water forms 'Y'. On passing an excess of CO2
Br
(2) CH3–C–CH3 through 'Y' in water, a clear solution, 'Z' is
CH3 obtained. On boiling 'Z', compound 'X' is

(3) CH3–CH–CH–Br reformed. The compound 'X' is :


CH3 Br
(1) Na2CO3 (2) K2CO3
(4) None of these
(3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) CaCO3

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53. The d-orbitals which are not involved in SECTION - II

hybridisation of central atom in ICl4– : Integer value correct Type

(1) dz2 , dx 2 – y 2 This section contains 5 questions. The answer to

each question is a single digit integer, ranging from


(2) dx 2 – y 2 , dxy, dyz, dzx
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
(3) dz2 , dxy, dyz, dxz

56. The degencracy of 1st excited state of H atom


(4) dxy, dxz, dyz
is ________ . (Ignore effect of spin)

54. Which alcohol gives instant turbidity with

Lucas reagent: 57. How many of the following statement(s) is/are

(1) CH3–CH2–OH true for free expansion of ideal gas in an

(2) CH3–CH–CH3 insulated container?

OH 1 It is a Reversible process.

CH3 2. H = 0, for this process.


(3) CH3–C–CH3
3. E = 0, for this process.
OH
4. (PV) = 0
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
5. T = 0, for this process.

6. S surrounding. = 0, for this process.


55. The IUPAC name of C6H5COCI is :
7. S system =0 , for this process.
(1) Benzyl chloride
8. S total = 0, for this process.
(2) Benzene chloro ketone

(3) Benzene carbonyl chloride

(4) Chloro phenyl ketone

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58. What is the ratio of moles of Mg(OH)2 and

Al(OH)3 present in 1 litre saturated aqueous

solution of Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 (Given Ksp

–12
of Mg(OH)2 = 4 × 10 and Ksp of Al(OH)3 is

–33
1 × 10 ).

Report your answer after multiplying by

–17
10 .

59. How many carbonyls of formula C5H10O are

possible :

60. How many monochloro structural isomeric

products are formed when isohexane is

treated with Cl2/h:

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PART – C 64. In a cricket match against Zimbabwe, Azhar
wants to bat before Jadeja and Jadeja wants
SECTION - I to bat before Ganguli. Number of possible
Straight Objective Type batting orders with the above restrictions, if
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. the remaining eight team members are
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for prepared to bat at any given place, is
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
11!
(1)
10
r 10  1 8r  8!
61. Sum of the series  (–1)
r 0
Cr  r  2r  is
3 3  11!
(2)
10 3
(1) 2  1
3 20 11!
(3)
10 10 3!
2  1
(2)   –   11!
3 9 (4)
2!
10
(3) 3  1
3 20 65. An Investigator interviewed 100 students to
10
6 1 determine the performance of three drinks
(4)
320 milk, coffee and tea. The investigator
reported that 10 students take all three
62. A point A(2, 1) is outside the circle drinks, 20 students take milk and coffee, 30
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 & AP, AQ are students take coffee and tea; 25 students
tangents to the circle. The equation of the take milk and tea; 12 students take milk only.
circle circumscribing the triangle APQ is: 5 students take coffee only and 8 student
take tea only. Then the number of students
(1) (x + g) (x  2) + (y + f) (y  1) = 0
who did not take any of the three drinks is  .
(2) (x + g) (x  2)  (y + f) (y  1) = 0

(3) (x  g) (x + 2) + (y  f) (y + 1) = 0 The value of is equal to
4
(4) (x + g) (x 2)  (y + f) (y  1) = 0 (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
63. The range of ‘’ for which the point (, ) lies
(4) 5
in minor arc bounded by the curves
x2 + y2 = 1 and x + y = 1 is
66. The joint equation of 2 altitudes of an
1 1
(1) << equilateral triangle is
2 2
x 2  3y 2  4x  6 3 y  5  0 . The third
1 1
(2) – << altitude has equation
2 2
(1) x  2  0
1
(3)  > (2) y  3
2
1 (3) x = 2
(4) 0 < <
2 (4) None of these

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67. Equation of the hyperbola whose axes are 71. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 and 5x2 + 6x + 12 = 0 have
the axes of coordinates (focus lying on a common root. where a, b and c are sides of
x-axis) and which passes through the point a triangle ABC, then

(–3, 1) and has eccentricity 3 can be (1) ABC is obtuse angled

(1) x2 – 3y2 = 6 (2) ABC is acute angled


2
(2) x – 2y = 7
2 (3) ABC is right angled
2
(3) 3x – y = 7
2 (4) no such triangle exists
(4) 2x2 – y2 = 17
2
72. If ( x  5) x 5 x  6
= 1, then
2 2
68. If  = a – (b – c) ,  is the area of the ABC (1) sum of all integral solutions is 11
then tan A = ? (2) sum of all integral solutions is 16
4 (3) product of all integral solutions is 144
(1)
15 (4) product of all integral solutions is 30
8
(2)
15
73. If a > b > 0 are two real numbers, the value of,
11
(3)
15 ab  (a – b) ab  (a – b) ab  (a – b) ab  ....

13 is
(4)
15 (1) independent of b
(2) independent of a
69. If the expansion of (x + y)m has 3 consecutive (3) independent of both a & b
coefficients in A.P., then smallest possible (4) dependent on both a & b.

value of m can be (here m  N) is


(1) 9 74. Distance between the parallel tangents
(2) 7 4 x 2 y2
having slopes – to the ellipse + = 1,
(3) 2 3 18 32
(4) 14 is
(1) 24
70. Number of four digit number between 7000 24
(2)
and 8000, such that the thousands digit is 5
equal to the sum of other three digit, is 48
(3)
(1) 36 5
(2) 38 96
(4)
(3) 15 5
(4) 18

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  1 79. If a, b, c and d are four positive real numbers
75. –1 < cos  2x –  < has solution set
 3 2 such that abcd = 1, then the minimum value
 5  of (1 + a) (1 + b) (1 + c) (1 + d) is
(1) x    2n,  2n  , n  I
 3 3  (1) 4
(2) 1
(2) x     2n, 2  2n    2  2n, (2n  1)  ,
3 3   3  (3) 16
nI (4) 18
(3) x     2n,   2n      2n, 5  2n  ,
3   3 
80. If a,b,c denote sides of a triangle ABC with
nI
usual notation such that c2 = a2 + b2,
(4) x     n, 2  n    2  n, (n  1)  ,
3 3   3  2s = a + b + c, then 4s(s – a)(s – b) (s – c) =
nI (1) s4
(2) b2c2
76. The series of natural numbers is divided into
groups as (1), (2, 3, 4), (3, 4, 5, 6, 7), (3) c2a2
(4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10) ......... (4) a2b2
If sum of elements in the 20th group is , then
 is equal to
(1) 1368 81. The mean and standard deviation of the
2
(2) (38) marks of 200 candidates in half early exam
(3) (39)2
were found to be 40 and 15 respectively. The
(4) 38 × 39
marks of the candidates exceeds their marks
77. Eccentricity of ellipse by 10 in final exam. The mean and standard
2 (x – y + 1)2 + 3 (x + y + 2)2 = 5 is
deviation of the marks in final exam are
1
(1) respectively?
2
1 (1) 50, 25
(2)
3 (2) 50, 15
1 (3) 30, 25
(3)
2 (4) 30, 15
2
(4)
3 82. The number of distinct terms in the expansion
15
1 1 1  1 1 
78. If Sn = 1 + + + ...... + , n  N, of  x   x 2  2  is/are (with respect to
2 22 2n  1  x x 
1
then least value of n such that 2 – Sn < is different power of x)
100
(1) 8 (1) 255
(2) 7 (2) 61
(3) 9 (3) 127
(4) 6 (4) 99

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n
SECTION - II
83. If (1 + x)(1 + x2)(1 + x4)....(1 + x128) = x r
,
Integer value correct Type
r 0
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to
each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
then n is equal to
0 to 9 (both inclusive).
(1) 256
86. If (1 – cot 1º) . (1 – cot 2º) . (1 – cot 3º) .......
(2) 255
n
(1 – cot 44º) = 2n , then is equal to
(3) 254 11

(4) 257

87. A circle touches the line y = x at the point


84. A ray of light travels along a line y = 4 and (2, 2) and has its centre on y-axis, then
square of its radius is
strikes the surface of curve y2 = 4(x + y).

Then the equation of the line along which the


88. Out of 25 consecutive natural numbers, two
reflected ray travels is
numbers can be chosen in  ways such that
(1) x = 0 their sum is divisible by 2.Then /36 is.

(2) x= 2

(3) x + y = 4
89. If ,  are the roots of 4x2 – 15x +  = 0,
(4) 2x + y = 4 where   R, such that 1 <  < 2 and 2 <  <
3, then the number of integral values of
 is

85. If tan x + tan y = 25 and cot x + cot y = 30,


90. Three circles with radius r1 , r2 , r3 touch one
then tan (x + y) equals to
another externally. The tangents at their point
(1) 100 of contact meet at a point whose distance

(2) 150 from a point of contact is 2. The value of


 r1 r2 r3 
(3) 250   is equal to
 r1  r2  r3 
(4) 200

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P06-17 MAJOR TEST-3(MT-3) (JEE MAIN PATTERN)
DATE : 05-01-2018 | COURSE : VIJETA (01JP) C OD E - 0
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS :
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilators.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
4. Write you name and roll number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
5. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. On breaking the seals of the booklet check that it contains all the 90 questions and corresponding answer choices
are legible. Read carefully the Instructions printed at the beginning of each section.
B. Filling the ORS
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space
provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point
pen.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken
the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.
13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be
taken as final.
C. Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of Three parts (Physics Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists are two
section.
14. Section 1 contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has Four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which only ONE is correct.
15. Section 2 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).
D. Marking Scheme
16. For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section 2, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

Name of the Candidate : Roll Number :

I have read all the instructions and shall I have verified all the information filled by
abide by them the candidate.

...................................... ......................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

Resonance Eduventures Ltd.


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