Test-king 010-111 174q

Number: 010-111
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 18.5

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010-111

ACSM certified Personal Trainer

Finally, I got right questions for this exam and share with you guys. Best Wishes.
Exam A

QUESTION 1
What is the function of the tricuspid valve?

A. It acts as a pacemaker.
B. To pump blood through the heart.
C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium.
D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction?

A. Myofibril
B. Sarcomere
C. Myosin
D. Sarcolemma

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body?

A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine?

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A. Kyphotic curve
B. Scoliotic curve
C. Lordotic curve
D. Myotic curve

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 5
Adenosine triphosphate production via "anaerobic" glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of
what by-product?

A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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Explanation:

QUESTION 6
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in
_____.

A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.

B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle
groups?

A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 8
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?

A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 9
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?

A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.

B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 10
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?

A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 11
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?

A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 12
Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?

A. Greater flexibility of the soleus

B. Lesser force of action from the gluteus maximus
C. Lesser force of action of the knee extensors
D. Lesser flexibility of the plantar flexors

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 13
What two muscles, along with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, make up the rotator cuff?

A. Teres minor and scalenus

B. Teres minor and subscapularis
C. Teres major and scalenus
D. Teres major and subscapularis

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 14
What muscle action will most likely induce delayed onset muscle soreness?

A. Concentric
B. Eccentric
C. Isometric
D. Isotonic

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 15
What occurs to a muscle during the eccentric movement phase of an exercise?

A. Shortens while contracting

B. Shortens while relaxing
C. Lengthens while relaxing
D. Lengthens while contracting

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 16
What muscle extends the forearm?

A. Supinator teres
B. Pronator teres
C. Biceps brachii
D. Triceps brachii

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 17
What is the term used to describe the body's ability to utilize oxygen during exercise?

A. Lactate threshold
B. Anaerobic threshold
C. Anaerobic capacity
D. Oxygen consumption

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 18
What is the order of stretching techniques from lowest risk of injury to highest risk of injury?

A. Ballistic; slow static; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

B. Slow static; ballistic; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
C. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic; slow static.
D. Slow static; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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Explanation:

QUESTION 19
Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion, and involves the greatest number of
movements?

A. Knee joint
B. Shoulder joint
C. Hip joint
D. Ankle joint

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a result of chronic aerobic training?

A. Increased lipid production.

B. Decreased plasma triglyceride levels.
C. Decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels.
D. Increased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 21
What action is involved in the concentric phase of the biceps curl?

A. Flexion at the elbow.

B. Extension at the elbow.
C. Pronation of the forearm.
D. Supination of the forearm.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 22
Cardiac output is a product of heart rate multiplied by ___________.

A. peripheral resistance.
B. blood pressure.
C. blood volume.
D. stroke volume.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 23
Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed- ridden for a
prolonged period of time?

A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Progression

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 24
If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?

A. Humeral
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Radial

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 25
Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?

A. Gastrocnemius
B. Iliopsoas
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 26
Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?

A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood.
B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of
breathing.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 27
From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with
elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:

A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi

B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 28
A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he
exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the
following describes the muscle action during the extension?

A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 29
Type II muscle fibers:

A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 30
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?

A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 31
What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?

A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Median

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 32
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?

A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 33
Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions using
a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.

A. plyometric
B. isokinetic
C. ballistic
D. isotonic

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 34
Which of the following bones facilitate movement of the chest during both inspiration and expiration?

A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. carpal
D. scalene

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 35
Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?

A. Coxal (hip)
B. Atlantooccipital
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 36
As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the
predominant contribution to an increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle?

A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy

B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 37
What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?

A. Take salt tablets.

B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 38
What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?

A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve

B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 39
What is the American College of Sports Medicine's recommendation regarding frequency to increase
cardiorespiratory fitness?
A. One to two days per week
B. Two to three days per week
C. Three to five days per week
D. Four to six days per week

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 40
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client's age-predicted maximum heart rate?

A. 2 to 4 beats per minute

B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 41
A 50 year old client has a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute. Calculate the exercise heart rate for this
client using 50% of heart rate reserve.

A. 85 beats per minute

B. 100 beats per minute
C. 110 beats per minute
D. 120 beats per minute

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 42
When should a client exhale during performance of a bench press?

A. Only after the movement ends.

B. Immediately before the movement begins.
C. During the eccentric phase of the movement.
D. During the concentric phase of the movement.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 43
What is a result of resistance training in adolescents?

A. It promotes muscular strength.

B. It increases muscular bulk.
C. It increases the risk of osteoporosis.
D. It causes permanent musculoskeletal damage.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 44
A 35 year-old male client has a goal of completing a sprint distance triathlon. The certified Personal Trainer
prescribes an exercise regimen of swimming 2 days per week, running 3 days per week, and bicycling 2
days per week. What training principle is being used?

A. Reversibility
B. Overload
C. Progression
D. Specificity

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 45
Why is a cool-down period important?

A. Prevents heat stroke

B. Helps prevent injuries
C. Reduces brain blood flow back to normal
D. Returns pooled blood back to central circulation

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 46
What is the first phase of an annual training cycle?

A. Transition
B. Off-season
C. Preparatory
D. Competition

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 47
What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training
exercises?

A. Circuit training
B. Interval training
C. Split routine training
D. Periodization training

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 48
What resistance training method is described by a light to heavy or heavy to light progression of sets?

A. Pyramid
B. Superset
C. Negative set
D. Volume training

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 49
Together, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the American College of Sports Medicine
recommend that every US adult should accumulate _____ minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical
activity on most, preferably all days of the week.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 60

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 50
What is the predominant factor causing increases in strength during the initial weeks of training?

A. Changes in whole muscle cross-sectional area

B. Increases in overall limb circumference
C. Improvements in neuromuscular adaptation
D. Increases in muscle-fiber cross-sectional area
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 51
What happens to the muscle during isometric tension development?

A. Shortening of the muscle

B. Lengthening of the muscle
C. No change in the length of the muscle
D. Relaxation of the muscle

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 52
A client's workout record shows changes in exercise volume and intensity over time. What training concept
is being demonstrated?

A. Specificity
B. Overtraining
C. Reversibility
D. Periodization

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 53
What position should women in their second or third trimester of pregnancy avoid when performing
exercise?

A. Prone
B. Supine
C. On their side
D. On all fours (hands and knees)

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 54
What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?

A. Perform less-intensively than normal

B. Do not perform it as often
C. Perform it slower than normal
D. Do not perform at all

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 55
Using the Heart Rate Reserve method, what is the target heart rate for a 40 year-old man with a resting
heart rate of 70 beats/min, exercising at an intensity of 65%?

A. 110 beats/min
B. 129 beats/min
C. 142 beats/min
D. 180 beats/min

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 56
Which of the following exercises works best in isolating the soleus muscle?

A. Standing heel raises

B. Seated ankle extensions with the knees straight
C. Seated heel raises with bent (flexed) knees
D. Half squats with external rotation of the hip joint

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 57
Which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened in order to maintain a healthy back?

A. Abdominals, knee flexors, and hip flexors

B. Abdominals, hip extensors and erector spinae
C. Abdominals, hip flexors and hip extensors
D. Abdominals, hamstrings and hip flexor

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 58
Which of the following correctly describes the technique used in PNF (Proprioceptive Neuromuscular
Facilitation)?

A. Passively moving the muscle in dynamic motion to increase flexibility.

B. A contract-relax sequence to relax the muscle stretch reflex mechanism.
C. Using muscle contraction of the extensors followed by muscle contraction of the flexors.
D. The required period of exercise for eliciting adaptation.

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 59
The ACSM recommended exercise prescription for developing and maintaining muscular strength and
endurance for health and fitness includes a minimum of:

A. 1 set of 8-12 repetitions using 8-10 exercises that train the major muscle groups of the upper and lower
body.
B. 2-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions using 80% of the 1 repetition maximum (RM) for exercises that train the
major muscle groups of the upper and lower body.
C. 2-3 sets of 8-12 repetitions alternating days between upper and lower body exercises.
D. 1-2 sets of 8-15 repetitions using 50-85% of the 1 repetition maximum (RM) for exercises that train the
major muscle groups of the upper and lower body.

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 60
Which of the following describes a Valsalva maneuver performed during a free weight biceps curl?

A. a normal part of the concentric phase of the exercise.

B. inspiration of air through an open glottis.
C. a normal part of the eccentric phase of the exercise.
D. expiration of air against a closed glottis.

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 61
You are working as a certified Personal Trainer, and have a client who recently confided to you that she is
getting divorced. She admits to you that her exercise routine has suffered as a result of the increased
stress. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for you to take?

A. Recommend that she increase the duration of her sessions scheduled with you as a way to cope with
this stressful situation.
B. Recommend that she seek a mental health professional who can help her manage the increased
stress.
C. Make a future appointment with her to discuss the divorce.
D. Recommend that she increase the number of sessions scheduled with you as a way to cope with this
stressful situation.

Correct Answer: B
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Explanation

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QUESTION 62
Which of the following is the correct energy expenditure in METs associated with an exercise oxygen
uptake of 28 ml·kg-1·min-1?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 98
D. 112

Correct Answer: A
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Explanation

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QUESTION 63
What is the minimum duration of an intermittent bout of aerobic activity that may be accumulated
throughout the day?

A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A
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Explanation

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QUESTION 64
A client who wants to strengthen muscles of the chest must perform exercises such as the bench press
and dumbbell flys as opposed to lat pull down and dumbbell rows. Which of the following principles of
training best describes this principle?

A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Progression
D. Goal setting

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 65
The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric
phase of a resistance training repetition?

A. Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate

B. Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate
C. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure
D. Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 66
Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action
followed by concentric action of the same muscle?

A. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

B. Plyometrics
C. Dynamic Activity Preparation
D. Progression

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 67
Which of the following indicate the appropriate height range for performing depth jump training effectively
and safely?

A. 16 to 42 inches (41 to 107 cm)

B. 24 to 48 inches (61 to 122 cm)
C. 32 to 60 inches (81 to 152 cm)
D. 40 to 60 inches (102 to 152 cm)

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 68
Case Study: Your new client is a 38-year old female that wants to be able to participate in a 3- day charity
walk. Her ultimate goal is to gradually improve her cardiovascular fitness. Which of the following exercise
programs should you initially prescribe to best meet your client's needs?

A. 3-5 days a week, 20-60 minutes in duration, 40-85% HRR

B. 3-5 days a week, progressing from 1-3 hours in duration, 60-85% HRR
C. 5-7 days a week, 20-60 minutes in duration, 35-50% HRR
D. 5-7 days a week, progressing from 1-3 hours in duration, 35-50%

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 69
Case Study: A female client expresses an interest in joining a recreational crew team. She hires you to train
her to withstand the demands of the sport. You design a resistance training program that includes low reps,
4-6 sets of high intensity squats and seated row within a comprehensive resistance training program. You
gradually increase her sets and load/intensity. In addition, you have included sprints and long distance
swimming in her overall program plan. Which of the following training principles have you incorporated?

A. specificity, reversibility and variation

B. overload, adaptability and strength
C. specificity, overload and variation
D. overload, strength and specificity

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 70
With respect to the exercise prescription for children (defined as < 13 years), it can be said that _____.

A. adult guidelines for resistance training can generally be applied

B. treadmill exercise is not a suitable mode of testing
C. exercise should be limited to 3-4 d · wk-1
D. vigorous activity should be avoided in this population

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 71
An exercise prescription for your pregnant client should include _____.

A. exercise occurring no more than three times per week

B. avoidance of moderate intensity resistance training
C. dynamic, rhythmic activities that use the large muscle groups
D. team sports such as basketball, soccer, and racquet sports

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the warm-up and cool-down components of the
exercise training session?

A. Warm-up should last twice as long as cool-down.

B. Cool-down should approximate an intensity that is between 40 and 60% of VO2R
C. Warm-up need not involve cardiorespiratory activity if the conditioning phase of the exercise session
involves resistance training.
D. Cool-down during the exercise session can be eliminated if at least 10 minutes of stretching is
performed instead.
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 73
Neural mechanisms responsible for adaptations in strength and power include all of the following EXCEPT
an increased _____.

A. motor unit recruitment

B. antagonist muscle coactivation
C. motor unit firing rate
D. fast-twitch fiber recruitment

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 74
General guidelines to follow when prescribing resistance training exercise to the client with arthritis include
which of the following?

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A. regimens with a frequency of 2-3 days per week

B. intensities that never exceed body weight
C. regimens with a frequency of no more than once per week
D. machine (as opposed to free weight) modes only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 75
Which of the following factors affect intensity of lower body plyometric drills?

A. speed, height of the drill, and body weight

B. speed, range of motion, and reaction time
C. strength of the athlete, points of contact, and flexibility
D. strength of the athlete, height of the drill, and reaction time

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 76
Which of the following indicates the correct order for a traditional periodization program for resistance
training?

A. hypertrophy, peaking, strength/power, recovery

B. strength/power, peaking, recovery, hypertrophy
C. strength/power, hypertrophy, recovery, peaking
D. hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, recovery

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 77
"I have been thinking about starting an exercise program, but there never seems to be enough time," is an
example of which stage in the Transtheoretical Model?

A. Preparation
B. Contemplation
C. Precontemplation
D. Action

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 78
What motivational strategy is used to help an individual reframe negative statements into positive
statements?

A. Goal setting
B. Social reinforcement
C. Self-monitoring
D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

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QUESTION 79
What type of learner would benefit from a handout with written instructions?

A. Visual
B. Aesthetic
C. Auditory
D. Kinesthetic

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 80
An auditory learner benefits most from which of the following?

A. Written instructions
B. Voice cues
C. Touch training
D. Demonstrations

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 81
When discussing strategies for changing physical activity habits with clients, it is usually best to:

A. give strong and clear advice about what works based on your professional experience.
B. assist clients to formulate their own behavior change strategies based on what has worked for them
before.
C. refer clients to a behavioral psychologist for expert advice.
D. emphasize knowledge of the health benefits of exercise.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 82
Stimulus control as a behavioral strategy to enhance exercise adherence can best be described as:

A. utilizing environmental cues to remind participants to maintain their commitment to exercise.

B. establishing realistic expectations and avoiding overly pessimistic or optimistic expectations.
C. developing a behavioral contract, signed by the participant that formalizes their commitment to exercise.
D. orienting participants to the advantages and disadvantages of exercise.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 83
An individual participates regularly in his workplace fitness program because he earns a discount on his
health insurance premium for doing so. For this individual, the discount is an example of ________ .

A. Relapse prevention
B. Intrinsic motivation
C. Self-monitoring.
D. Extrinsic motivation

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 84
Which of the following terms finish the acronym SMART with respect to goal setting: Specific, Measurable,
Attainable __________ and ____________.

A. Realistic, Tried
B. Related, Tried
C. Realistic, Time-anchored
D. Related, Time-anchored

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 85
Which of the following theories addresses the human need to explain why things happen in an attempt to
gain control or increase predictability?

A. Motivation
B. Attribution
C. Transfer
D. Retention

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 86
Case study: After demonstrating a variety of weight training exercises to a new client, you ask if she has
any questions. The client does not have any questions even though you observe her performing an
exercise with improper form.

After re-teaching the exercise, you should then reframe your questions to be more specific in order to
__________________________.

A. check for safety

B. demonstrate their mistake
C. demonstrate your knowledge
D. check for understanding

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 87
The acronym IDEA includes which of the following steps to solve a problem?

A. Identifying the client's response

B. Developing a list of solutions
C. Evaluating the client's response
D. Analyzing the consequences

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 88
Your client is telling you about his progress during the past week. You do not quite understand what the
client is trying to convey. You restate what the client just told you and ask him/her if that is correct. Which of
the following terms define the communication strategy described in the above scenario?

A. advising
B. reflecting
C. probing
D. diverting

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 89
What is the initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification of a 57 year old female client who
has a blood pressure of 150/70 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 240 mg/dL (6.2 mmol/L)?

A. No risk
B. Low risk
C. Moderate risk
D. High risk

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 90
What risk stratification would physician supervision be recommended during exercise testing?

A. Low risk, max testing

B. Low risk, submax testing
C. Moderate risk, submax testing
D. High risk, submax testing

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 91
What does waist to hip ratio assess?

A. Frame size
B. Weight relative to height
C. Distribution of body weight
D. The amount of subcutaneous fat

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 92
Your new client is a 42 year old male who is a stock broker. His health history revealed the following: total
cholesterol 185 mg/dL (4.7 mmol/L) , HDL 32 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), LDL 110 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L), resting
blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg, waist circumference 98 centimeters.
What is his initial risk stratification?

A. Low risk
B. Moderate risk
C. High risk
D. Only a physician can determine this clients risk stratification

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 93
Who should obtain a physician's clearance before starting an exercise program?

A. Every individual who is beginning an exercise program.

B. Sedentary individuals who are going to perform vigorous exercise.
C. Those who are considered low risk and perform only moderate exercise.
D. Men who are younger than 45 years of age and women who are younger than 55 years of age.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 94
A sedentary 48 year old male with controlled hypertension has hired you to assist him with beginning a
marathon training program. Which level of pre-participation screening must a certified Personal Trainer
require?

A. Medical health history questionnaire only.

B. PAR-Q form would be adequate information to begin.
C. No screening is needed as he is considered low risk due to his age.
D. Medical examination performed by his physician before he begins.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 95
The risk of developing a myocardial infarction increases when there is a family history of myocardial
infarction or sudden death before the ages of:

A. 50 years of age in a first-degree female relative; 60 years of age in a first-degree male relative
B. 50 years of age in any male relative; 60 years of age in any female relative
C. 55 years of age in a first-degree male relative; 65 years of age in a first-degree female relative
D. 55 years of age in any male relative; 65 years of age in any female relative

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 96
What is the standard site for the measurement of the subscapular skinfold?

A. Directly over the inferior angle of the scapula.

B. One centimeter below the inferior angle of the scapula.
C. Five centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula.
D. Five centimeters to the left of the inferior angle of the scapula.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 97
What are the most commonly used modes for cardiovascular exercise testing?

A. Treadmill, cycle ergometer, and stair climber

B. Treadmill, cycle ergometer, and bench stepping
C. Treadmill, rowing ergometer, and bench stepping
D. Treadmill, cycle ergometer, and rowing ergometer.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 98
Mr. Smith wishes to enroll in your exercise program. Preliminary evaluation revealed the following
information:
Age = 50 years Resting heart rate = 78 beats/min
Weight = 198 lb (90 kg) Resting blood pressure = 162/94 mm Hg Height = 70 inches (178 cm) Body fat =
30%

Blood chemistry:
Total cholesterol = 240 mg/dl (6.21 mmol/L)
HDL cholesterol = 34 mg/dl (0.88 mmol/L)
Triglycerides = 180 mg/dl (2.03 mmol/L)
Glucose = 98 mg/dl (5.55 mmol/L)

Family history and current habits:

Father died of heart attack at 90 years of age
Hypertensive mother died at age 84
Smokes a pipe after dinner each evening
Smokes cigarettes (25-30 per day)
Reports too much work and is struggling to meet deadlines Currently doing moderate exercise
No medications at present

According to ACSM stratification guidelines, Mr. Smith has which of the following coronary artery disease
risk factors?

A. Hypertension, obesity, high total cholesterol:HDL ratio.

B. Smoking, probable diabetes, high blood pressure.
C. Smoking, high total cholesterol, aggressive type A personality.
D. Hypertension, high total cholesterol, smoking.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 99
If a 50 year old male checked a "yes" response on his PAR-Q, what is the next step for his certified
Personal Trainer?

A. Administer fitness test and begin program

B. Refer client to his physician
C. Discuss health history and begin program
D. Recommend a maximal stress test

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 100
Of the nine possible skinfold sites, which three sites are measured on a diagonal fold?

A. Chest, subscapular, medial calf

B. Midaxillary, suprailiac, chest
C. Chest, subscapular, suprailiac
D. Midaxillary, subscapular, suprailiac

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 101
What is the difference between absolute and relative contraindication?

A. Relative contraindications are acute where absolute contraindications are chronic.

B. Absolute contraindications consist of risk/benefit analysis whereas relative contraindications do not.
C. Absolute contraindications prevent the individual from participating in some testing and participation
whereas relative contraindications do not allow any participation in exercise testing or prescription.
D. Absolute contraindications prevent the individual from any/all exercise testing and prescription whereas
relative contraindications allow for some testing and participation.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 102
What is the appropriate sequence for fitness testing?

A. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness, body composition

B. Cardiorespiratory endurance, flexibility, muscular fitness, body composition
C. Body composition, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness, flexibility
D. Body composition, flexibility, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 103
What factors should be taken into account when determining appropriate exercise test and mode?

A. Age, health history, lifestyle

B. Age, health history, gender
C. Health history, lifestyle, occupation
D. Health history, gender, lifestyle

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 104
What is the anatomical reference for the waist circumference measurement?

A. The maximal circumference between the chest to just below the gluteal fold.
B. Two centimeters below the umbilicus.
C. Narrowest part of the torso, above the umbilicus, and below the xiphoid process.
D. At the level of the umbilicus.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 105
Which of the following risk factors for coronary heart disease enables you to subtract one risk factor from
the total amount of positive risk factors?

A. Body Mass Index < 30 kg/m2

B. High serum HDL cholesterol > 60 mg/dl (1.6mmol/L)
C. Fasting blood glucose of < 110mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
D. A former cigarette smoker who stopped more than six months ago.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 106
Which of the following modifiable risk factors is the most preventable cause of death in the United States
today?

A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Cigarette Smoking
D. Hypercholesterolemia

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 107
What was the purpose of the original Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion?

A. To estimate oxygen consumption during exercise

B. To determine the level of fatigue during exercise
C. To estimate systolic and diastolic blood pressure during exercise
D. To estimate subject's immediate intrinsic motivation during exercise

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 108
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when starting the process for exercise prescription
for a new client?

A. Obtain a medical history, have the client perform a risk factor assessment, interpret the data, prescribe
exercise, give lifestyle counseling.
B. Obtain a medical history, have the client perform a risk factor assessment, administer fitness tests,
 interpret the data, prescribe exercise.
C. Have the client perform a risk factor assessment, obtain a medical history, administer fitness tests,
prescribe exercise and interpret the data.
D. Have the client perform a fitness assessment, obtain a medical history, give lifestyle counseling,
interpret the data, prescribe exercise.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 109
Which of the following locations is most sensitive to the baroreceptor reflex , when palpating the pulse of an
exercising client?

A. Radial artery
B. Carotid artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Femoral artery

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 110
Which of the following is a limiting factor when using the body mass index (BMI) to determine obesity and
disease risk?

A. Body density must be computed or estimated first.

B. Skinfold thicknesses must be measured first.
C. Fat and lean tissue weights are not differentiated.
D. Underestimates individuals with above average muscle mass.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 111
Client pre-participation screening procedures should be _____.

A. valid and include fitness testing at the first meeting

B. pre-approved by a physician and cost effective
C. valid, cost effective and time efficient
D. pre-approved by a physician and include fitness testing at the first meeting

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 112
Which of the following screening mechanisms would best optimize safety during exercise testing and aid in
the development of a safe and effective exercise prescription?

A. Postural analysis and bone density screening

B. Health history screening to determine risk stratification
C. PAR-Q form and prudent goal setting
D. Health history screening to identify metabolic syndrome

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 113
Which of the following structures are important to anterior/posterior postural observation and analysis?

A. Vertebral column for scoliosis and scapula for balance

B. Glenohumeral joint for balance and elbow/wrist for alignment
C. Vertebral column for balance and elbow/wrist for rotation
D. Glenohumeral joint for rotation and scapula for balance

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 114
The personal trainer's analysis of posture and body alignment should be made from which of the three
different positions?

A. Anterior, posterior, superior

B. Line of gravity, laterally from both sides, posterior
C. Line of gravity, posterior, superior
D. Anterior, posterior, laterally from both sides

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 115
Information about the personal habits of a client including alcohol, caffeine, and tobacco consumption is
typically included in what document?

A. Blood profile analysis

B. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
C. Medical history
D. Informed consent

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 116
Which of the following points should NOT be included in an Informed Consent document regarding fitness
testing?

A. Statement that the patient has been given an opportunity to ask questions about procedures
B. Reminder that the client is free to stop the test at any point
C. Warning that death could result from participation
D. Identical language for both diagnostic and prescriptive tests

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 117
For the comparison of body mass index (BMI) and plethysmography body composition assessment
techniques, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Plethysmography is inferior to BMI because of the difficulties associated with determination of lung
volume.
B. BMI is inferior to plethysmography because it does not account for lean/fat mass in its calculation.
C. Plethysmography is superior to BMI because it accounts for the hydration state of the client.
D. BMI is superior to plethysmography because its standard error of estimate for predicting percent body
fat is usually lower.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 118
Which of the following circumference sites are used to compute a waist-to-hip ratio?

A. Abdomen, suprailiac
B. Midaxillary, hips/thigh
C. Waist, buttocks/hips
D. Midaxillary, suprailiac

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 119
As described by the American College of Sports Medicine, proper technique during the push-up test
involves _____.

A. timing the number of push-ups performed in two minutes

B. requiring both female and male subjects to use the toes as the pivotal point of movement
C. allowing a slight (20°) elbow flexion at the "top" of the movement
D. stopping the test when the subject strains forcibly

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 120
Your client is wearing a heart rate monitor while performing a 1.5 mile run to assess aerobic capacity.
During the test, your client reaches 85% of her age-predicted heart rate maximum.
With this information, you should _____.

A. continue the test until she reaches 100% of her age-predicted heart rate maximum
B. terminate the test for safety purposes
C. continue the test if there is otherwise no reason to believe that the client has reached aerobic capacity
D. terminate the test if you continue to observe a steady increase in heart rate with increasing workload

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 121
What is the correct hand placement when spotting the dumbbell fly exercise?

A. Close to your clients biceps without touching them.

B. Close to the dumbbells or wrists of your client without touching them.
C. Maintaining contact behind your clients elbows on the descent of the dumbbells.
D. Hands held at your sides in a ready position, with your elbows flexed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 122
What is the correct spotting technique for the barbell flat bench press?

A. Keep your hands on the client's elbows.

B. Keep both hands on the bar at all times.
C. Keep your hands close to the bar without touching it.
D. Hands held at your sides in a ready position, with your elbows flexed at a 45-degree angle.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 123
What is the correct spotting technique of the seated barbell shoulder press?

A. Keep hands in an alternate grip position on the bar.

B. Wrap your arms around and underneath your client's arms.
C. Keep hands underneath your client's elbows and assist only when necessary.
D. Keep hands in an alternate grip position close to the bar, and assist only when necessary.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 124
Which of the following exercises is contraindicated by the American College of Sports Medicine?

A. Pelvic tilt
B. Trunk extensions
C. Seated hip/trunk flexion
D. Unsupported hip/trunk flexion

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 125
What exercise should be avoided for a person suffering from shoulder impingement syndrome?

A. Lateral raise
B. Seated row
C. Overhead press
D. Bench press

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 126
For your client who is training outside in 90°F (32 °C) weather at a moderate intensity, how often shou ld they
drink water?

A. Once every 15 minutes.

B. Once every 30 minutes.
C. Once every 60 minutes.
D. Only when they are thirsty.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 127
The recommended initial treatment for an acute joint injury is the application of which of the following?
A. Compression combined with short intervals of cold and heat.
B. Elevation and heat.
C. Compression and heat.
D. Compression and cold.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 128
What is the correct spotting technique for the barbell lunge?

A. Keep hands close to client's hips/waist or torso at all times.

B. Keep hands near the barbell.
C. Place arms underneath your client's arms.
D. Keep hands on client's hips/waist or torso at all times.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 129
Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a
very hot and humid afternoon?

A. Consume 2 - 3 salt tablets per hour.

B. Consume 2 - 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit).
D. Consume 5 - 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 130
In which of the following scenarios should an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) be used?

A. Conscious or unconscious client with shortness of breath

B. Unconscious client with a pulse
C. Conscious client with chest pain
D. Unconscious client without a pulse

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 131
Which four extrinsic risk factors may be associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury ?

A. Restricted range of motion, previous injury, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
B. Adverse environmental conditions, muscle weakness and imbalance, body composition, faulty
equipment
C. Excessive Load on the body, training errors, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
D. Bony alignment abnormalities, joint laxity, training errors, faulty equipment

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 132
A client at your fitness center complains of a headache and seems disoriented. He appears ashen and has
moist, cold skin. You know from his health history that he has Type II diabetes. Which of the following steps
do you take after you call for medical assistance?

A. Administer insulin.
B. Administer sugar.
C. Administer water.
D. Administer nothing... wait until emergency medical services arrive.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 133
What is a warning sign of anorexia nervosa?

A. Eating when depressed

B. Prefering to eat in isolation
C. Visits to the bathroom following meals
D. Frequent gains and losses in body weight

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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 134
What is the equivalent of 2.5 pounds (1.13 kg) of body fat in kilocalories?

A. 5250 kilocalories
B. 7000 kilocalories
C. 8000 kilocalories
D. 8750 kilocalories

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 135
Individuals participating in a non-medically based supervised weight loss program should reduce their
caloric intake by _____ kilocalories per day, and reduce their dietary fat intake to less than _____ percent of
their total caloric intake.

A. 500 to 1000 kilocalories; 30%

B. 1250 to 1500 kilocalories; 35%
C. 1500 to 1750 kilocalories; 30%
D. 2000 to 2200 kilocalories; 40%

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 136
What is considered a normal Body Mass Index (BMI) range?

A. 14.5 to 20.9 BMI

B. 18.5 to 24.9 BMI
C. 16.5 to 23.5 BMI
D. 19 to 27.5 BMI

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 137
According to the Food Guide Pyramid, how should fats and oils be used in the diet?

A. Sparingly
B. Equal the daily intake of protein
C. Be consumed only with breakfast
D. Should make up at least 30% of each meal

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 138
An athlete in heavy endurance training should maintain a daily carbohydrate intake that is approximately
what percentage of his/her total energy intake?

A. 30%
B. 55%
C. 65%
D. 85%

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 139
Which of the following is true about energy contents?

A. fat = 9 kcal/gram, carbohydrate = 7 kcal/gram, water = 0 kcal/gram

B. carbohydrate = 7 kcal/gram, protein = 4 kcal/gram, alcohol = 7 kcal/gram
C. water = 0 kcal/gram, protein = 4 kcal/gram, alcohol = 7 kcal/gram
D. protein = 9 kcal/gram, fat = 4 kcal/gram, carbohydrate = 4 kcal/gram

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 140
A client is attempting to lose 10 pounds. In order to lose 1.5 pounds per week, she will have to reduce her
caloric intake per day by how many calories?

A. 350
B. 500
C. 750
D. 1000

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 141
Your client is 5' 3" tall and weighs 130 pounds. After calculating her BMI, you have determined that she falls
in which of the following weight status categories?

A. Underweight
B. Normal
C. Overweight
D. Obese

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 142
If a food product had 250 kilocalories per serving, a recommended serving size of 5 ounces, and contained
10 servings per container, how many kilocalories would one consume if s/he ate ¼ of the container?

A. 625
B. 937
C. 2500
D. 3125

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 143
If your active client consumed 2100 kilocalories each day for one week and burned off 2600 kilocalories
each day for that same week, how much weight would your client lose that particular week, assuming
normal hydration?

A. 0 pounds
B. ½ pound
C. 1 pound
D. 2 pounds

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 144
What is your best course of action when you have evidence that one of your clients has an eating disorder?

A. Monitor the client's diet as needed

B. Refer the client to a medical professional
C. Perform regular weigh-ins to monitor weight as needed
D. Offer nutritional and dietary education

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 145
Vitamins classified as fat soluble are in which of the following groups?

A. A, B, C, D
B. A, D, E, K
C. A, B, D, E
D. A, C, D, K

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 146
An intake of additional protein calories above an average individual's daily requirement will result in which of
the following?

A. A conversion to fat and stored as triglyceride

B. Muscle hypertrophy
C. An increase in water retention
D. A conversion to carbohydrates and stored as glycogen

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 147
Which of the following is a potential danger of long-term consumption of a high-protein diet?

A. Zinc becomes less absorbable

B. Calcium is drawn from the bones & excreted in the urine
C. Iron levels drop causing anemia
D. Sodium is lost in the sweat causing hyponatremia

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 148
When reading the label on a new "energy" bar, you notice that the bar is "sweetened with fructose". Based
on this label, which of the following conclusions can you make about this product?

A. The bar is sweetened with a disaccharide.

B. Fructose in this bar would give it a high glycemic index.
C. The bar is sweetened with a monosaccharide.
D. Fructose is a type of organic micronutrient.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 149
According to the current (2005) Dietary Guidelines for Americans:

A. people over the age of 50 better absorb vitamin B12 in comparison to children and other adults
B. non-heme (plant) sources of iron are richer than heme (animal) sources of iron for women of
childbearing age
C. women of child-bearing age who may become pregnant require a higher daily intake of folic acid than
 the pregnant female
D. the elderly and individuals with dark skin are at greater risk of low vitamin D concentrations than other
populations

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 150
Which of the following statements about dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is correct?

A. The body does not produce DHEA.

B. DHEA has been shown to improve body composition and physical performance in most elderly men and
women.
C. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has classified DHEA as a controlled drug.
D. DHEA has no potential influence on testosterone production by both men and women.

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 151
What term best describes accurate record keeping, a safe exercise environment, and proper supervision?

A. Risk management
B. Help management
C. Legal management
D. Assistance management

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 152
A certified Personal Trainer fails to properly spot a client performing heavy incline dumbbell presses and the
client injures himself. This is an example of what type of negligence?

A. Casual
B. Serious
C. Omission
D. Commission

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 153
What is the correct order of an effective program planning model?
A. Needs assessment, program implementation, program planning, program evaluation
B. Program assessment, needs planning, program implementation, program evaluation
C. Program assessment, program planning, program implementation, program evaluation
D. Needs assessment, program planning, program implementation, program evaluation

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 154
Which of the following is NOT true regarding a properly administered informed consent form?

A. It provides an explanation of all procedures to be performed.

B. It releases the facility and personnel from liability.
C. It provides an opportunity for inquiries.
D. It encourages and implies confidentiality.

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 155
Which legal term is defined as "failure to conform one's conduct to a generally accepted standard or duty"?

A. Battery
B. Neglect
C. Abandonment
D. Negligence

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 156
Clients seeking nutritional meal planning from an ACSM certified Personal Trainer should be:

A. Informed about their nutritional supplement needs.

B. counseled on sport beverage intake only.
C. referred to a Registered Dietician.
D. counseled on macronutrients but not micronutrients.

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 157
A routine pattern of adhering to and documenting compliance with fitness industry guidelines is often an
effective guard against ________.

A. Breach of contract
B. Malfeasance
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 158
What is the heart's predominant pacemaker?

A. Sinoatrial node
B. Left bundle branch
C. Right bundle branch
D. Atrioventricular node

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 159
Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of
heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who
quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/
L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has
come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness.

How many risk factor thresholds for coronary artery disease does this client possess?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 160
Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of
heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who
quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/
L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has
come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness.

What are the risk factors according to the American College of Sports Medicine?
A. Family history, cigarette smoking
B. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, hypercholesterolemia
C. Hypercholesterolemia, impaired fasting glucose, obesity, hypertension
D. Family history, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, hypertension, cigarette smoking

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 161
Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of
heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who
quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/
L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has
come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness.

What initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification does this client fall into?

A. Low risk
B. Moderate risk
C. High risk
D. Very high risk

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 162
Your client reports ankle edema. What would a certified Personal Trainer look for?

A. Pain
B. Atrophy
C. Swelling
D. Red coloration

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 163
What is the role of High Density Lipoprotein in the blood?

A. Transports cholesterol
B. Increases anaerobic enzymes
C. Increases triglycerides
D. Decreases total cholesterol

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 164
What is the definition of arteriosclerosis?

A. Death of cardiac tissue

B. Accumulation of plaque
C. Hardening of the arteries
D. Widening of the arteries

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 165
What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of
coronary artery disease?

A. Advanced age, gender, family history

B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus
C. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia
D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 166
What effect should a bronchodilator have on your asthmatic client?

A. Increase airway resistance

B. Decrease airway resistance
C. Decrease blood pressure
D. Increase blood pressure

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 167
Which of the following blood lipids is influenced more by physical activity than by nutrition modification?

A. LDL
B. HDL
C. VLDL
D. Total cholesterol

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 168
What are the acute affects of alcohol intake on exercise?

A. Increases blood pressure and impairs exercise capacity

B. Decreases metabolic rate and increases blood pressure
C. Promotes dehydration and increases risk of heart arrhythmias
D. Increases risk of heart arrhythmias and increases exercise capacity

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 169
Which of the following practices are NOT recommended for persons with asthma who desire to participate
in a strenuous aerobic exercise program?

http://www.gratisexam.com/

A. Exercise in an environment with warm, moist air.

B. Self-administer prescribed medication as directed prior to or during the exercise session.
C. Use a short, intense warm-up.
D. Use a scarf or surgical mask in front of the mouth if exercising in cold weather.

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 170
What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of
coronary artery disease?

A. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia

B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus
C. Advanced age, gender, family history
D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 171
What is the leading cause of non-cardiovascular death in young athletes?

A. Contact Sports Injuries

B. Anemia
C. Hypothermia
D. Overheating

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 172
A client who reports a decreased Rating of Perceived Exertion at a given treadmill running speed after
taking albuterol, likely suffers from which of the following conditions?

A. Depression
B. Asthma
C. Bradycardia
D. Claudication

Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 173
What is the exercise response to acute cigarette smoking?

A. Respiration rate increases; blood pressure response to exercise decreases

B. Likelihood of coronary artery spasm increases; blood pressure response to decreases
C. Heart rate increases; likelihood of coronary artery spasm increases
D. Likelihood of coronary artery spasm decreases; blood pressure response to exercise increases

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 174
Which environmental trigger is NOT associated with exercise-induced asthma?

A. dry air
B. warm air
C. dusty air
D. pollutants

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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