Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 24

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

1. Which of the following statements regarding extra articular involvements in rheumatoid arthritis is FALSE?

a. [X] Appear before articular involvements

b. ] Are determined by lympho-plasmocytic infiltrates and/or vasculitic processes

c. ] Appear in severe cases

d. ] Are constantly accompanied by high titers of rheumatoid factor

e. ] In general, the concentration of circulating immune complexes is increased

[

[

[

[

2. The following joints are usually involved in rheumatoid arthritis:

a. ] Distal interphalangeal joints

b. ] Sacroiliac joints

c. ] Interapophyseal joints of the lumbar column

d. [X] Atlanto-axial joint

e. [

[

[

[

] Acromio clavicular joint

3. Articular involvement in rheumatoid arthritis has the following characteristic:

a. [X] Symmetric

b. [

] Oligoarticular

c. [

] Migratory

d. [

] Monoarticular

e. [

] Stationary

4. Respiratory involvement in rheumatoid arthritis can have the following manifestation:

a. ] Decrease in carbon monoxide diffusion capacity

b. ] Pulmonary thromboembolism

c. ] Pneumothorax

[

[

[

d. ] Hilar adenopathy

e. [X] Pleurisy

[

5. Synovial fluid in rheumatoid arthritis has the following characteristic:

a. ] Increased level of glucose

b. ] Decreased concentration of immunoglobulins

c. [X] Presence of rheumatoid factor

d. ] Increase in complement concentration

e. ] Increase of LDH concentration

[

[

[

[

6. Which of the following statements regarding methotrexate treatment in rheumatoid arthritis is FALSE:

a. ] Clinical effects appear quicker in case of gold salts treatment

b. ] Is used in cases of increased immunological activity

c. ] Oral administration is done once a week

[

[

[

d. [X] The treatment is short term

e. [

] Hepatic toxicity demands periodic hepatic enzyme control

7. Which is the most common adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug treatment?

a. [X] Gastro-intestinal tract involvement

b. ] Hematopoietic disorders

c. ] Nephrotoxic action

d. ] Neurotoxic action

[

[

[

e. ] Allergic reactions

[

8. Which DMARD drug in rheumatoid arthritis is considered the “gold standard”?

a.

b. [X] Methotrexate

c. ] Azathioprine

d. ] Hydroxychloroquine

[

[

[

] Sulfasalazine

1

Rheumatology - CS

e. [

] Cyclophosphamide

Bessisy Tamir M1248

9. Which reno urinary complication can be encountered in severe and prolonged cases of rheumatoid arthritis?

a.

b. [X] Renal amyloidosis

c. ] Micronephrolitiasis

d. ] Glomerulonephritis

e.

[

[

[

[

] Pyelonephritis

] Urethritis

10. The characteristic modification for rheumatoid arthritis is:

a. ] Decreased bone mineral density

b. ] The osteophyte

c. ] Transient inflammatory synovitis

d. ] Osteoarthritic changes

e. [X] Persistent inflammatory synovitis

[

[

[

[

11. The major genetic factor in rheumatoid arthritis is:

a.

b. [X] HLA DR4

] HLA DR5

[

c. [

] HLA Dw16

d. [

] HLA Dw15

e. [

] HLA B27

12. An infectious agent possibly involved in the etiology of rheumatoid arthritis can be:

a. [X] Epstein Bar virus

b. [

] Herpes virus

c. [

] Mycoplasma

d. ] Streptococcus hemolyticus

e. ] Chlamydia trachomatis

[

[

13. The major cellular population in rheumatoid synovitis is:

a. [

] T lymphocytes

b. [

] B lymphocytes

c. ] TCD8+ lymphocytes

d. [X] TCD4+ memory lymphocytes

e.

[

[

] Macrophages

14. Which of the following articular components determines pain in rheumatoid arthritis?

a. [

] Ligaments

b. [

] Cartilage

c. ] Subchondral bone

[

d. [X] Synovial membrane

e.

[

] Capsule

15. The characteristic radiological change in rheumatoid arthritis is:

a. ] Syndesmophytes

b. ] Joint space narrowing

c. ] Osteophytes

d. [X] Bony erosions

e.

] Bony sequestra

[

[

[

[

16. The use of methotrexate in rheumatoid arthritis presumes the supplementation with:

a. ] Cyanocobalamin

[

b. [

] Thiamine

c. [

] Ascorbic acid

d. [

] Vitamin D

e. [X] Folic aid

2

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

17. The inflammatory process in rheumatoid process begins with one of the following articular components:

a.

b. [X] Synovium

c.

d. ] Subchondral bone

e.

[

[

[

[

] Joint capsule

] Cartilage

] Ligament

18. Choose the most correct description of the articular syndrome in rheumatoid arthritis:

a. [X] Chronic, additive, peripheral, symmetric polyarthritis

b. ] Chronic, migratory, peripheral, symmetric oligoarthritis

c. ] Chronic, migratory, peripheral, symmetric polyarthritis

d. ] Chronic, additive, peripheral, asymmetric polyarthritis

e. ] Chronic, additive, peripheral, symmetric polyarthritis with axial involvement

[

[

[

[

19. The incidence of rheumatoid arthritis is:

a. ] Approximately 0.2/1000 in women and 0.5/1000 in men

b. ] Approximately 10% of the general population

c. ] Equal between sexes

d. ] Higher in male patients

e. [X] Approximately 0.5/1000 in women and 0.2/1000 in men

[

[

[

[

20. The prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis is:

a. ] Equal between sexes

b. ] Approximately 10% of the general population

c. [X] Approximately 1.7% of women and 0.7% of men

d. ] Higher in male patients

e. ] Approximately 0.7% of women and 1.7% of men

[

[

[

[

SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS

21. What is NOT characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. [

] Pneumonitis

b. [

] Pericarditis

c. [

] Endocarditis

d. [X] Eosinophilic endocarditis

e.

[

] Myocarditis

22. What hematologic abnormality is NOT characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. [X] Leukocytosis

b. ] Leucopenia

c. ] Hemolytic anemia

d. ] Thrombocytopenia

e. ] Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

[

[

[

[

23. Which heart valve is most frequently involved in systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. [X] Aortic

b. [

] Mitral

c. [

] Tricuspid

d. [

] Pulmonary

e. ] Mitral and tricuspid

[

24. Which of the following is the most characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. ] Mitral insufficiency

b. ] Mitral stenosis

[

[

c. ] Aortic insufficiency

[

3

Rheumatology - CS

d. [X] Aortic stenosis

e. [

] Tricuspid insufficiency

Bessisy Tamir M1248

25. The main urinary sign in lupus glomerulonephritis is:

a. [

] Hematuria

b. [

] Leukocyturia

c. [X] Proteinuria

d. [

] Uraturia

e. [

] Cast uria

26. Which variant of lupus nephritis has the worst prognosis?

a. ] Minimal mesangial lupus nephritis

b. ] Mesangio proliferative lupus nephritis

c. ] Inactive focal sclerotic lupus nephritis

d. [X] Diffuse sclerotic (>90% sclerotic glomeruli) lupus nephritis

e. [

[

[

[

] Membranous (proteinuria 3g/day) lupus nephritis

27. Lupus cells are:

a. ] Macrophages, which have phagocytosed nuclei of degraded leukocytes

b. ] Lymphocyte aggregates

c. [X] Mature polymorphonuclear cells which have phagocytosed nuclei of degraded leukocytes

d. ] Aggregates of nuclei of degraded leukocytes

e. ] Degraded foamy cells

[

[

[

[

28. Which statement is characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. ] Serum IgG levels fall

b. ] Normal level of circulating immune complexes

c. ] ANA titer rises

[

[

[

d. ] Serum IgG levels fall

e. [X] Positive anti-CCP antibodies

[

29. Positive diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus requires the presence of no less than how many ACR criteria?

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

[

[X] 4 criteria

[

[

[

] 3 criteria

] 6 criteria ] 8 criteria ] 11 criteria

30. Select the adequate dose of corticosteroids for a patient with severe lupus nephritis:

a. ] 0.1 0.5 mg/kg/day

b. ] 0.75 mg/kg/day

c. [X] 1.0 2.0 mg/kg/day

d. ] 3.0 4.0 mg/kg/day

e. ] >4 mg/kg/day

[

[

[

[

31. Which statement is characteristic for systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. ] Activation of T-helper lymphocytes

b. ] Activation of T-suppressor lymphocytes

c. [X] Inhibition of B lymphocytes

d. ] Activation of T-suppressor lymphocytes

e. ] Activation of T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

[

[

[

[

32. The duration of corticosteroid treatment in systemic lupus erythematosus is:

a. [

] 1 month

b. [

] 3 6 months

c. [

] 1 year

d. [

] 2 years

4

Rheumatology - CS

e. [X] Lifelong

Bessisy Tamir M1248

33. The most frequent cardiac involvement in systemic lupus erythematosus is:

a. ] Myocarditis

b. ] Lupus endocarditis

c. ] Valvular disease

[

[

[

d. [X] Pericarditis

e. [

] Cardiac arrhythmias

34. The least toxic drug used in systemic lupus erythematosus is:

a. ] Chlorambucil

[

b. ] Cyclophosphamide

c. [X] Azathioprine

d. ] Methotrexate

[

[

e. ] Hydroxychloroquine

[

35. The most efficient drug used in the treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus is:

a. ] Methotrexate

[

b. ] Cyclophosphamide

c. ] Azathioprine

d. ] Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

e. [X] Corticosteroids

[

[

[

36. The most frequent manifestation of nervous system involvement in systemic lupus erythematosus is:

a. [

] Depression

b. [

] Anxiety

c. [

] Headache

d. ] Mild cognitive dysfunction

e. [X] Psychosis

[

37. Which patients carry the risk for developing lupus nephirits?

a. [

b. [X] With increased titer of anti-dsDNA antibodies

c. ] With hypocomplementemia

d. ] With markedly increased ESR

e. ] With thrombocytopenia

] With persistent urinary abnormalities

[

[

[

38. The most frequent manifestation of cardiac lupus is:

a. ] Myocarditis

b. ] Involvement of all valves

[

[

c. ] Libman Sacks endocarditis

[

d. ] Myocardial infarction

e. [X] Pericarditis

[

39. Which of the following antibodies has the highest incidence in systemic lupus erythematosus?

a. ] Anti centromere

A. [

b. ] Anti Jo1

B. [

c. ] Anti-streptolysin O or S

d. ] Anti hyaluronidase

e. E. [X] Anti dsDNA

C. [

D. [

40. The most characteristic skin manifestation in systemic lupus erythematosus is:

a. [X] Butterfly shaped malar rash

b. [

] Discoid rash

c. [

] Alopecia

d. ] Livedo reticularis

[

e. ] Raynaud phenomenon

[

5

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

SYSTEMIC VASCULITIS

41. Which of the following statements regarding vasculitides is correct?

a. ] The clinical picture is not determined by the caliber of involved vessels

b. ] Usually onsets with a process of excessive fibrosis of vessels

c. [X] Are chronic autoimmune diseases with chronic evolution

d. ] Have a common etiological factor

e. ] Are diseases with an exclusively secondary character

[

[

[

[

42. Which of the following vasculitides involve large caliber vessels?

a. [

b. [X] Takayasu arteritis (TA)

c. ] Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

d. ] IgA vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein)

e. ] Cryoglobulinemic vasculitis associated with viral hepatitis HCV

] Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

[

[

[

43. Which criterion is essential in the classification of vasculitides?

a. ] Suspected etiological factor

b. ] Age at the onset of the disease

c. ] Preferentially involved organs and systems

d. ] Evolutive character of the disease

[

[

[

[

e. [X] The caliber of involved vessels

44. Which of the following is an ANCA associated vasculitis?

a. ] Takayasu arteritis

b. ] Polyarteritis nodosa

c. [X] Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

d. ] IgA vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein)

e. ] Lupus vasculitis

[

[

[

[

45. Which of the following pathogenetical mechanisms is NOT characteristic for systemic vasculitides:

a. ] Formation of circulating immune complexes and their deposition in the vascular wall

b. ] Development of a chronic inflammatory process in the vessel wall

c. ] Ischemic changes in the adjacent tissues of the involved vessel.

d. ] Granuloma formation

[

[

[

[

e. [X] Progressive degeneration of the connective tissue

46. Which of the following clinical manifestations in NOT characteristic for systemic vasculitides:

a. ] Absence of the pulse or pulse deficit

b. ] Purpura or other types of eruptions

c. ] Mononeuritis multiplex

d. [X] Malar rash

e.

[

[

[

[

] Weight loss

47. Which viral infection is more frequently found in patients with polyarteritis nodosa?

a. ] Epstein Bar virus

b. ] Cytomegalovirus

c. ] HCV infection

[

[

[

d. [X] HBV infection

e. [

] Herpes infection

48. Which of the following statements regarding the clinical picture of the small caliber vessel vasculitides is true?

a. ] Palpable purpura is a rarely encountered manifestation in small caliber vessel vasculitides

b. ] A specific clinical sign is the deficit or even the absence of pulse

c. ] Along the small caliber vessels nodules can be found, which represent aneurisms of the vessel wall

d. [X] Mononeuritis multiplex is frequently encountered

[

[

[

6

Rheumatology - CS

e. [

Bessisy Tamir M1248

] Vessel involvement is not accompanied by an ischemic process

49. Which clinical manifestation is considered pathognomonic for polyarteritis nodosa?

a. [X] Livedo reticularis

b.

c. ] Subcutaneous nodules

[

[

] Arthritis

d. ] Glomerulonephritis

e. ] Iridocyclitis

[

[

50. Which renal manifestation is characteristic for polyarteritis nodosa?

a. ] Tubulo interstitial involvement

[

b. ] IgA glomerulonephritis

c. ] Polycystic kidney

d. [X] Interlobar artery involvement

e. [

[

[

] Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis

51. Which of the following clinical manifestations is not part of the ACR criteria for granulomatosis with

polyangiitis (Wegener)?

a. [

b. [X] Diffuse myalgia, muscle weakness, pain in the lower extremities

c. ] Urinary sediment changes (hematuria or red blood cell casts)

d. ] Radiological changes in the lungs (nodules, infiltrations, cavities)

e. ] Biopsy result revealing granulomas, leukocytoclastic vasculitis and necrosis

] Inflammatory changes of the oral and nasal cavities (painful ulcers, purulent discharge or hemorrhage)

[

[

[

52. Which of the following immunological tests has the highest specificity for granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)?

a. [

b. [X] ANCA antibodies against proteinase 3 (c ANCA MP3)

c. ] ANCA antibodies against myeloperoxidase (p ANCA MPO)

d. ] Antinuclear antibodies ANA

] Anti-CCP antibodies

[

[

e. ] Increased titer of circulating immune complexes (CIC)

[

53. Which of the following immunological investigations are especially important in the diagnosis of microscopic polyangiitis?

a. ] Antinuclear antibodies ANA

[

b. ] Circulating immune complexes

c. ] Antibodies against double stranded DNA

d. [X] ANCA antibodies against myeloperoxidase (p ANCA MPO)

e. [

[

[

] ANCA antibodies against proteinase 3 (c ANCA MP3)

54. In the clinical picture of IgA deposit vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein) dominates the following:

a. ] Bronchopulmonary manifestations

b. ] Renal involvement

[

[

c. [X] Skin manifestations in the form of petechial, hemorrhagic palpable purpura

d. ] Nasal and oral ulcers

[

e. ] Digital necrosis

[

55. IgA deposit vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein) is part of:

a. ] Large caliber vessel vasculitides

b. ] Medium caliber vessel vasculitides

[

[

c. [X] Small caliber vessel vasculitides

d. ] Various caliber vessel vasculitides

[

e. ] ANCA positive vasculitides

[

56. Skin and gastrointestinal manifestations in patients with IgA vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein) are the consequence of:

a. [

b. [X] Action of circulating immune complexes which drive the inflammatory process in the vascular wall

] Direct action of microbial toxins at tissue level

7

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

c. ] Lesions induced by excessive exposure to ultraviolet rays

d. ] Lesions induced by the antibodies on the endothelial cell

e. ] Direct action of certain drugs, vaccines

[

[

[

57. Which of the following immunological abnormalities is characteristic for IgA vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein)?

a. [

b. [X] Rise in circulating immune complexes (CIC) level

c. ] Positive anti phospholipid antibodies

d. ] Presence of ANCA antibodies

] Presence of the HBsAg antigen

[

[

e. ] Increase in IgG level

[

58. Which of the following drugs are not used in the treatment of IgA vasculitis (Henoch Schönlein)?

a. [

] Corticosteroids

b. [

] Antibiotics

c. ] Antiaggregants (dipyridamole, pentoxyphilline)

d. [X] Allopurinol

e. [

[

] Cyclophosphamide

59. Which change in the parameters of the complete blood count is characteristic for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg Strauss)?

a. ] Leukocytosis

b. ] Thrombocytopenia

c. ] Lymphopenia

d. [X] Eosinophilia

e.

[

[

[

[

] Monocytosis

60. Which of the following clinical findings allows the differential diagnosis between eosinophilic

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg Strauss) and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)?

a. ] Presence of pulmonary infiltrates

b. ] Constitutional symptoms (fever, weakness, myalgia)

c. [X] History of long standing bronchial asthma, allergic rhinitis, polinosis in the patient

d. ] Presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

e. ] Presence of microaneurisms in the pulmonary vessels, detected by MRI angiography

[

[

[

[

REACTIVE ARTHRITIS

61. Which is the most frequent extra articular manifestation in reactive arthritis?

a. ] Aortic insufficiency

b. ] Congestive cardiac failure

c. ] Circinate balanitis

[

[

[

d. ] Atrioventricular conduction disorders

[

e. [X] Acute anterior uveitis

62. Which immunogenetic marker plays an important role in the pathogenesis of reactive arthritis?

a. [X] HLA B27

b. [

] HLA DR3

c. [

] HLA DR4

d. [

] HLA B17

e. [

] HLA B23

63. Which joint is most frequently involved in reactive arthritis?

a. [X] Sacroiliac joint

b. ] Ankle joint

c. ] Distal interphalangeal joint

[

[

8

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

d. ] Proximal interphalangeal joint

e. ] Metacarpophalangeal

[

[

64. The Schöber test represents:

a. ] A method of appreciation of lumbar column extension

b. ] Appreciates the rotation movements of the lumbar column

c. ] Appreciates the extension of the dorsal column

d. [X] A method of appreciation of lumbar column flexion

e. [

[

[

[

] Establishes de degree of hip mobility

65. Select the first line treatment used in reactive arthritis:

a. [

] Corticosteroids

b. [

] Cytostatics

c. [X] Antibiotics

d. ] Antimalarial drugs

e.

[

[

] Gold salts

66. Reactive arthritis is more frequently found in:

a. ] Adults over 60 years old

b. ] Children under 5 years

c. [X] Adults between 18 and 40 years old

d. ] During puberty

e. ] In the 50 60 years decade

[

[

[

[

67. Out of the four species of Shigella, which was the most frequently involved in cases of reactive arthritis?

a. [

] Shigella sonnei

b. [

] Shigella boydii

c. ] Shigella dysenteriae

d. [X] Shighella flexneri

e.

[

[

] Shigella fonery

68. The following laboratory data are found in reactive arthritis, with one exception:

a. [X] Synovial fluid presents the features of specific inflammation with lymphocyte predominance

b. ] Moderate anemia

[

c. ] Elevated ESR in the acute phase of the disease

d. ] In the majority of ethnical groups 50 75% of patients are HLA B27 positive

e. ] Tendency to increased acute phase reactants

[

[

[

69. Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of reactive arthritis?

a. [X] Sulfasalazine up to 3 g/day can be benefic in patients with persistent reactive arthritis

b. ] Immunosuppressive agents are used in early stages

c. ] In severe cases Methotrexate 150 mg/week is used

d. ] Gold salts are useful as first line treatment options

e. ] Systemic glucocorticoids are used in tendinitis

[

[

[

[

70. Which is the most frequent form of articular involvement in reactive arthritis?

a. ] Symmetric polyarticular

b. ] Axial with lumbar ankyloses

c. ] Axial with cervical ankyloses

d. [X] Asymmetric oligoarticular

e.

[

[

[

[

] Mutilant

71. The most frequent manifestation of spinal column involvement in reactive arthritis is:

a. ] Spondylolisthesis

b. ] “Bamboo column”

[

[

c. [X] Spondyloarthritis

d. [

] Osseous ankylosis

9

Rheumatology - CS

e. [

] Osteoporotic fracture

Bessisy Tamir M1248

72. Methotrexate administered in reactive arthritis is most efficient in:

a. ] Sacroiliitis

[

b. ] Peripheral arthritis

c. ] Ocular involvement

[

[

d. [X] Renal complications

e. [

] Pulmonary complications

73. Which of the following DMARDs is recommended in the treatment of reactive arthritis?

a. ] Mofetil mycophenolate

[

b. [

] Cyclosporine A

c. [

] Phenylbutazone

d. ] D Penicillamine

[

e. [X] Methotrexate

74. Which manifestation is characteristic for reactive arthritis?

a. ] Diffuse vertebral ankylosis

b. ] Symmetrical syndesmophytes

c. ] Osteolysis

d. [X] Dactylitis

e. [

[

[

[

] Atlanto occipital joint involvement

75. An infectious episode precedes the symptoms of reactive arthritis by:

a. [X] 1 4 weeks

b. [

] 4 8 weeks

c. [

] 1 4 months

d. [

] 3 6 weeks

e. [

] 3 6 months

76. Reactive arthritis is defined as:

a. ] Reiter syndrome

b. ] The triad of: arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis

c. [X] A clinical syndrome in a host organism with genetic susceptibility, initiated by an etiological agent

d. ] Undifferentiated spondyloarthritis

e. ] Is mandatorily associated with HLA B27

[

[

[

[

77. Which of the following is NOT part of the bacteria incriminated in the onset of reactive arthritis?

a. [

] Yersinia

b. [

] Shigella

c. [

] Salmonella

d. [X] Staphylococcus epidermidis

e. [

] Ureaplasma urealyticum

78. For reactive arthritis it is characteristic:

a. ] Positive anti CCP antibodies

[

b. ] Positive rheumatoid factor

[

c. [X] Negative rheumatoid factor

d. ] Serum fall in IgA levels

e. ] Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

[

[

79. The most frequent agent implicated in urogenital reactive arthritis is:

a. [

] Shigella sonnei

b. [

] Shigella flexneri

c. [X] Chlamydia trachomatis

d. ] Shigella dysenteriae

e. ] Ureaplasma hominis

[

[

10

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS

80. Which of the following statements is correct when prescribing a NSAID in patients with psoriatic arthritis:

a. ] Two NSAIDS can be prescribed simultaneously

b. ] Administering an intravenous NSAID avoids gastrointestinal toxicity

c. ] A NSAID can be prescribed to a patient administering oral anticoagulants

d. [X] An allergy to a NSAID class denies the possibility to prescribe a NSAID form another class

e. [

[

[

[

] To avoid adverse reactions, the NSAID has to be prescribed in a minimally efficient dose and duration

81. The symptomatic treatment of psoriatic arthritis includes:

a.

b. [X] Glucocorticoids

c. ] Benzatinbenzylpenicillin

[

[

] Clarithromycin

d. [

] D-penicilamine

e. [

] Methotrexate

82. Arthritis mutilans is a form of what disease?

a. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

b. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

[

c. ] Reactive arthritis

[

d. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

e.

[

] Gout

83. The CASPAR diagnostic criteria are used in the diagnosis of:

a. [

b. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

c. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

d. ] Reactive arthritis

e.

] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

[

[

] Gout

84. Osteolytic lesions of phalanges and metacarpophalangeal joints with the aspect of “telescoped” fingers, are characteristic for:

a. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

b. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

[

c. ] Reactive arthritis

[

d. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

e.

[

] Gout

85. For the axial involvement of psoriatic arthritis is characteristic:

a. [X] Sacroiliitis (frequently unilateral)

b. ] Sacroiliitis (frequently bilateral)

c. ] Atlanto-occipital involvement

d. ] Sacroiliac joints are not involved

e. ] The spinal column is uniformly involved

[

[

[

[

86. Psoriatic onichodystrophy can be manifested with:

a. [X] Pitting (punctiform erosion)

b. ] Solid fusion

[

c. ] Fungal infections

d. ] Progressive fissuration

e. ] Nail hemorrhages

[

[

[

87. Distal interphalangeal joint osteolysis, extended skin lesions and nail dystrophy suggest the diagnosis of:

a. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

b.

c. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

[

[

] Gout

11

Rheumatology - CS

d. ] Osteoarthritis

[

e. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

Bessisy Tamir M1248

88. Which criterion is NOT characteristic for the diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis?

a. ] Negative rheumatoid factor

b.

c. ] Radiological proof of juxtaarticular new bone formation

d. [X] Positive anti-CCP antibodies

e. [

[

[

[

] Dactylitis

] Personal or family history of psoriasis

89. The management and treatment of psoriatic arthritis includes:

a. ] Antibiotic treatment

[

b. ] Hemodialysis

c. [X] DMARD treatment

d. ] Continuous prolonged treatment with NSAID

e. ] Immunostimulatory treatment

[

[

[

90. Choose the correct statement referring to Schöber’s test in psoriatic spondylitis:

a. [

b. [X] Measures lumbar stiffness

c. ] Measures the stiffness at the level of the dorsal segment of the spinal column

d. ] Is a specific test used to determine hip mobility

e. ] Reveals peripheral arthritis

] Is a test for the examination of the sacroiliac joints

[

[

[

91. Which of the following is not part of the spondyloarthritides?

a. ] Ankylosing spondylitis

b. ] Psoriatic arthritis

[

[

c. [X] Rheumatoid arthritis

d. ] SAPHO syndrome

e. ] Reactive arthritis

[

[

92. The indications for corticosteroid infiltrations in psoriatic arthritis are the following, EXCEPT:

a. [X] Synovitis

b. ] Arthritis mutilans

[

c. ] General lumbar radiculalgia

d.

e. ] Carpal tunnel syndrome

[

[

[

] Bursitis

93. The diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is established using the following criteria:

a. [X] CASPAR

b. [

] BASDAI

c. [

] EULAR

d. [

] ACR

e. [

] CREST

94. The most frequent form of psoriatic arthritis is:

a. [X] Symmetric oligoarthritis

b. ] Distal interphalangeal arthritis

[

c. ] Arthritis mutilans

[

d. ] Axial involvement

[

e. ] Large joint involvement

[

95. The CASPAR criteria are used for the diagnosis of:

a. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

b. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. ] Osteoarthritis

[

[

d. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

12

Rheumatology - CS

e. [

] Systemic sclerosis

Bessisy Tamir M1248

96. The aspect of “telescoped” fingers is characteristic for:

a. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

[

b. [

] Gout

c. [

] Osteoarthritis

d. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

e. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

97. The involvement of phalanges with the aspect of “pencil in cup” is characteristic for:

a. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

[

b. [

] Gout

c. [

] Osteoarthritis

d. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

e. [X] Psoriatic arthritis

98. The most frequent onset of psoriatic arthritis is at the age of:

a. [X] 35 55 years

b. [

] 20 35 years

c. [

] 15 25 years

d. [

] 55 70 years

e. [

] 65 75 years

99. For the radiological evaluation of psoriatic arthritis the following score is used:

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

[

[X] BASRI

[

[

[

] HAQ

] CASPAR

] EULAR

] GRAPPA

OSTEOARTHRITIS

100. The region of Bouchard nodules development in osteoarthritis are:

a. [X] Proximal interphalangeal joints

b. ] Distal interphalangeal joints

[

c. [

] Knee joint

d. [

] Elbow joint

e. ] Metatarsophalangeal joints

[

101. What laboratory indexes are characteristic for osteoarthritis?

a. [

] Anemia

b. [

] Leukocytosis

c. [

] Leukopenia

d. [

] Thrombocytosis

e. [X] Normal indexes

102. The involvement of which joints is not characteristic for primary generalized osteoarthritis:

a. ] Proximal interphalangeal joints

b. ] Distal interphalangeal joints

c. [X] Wrist joints

[

[

d. [

] Knee joints

e. [

] Hip joints

13

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

103. Choose the chondroprotective drugs used in osteoarthritis:

a. [

] Diclofenac

b. [

] Indomethacine

c. [X] Chondroitin and Glucosamine

d. ] Cyclophosphamide

e. ] Hydroxychloroquine

[

[

104. What drug is used for viscosupplementation in osteoarthritis?

a. [X] Hyaluronic acid

b. ] Ursodesoxycholic acid

c. ] Aminocapronic acid

[

[

d. [

] Acidolactic acid

e. [

] Malonic acid

105. The morning stiffness in osteoarthritis lasts:

a. [X] 5 -30 minutes

b. ] 30 minutes 1 hour

[

c. [

] 1 2 hours

d. [

] 2 5 hours

e. [

] All day long

106. What are metalloproteinases?

a. ] Cathepsins

b. ] Physiological tissue inhibitors

c. [X] Proteolytic systems produced by the chondrocyte

d. ] Growth factors, implicated in cartilage homeostasis

e. ] Cytokines with an essential role in the normal metabolism of cartilaginous tissue

[

[

[

[

107. Kellgren Lawrence stage I of osteoarthritis has the following characteristics:

a. [X] The absence of modifications

b. ] Moderate joint space narrowing, multiple osteophytes

c. ] Uncertain changes

d. ] Advanced changes (practically absent joint space, massive osteophytes)

e. ] Minimal changes minimal joint space narrowing, few osteophytes

108. Kellgren Lawrence stage III of osteoarthritis has the following characteristics:

[

[

[

[

a. [

b. [X] Moderate joint space narrowing, multiple osteophytes

c. ] Uncertain changes

d. ] Advanced changes (practically absent joint space, massive osteophytes)

e. ] Minimal changes minimal joint space narrowing, few osteophytes

] The absence of modifications

[

[

[

109. Nodular osteoarthritis has the following characteristics:

a. [

b. [X] Heberden and Bouchard nodules

] Diffuse osteoporosis

c. [

] Ulnar deviation

d. [

] Baker’s cyst

e. ] Genetic predisposition

[

110. What joint is rarely affected in osteoarthritis?

a. ] Ankle joint

b. ] Sacrococcygeal joint

c. [X] Knee joint

[

[

d. [

] Shoulder joint

e. [

] Hip joint

14

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

111. The factors which influence the intensity of pain in osteoarthritis are:

a. [X] Radiological changes stage

b. ] Patient’s sex

[

c. ] Environmental factors

[

d. ] Infectious factors

[

e. ] Period of year

[

112. Synovitis in osteoarthritis occurs more frequently in:

a.

b. ] Small joints of the hand

c. [X] Knee joints

[

[

] Hip joints

d. [

] Ankle joints

e. [

] Shoulder joints

113. The degenerative process in osteoarthritis is characterized by:

a. ] Usually leads to ankyloses

b. ] Has a rapid evolution

c. [X] Has a slow, insidious evolution

d. ] The onset is usually acute, presenting with synovitis

e. ] Presents with progressive inflammation

[

[

[

[

114. Secondary hip osteoarthritis is characterized by:

a. [X] Is usually unilateral

b. ] Is usually bilateral

c. ] Is strictly symmetrical

d. ] The disease onset is usually with associated homolateral knee osteoarthritis

e. ] The disease onset is usually with associated spinal column osteoarthritis

[

[

[

[

115. Choose the characteristic deformity in hand osteoarthritis:

a. ] Boutonniere” deformity

b. ] Ulnar deviation of fingers

c. ] “Swan-neck” deformity

d. [X] Heberden and/or Bouchard nodules

e. [

[

[

[

] “Camel-back” deformity

116. Bouchard nodules are localized at the level of:

a. [X] Proximal interphalangeal joints of the upper extremities

b. ] Proximal interphalangeal joints of the lower extremities

[

c. [

] Knee joints

d. [

] Elbow joints

e. [

] Shoulder joints

117. In hand osteoarthritis predominantly are affected:

a. ] Cubitocarpal joints

b. ] II and III metacarpophalangeal joints

c. ] IV metacarpophalangeal joints

d. ] Radiocarpal joints

e. [X] Risomelic joint of the thumb

[

[

[

[

118. Drugs with pathogenetical action in the treatment of osteoarthritis are:

a. ] Slow acting symptomatic anti osteoarthritis drugs.

b. ] Short acting symptomatic treatment

c. ] Analgesics

d. ] Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

e. [X] Bisphosphonates

[

[

[

[

15

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

119. Which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have a negative influence on the cartilage metabolism:

a.

b. [X] Nimesulide

[

] Diclofenac

c. [

] Meloxicam

d. [

] Etoricoxib

e. [

] Piroxicam

OSTEOPOROSIS

120. Osteoporosis is defined as a T-score on DEXA lower than:

a. ] 1.0 standard deviations (SD)

b. ] 1.1 standard deviations (SD)

c. ] -1.5 standard deviations (SD)

d. ] -2.0 standard deviations (SD)

e. [X] -2.5 standard deviations (SD)

[

[

[

[

121. The assessment of major osteoporotic fracture risk is done using:

a. [

b. [X] FRAX tool

c. ] DEXA densitometry

d. ] Ultrasound densitometry

e. ] Radiological exam

] Physical examination

[

[

[

122. Choose the clinical expression of osteoporosis:

a.

b. [X] Fragility fractures

c. ] Pain during bone percussion

d.

e. ] Marked weakness

[

[

[

[

] Fever

] Tetany

123. A T-score of -1.1 at DEXA densitometry in a 65-year old patient is defined as:

a.

b. [X] Osteopenia

c. ] Osteoporosis

d. ] Severe osteoporosis

e. ] Increased value

[

[

[

[

] Normal values

124. The daily necessity in Vitamin D in a person older than 50 years is:

a. ] 600 international units

[

b. ] 700 international units

[

c. [X] 800 international units

d. ] 900 international units

[

e. ] 1000 international units

[

125. The mechanism of action of denosumab is:

a. ] Tumor necrosis factor-α blocker

[

b. ] IL-1 antagonist

c. ] RANKL antagonist

d. [X] RANKL action modulator

e. [

[

[

] Osteoprotegerin antagonist

16

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

126. The T-score in DEXA densitometry is:

a. ] Total bone mass

[

b. ] The risk for fragility fracture in the next 10 years, presented in percent

c. [X] The number of standard deviations of the bone mineral density (BMD) compared with values in a healthy young subject

d. ] The number of standard deviations of the bone mineral density (BMD) compared with values in a healthy subject of the same age and sex

e. ] Irradiation dose used

[

[

[

127. The Z-score in DEXA densitometry is:

a. ] Total bone mass

[

b. ] The risk for fragility fracture in the next 10 years, presented in percent

c. ] The number of standard deviations of the bone mineral density (BMD) compared with values in a healthy young subject

d. [X] The number of standard deviations of the bone mineral density (BMD) compared with values in a healthy subject of the same age and sex

e. [

[

[

] Irradiation dose used

128. Select which of the following is a localization of major osteoporotic fractures:

a. [

] Clavicle

b. [

] Calcaneus

c. [

] Mandible

d. [X] Proximal third of the femur

e.

[

] Sternum

129. In premenopausal women, for the diagnosis of osteoporosis, is used the following:

a. [

b. [X] Z-score

] T-score, with final values adjustment

c. [

] X-score

d. [

] FRAX tool

e. ] Bone mineral density

[

130. Select the risk factor for the development of osteoporosis:

a. [

b. [X] Decreased body mass index (BMI)

c. ] Intense physical exercise

d. ] Excessive ionizing radiation exposure

e. ] Adequate vitamin D supplementation

] Repeated exposition to the sun

[

[

[

SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS

131. Which of the following factors DOES NOT promote de development of systemic sclerosis:

a. ] Vynil polychloride

b. ] Aromatic carbohydrates

[

[

c. [

] Toxic oils

d. [

] Bleomycin

e. [X] Prostacyclin

132. CREST syndrome is a variant of:

a. [X] Systemic sclerosis

b. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

c. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

d. ] Ankylosing spondylitis

[

[

17

Rheumatology - CS

e.

[

] Polymyositis

Bessisy Tamir M1248

133. The following are diagnostic criteria for systemic sclerosis, with the exception of:

a. ] Raynaud syndrome

b. ] “Indurative edema”, thickening of skin

[

[

c. [

] Pneumofibrosis

d. [

] Digital ulcers

e. [X] Dysphagia

134. Renal involvement in systemic sclerosis is clinically manifested with:

a. [X] Malignant arterial hypertension

b. ] Renal calculi

[

c. ] Acute pyelonephritis

d. ] Renal polycystosis

e. ] Nephroptosis

[

[

[

GOUT

135. Which of the following risk factors are incriminated in the etiology of gout?

a. [

] Female gender

b. [

] Males

c. [X] Hyperuricemia

d. ] Environmental factors such as climate and urbanization

[

e. ] Physical inactivity

[

136. Specify which are characteristic hand deformities that occur during the development of gout:

a. [

b. [X] Deformation "hand pseudorheumatoid"

c. ] Ulnar deviation of the fingers

d. ] Deformation in "gooseneck"

e. ] Ankylosis of distal interphalangeal joints

] Deformation in "buttonhole"

[

[

[

137. The common eye disease in patients with gout:

a. [

] Scleritis

b. [

] Episcleritis

c. [

] Glaucoma

d. [X] Not characteristic

e.

[

] Cataracts

138. What are the manifestations of renal damage in gout?

a. ] Mesangial glomerulonephritis

b. ] Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis

c. ] Renal cystic dysplasia

d. [X] Nephrolithiasis

e. [

139. Which of the following are most commonly affected joints in gout?

[

[

[

] Nephrotic syndrome

a. ] Distal interphalangeal

b. ] Proximal interphalangeal

c. ] Metacarpophalangeal

d.

e. [X] MTF I

[

[

[

[

] Knees

18

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

140. The muscle manifestations of gout are:

a. [

b. [X] No characteristic

c. ] Muscular atrophy

d. ] Calcinosis

] Spontaneous muscle pain

[

[

e. ] intramuscular phlegmon

[

141. Mechanism of gout identifies the following processes:

] Initially affect endothelial cell

a. [

b. [X] The penetration of urate in synovial fluid

c. ] Fibroblasts secrete more fibronectin

[

d. ] Inhibits fibroblasts, mast cells

[

e. ] Monokines hinder the development of fibrosis

[

142. What aspects in chest radiograph may be present in patients with gout?

a. [

b. [X] No characteristic

c. ] Crosslinking of the strip towards the base hilum

d. ] Honeycomb lung

e. ] Large opacities round

] Diffuse interstitial fibrosis

[

[

[

143. Patients with gout may show evolving radiological changes in the spine:

a. ] Vertebrae squares

b. ] Widening interlining articular space

c. ] Sindesmofites

[

[

[

d. ] Clamping of interlining articular joints facet

e. ] Appearance of column "bamboo cane"

[

[

144. In what damage glucorticosteroids are used in gout:

a. [

] Pulmonary

b. [

] Pericardium

c. [X] Joints refractory to NSAIDs and colchicine

d. [

] Muscle

e. [

] Stomach

145. Gout morphological criteria are considered:

a. ] Nodules Aschoft

[

b. ] Nodules Osler

[

c. ] Rheumatoid nodules

[

d. ] Nodules Geberden

[

e. [X] Nodules tofacee

146. The following preparations are used to treat gout, except:

a. ] Anti-inflammatory steroids

b.

c. [X] Immunosuppressive

[

[

] NSAIDs

d. [

] Colchicine

e. [

] Allopurinol

147. Gout nodules (tophi) are formations containing cell debris, leukocites and:

a. [

] Collagen

b. [

] Hydroxyapatite

c. [X] Uric acid

d. ] Lipoproteide

e. ] Charcot- Leyden crystals

[

[

19

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

148. Gout inducing preparations are criminalized following except:

a.

b. [X] Methylprednisolone

c.

d. ] Low-dose aspirin

e. ] Vitamin B12

[

[

[

[

] Furosemide

] Warfarin

149. Injury of gout tofus may be reflected in the high level of:

a. ] Factor Fon Willenbrant

[

b. ] Rheumatoid factor

[

c. [

] Hageman factor

d. [

] Cholesterol

e. [X] Uric acid in the blood

150. Arthralgia in gout can be explained by:

a. ] Colagenusis of synovium

b. ] The degeneration of proteoglycans of articular cartilage

c. [X] Submission of uric acid crystals in joints

d. ] Submission of apatite crystals in joints

e. ] Subchondral osteoporosis

[

[

[

[

151. Gout is a disease caused by inborn or acquired abnormality of metabolism:

a. [

] Carbohydrates

b. [X] Purine

c. [

] Hydrate

d. [

] Electrolyte

e. [

] Energy

152. What is the favourite affected joint (the debut) in gout?

a.

b. [X] MTF I

[

] Radio-Carp

c. [

] Knees

d. [

] Shoulders

e. [

] Bend

153. Bone erosions "punched-out", radiographically confirmed is essential criteria for:

a. ] Ankylosing Spondylitis

b. ] Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

c. ] Rheumatoid arthritis

[

[

[

d. ] Rheumatic fever

[

e. [X] Gout

154. What is usually the first manifestation of gout?

a. [X] MTF I joint arthritis

b. [

] Asthma

c. [

] Nephritis

d. [

] Pneumonitis

e. ] Recurrent oral and genital ulcers

[

20

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

POLYMYOSITIS / DERMATOMYOSITIS

155. The diagnosis of dermatomyositis is established based on the following criteria, with the exception of:

a. ] General weakness

[

b. ] Serum elevation of muscular enzymes

c. [X] Bone destruction

d. ] Electromyographic abnormalities

e. ] Muscular necrosis

[

[

[

156. The majority of patients with polymyositis and anti-Jo1 antibodies belong to the following phenotype:

a. [X] Myositis associated with interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

b. ] Mixed connective tissue disease

[

c. ] Systemic lupus erythematosus

d. ] Sjögren syndrome

e. ] CREST syndrome

[

[

[

157. Symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux in dermatomyositis are caused by:

a. [

b. [X] Inferior esophageal sphincter dysfunction

c. ] Cholecystitis

d. ] Superior esophageal sphincter dysfunction

e. ] Enzymopathies

] Involvement of pharyngeal striated muscle

[

[

[

158. For the diagnosis of polymyositis the essential exploration is:

a. ] Magnetic resonance imaging

b. ] Skeletal scintigraphy

c. [X] Muscle biopsy

d. ] Computer tomography

e. ] Pancreatic enzymes assessment

[

[

[

[

MIXED CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISEASE

159. Mixed connective tissue disease is defined as:

a. ] The association of 2 or more diffuse connective tissue diseases

[

b. ] The association of 2 or more diffuse connective tissue diseases and the presence of anti-U1RNP antibodies

c. ] The association of symptoms of 2 or more diffuse connective tissue diseases

d. [X] The association of symptoms of 2 or more diffuse connective tissue diseases ant the presence of

[

[

anti-U1RNP antibodies

e. [

] Any association of autoimmune diseases and the presence of anti-U1RNP antibodies

160. The criteria of mixed connective tissue disease include the following, except:

a. ] Raynaud phenomenon

b. ] Digital ulcers

c. [X] Synovitis

d. ] Sclerodactily

e. ] The presence of anti-U1RNP antibodies

[

[

[

[

161. The presence of anti-U1RNP antibodies is associated with:

a. [

b. [X] Interstitial lung disease

c. ] Relatively good prognosis for organ involvement

d. ] Poor prognosis for organ involvement

e. ] The prognosis depends on patients’ age

] Severe renal involvement

[

[

[

21

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

162. Choose the specific clinical manifestation for mixed connective tissue disease:

a.

b. [X] Raynaud phenomenon

c. ] Gottron papules

d. ] Subcutaneous nodules

[

[

[

] Malar rash

e. ] Jaccoud arthropathy

[

SJÖGREN SYNDROME

163. Secondary Sjögren syndrome can be found in the following diseases, except:

a. ] Chronic viral hepatitis

b. ] Chronic pancreatitis

c. ] HIV infection

A. [

B. [

C. [

d. D. [X] Sarcoidosis

e. E. [

] Primary biliary cirrhosis

164. The specific ocular manifestation in Sjögren syndrome is:

a. ] Optic nerve neuritis

b. ] Retinopathy

c. ] Lacrimal duct abnormalities

A. [

B. [

C. [

d. D. [X] Xerophtalmia

e.

E. [

] Anterior uveitis

165. The specific oral manifestation in Sjögren syndrome is:

a. A. [

] Lingual deposits

b. B. [

] Parodontopathy

c. C. [X] Xerostomia

d. ] Gingivitis

e. ] Hard palate ulcers

D. [

E. [

166. The skin involvement found in Sjögren syndrome is:

a. ] Subcutaneous nodules

A. [

b. ] Malar rash

B. [

c. ] Nodular erythema

d. D. [X] Palpable purpura

e.

C. [

E. [

] Panniculitis

167. The systemic manifestations found in Sjögren syndrome are the following, except:

a. ] Non-erosive arthritis

A. [

b. ] Interstitial lung disease

c. ] Renal tubular acidosis

B. [

C. [

d. ] Palpable purpura

e. E. [X] Non-infectious endocarditis

D. [

22

Rheumatology - CS

Bessisy Tamir M1248

ACUTE RHEUMATIC FEVER

168. Select the specific morphological abnormality in acute rheumatic fever:

a. [

b. [X] Aschoff nodules

c. ] Osler nodules

] Rheumatoid nodules

[

d. ] Heberden nodules

[

e. ] Tophaceous nodules

[

169. Select the duration of the latent period in acute rheumatic fever:

a. [

] 1 2 months

b. [

] 1 2 weeks

c. [X] 2 3 weeks

d. [

] 2 4 months

e. [

] 2 4 days

170. Select the age group most frequently affected by acute rheumatic fever:

a. [

] 5 10 years

b. [

] 7 12 years

c. [

] 7 18 years

d. [X] 7 15 years

e.

[

] 5 -20 years

171. Select the main pathogenetical theory approved in the development of acute rheumatic fever:

a. [

] infectious

b. [

] toxic

c. [X] autoimmune

d. ] infectious allergic

e. ] via circulating immune complexes

[

[

172. Select the most frequent cause of heart failure in acute rheumatic fever:

a. ] Fibrinous pericarditis

b. ] Exudative pericarditis

c. ] Parceled myocarditis

d. [X] Diffuse myocarditis

e.

[

[

[

[

] Endocarditis

173. Select the most sensitive index of the rheumatic process:

a. [

b. [X] Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

c. ] Leukocytosis

d. ] Fibrinogen elevation

e. ] Inflammatory dysproteinemia

] C-reactive protein

[

[

[

174. Select the first-line group of antibacterial drugs in the treatment of acute rheumatic fever:

a. [

] Macrolides

b. [

] Tetracyclins

c. [X] Penicillins

d. ] Cephazolins

e. ] Aminoglycosides

[

[

175. Select the average duration of anti-inflammatory treatment in acute rheumatic fever:

a.

b. [X] 1.5 2 months

[

] 1 2 weeks

c. [

] 2 3 months

d. [

] 3 - 4 weeks

23

Rheumatology - CS

e.

[

] 3 4 months

Bessisy Tamir M1248

176. Select the drugs for secondary prophylaxis in acute rheumatic fever:

a. [X] Benzatinbenzylpenicillin G

b. [

] Lincomycin

c. [

] Trimethoprim

d. [

] Nitrofurantoin

e. [

] Norfloxacin

177. The duration of secondary prophylaxis in acute rheumatic fever without carditis is:

a.

b.

c.

d. ] Until the age of 21

e.

[

] 3 years

[X] 5 years

[

[

[

] 10 years

] Lifelong

24