Neet Code Aa Solution

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
AA
ACHLA
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-AA) ACHLA
1. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 4l 2l

with its temperature (T), as shown in the  l  
32 3
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
2  20
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a   13.33 cm
change from state A to state B, is 3
3. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
(Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
1 2 (1) 5.016 × 104 K
(1) (2)
3 3
(2) 8.360 × 104 K
2 2 (3) 2.508 × 104 K
(3) (4)
5 7 (4) 1.254 × 104 K
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Given process is isobaric S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
dQ  n Cp dT Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
3kB T
⎛5 ⎞ So,  11200 m/s
dQ  n ⎜ R ⎟ dT mO2
⎝2 ⎠
On solving,
dW  P dV = n RdT
T = 8.360 × 104 K
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio    4. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
dQ ⎛5 ⎞ 5
n ⎜ R ⎟ dT between the freezing point and boiling point of
⎝2 ⎠
water, is
2. The fundamental frequency in an open organ (1) 6.25%
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
(2) 20%
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ (3) 26.8%
pipe is (4) 12.5%
(1) 12.5 cm (2) 8 cm
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 13.2 cm (4) 16 cm
⎛ T ⎞
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,   ⎜ 1 2 ⎟
⎝ T1 ⎠
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
T2 : Sink temperature
3v T1 : Source temperature

4l
⎛ T ⎞
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency %  ⎜ 1  2 ⎟  100
⎝ T1 ⎠
v
 ⎛ 273 ⎞
2l   ⎜ 1 ⎟  100
⎝ 373 ⎠
Given,
3v v ⎛ 100 ⎞
 ⎜ ⎟  100  26.8%
4l 2l  ⎝ 373 ⎠
2
5. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be n 

Sol. I  
marked with rings of different colours for its nr r
identification. The colour code sequence So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
will be  I
(1) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(3) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
Answer ( 2 ) O
n
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% 8. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver plane surface of a material of refractive index
6. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
are connected in series to a battery of emf found that the reflected and refracted rays are
'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current perpendicular to each other. Which of the
drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are following options is correct for this situation?
connected in parallel to the same battery. ⎛ 1⎞
Then the current drawn from battery becomes (1) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
10 I. The value of 'n' is (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
(1) 20 (2) 11 electric vector perpendicular to the plane
(3) 10 (4) 9 of incidence
Answer ( 3 ) (3) Reflected light is polarised with its
E electric vector parallel to the plane of
Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R incidence
E ⎛ 1⎞
10 I  ...(ii) (4) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
R
R ⎝⎠
n Answer ( 2 )
Dividing (ii) by (i), S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
(n  1)R are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
10 
⎛1 ⎞ with electric field vector perpendicular to the
⎜ n  1⎟ R
⎝ ⎠ plane of incidence.
After solving the equation, n = 10
7. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'
i
each) which are connected in series. The
terminals of the battery are short-circuited
and the current I is measured. Which of the
graphs shows the correct relationship 
between I and n?
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
I I 9. In Young's double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
(1) (2) wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is
O O
n n 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
I I separation between the slits needs to be
changed to
(3) (4)
(1) 2.1 mm (2) 1.9 mm
O O (3) 1.8 mm (4) 1.7 mm
n n
3

S o l . Angular width  ⎛ eE0 ⎞
d (1) 0t (2) 0 ⎜ 1  t⎟
⎝ mV0 ⎠

0.20  …(i)
2 mm 0
(3) (4) 0
 ⎛ eE0 ⎞
0.21  …(ii) ⎜1 t⎟
d ⎝ mV0 ⎠
0.20 d Answer ( 3 )
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
 d = 1.9 mm h
0  ...(i)
10. An astronomical refracting telescope will mV0
have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective E0
lens of V0
F
(1) Large focal length and large diameter
Acceleration of electron
(2) Large focal length and small diameter
eE0
(3) Small focal length and large diameter a
m
(4) Small focal length and small diameter
Velocity after time ‘t’
Answer ( 1 )
⎛ eE0 ⎞
V  ⎜ V0  t⎟
f0 ⎝ m ⎠
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE h h
So,   
mV ⎛ eE ⎞
So, focal length of objective lens should be m ⎜ V0  0 t⎟
⎝ m ⎠
large.
h 0
  …(ii)
D ⎡ eE0 ⎤ ⎡ eE0 ⎤
Angular resolution = should be large. mV0 ⎢1  t⎥ ⎢1  t⎥
1.22 ⎣ mV0 ⎦ ⎣ mV0 ⎦
So, objective should have large focal length Divide (ii) by (i),
(f0) and large diameter D.
0

11. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy ⎡ eE0 ⎤
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen ⎢1  t⎥
⎣ mV0 ⎦
atom, is
13. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
(1) 2 : –1 (2) 1 : –1 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : –2 nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 30 (2) 10
S o l . KE = –(total energy)
(3) 20 (4) 15
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
Answer ( 3 )
12. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150

V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field N ⎛ 1⎞
n

 N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
t
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its 150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2

de-Broglie wavelength at time t is 600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
4
2
t S o l . VBE = 0
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟ VCE = 0
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
Vb = 0
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
20 V
= 20 minute
14. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is IC RC = 4 k
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons RB
Vi Vb
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the Ib 500 k
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(20  0)
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 IC 
4  103
Answer ( 3 )
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
1 2
S o l . E  W0  mv Vi = VBE + IBRB
2
1 Vi = 0 + IBRB
h(20 )  h0  mv12
2 20 = IB × 500 × 103
1
h 0  mv12 …(i) IB 
20
 40 A
2
500  103
1
h(50 )  h0  mv22 IC 25  103
2    125
1 Ib 40  106
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
2 16. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
Divide (i) by (ii), due to heating
(1) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
1 v12
 (2) Affects only forward resistance
4 v22
(3) Affects only reverse resistance
v1 1
 (4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
v2 2
p-n junction
15. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
Answer ( 4 )
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB, IC and  are given by S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
will increase, so overall resistance of diode
20 V will change.
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
RC 4 k
biasing both are changed.
C
RB 17. In the combination of the following gates the
Vi
500 k B output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
E and B as
A
B
Y
(1) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 (1) A  B  A  B (2) A  B  A  B
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 (3) A  B (4) A  B
5
A sin i 2
Sol. A AB 
sin30 1
B
B Y 1
A  sin i  2 
2
AB
B 1
sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2
Y  (A  B  A  B)
20. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
18. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.

If the object is displaced through a distance
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
displacement of the image will be
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along (1) 30 cm towards the mirror
(1) –y direction (2) +z direction (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
(3) –z direction (4) –x direction (3) 30 cm away from the mirror
Answer ( 2 ) (4) 36 cm towards the mirror
   Answer ( 2 )
Sol. E  B  V
Sol.

ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej) f = 15 cm

O 40 cm
So, B  Bkˆ
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
19. The refractive index of the material of a
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. 1 1 1
 
One of the two refracting surfaces of the f v1 u
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver 1 1 1
coating. A beam of monochromatic light –  –
15 v1 40
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the 1 1 1
  
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on v1 –15 40
the prism is
v1 = –24 cm
(1) 30° (2) 45°
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
(3) 60° (4) Zero mirror.
Answer ( 2 ) Now,
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be u2 = –20
normally incident on silvered face.
1 1 1
 
f v2 u2
30°
1 1 1
 –
M 60° –15 v2 20
i 30°
1 1 1
 –
v2 20 15
 2 v2 = –60 cm
So, image shifts away from mirror by
Applying Snell's law at M, = 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
6
21. The magnetic potential energy stored in a (3) Independent of the distance between the
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in plates
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
(4) Inversely proportional to the distance
inductance
between the plates
(1) 1.389 H (2) 138.88 H
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 0.138 H (4) 13.89 H
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Energy stored in inductor Q2
Fplate 
1 2 2A0
U Ll
2
F is Independent of the distance between
–3 1
25  10   L  (60  10–3 )2 plates.
2
24. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
25  2  106  10–3
L a glass tube. The length of the air column in
3600
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
500 At room temperature of 27ºC two successive

36 resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
= 13.89 H of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
22. An electron falls from rest through a vertical air at 27ºC is
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. The direction of (1) 350 m/s
electric field is now reversed, keeping its (2) 339 m/s
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
fall from rest in it through the same vertical (3) 330 m/s
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in (4) 300 m/s
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 10 times greater
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
(2) 5 times greater
(3) Smaller = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
(4) Equal = 339.2 ms–1
Answer ( 3 ) = 339 m/s

1 eE 2 25. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
Sol. h  t
2 m sufficiently high building and is moving freely
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
2hm
 t The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
eE
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and position. The time period of oscillation is
proton. (1) 2 s (2)  s
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take (3) 2 s (4) 1 s
smaller time.
Answer ( 2 )
23. The electrostatic force between the metal
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor S o l . |a| = 2y
C having a charge Q and area A, is  20 = 2(5)
(1) Proportional to the square root of the
  = 2 rad/s
distance between the plates
(2) Linearly proportional to the distance 2 2
between the plates T  s
 2
7
26. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 2

⎛V ⎞
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth S o l . Pav  ⎜ RMS ⎟ R
⎝ Z ⎠
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to 2
⎛ 1 ⎞
Z  R2  ⎜ L   56 
C ⎟⎠
slide down by flowing a current through it
⎝
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
acting on it in the vertical direction. The 2
⎛ ⎞
10 ⎟
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary  Pav  ⎜  50  0.79 W
is
⎝  
⎜ 2 56 ⎟
⎠
(1) 14.76 A 29. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
(2) 5.98 A galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
(3) 7.14 A applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
(4) 11.32 A galvanometer is
Answer ( 4 ) (1) 250  (2) 25 
S o l . For equilibrium, (3) 40  (4) 500 
°
B 30 Answer ( 1 )
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co S o l . Current sensitivity
mg llB
I tan30 ° 30° llB NBA
lB 30 IS 
C
n
si
0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30° Voltage sensitivity
0.25  3 NBA
VS 
27. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically CRG
between the poles of an electromagnet. When So, resistance of galvanometer
the current in the electromagnet is switched
IS 51 5000
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out RG     250 
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the VS 20  103 20
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The 30. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
work required to do this comes from frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
(1) The lattice structure of the material of the the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
rod diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
(2) The magnetic field

(3) The current source
h
B
(4) The induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field
A
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted 7
(1) D (2) D
into potential energy of the rod. 5
28. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
resistor 50  are connected in series across 3 5
(3) D (4) D
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power 2 4
loss in the circuit is Answer ( 4 )
(1) 2.74 W
Sol.
(2) 0.43 W
(3) 0.79 W h
B
(4) 1.13 W
Answer ( 3 ) vL
A
8
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical S o l . According to law of conservation of linear

energy will remain constant momentum,
T.M.EI =T.M.EF mv  4m  0  4mv  0
1 v
0  mgh  mvL2  0 v 
2 4
vL2 v
h
2g Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
Relative velocity of approach v
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
1
e  0.25
5gR 5 5 4
h  R D
2g 2 4 33. Which one of the following statements is
31. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin incorrect?
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each (1) Frictional force opposes the relative
have the same mass M and radius R. They all motion.
spin with the same angular speed  about
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would proportional to normal reaction.
satisfy the relation (3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
(1) WB > WA > WC (2) WA > WB > WC friction.
(3) WC > WB > WA (4) WA > WC > WB (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length.
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
W = KE dimension.
1 2 f = sN
W  I
2
f
⇒ s 
W  I for same  N
2 1 34. A toy car with charge q moves on a

WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 frictionless horizontal plane surface under
5 2
the influence of a uniform electric field E .

2 1 Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
= : :1
5 2 from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
that instant the direction of the field is
= 4 : 5 : 10
reversed. The car continues to move for two
 WC > WB > WA more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed
32. A moving block having mass m, collides with
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
respectively
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is (1) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(e) will be
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.25 (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4 (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s

9
a t=1 –a Sol. N cos

Sol. t = 0 t=2
A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0 N
C –a
t=3
–1 
v = –6 ms
ma N sin
60 (pseudo) 
Acceleration a   6 ms2
1
mg a
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, 
1 In non-inertial frame,
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2 N sin  = ma ...(i)
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, N cos  = mg ...(ii)
1 a
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii) tan  
2 g
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s, a = g tan 

1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii) 36. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
2 (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m by
3 (1) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

Average velocity   1 ms 1
3
(2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
Total distance travelled = 9 m
9 (3) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ

Average speed   3 ms 1
3
(4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
35. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown Answer ( 4 )
in the figure. The wedge is given an
Sol. Y
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
relation between a and  for the block to
remain stationary on the wedge is
F
A
m A r  r0
P
a r0
r

C B
O X
(1) a = g cos 

  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
g
(2) a  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
sin  r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
g  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
(3) a 
cosec  î ˆj kˆ
(4) a = g tan 
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
Answer ( 4 ) 4 5 6
10
37. A student measured the diameter of a small (1) KB < KA < KC

steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
(2) KA > KB > KC
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with (3) KA < KB < KC
25 divisions above the reference level. If (4) KB > KA > KC
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
Answer ( 2 )
the correct diameter of the ball is
Sol. B
(1) 0.053 cm VC
perihelion
(2) 0.525 cm A C
S
aphelion
(3) 0.521 cm VA
(4) 0.529 cm Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
Answer ( 4 ) So, VA > VB > VC

So, KA > KB > KC
S o l . Diameter of the ball
40. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
= MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error and the universal gravitational constant were
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004) ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
following is not correct?
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
(1) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
= 0.529 cm Earth would decrease
38. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its (2) Walking on the ground would become
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the more difficult
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
(3) Raindrops will fall faster
Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere? (4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Rotational kinetic energy
S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
(2) Moment of inertia
ten times, then G = 10 G
(3) Angular velocity So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
(4) Angular momentum i.e. (4) is wrong option.
Answer ( 4 ) 41. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
S o l . ex = 0 energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
dL energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
So, 0 Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
dt
i.e. L = constant (1) 10 : 7 (2) 5 : 7
(3) 7 : 10 (4) 2 : 5
So angular momentum remains constant.
Answer ( 2 )
39. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
1
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B S o l . Kt  mv 2
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is 2
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC 2
1 1 1 1⎛ 2 ⎞⎛ v ⎞
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2  ⎜ mr 2 ⎟⎜ ⎟
2 2 2 2⎝5 ⎠⎝ r ⎠
figure. Then
7
B  mv2
10
A C Kt 5
S So, 
Kt  Kr 7
11
42. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a 44. Two wires are made of the same material and
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced have the same volume. The first wire has
due to viscous force. The rate of production of cross-sectional area A and the second wire
heat when the sphere attains its terminal has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
velocity, is proportional to the first wire is increased by l on applying a
(1) r5 force F, how much force is needed to stretch
the socond wire by the same amount?
(2) r2
(1) 4 F (2) 6 F
(3) r3
(3) 9 F (4) F
(4) r4
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Wire 1 :
2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT F
A, 3l
VT  r 2 Wire 2 :
F
⇒ Power  r 5 3A, l
For wire 1,
43. The power radiated by a black body is P and
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
⎛ F ⎞
If the temperature of the black body is now l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l …(i)
⎝ AY ⎠
changed so that it radiates maximum energy
3 For wire 2,
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4 F l
becomes nP. The value of n is Y
3A l
256
(1) ⎛ F ⎞
81  l  ⎜ ⎟l …(ii)
⎝ 3AY ⎠
4 From equation (i) & (ii),
(2)
3
⎛ F ⎞ ⎛ F ⎞
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l  ⎜ ⎟l
3 ⎝ AY ⎠ ⎝ 3AY ⎠
(3)
4
 F  9F
81
(4) 45. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
256
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
Answer ( 1 ) 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
S o l . We know, 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
max T  constant (Wien's law) sample, is
(1) 42.2 J
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
(2) 208.7 J
3 0 (3) 104.3 J
⇒ 0 T  T
4 (4) 84.5 J
4 Answer ( 2 )
⇒ T  T
3 S o l . Q = U + W
4 4
P2 ⎛ T  ⎞ ⎛4⎞ 256  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 
P1 ⎝ T ⎠ ⎝3⎠ 81  U = 208.7 J
12
46. The correct order of N-compounds in its 50. Which of the following statements is not true
decreasing order of oxidation states is for halogens?
(1) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
(1) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
states
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (2) All are oxidizing agents
(3) All form monobasic oxyacids
(3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 enthalpy
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
5 2 0 –3 F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
3 4
HOF.
Hence, the correct option is (3). 51. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
47. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion? (1) Four (2) Two
(3) One (4) Three
(1) B (2) Al
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Ga (4) In S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
 
 
 
Answer ( 1 ) F
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence  
 
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond F Cl
 
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
BF63(–).
 
 
F
Hence, the correct option is (1).  
The number of lone pair of electrons on
48. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the central Cl is 2.
following metals can be used to reduce 52. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
alumina? following sequence of reactions:
(1) Mg (2) Zn Anhydrous
AlCl3
(3) Fe (4) Cu + CH3CH2CH2Cl
(i) O2
Answer ( 1 )
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' P Q R
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the CH(CH3)2 OH
correct option. , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(1)
49. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (2) , ,
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(3) , , CH3CH2 – OH
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Answer ( 4 ) OH
CH(CH3)2
Sol.
(4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
Elements B Ga Al In Tl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 Answer ( 4 )
13
Cl S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed

S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
3 2 2 Al
and contain strong covalent bonds between
Cl Cl various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
+ 1, 2–H + –
Shift cross-linking.
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation) So option (4) should be the correct option.
Cl
55. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
–
AlCl3 also gives m-nitroaniline because
Now, (1) In absence of substituents nitro group

always goes to m-position.
CH3
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
CH – CH3
amino group is meta directive.
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
(3) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
goes to only m-position.
(P)
CH3 (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion.
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O Answer ( 4 )
+
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement NH2 NH3
(R) (Q)
H
53. Which of the following compounds can form a Sol.
zwitterion?
Anilinium ion
(1) Benzoic acid
(2) Acetanilide –NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
(3) Aniline
also formed in significant yield.
(4) Glycine
56. The difference between amylose and
Answer ( 4 ) amylopectin is
Sol.   –
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
1  6 -linkage
(Zwitterion form)
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34 (2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
-linkage
H2N – CH2 – COO–
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
54. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
1 6 -linkage
which of the following statements is
incorrect? (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
(1) Examples are bakelite and melamine. galactose
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional Answer ( 3 )

monomers.
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
(3) They contain covalent bonds between D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
various linear polymer chains. linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
(4) They contain strong covalents bonds in Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
their polymer chains. and 1  6 -linkages.
Answer ( 4 ) So option (3) should be the correct option.
14
57. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic 60. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product in the order
at STP will be (1) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(1) 2.8 (2) 3.0 (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) 1.4 (4) 4.4 (3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
C2H5O Na+
Na
 1  1 S o l . C2H5OH
2.3 g or  mol  mol (A) (B)
 20  20
Conc.H2SO4 PCl5
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
COOH 20
mol
20
mol C2H5Cl
 1  (C)
4.5 g or  mol 
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl N
 20  S2
C2H5OC2 H5
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when (B) (C)
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is So the correct option is (4)
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
61. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO reactions:
is 3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
2
 28  2.8 g The product 'C' is
20
(1) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
So, the correct option is (1) (2) o-bromotoluene
58. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in (3) m-bromotoluene
nature? (4) p-bromotoluene
(1) BaO Answer ( 3 )
CH3 CCl3 CCl3
(2) BeO
(3) MgO 3Cl 2 Br2
Sol.  Fe
(4) CaO Br
(C7H8) (A) (B)
Answer ( 2 )
Zn HCl
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
 CH3
Basic character increases.
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given Br
oxides are basic. (C)
So, the correct option is (3)
59. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
62. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
due to natural and human activity?
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(1) N2O (2) NO2 hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is
(3) N2O5 (4) NO
(1) CH3 – CH3 (2) CH2  CH2
Answer ( 3 ) (3) CH  CH (4) CH4
S o l . Fact Answer ( 4 )
15
Br2/h S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases

S o l . CH4 CH3Br with increase in distance. In option (1)
(A) Na/dry ether positive charge present on C-atom at
Wurtz reaction maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
is minimum and stability is maximum.
CH3 — CH3
65. Which of the following is correct with respect
Hence the correct option is (4) to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
63. Which of the following molecules represents (1) – NH2 > – OR > – F
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from (2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
left to right atoms?
(3) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(1) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(2) CH2 = CH – C  CH Answer ( 3 * )
(3) HC  C – C  CH S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 –I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Answer ( 2 ) *Most appropriate Answer is option (3),
however option (2) may also be correct answer.
sp2 sp2 sp sp
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH 66. In the reaction
OH O–Na+
Number of orbital require in hybridization
= Number of -bonds around each carbon CHO
atom. + CHCl3 + NaOH
64. Which of the following carbocations is

expected to be most stable? The electrophile involved is
NO2 (1) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  


(1) H
(2) Formyl cation CHO  

Y  (3) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

NO2 (4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
 Answer ( 4 )
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
(2) formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
the following reaction
Y H
.–.
CHCl3  OH–
CCl3  H2 O
NO2
.–.
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile
(3)
 67. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
Y H
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
NO2
(1) More extensive association of carboxylic
H 
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(4) Y (2) Formation of carboxylate ion
(3) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
16
Answer ( 4 ) Column I Column II
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding a. Co3+ i. 8 BM

in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
boiling point increases and become more b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
masses.
68. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM

NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic v. 15 BM
smell.
a b c d
A and Y are respectively (1) iv i ii iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv v ii i
CH – CH3 and I2
(1)
(4) iii v i ii
OH
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM

Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM

(3) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM

CH3 Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
(4) CH3 Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM

OH and I2
70. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well?
Answer ( 1 ) (1) MnO4– (2) Cr2O72–
S o l . Option (1) is secondary alcohol which on (3) CrO42– (4) MnO42–
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone Answer ( 4 )
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
S o l . CrO42– Cr6+ = [Ar]
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O Cr2O72– Cr6+ = [Ar]
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
OH O Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
Acetophenone
(A) MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
I2 Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
Iodoform 71. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
(1) Trinuclear
69. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
(2) Mononuclear
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the correct code : (3) Tetranuclear
(4) Dinuclear
17
Answer ( 2 ) For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be

S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms sp 3 and thus the complex would be
present in a complex, they are classified diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
so on. CO
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear

Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear Ni
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear CO
OC
Hence, option (2) should be the right
answer. CO
72. The type of isomerism shown by the complex 74. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
[CoCl2(en)2] is different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
different concentrations :
(1) Ionization isomerism
(2) Coordination isomerism M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
(3) Geometrical isomerism 10 10
(4) Linkage isomerism

M M
Answer ( 3 ) b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral M M
geometry. c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
(1) d
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism. (2) a
73. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the (3) b
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(4) c
(1) Square planar geometry and
paramagnetic Answer ( 4 )
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic 1

Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
(3) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic 5
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

1
Answer ( 2 ) • Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
Configuration would be :
10 1
= 
3
sp -hybridisation 100 10
×× ×× ×× ××  1
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10 
CO CO CO CO
18
75. On which of the following properties does the 2.42  103

coagulating power of an ion depend? S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on = 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
the ion
(2) Size of the ion alone Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)

BaSO 4 (s)
s s
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone = (1.04 × 10–5)2
Answer ( 1 )
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
78. In which case is number of molecules of
an electrolyte depends on the charge
present (positive or negative) on colloidal water maximum?
particles as well as on its size. (1) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
depends on the magnitude of charge (2) 0.18 g of water
present on effective ion of electrolyte.
(3) 18 mL of water
76. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and (4) 10–3 mol of water
3.59, which one of the following gases is most Answer ( 3 )
easily liquefied?
0.00224
(1) O2 S o l . (1) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
(2) H2 Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
(3) NH3
0.18
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
(4) CO2 18
Answer ( 3 ) = 10–2 NA
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies (3) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
intermolecular forces of attraction.
18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be 18
the liquefaction of gas. = NA
77. 10–3
The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × gL–1 (4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be 79. The correct difference between first and
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) second order reactions is that
(1) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 (1) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a

second-order reaction cannot be
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
catalyzed
(3) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
Answer ( 3 ) second-order reaction does depend on
[A]0
19
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does not (1) Br2

depend on reactant concentrations; the
(2) BrO4
rate of a second-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations (3) BrO3
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does (4) HBrO

depend on reactant concentrations; the
Answer ( 4 )
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations 1 0
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
Answer ( 2 )
1 5
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
0.693 BrO3 /HBrO
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
which is independent of initial
o o
concentration of reactant. Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
1 = 1.595 – 1.5
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ] = 0.095 V = + ve
which depends on initial concentration of Hence, option (3) is correct answer.
reactant. 82. For the redox reaction
80. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
character is
(1) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 The correct coefficients of the reactants for
the balanced equation are
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
(3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
(1) 2 16 5
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(2) 2 5 16
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 16 5 2
S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
(4) 5 16 2
group metallic character of metals increases
so ionic character of metal hydride increases. Answer ( 2 )
Hence the option (3) should be correct option. Reduction

+7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
81. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values Oxidation
as shown in the diagram below : 
n-factor of MnO4  5
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V n-factor of C2 O24  2

BrO4 BrO3 HBrO

– Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
Then the species undergoing  The balanced equation is

disproportionation is 2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
20
83. Which one of the following conditions will

S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction,
1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) 2 2
(1) High temperature and high pressure

X
(2) Low temperature and low pressure Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2
(3) Low temperature and high pressure respectively
(4) High temperature and low pressure
X X
Answer ( 3 )  H      X  200
2 4
X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g)
On solving, we get
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
direction where pressure decreases i.e. X X
   200
forward direction. 2 4
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.  X = 800 kJ/mole
So, high pressure and low temperature 86. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
favours maximum formation of product. equation corresponds to
84. When initial concentration of the reactant is (1) Electric field present between the gas
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order molecules
reaction
(2) Volume of the gas molecules
(1) Is tripled
(3) Density of the gas molecules
(2) Is doubled
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas
(3) Is halved molecules
(4) Remains unchanged Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
 2 
S o l . Half life of zero order S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
 V2 

[A0 ]
t 1/2 
2K van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction.
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
concentration. 87. Consider the following species :
85. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and CN+, CN–, NO and CN
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
Which one of these will have the highest bond
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
order?
dissociation energy of X2 will be
(1) 800 kJ mol–1 (1) CN+
(2) 100 kJ mol–1 (2) CN–
(3) 200 kJ mol–1 (3) NO
(4) 400 kJ mol–1 (4) CN

21
Sol. NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z ) 2 , Answer ( 1 )
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
10  5 4r
BO =  2.5 S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
2 3
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
10  4  ZM 
BO = 3
2  N a3 
d25C  A  BCC
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2  
d900C  ZM 
= (2py)2,(2pz)1  N a3 
 A  FCC
9 4
BO =  2.5
2 3
2  2 2 r
CN+ (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2  
:
4 4r 
= (2py)2  
 3 
8 4 3 3
BO = 2 
2  4 2 
Hence, option(2) should be the right answer.
90. Which one is a wrong statement?
88. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
an ionic compound. If the ground state (1) The electronic configuration of N atom is
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, 1s2 2s2
1
2px
1
2py
1
2pz
the simplest formula for this compound is
(1) Mg2X (2) MgX2
(3) Mg2X3 (4) Mg3X2 (2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is
Answer ( 4 )
designated by four quantum numbers
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of
1s2 2s2 2p3
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
So, valency of X will be 3.
(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero
Valency of Mg is 2.
Answer ( 1 )
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
be Mg3X2. S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
89. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room multiplicity, the correct electronic
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to configuration of N-atom is
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains 1s2 2s2 2p3
constant with temperature) is
OR
3 3 4 3
(1) (2)
4 2 3 2
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
3 1  Option (1) violates Hund's Rule.
(3) (4)
2 2
22
91. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis 96. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
by respiration?
(1) Cycas (1) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(2) Nostoc (2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(3) Green sulphur bacteria (3) It functions as an enzyme.
(4) Chara (4) It is the final electron acceptor for
Answer ( 3 ) anaerobic respiration.
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as Answer ( 2 )
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
O2. carrier.
92. Double fertilization is
97. In which of the following forms is iron
(1) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg absorbed by plants?
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (1) Free element
nuclei
(2) Ferrous
(3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
(3) Ferric
tube with two different eggs
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion (4) Both ferric and ferrous
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 * )
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
that occur in angiosperms only. ions. (According to NCERT)
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
93. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth, 98. Which of the following is commonly used as a
where none of the two can complete its life vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
cycle without the other? human lymphocytes?
(1) Banana (2) Yucca (1)  phage (2) Ti plasmid
(3) Hydrilla (4) Viola (3) Retrovirus (4) pBR 322
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
species of moth i.e. Pronuba. introducing a DNA fragment in human
94. Pollen grains can be stored for several years lymphocyte.
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
(1) –196°C (2) –80°C patient are grown in culture outside the body,
(3) –120°C (4) –160°C a functional gene is introduced by using a
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
Answer ( 1 )
99. Use of bioresources by multinational
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
companies and organisations without
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
authorisation from the concerned country and
(Cryopreservation)
its people is called
95. Which of the following elements is responsible
(1) Biodegradation (2) Biopiracy
for maintaining turgor in cells?
(3) Bio-infringement (4) Bioexploitation
(1) Potassium
Answer ( 2 )
(2) Sodium
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
(3) Magnesium
of bioresources by multinational companies
(4) Calcium and other organisation without proper
Answer ( 1 ) authorisation from the countries and people
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of concerned with compensatory payment
cells. (definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
23
100. In India, the organisation responsible for S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
assessing the safety of introducing rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
genetically modified organisms for public use and trademark office that was actually been
is derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
(1) Research Committee on Genetic The diversity of rice in India is one of the
Manipulation (RCGM) richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial of Basmati are grown in India.
Research (CSIR) Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
(3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) varieties and claimed as an invention or a
novelty.
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
(GEAC)
of wheat.
Answer ( 4 )
104. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation matched?
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
(1) XO type sex : Grasshopper
Committee) which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and determination
safety of introducing GM-organism for public (2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
services. (Direct from NCERT). (3) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple
101. The correct order of steps in Polymerase alleles
Chain Reaction (PCR) is (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing Answer ( 3 )
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing pleiotropic gene.
Other options (1, 2 & 4) are correctly
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
matched.
Answer ( 4 )
105. Select the correct statement
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
(1) Spliceosomes take part in translation
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British
Each cycle has three steps
scientist
(i) Denaturation (3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
(ii) Primer annealing (4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(iii) Extension of primer Answer ( 2 )
102. Select the correct match S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
(1) T.H. Morgan - Transduction geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
mode of replication.
(3) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
and Laderberg.
Answer ( 3 ) – Spliceosome formation is part of post-
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
acid. 106. The experimental proof for semiconservative
103. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a replication of DNA was first shown in a
foreign company, though such varieties have (1) Plant (2) Bacterium
been present in India for a long time. This is
(3) Fungus (4) Virus
related to
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Lerma Rojo (2) Sharbati Sonora
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
(3) Co-667 (4) Basmati shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
Answer ( 4 ) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
24
107. Which of the following flowers only once in its 110. Which of the following has proved helpful in
life-time? preserving pollen as fossils?
(1) Mango (2) Jackfruit (1) Oil content
(3) Bamboo species (4) Papaya
(2) Cellulosic intine
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Pollenkitt
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
generally only once in its life-time after 50- (4) Sporopollenin
100 years.
Answer ( 4 )
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
their life-time. enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
108. Offsets are produced by helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(1) Parthenocarpy Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.

(2) Mitotic divisions Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
(3) Meiotic divisions pollen grain known as intine made up
(4) Parthenogenesis cellulose & pectin.
Answer ( 2 ) Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.

S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed 111. Natality refers to
by mitosis.
(1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
cells. (2) Birth rate
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of (3) Death rate
embryo from ovum or egg without
fertilisation. (4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without Answer ( 2 )
fertilisation, (generally seedless)
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
109. Select the correct match
(1) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum • Death rate – Mortality
and F. Stahl • Number of individual – Immigration

(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV entering a habitat is
Martha Chase • Number of individual – Emigration

(3) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus leaving the habital
pneumoniae 112. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon (1) 16th September
Jacques Monod
(2) 21st April
Answer ( 4 )
(3) 5th June
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
model of gene regulation known as operon (4) 22nd April
model/lac operon.
Answer (1)
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
technique. S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
September.
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. 5th June - World Environment Day
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
Proved DNA as genetic material not
protein 22nd April - National Earth Day
25
113. Which of the following is a secondary S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
pollutant? chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(1) SO2 (2) CO2 method converting into oxygen
(3) CO (4) O3 Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
Answer ( 4 ) ozone layer depletion
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are 117. The two functional groups characteristic of
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant. sugars are
CO – Quantitative pollutant (1) Carbonyl and phosphate
CO2 – Primary pollutant (2) Carbonyl and methyl
SO2 – Primary pollutant (3) Hydroxyl and methyl
114. Niche is (4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(1) the range of temperature that the Answer ( 4 )
organism needs to live
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
(2) the physical space where an organism carbohydrate.
lives
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
(3) all the biological factors in the organism's ketone or their derivatives, which means they
environment have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
(4) the functional role played by the organism 118. Which among the following is not a
where it lives prokaryote?
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Nostoc
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
refers the functional role played by the (2) Mycobacterium
organism where it lives. (3) Saccharomyces
115. What type of ecological pyramid would be (4) Oscillatoria
obtained with the following data?
Answer ( 3 )
Secondary consumer : 120 g
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
Primary consumer : 60 g (unicellular fungi)
Primary producer : 10 g
Mycobacterium – a bacterium
(1) Upright pyramid of numbers
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
(2) Pyramid of energy
119. The Golgi complex participates in
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(1) Respiration in bacteria
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Fatty acid breakdown
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pyramid of biomass, usually found in (4) Activation of amino acid
aquatic ecosystem.
• Pyramid of energy is always upright Answer ( 2 )
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
are not possible, as the data depicts secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
primary producer is less than primary
consumer and this is less than secondary 120. Which of the following is not a product of light
consumers. reaction of photosynthesis?
116. In stratosphere, which of the following (1) NADPH (2) NADH
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of (3) ATP (4) Oxygen
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Fe (2) Cl
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
(3) Carbon (4) Oxygen reaction, while NADH is a product of
Answer ( 2 ) respiration process.
26
121. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? 126. Pneumatophores occur in
(1) It takes part in spindle formation (1) Carnivorous plants
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cells (3) Halophytes
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (4) Submerged hydrophytes

synthesis Answer (3)
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure pneumatophores.
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
122. Stomatal movement is not affected by
having lenticels called pneumathodes to
(1) O2 concentration uptake O2.
(2) Light
127. Casparian strips occur in
(3) Temperature
(1) Cortex (2) Pericycle
(4) CO2 concentration
(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 Answer ( 4 )
affect opening and closing of stomata while Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
they are not affected by O2 concentration. and inner tangential wall.
123. The stage during which separation of the
• It is suberin rich.
paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene 128. Plants having little or no secondary growth
are
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
(1) Conifers
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. (2) Deciduous angiosperms
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e. (3) Grasses
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
(4) Cycads
124. Stomata in grass leaf are
(1) Rectangular Answer (3)
(2) Kidney shaped S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually

do not have secondary growth.
(3) Dumb-bell shaped
(4) Barrel shaped Palm like monocots have anomalous
secondary growth.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell 129. Sweet potato is a modified
shaped stomata in their leaves.
(1) Tap root
125. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
are produced by (2) Adventitious root
(1) Phellogen (3) Stem
(2) Vascular cambium
(4) Rhizome
(3) Apical meristems
(4) Axillary meristems Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary for storage of food
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside • Rhizomes are underground modified stem
and secondary phloem towards outsides.
• 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
produced than secondary phloem. from the redicle
27
130. Which of the following statements is correct? 133. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
(1) Horsetails are gymnosperms
given below:
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Column I Column II
Salvinia is homosporous
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in collection of preserved
gymnosperms plants and animals
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
Cycas and Cedrus methodically all the
species found in an area
Answer ( 3 ) with brief description
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. aiding identification
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
and pressed plant
131. Select the wrong statement : specimens mounted on
sheets are kept
(1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
list of characters and
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes their alternates which
are helpful in
(3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
identification of various
and Plantae
taxa.
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
a b c d
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer ( 1 )
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
sarcodines (Amoeboid)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
132. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
Answer ( 4 )
are produced exogenously in
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
(1) Agaricus specimen
(2) Alternaria • Key – Identification of various
taxa
(3) Neurospora
• Museum – Plant and animal
(4) Saccharomyces specimen are preserved
Answer ( 1 ) • Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
species
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
basidiospores or meiospores are 134. Winged pollen grains are present in
produced exogenously. (1) Mango (2) Cycas
 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) (3) Mustard (4) Pinus
produces ascospores as meiospores but
Answer (4)
endogenously inside the ascus.)
S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
does not produce sexual spores. form the wings of pollen. It is the
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
ascomycetes) produces ascospores, Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
endogenously. not winged shaped.
28
135. Which one is wrongly matched? S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
(1) Gemma cups – Marchantia between right atrium and right ventricle.
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
(3) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia are present at the openings of aortic and
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella pulmonary aorta.
Answer ( 3 ) 138. Match the items given in Column I with those

Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
given below:
where asexual spores and gametes are
non-motile or non-flagellated. Column I Column II
• Other options (1, 2 & 4) are correctly a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
matched b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
136. Which of the following options correctly
volume
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively? c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(1) Increased respiratory surface; volume
Inflammation of bronchioles d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; a b c d
Increased respiratory surface
(1) i iv ii iii
(3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface (2) iii i iv ii
(4) Decreased respiratory surface; (3) iii ii i iv

Inflammation of bronchioles (4) iv iii ii i
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and expired during normal respiration. It is
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to volume is additional volume of air a person
which respiratory surface is decreased. can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
137. Match the items given in Column I with those around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
in Column II and select the correct option volume is additional volume of air a person
given below : can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
Column I Column II averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
and left ventricle lungs even after forceful expiration. This
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle and 139. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
pulmonary artery in its place by
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right (1) smooth muscles attached to the iris
atrium and right
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
ventricle
(3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
a b c
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
(1) i ii iii
body
(2) i iii ii
Answer ( 3 )
(3) iii i ii
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(4) ii i iii suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
Answer ( 3 ) body.
29
140. Which of the following is an amino acid 143. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
derived hormone? from
(1) Estradiol (1) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) endoderm and mesoderm
(2) Ecdysone
(3) ectoderm and mesoderm
(3) Epinephrine
(4) ectoderm and endoderm
(4) Estriol
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
catecholamine. side and ectoderm on inner side.
141. Which of the following hormones can play a Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
significant role in osteoporosis? mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
(1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone endoderm in inner side.
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone 144. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
(3) Aldosterone and Prolactin maintain pregnancy are
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
Answer ( 1 )
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
glucocorticoids
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
estrogen. Parathormone promotes Answer ( 1 )
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
Excessive activity of parathormone causes gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. stimulates the Corpus luteum during
pregnancy to release estrogen and
142. Which of the following structures or regions is progesterone and also rescues corpus
incorrectly paired with its functions? luteum from regression. Human placental
(1) Hypothalamus : production of lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
releasing hormones mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
and regulation of pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
temperature, increasing uterine threshold to contractile
hunger and thirst. stimuli.
145. The difference between spermiogenesis and
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that spermiation is
interconnect (1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
different regions of sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
brain; controls seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
movement. spermatozoa are formed.
(3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are

formed, while in spermiation spermatids
and cardiovascular
are formed.
reflexes.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers while in spermiation spermatozoa are
connecting left and formed.
right cerebral
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
hemispheres. formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
Answer ( 2 ) are released from sertoli cells into the
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
all emotions in our body but not movements. Answer ( 4 )
30
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas styles which are absent in females.
spermiation is the release of the sperms from
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
tubule. segment in male cockroach.
146. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ 150. Which one of these animals is not a
homeotherm?
(1) is an IUD.
(1) Camelus (2) Chelone
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females. (3) Macropus (4) Psittacula
(3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, Answer ( 2 )
preventing eggs from getting implanted. S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive. constant body temperature, irrespective of
Answer ( 3 ) surrounding temperature.
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
pill. It contains centchroman and its Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
Receptor modulation.
151. Which of the following animals does not
147. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
undergo metamorphosis?
(1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(1) Moth (2) Tunicate
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing
excess water (3) Earthworm (4) Starfish
(3) using flagella for locomotion Answer ( 3 )

(4) having two types of nuclei S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
larva into adult.
Answer ( 4 )
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
having two types of nuclei. to have indirect development.
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. In earthworm development is direct which
macronucleus & micronucleus. means no larval stage and hence no
metamorphosis.
148. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its 152. Which of the following organisms are known
digestive system as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Aves (2) Reptilia (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Diatoms
(3) Amphibia (4) Osteichthyes (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard. 153. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
for the production of antibiotics?
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutualism
crush food grain.
(3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism
149. Which of the following features is used to
identify a male cockroach from a female Answer ( 4 )
cockroach? S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
(1) Forewings with darker tegmina  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
(2) Presence of caudal styles microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
(3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the harm other microbes (eg :
9th abdominal segment Staphylococcus)
(4) Presence of anal cerci  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
Answer ( 2 ) organism which produces it.
31
154. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ 157. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
conservation’ except the drug “Smack”?
(1) Botanical gardens (1) Roots (2) Latex
(2) Sacred groves (3) Flowers (4) Leaves
(3) Wildlife safari parks Answer ( 2 )
(4) Seed banks
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
Answer ( 2 ) formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation. obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
Poppy plant.
 Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups. 158. All of the following are part of an operon
except
155. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option (1) an enhancer
given below : (2) structural genes
Column-I Column-II
(3) an operator
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(4) a promoter
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
Answer ( 1 )
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
enrichment Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
eukaryotes.
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
a b c d
159. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
(1) iii iv i ii
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(2) i iii iv ii inherited by
(3) ii i iii iv
(1) Only grandchildren
(4) i ii iv iii
(2) Only sons
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Only daughters
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
enrichment (4) Both sons and daughters
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal Answer ( 4 )
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Sol. • Woman is a carrier

d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation • Both son & daughter inherit
156. In a growing population of a country, X–chromosome
(1) reproductive and pre-reproductive • Although only son be the diseased

individuals are equal in number. 160. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the of evolution is
post-reproductive individuals. (1) Phenotypic variations
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are more (2) Saltation
than the reproductive individuals.
(3) Multiple step mutations
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
the reproductive individuals. (4) Minor mutations
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
the younger population size is larger than the Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
reproductive group, the population will be an phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
increasing population. saltation.
32
161. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding a b c d
strand of a gene. What will be the (1) ii iii i iv
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(2) i ii iii iv
mRNA?
(3) iii ii iv i
(1) ACCUAUGCGAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(4) iv i ii iii
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide urine. This is observed when blood glucose
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA. is called renal threshold value for glucose.
162. Match the items given in Column I with those Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
in Column II and select the correct option in the joint.
given below : Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
Column I Column II
kidney.
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
endometrial condition of glomerulus characterised by
lining proteinuria and haematuria.
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase given below:
a b c Column I Column II
(1) ii iii i (Function) (Part of Excretory
system)
(2) i iii ii
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
(3) iii ii i
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
(4) iii i ii
of urine
Answer ( 1 )
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start urine
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
urine corpuscle
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens v. Proximal
the endometrium maintained by convoluted tubule
progesterone. a b c d
Menstruation occurs due to decline in (1) v iv i ii
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
(2) iv i ii iii
overgrown endometrial lining.
(3) iv v ii iii
in Column II and select the correct option (4) v iv i iii
given below : Answer ( 2 )
Column I Column II S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
particles having molecular weight less than
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of 68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
uric acid in joints
Concentration of urine refers to water
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
salts within the of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
kidney counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
glomeruli through ureter.
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
nephritis glucose in urine urine.
33
165. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
help in erythropoiesis? dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
breaking industries.
(1) Goblet cells
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
(2) Mucous cells
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
(3) Chief cells lung damage.
(4) Parietal cells Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
Answer ( 4 )
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in damaged due to which respiratory surface is
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can decreased.
be absorbed easily and used during Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
erythropoiesis. by Clostridium botulinum.
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption 168. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes contraction because it
pernicious anaemia.
(1) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
166. Match the items given in Column I with those filament.
in Column II and select the correct option (2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
given below : it.
Column I Column II (3) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance of active sites on actin for myosin.
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
c. Albumin (iii) Defence filament.
mechanism
Answer ( 3 )
a b c Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)  Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) site on actin filament and displaces the
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) sub-unit of troponin.
Answer ( 4 )  Once the active site is exposed, head of

the myosin attaches and initiate
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during contraction by sliding the actin over
coagulation. These strands forms a network myosin.
and the meshes of which are occupied by
169. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
(1) Nucleic acids and SER
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
of plasma proteins which means globulins are (2) DNA and RNA
involved in defence mechanisms. (3) Proteins and lipids
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly (4) Free ribosomes and RER
responsible for BCOP. Answer ( 4 )
167. Which of the following is an occupational S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
respiratory disorder? even extend into the dendrite but absent in
axon and rest of the neuron.
(1) Botulism (2) Silicosis
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
(3) Anthracis (4) Emphysema ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
Answer ( 2 ) protein synthesis.
34
170. Which of these statements is incorrect? S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
(1) Glycolysis operates as long as it is RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
supplied with NAD that can pick up involved in lipid synthesis.
hydrogen atoms 174. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
mitochondrial matrix termed as
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in (1) Plastidome
outer mitochondrial membrane
(2) Polyhedral bodies
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Polysome
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
mitochondrial membrane. (4) Nucleosome
171. Select the incorrect match : Answer ( 3 )
(1) Submetacentric – L-shaped S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
chromosomes chromosomes ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
(3) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents ergasomes.
chromosomes 175. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
(4) Polytene – Oocytes of pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
chromosomes amphibians lymphatic vessels?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Ringworm disease
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary (2) Ascariasis
glands of insects of order Diptera.
(3) Elephantiasis
172. Which of the following terms describe human
dentition? (4) Amoebiasis
(1) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont Answer ( 3 )
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont Culex mosquito.
Answer ( 2 ) 176. Which of the following is not an autoimmune

disease?
S o l . In humans, dentition is
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the (1) Alzheimer's disease
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli. (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
(3) Psoriasis
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
replaced by a set of permanent or adult (4) Vitiligo
teeth. Answer ( 1 )
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
of different types of teeth namely incisors,
disorder in which antibodies are produced
canine, premolars and molars.
against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
173. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum? Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(1) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Protein glycosylation Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
(3) Protein folding
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
(4) Phospholipid synthesis due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
Answer ( 4 ) acetylcholine.
35
177. Among the following sets of examples for 179. The similarity of bone structure in the
divergent evolution, select the incorrect forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
option : of
(1) Convergent evolution
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(2) Analogy
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Homology
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (4) Adaptive radiation
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs

are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same different way as per their adaptation, hence
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of example of homology.
vertebrates which have developed along 180. Which of the following characteristics
different directions due to adaptation to represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat humans?
and man are examples of analogous organs a. Dominance
showing convergent evolution. b. Co-dominance
178. Conversion of milk to curd improves its c. Multiple allele
nutritional value by increasing the amount of d. Incomplete dominance
(1) Vitamin B12 e. Polygenic inheritance
(2) Vitamin A (1) b, d and e (2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e
(3) Vitamin D
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Vitamin E
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
Answer ( 1 ) relationship
 IAIB - Codominance
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
 It has enriched presence of vitamins forms of a gene
specially Vit-B12. (multiple allelism)

36

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

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1. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 4l 2l

5. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be n 

(4) Equal = 339.2 ms–1

Answer ( 3 ) = 339 m/s

26. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 2

(2) The magnetic field

As track is frictionless, so total mechanical S o l . According to law of conservation of linear

2 1 34. A toy car with charge q moves on a

(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4 (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s

a t=1 –a Sol. N cos

3 (1) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

9 (3) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ

37. A student measured the diameter of a small (1) KB < KA < KC

(4) 0.529 cm Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.

Answer ( 4 ) So, VA > VB > VC

(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (2) , ,

(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

Cl S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed

Now, (1) In absence of substituents nitro group

(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional Answer ( 3 )

Br2/h S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases

64. Which of the following carbocations is

NO2 (1) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

Answer ( 4 ) Column I Column II

S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding a. Co3+ i. 8 BM

68. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM

(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM

Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM

Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM

(4) CH3 Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM

Answer ( 2 ) For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be

eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear

(4) Linkage isomerism

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic 1

(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

75. On which of the following properties does the 2.42  103

(2) Size of the ion alone Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)

(1) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 (1) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a

(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does not (1) Br2

(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does (4) HBrO

Hence the option (3) should be correct option. Reduction

– 1.82 V – 1.5 V n-factor of C2 O24  2

Then the species undergoing  The balanced equation is

83. Which one of the following conditions will

(1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) 100 kJ mol–1 (2) CN–

(3) 200 kJ mol–1 (3) NO

(4) 400 kJ mol–1 (4) CN

(1) Parthenocarpy Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.

Answer ( 2 ) Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.

and F. Stahl • Number of individual – Immigration

Martha Chase • Number of individual – Emigration

pneumoniae 112. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (4) Submerged hydrophytes

(2) Kidney shaped S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually

Answer ( 3 ) 138. Match the items given in Column I with those

(4) Decreased respiratory surface; (3) iii ii i iv

(3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are

(3) using flagella for locomotion Answer ( 3 )

b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal Answer ( 4 )

c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Sol. • Woman is a carrier