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2 3 2 3
(3) tan–1 (4) tan–1 2 (3) tan–1 (4) tan–1 2
3 3
5. A conducting rod moves towards right with 5.
constant velocity v in unifrom transverse
magnetic field. Graph between force applied by
the external agent v/s velocity and power supplied
by the external agent v/s velocity.
HP HP
B B
R v R v
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (1) (2)
1 () 1 () 2
1 1 1 1
(1) 1 (2) 3 2 (3) (4) (1) 1 (2) 3 2 (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
12. As given in the figure, a series circuit connected 12.
across a 200 V, 60 Hz line consists of a capacitor 200 V, 60 Hz 30
of capacitive reactance 30 , a non-inductive
44
36
resistor of 44 , and a coil of inductive reactance
90
90 and resistance 36. The power dissipated
in the coil is
X i = 30 Xi = 30
R1 = 44 R1 = 44
200 V 200 V
60 Hz 60 Hz
(1) 320 W (2) 176 W (3) 144 W (4) 0 W (1) 320 W (2) 176 W (3) 144 W (4) 0 W
13. The electric and the magnetic field, associated 13. +z-
with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-axis,
can be represented by :-
(1) E E 0 ˆi, B B0 ˆj (1) E E 0 ˆi, B B0 ˆj
ˆ B B ˆi
(2) E E 0 k, ˆ B B ˆi
0 (2) E E 0 k, 0
(3) E E 0 ˆj, B B0 kˆ (3) E E 0 ˆj, B B0 kˆ
(4) E E 0 ˆi,B B0 kˆ (4) E E 0 ˆi,B B0 kˆ
14. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave 14.
in vacuum is given by E ˆi 40 cos (kz – 6 × 108t), E ˆi 40 cos (kz – 6 × 108t),
where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds
E, z t volt/m, (m)
respectively. The value of wave factor k is : (s)
k) :
(1) 6m–1 (2) 3m–1 (1) 6m–1 (2) 3m–1
(3) 2m–1 (4) 0.5m–1 (3) 2m–1 (4) 0.5m–1
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15. The current from the cell for the given circuit is:- 15.
:-
10 6 10 6
20 20
5 3 5 3
16 16
60V 1 60V 1
(1) 12A (2) 6A (3) 4A (4) None (1) 12A (2) 6A (3) 4A (4) None
16. The potential at point E for the given figure is :- 16.
E
:-
A B C A B C
(1) 3V (2) 5V (3) –3V (4) zero (1) 3V (2) 5V (3) –3V (4) zero
17. For the circuit shown in fig, the power delivered 17.
:-
by the battery is :-
1.5
1.5
6V 4 6
4
6V 4 6
4
h 3h h 3h
(1) d = (2) d = (1) d = (2) d =
2 2 2 2
(3) d = 2h (4) d = h (3) d = 2h (4) d = h
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20. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string 20.
m
of length is suspended from a vertical support.
The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an
rad/s
angular speed rad/s about the vertical. About
:
the point of suspension : (1)
(1) Angular momentum changes in direction but
not in magnitude
(2)
(2) Angular momentum changes both in direction
and magnitude
(3)
(3) Angular momentum is conserved
(4) Angular momentum changes in magnitude but (4)
not in direction.
21. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string wound 21.
R
‘m’
around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m and
'm'
radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder,
with what acceleration will the mass fall on release?
R R
m m
m m
5g 2g g 5g 2g g
(1) (2) g (3) (4) (1) (2) g (3) (4)
6 3 2 6 3 2
22. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth's 22.
g
m
surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object
of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to
R
a height equal to the radius R of the earth, is-
-
1 1 1 1
(1) 2mgR (2) mgR (3) mgR (4) mgR (1) 2mgR (2) mgR (3) mgR (4) mgR
2 4 2 4
23. Three solid spheres are made to move on a 23.
rough horizontal surface. Sphere P is given a
P
Q
spin and released. Sphere Q is given a forward
linear velocity. Sphere R is given linear and
R
rotational motions as shown in the figure.
Directions of the friction force on spheres P, Q,
P, Q, R
R are respectively :-
v
P Q v R
v
P Q v R \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
(1) (2)
(1) Right, Left, Right (2) Left, Right, Right
(3) Left, Right, Left (4) Right, Left, Left (3) (4)
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24. A hoop of radius r and mass m rotating with an 24.
0
m
angular velocity 0 is placed on a rough horizontal r
surface. The initial velocity of the centre of the
hoop is zero. What will be the velocity of the
centre of the hoop when it ceases to slip?
r0 r0 r0 r0 r0 r0
(1) (2) (3) (4) r0 (1) (2) (3) (4) r0
4 3 2 4 3 2
25. The moment of inertia of uniform semicircular disc 25. M
r
of mass M and radius r about a line perpendicular
to the plane of the disc through the centre is-
-
1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2
(1) Mr (2) Mr (1) Mr (2) Mr
4 5 4 5
1 2 1 2
(3) Mr2 (4) Mr (3) Mr2 (4) Mr
2 2
26. A thin rod of length L is bent to form a semicircle. 26. L
The mass of rod is M. What will be the
M
gravitational potential at the centre of the circle?
?
GM GM GM GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
L 2L L 2L
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31. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table 31. 2 m
4 kg
such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from the
edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 60 cm
4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the entire
?
chain on the table ? (1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J
(1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J (3) 120 J (4) 1200 J (3) 120 J (4) 1200 J
32. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from 32. m
rest to a speed v in a time T. The instantaneous 'T'
v
power delivered to the body as a function of time
:-
is given by :-
mv 2 t mv 2 t 2
mv 2 t mv 2 t 2 (1) (2)
(1) (2) T2 T2
T2 T2
1 mv 2 t 1 mv 2 t 2 1 mv 2 t 1 mv 2 t 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 T2 2 T2 2 T2 2 T2
33. A rope is used to lower vertically a block of mass 33. M
M by a distance x with a constant downward
g
g x
acceleration . The work done by the rope on 2
2
the block is :-
:-
1 1
(1) Mgx (2) Mgx2 (1) Mgx (2) Mgx2
2 2
1 1
(3) Mgx (4) Mgx2 (3) Mgx (4) Mgx2
2 2
34. A simple pendulum is released from A as shown 34.
A
in figure. If m and represent the mass of the bob m
(bob)
and the length of the pendulum respectively, the
gain in kinetic energy at B is :- B
:-
A A
30° 30°
B B
mg mg mg mg
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
3 2 3 2
(3) gm (4) mg (3) gm (4) mg
2 3 2 3
35. The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along 35. R
a circle of radius R depends upon the distances
k = as2
as k = as2. The force acting on the particle is:
: (a
)
(Here a is constant)
1/ 2
2as2 s2
1/ 2
2as2 s2
2as 1 (1) (2) 2as 1
(1)
R
(2) R 2 R R 2
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36. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in 36.
m1 m2
r1 r2
circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds
are such that they make complete circles in the
t
same time t. The ratio of their centripetal
accelerations is :-
:-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2
(3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2 (3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2
37. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are attached 37. 4 6
to the ends of a string passing over a pulley. A
4
4 kg mass is attached to the table top by another T1
string. The tension in this string T1 is equal to :- :-
T T
T T
4 kg 4 kg
6 kg T1 6 kg
T1
2 2
A 6m/s A 6m/s
B B
(1) 2N (2) 4N (3) 1N (4) zero (1) 2N (2) 4N (3) 1N (4)
39. A truck starts from rest at constant acceleration 39.
5 m/s
2
F=1000N
F=1000N 5kg µ = 0.1
5kg µ = 0.1
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g
41. A block slides down on incline of angle 30° with 41.
4
g (
an acceleration . Find the coefficient of kinetic
4 = 30°) :-
friction :-
1 2 1
1 2 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) None 3 3 2 3
3 3 2 3
42. If a ball collides with a wall at an angle of 45° 42.
45°
and rebounds perpendicularly with to its initial 90°
direction then find the impulse acting on the ball:-
:-
y y
m,v m,v
90° x 90° x
m,v m,v
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46. In acidic medium required number of moles of 46.
2.5
KMnO4
ferrous oxalate for reduction of 2.5 moles of
:-
KMnO4 is :- (1) 2.5 (2) 4.167
(1) 2.5 (2) 4.167 (3) 1.5 (4) 6.25 (3) 1.5 (4) 6.25
47. Which one of the following compound is not used 47.
as reducing agent :- :-
(1) CaH2 (2) PbCl2 (3) HIO4 (4) H2S (1) CaH2 (2) PbCl2(3) HIO4 (4) H2S
48. In a one litre closed container 4 moles of PCl5 are 48.
4 PCl5
heated and 80% PCl5 remains undissociated at 80% PCl5
equilibrium then the value of equilibrium constant :-
is :- (1) 0.0105 (2) 12.8
(1) 0.0105 (2) 12.8 (3) 0.2 (4) 50 (3) 0.2 (4) 50
49. 2B(g) + 2C(g) 3A(g) + heat ; necessary 49. 3A(g) + ; A
2B(g) + 2C(g)
conditions to obtain high amount of A are :-
:-
(1) High temperature, low pressure (1)
(2) High temperature, high pressure (2)
(3) Low temperature, high pressure (3)
(4) Low temperature, low pressure (4)
50. In one litre container the reaction of 2 mole N2 50. 2 N 2
5
H 2
and 5 mole H2 the equilibrium concentration of
NH3 is half than concentration of N2 then what
N 2
will be the equilibrium constant ?
?
(1) 1.82 × 10–3 (2) 7.29 × 10–3 (1) 1.82 × 10–3 (2) 7.29 × 10–3
(3) 9.72 × 10–3 (4) 10.5 × 10–2 (3) 9.72 × 10–3 (4) 10.5 × 10–2
51. Degree of dissociation is 10% for 10–3 M solution 51. 10–3 M H2CO3
10%
of H2CO3 then pH of solution is :-
pH :-
(1) 4 (2) 2.7 (3) 3.7 (4) 3.3 (1) 4 (2) 2.7 (3) 3.7 (4) 3.3
52. The conjugate base of strong acid in the reaction 52. CH3COOH + HCl Cl + CH 3COOH 2
CH3COOH + HCl Cl + CH 3COOH 2 will be:-
:-
(1) HCl (2) Cl (1) HCl (2) Cl
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH3COOH2 (3) CH3COOH (4) CH3COOH 2
–8
53. pH of 10 M Ba(OH)2 solution will be :- 53. 10–8 M Ba(OH)2 pH
:-
(1) 7.4 (2) 6.92 (3) 7.08 (4) 7.7 (1) 7.4 (2) 6.92 (3) 7.08 (4) 7.7
HPO4
–2 –2
54. Conjugate acid of HPO4 is:- 54. :-
(1) H3PO4 (2) H 2 PO
4 (3) PO 4 3 (4) H 2 PO
3 (1) H3PO4 (2) H 2 PO 3
4 (3) PO 4 (4) H 2 PO 3
55. 2 gm acetic acid and 3 gm sodium acetate are 55. 100
2
present in 100 ml. aqueous solution then what will
3
be the pH of solution if ionisation constant of pH
acetic acid is 1.8 × 10–5 :- 1.8 × 10–5:-
(1) 3.7 (2) 4.98 (3) 4.78 (4) 4.08 (1) 3.7 (2) 4.98 (3) 4.78 (4) 4.08
56. What will be the solubility of AlCl3 in solution 56. C
CaCl2
AlCl3
of CaCl2 with concentration C :-
?
K sp K sp K sp K sp K sp K sp K sp K sp
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
2C 8C3 3C 4C2 2C 8C3 3C 4C2
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57. The amount of copper metal deposited at cathode 57. 500
on passing electric current of 500 mili ampere for
20
20 minutes in cupric chloride solution is -
-
(1) 0.394 gm (2) 0.098 gm (1) 0.394 gm (2) 0.098 gm
(3) 0.197 gm (4) 0.033 gm (3) 0.197 gm (4) 0.033 gm
58. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of KI in 58.
KI
presence of platinum electrodes :-
:-
(a) Hydrogen gas is released at cathode (a)
(b) Oxygen gas is released at anode (b)
(c) pOH of solution decreases (c) pOH
(d) There is deposition of potassium at cathode (d)
Choose the correct option from following :-
(1) a, b (2) only a (1) a, b (2) a
(3) a, c (4) a, c, d (3) a, c (4) a, c, d
59. What will be the electrode potential of Cu 59. CuSO4 0.025 M
Cu
electrode dipped in 0.025 M CuSO4 solution at
298 K Cu
298 K. Cu has the standard reduction potential
0.34 V :-
0.34 V :-
(1) 0.047 V (2) 0.293 V
(1) 0.047 V (2) 0.293 V
(3) 0.35 V (4) 0.387 V (3) 0.35 V (4) 0.387 V
60. What will be the electromotive force of following 60. Fe|Fe+2(0.2 M)|| Au+3(0.02 M)|Au
cell Fe|Fe+2(0.2 M)|| Au+3(0.02 M)|Au, if E 0Fe 2 / Fe – 0.44 V
E 0Fe 2 / Fe – 0.44 V and E 0Au / Au 3 – 1.50 V E 0Au / Au 3 – 1.50 V
(1) 1.914 V (2) 1.047 V (1) 1.914 V (2) 1.047 V
(3) 1.91 V (4) 1.927 V (3) 1.91 V (4) 1.927 V
61. Which one of the following metals can not be 61.
-
obtained on electrolysis of aqueous solution of its
salts ?
?
(1) Mg (2) Ag (1) Mg (2) Ag
(3) Cu (4) Cr (3) Cu (4) Cr
62. If 0.50 L of a 0.60 M SnSO 4 solution is 62. 4.60 A
0.60 M SnSO4
electrolyzed for a period of 30.0 min using a 0.50 L 30.0
current of 4.60 A. If inert electrodes are used what
2+
is the final concentration of Sn remaining in the
Sn2+
?
solution ? [ at. wt. of Sn = 119] [ Sn
= 119]
(1) 0.342 M (2) 0.544 M (1) 0.342 M (2) 0.544 M
(3) 0.389 M (4) 0.514 M (3) 0.389 M (4) 0.514 M
m m
(HA)
63. Ionisation constant of a weak acid (HA) in terms 63.
of m and m is :-
:-
C m C 2m C m C 2m
(1) K a (2) K a (1) K a (2) K a
( m m ) m ( m m ) ( m m ) ( m m )
m
C( m )2 C( m )2
(3) Ka = (4) None of these (3) Ka = (4) None of these
m ( m m ) m ( m m )
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64. A solid has CCP arrangement having atoms A, 64. A, B, C
CCP
B, C. If A atoms are present at face centres, B A
, B
C
50%
at corners and C atoms occupy 50% tetrahedral
voids then molecular formula of solid will be :-
:-
(1) A3B4C (2) AB3C4 (1) A3B4C (2) AB3C4
(3) A4BC3 (4) A3BC4 (3) A4BC3 (4) A3BC4
65. The relation between axis and angles a b c 65.
a b c
= = 90°,
and = = 90°, 90° in :- 90°
:-
(1) Orthorhombic (2) Monoclinic (1) (2)
(3) Triclinic (4) Tetragonal (3) (4)
66. The packing efficiency and coordination number 66.
of face centred cubic lattice is :-
:-
(1) 68%, 8 (2) 72%, 12 (1) 68%, 8 (2) 72%, 12
(3) 74%, 12 (4) 58%, 8 (3) 74%, 12 (4) 58%, 8
67. An aqueous solution containing 28% by weight of 67. 28% A (mw = 140)
a liquid A (mw = 140) mole fraction of liquid is :-
:-
(1) 0.028 (2) 0.048 (1) 0.028 (2) 0.048
(3) 0.952 (4) 0.713 (3) 0.952 (4) 0.713
68. Calculate the molarity if 30 mL of 0.5M H2SO4 68. 30 mL, 0.5M H2SO4 500 mL
diluted to 500 mL :-
:-
(1) 0.03 (2) 0.26 (3) 3.33 (4) 5/3 (1) 0.03 (2) 0.26 (3) 3.33 (4) 5/3
69. One mole of glucose is dissolved in 2 moles of 69.
1
2
water. The vapour pressure of solution relative to
:-
that of water is :-
2 1 1 3
2 1 1 3 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3 3 2 2
3 3 2 2
70. At higher altitude, boiling point of water is 95°C. 70.
95°C
The amount of NaCl added to 1 kg of water 100°C
1 kg
NaCl
(Kb = 0.52 K mol–1kg) in order to raise the boiling
(NaCl 90% ):-
point of solution to 100°C (assuming 90% (1) 296.05 g
ionisation of NaCl) :- (2) 281.25 g
(1) 296.05 g (2) 281.25 g (3) 270 g
(3) 270 g (4) 310 g (4) 310 g
71. Which of the following have highest boiling point 71. 1 atm
B.P.
at 1 atm pressure :- :-
(1) 0.1 m NaCl (2) 0.1 m BaCl2 (1) 0.1 m NaCl (2) 0.1 m BaCl2
(3) 0.1 m sucrose (4) 0.1 m glucose (3) 0.1 m sucrose (4) 0.1 m glucose
72. 0.004 M Na2SO4 solution is isotonic with 0.01 M 72. 0.004 M Na 2SO 4 0.01 M
glucose solution then degree of dissociation of
Na2SO4
:-
Na2SO4 :- (1) 25% (2) 50%
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 85% (3) 75% (4) 85%
73. Which of the following solution has maximum 73.
:-
freezing point :- (1) 1 m CH3COONa (2) 1 m CaCl2
(1) 1 m CH3COONa (2) 1 m CaCl2 (3) 1 m Na3PO4 (4) 1 m C12H22O11
(3) 1 m Na3PO4 (4) 1 m C12H22O11
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74. Which of the following is low boiling azeotropic 74.
:-
mixture :-
(1) C6H6 + CHCl3 (2) H2O + HCl
(1) C6H6 + CHCl3 (2) H2O + HCl
(3) CHCl3 + CH3COOH (4) C6H6 + CCl4 (3) CHCl3 + CH3COOH (4) C6H6 + CCl4
75. In aqueous solution of potassium ferrocyanide the 75.
degree of dissociation of salt is 80% then the value
80%
of vant Hoff's factor is :-
:-
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.4 (3) 4.2 (4) 5.0 (1) 4.8 (2) 3.4 (3) 4.2
(4) 5.0
76. For the first order reaction, half life is 14sec. The time 76.
14
1 1
required for the initial concentration to reduce to th
8 8
of its value is :-
:-
(1) 28 sec (2) 42 sec (1) 28 sec (2) 42 sec
3
3
(3) (14) sec
2
(4) (14) sec (3) (14) sec (4) (14)2sec
1 1
77. The plot of log K vs helps to calculate :- 77. log K
T T
(1) The energy of activation
:-
(2) The rate constant of the reaction (1)
(3) The order of reaction (2)
(4) The energy of activation as well as frequency (3)
factor (4)
78. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 78. –3 –1
15 × 10 s
–3 –1
15 × 10 s . How long will 5.0 g of this reaction
5.0 g
3.0g
take to reduce to 3.0 g :- :-
(1) 15.08 sec (2) 20.84 sec (1) 15.08 sec (2) 20.84 sec
(3) 29.81 sec (4) 34.07 sec (3) 29.81 sec (4) 34.07 sec
79. The elementary reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) 79.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
is carried out in 1 dm3 vessel and 2dm3 vessel 1 dm
2dm
3 3
3 3
(2) For CsCl crystal r+ + r– = a (2) CsCl r+ + r– = a
4 4
(3) For zink belnde structure ratio of coordination (3)
number of cation to anion is 1 : 1
1 : 1
(4) All are correct (4)
87. IUPAC name of the following compound will be:- 87.
IUPAC
:-
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88. Which of the following optically active compound 88.
has maximum number of chiral carbons :-
:-
(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3 (1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3
| | | |
Br Cl Br Cl
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 (2) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3
| |
OH OH
CH3 H CH3 H
(3) C=C=C C=C=C
(3)
H CH3 H CH3
(4) (4)
COOH COOH COOH COOH
(II) (II)
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91. Hisardale is an example of ? 91.
?
(1) Out Crossing (1)
(2) Inbreeding (2)
(3) Interspecific hybridisation (3)
(4) Crossbreed (4)
92. How many of honey bees in the list given below 92.
develops from fertilised egg ?
Queen, Soldier, Drone, Fanner, Nurse, Scout
(1) Five (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
93. The most common type of honey bee is ? 93.
(1) Apis indica (1) Apis indica
(2) Apis dorsata (2) Apis dorsata
(3) Apis florae (3) Apis florae
(4) All of these (4)
94. How many of the animals in the list given below 94.
are exotic breeds of cow ?
?
Brown swiss, Sahiwal, Jersey, Holstein , , ,
(1) One (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
95. Consider the following four statements (a-d) for 95.
(a-d)
coelentrates and give the answer of question asked
below. (a)
(a) Polyp produces medusa asexually
(b) Medusa produces polyp sexually (b)
(c) Polyp are free swimming and cylindrical in (c)
shape
(d) Medusa are umbrella shaped and sessile (d)
How many option are correct ?
(1) a, b and c (2) c and d (1) a, b c (2) c d
(3) b and d (4) a and b (3) b d (4) a b
96. Presence of the bioluminesence is the characterstic 96.
feature of :-
:-
(1) Annelida (1)
(2) Ctenophora (2)
(3) Porifera (3)
(4) Echinodermeta (4)
97. Which one is not a character of hemichordata ? 97.
(1) Bilateral symmetry (1)
(2) Closed circulatory system (2)
(3) Deuterostometa (3)
(4) Coelomates (4)
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98. Identify the correct match from column I, II & III. 98.
I, II
III
A A
B B
C C
D D
(1) A-Labrum, B-Compound eye , C- Maxilla, (1) A-
, B-
, C-
, D-
D-Labium
(2) A-Ocelli, B-Compound eye, C- Maxilla, (2) A-
, B- ,
C-
,
D-Labium D-
(3) A-Ocilli, B-Compound eye, C- Labrum, (3) A-
, B-
, C-
, D-
D-Maxilla
(4) A-Maxilla, B-Compound eye, C- Mandible, (4) A-
, B-
, C -
,
D-Labium D-
110. Read the following four statements (A-D) : 110.
(A-D)
:
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born (A)
because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative
bacterium. (B)
(C) AIDS is characterized by decrease in T-helper
(C) AIDS T-
cell
(D) Metastasis is a property of benign tumors (D)
How many of the above statements are wrong?
(1) Four (2) One (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
111. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake 111.
of:
?
(1) Tobacco (Chewing) (1) ()
(2) Cocaine (2)
(3) Opium (3)
(4) Alcohol (4)
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112. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in : 112.
(1) Human RBCs ?
(1) RBCs
(2) Human liver
(2)
(3) Gut of female Anopheles (3)
(4) Salivary glands of Anopheles (4)
113. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually 113. HIV
show symptoms of AIDS ?
?
(1) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells (1)
(2) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
transcriptase (2) DNA
(3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
T-lymphocytes and damages large number of (3) HIV T-
these
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an (4) 15
infected person.
114. Hepatitis B vaccine contains :- 114. B
:-
(1) Whole virus (1)
(2) Only antigens (2)
(3) Antibody (3)
(4) Both antigens and antibody (4)
115. Which one of the following techniques is safest 115.
for the detection of cancers ?
(1) Radiography (X–ray) (1) (X–)
(2) Computed tomography (CT) (2) (CT)
(3) Histopathological studies (3)
(4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (4)
(MRI)
116. Which of the following is a pair of bacterial 116.
diseases ? ?
(1) Typhoid, Cholera (1)
(2) Ringworm, AIDS (2)
(3) Common Cold, Dengue (3)
(4) Dysentery, Common Cold (4)
117. Example of primary lymphoid organ is :- 117.
(1) Thymus (2) Appendix (1) (2)
(3) Spleen (4) Tonsil (3) (4)
118. Function of B-lymphocyte is :- 118. B-
(1) Phagocytosis of antibody (1)
(2) Phagocytosis of RBC (2)
(3) Destruction of platelets (3)
(4) Production of antibody (4)
119. In the given list how many factors are not included 119.
in physiological barriers :- :-
Acid in stomach, Saliva in mouth, Skin,
PMNL-neutrophils, Monocytes.
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
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120. Match the diseases in Column I with the appropriate 120.
I
II
items in Column II :-
Column I Column II
I
II
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Reduction in
(a) (i)
gaseous exchange
area
(b) Malaria (ii) Due to protozoa (b) (ii)
(c) SARS (iii) Release of (c) SARS (iii) RBC
hemozoin
from RBC
(d) Emphysena (iv) Droplet infection (d) (iv)
(1) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv) (1) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i) (2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(3) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv) (3) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(4) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii) (4) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)
121. "Heroin" is obtained from acetylation of :- 121.
(1) Cocaine (2) Morphine (1) (2)
(3) Cannabinoid (4) LSD (3) (4) LSD
122. Conifers differ from grasses in the 122.
(1) absence of pollen tubes (1)
(2) formation of endosperm before fertilization (2)
(3) production of seeds from ovules (3)
(4) lack of xylem tracheids (4)
123. Moss peat is used as a packing material for 123.
sending flowers and live plants to distant places
because :
(1)
(1) it reduces transpiration
(2)
(2) it serves as a disinfectant
(3) it is easily available (3)
(4) it is hygroscopic (4)
124. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic 124.
engineering are : (1)
(1) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(2) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
(2)
elegans (3)
(3) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
(4) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage (4)
125. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are – 125.
(chromatophores)
(1) Specialized granules responsible for –
colouration of cells (1)
(2) Structures responsible for organizing the shape
of the organism (2)
(3) Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for
carrying out various metabolic activities (3)
(4) Internal membrane systems that my becomes
extensive and complex in photosynthetic (4)
cynobacteria
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126. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the 126.
antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.
As a result :
(1) Self fertilization is prevented
(1)
(2) There is no change in success rate of
(2)
fertilization
(3) There is high degree of sterility (3)
(4) One can conclude that the plant is apomictic (4)
127. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to 127.
the same species if they :
(1) Have same number of chromosomes (1)
(2) Can reproduce freely with each other and form (2)
seeds
(3) Have more than 90 percent similar genes (3)
90
(4) Look similar and possess identical secondary (4)
metabolites.
128. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents: 128.
(1) The microsporangium in which pollen grains (1)
develop
(2) A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms (2)
are formed (3)
(3) A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains
are stored after pollination
(4) An opening in the megagametophyte through (4)
which the pollen tube approaches the egg
129. ICBN stands for : 129. ICBN
(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (1)
(2) Indian Congress of Biological Names (2)
(3) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (3)
(4) International Congress of Biological Names (4)
130. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and 130.
Methanobacterium exemplify :-
(1) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively (1)
DNA
supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as
well as mitochondria
(2)
(2) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and
ribosomes
(3)
(3) Archaebacteria that contain protein
homologous to eukaryotic core histones (4)
(4) Archaebacteria that lack any histones
resembling those found in eukaryotes but
DNA
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled.
131. Select one of the following pairs of important 131.
features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and
Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms :-
(1) Perianth and two integuments
(2) Embryo development and apical meristem (1)
(3) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation (2)
(4) Presence of vessel elements and absence of (3)
(4)
archegonia
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132. In which one of the following, male and female 132.
gametophytes do not have free living independent
existence?
(1) Polytrichum (2) Cedrus (1) (2)
(3) Pteris (4) Funaria (3) (4)
133. In the light of recent classification of living 133.
organisms into three domains of life (bacteria,
archaea and eukarya), which one of the following
statements is true about archaea ?
(1) Archaea completely differ from both (1)
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(2) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes (2)
(3) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects (3)
(4) Archaea have some novel features that are (4)
absent in other pyokaryotes and eukaryotes
134. Which one of the following is considered 134.
important in the development of seed habit ?
?
(1) Free-living gametophyte (1)
(2) Dependent sporophyte (2)
(3) Heterospory (3)
(4) Haplontic life cycle (4)
135. Examine the figure A, B, C and D. In which one 135. A, B, C D.
of the four options all the items A, B, C and D (1-4)
A, B, C
D
are correct ?
Options :
A B C D A B C D
(1) Equisetum Ginkgo Selaginella Lycopodium (1)
(2) Selaginella Equisetum Salvinia Ginkgo (2)
(3) Funaria Adiantum Salvinia Riccia (3)
(4) Chara Marchantia Fucus Pinus (4)
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136. Protista is similar to plantae and different from 136.
monera in :- (1)
(1) Mode of nutrition
(2)
(2) Cell type
(3) Presence of Flagella (3)
(4) Cell wall (4)
137. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ? 137.
?
(1) Agrobacterium (2) Rhizobium (1) (2)
(3) Nostoc (4) Mycorrhiza (3) (4)
138. Nitrifying bacteria :- 138.
:-
(1) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates (1)
(2) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds (2)
(3) Convert proteins into ammonia (3)
(4) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (4)
139. Which one of the following is a wrong matching 139.
of a microbe and its industrial product, while the
remaining three are correct ?
(1) Aspergillus niger - citric acid (1)
(2) Yeast - Riboflavin (2)
(3) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid (3)
(4) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid (4)
140. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for 140
ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same
Kingdom of organisms as that of :
(1) Ascaris, a round worm (1)
(2) Taenia, a tapeworm (2)
(3) Wuchereria, a filarial worm (3)
(4) Rhizopus, a mould (4)
141. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the 141.
group :-
(1) Monera (2) Plantae (1) (2)
(3) Fungi (4) Animalia (3) (4)
142. Which one of the following does not differ in 142.
E.coli and Chlamydomonas ?
(1) Cell wall (1)
(2) Cell membrane (2)
(3)
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Chromosomal Organization (4)
143. Which one single organism or the pair of 143.
organisms is correctly assigned to its or their
?
named taxonomic group ? (1)
(1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a
fungus (2)
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista
(3)
(3) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the
same kingdom as that of Penicilium
(4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from (4)
the symbiotic association of an algae and a
protozoan
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144. How many organisms in the list given below are
144.
autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces,
Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia
(1) (2)
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five (3) (4)
145. Which of the following suffix is always correct 145.
for taxonomic categories without any exception ?
(1) "–ia" for class like in class Mammalia (1)
"–"
(2) "–ca" for genus like in genus Musca (2)
"–"
(3) "–ceae" for family like is family Poaceae (3) "–"
(4) "–oda" for phylum like in phylum Arthopoda (4) "–
"
146. In which technique of ART fertilization takes 146.
ART
place in fallopian tube ?
?
(1) GlFT and ZlFT (2) ZlFT and AI (1) GlFT ZlFT (2) ZlFT AI
(3) ZlFT and IUET (4) GlFT and AI (3) ZlFT IUET (4) GlFT AI
147. Which of the following part of sperm is known 147.
as "energy chamber" ?
(1) Head (2) Neck (1) (2)
(3) Middle piece (4) Tail (3) (4)
148. Which of the following does not participate in 148.
formation of human placenta ? ?
(1) Chorion (2) dacidua (1) (2)
(3) Yolk sac (4) Allantois (3) (4)
149. Which of the following egg membranes are 149.
present on human egg just ofter ovulation ?
?
(1) Zona radiata (2) Corona radiata (1) (2)
(3) Chorion (4) All of the above (3) (4)
150. Which structure does not carry sperms ? 150.
?
(1) Vas-defrens (2) Rate testis (1) (2)
(3) Epididymis (4) Seminal vesicle (3) (4)
151. Secretion of which gland helps in lubrication 151.
during coitus ? ?
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate (1) (2)
(3) Cowper's gland (4) Mammary gland (3) (4)
152. Which of the following hormone helps in the 152.
ejection of milk from mammary gland
(1) Prolactin (2) Oxytocin (1) (2)
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone (3) (4)
153. Which statement is incorrect ? 153.
(1) spermatogonia is diploid cell (1)
(2) Ist polar body during oogenesis is diploid (2)
cell
(3) Sec. oocyte is haploid cell
(3)
(4) Spermatid is haploid cell
(4)
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154. Which is incorrectly match in following columns. 154.
155. Which hormone cause formation of cervical 155.
mucous plug ?
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (1) (2)
(3) hCG (4) Prostaglandin (3) hCG (4)
156. Inhibin cause 156.
(1) Suppression of secretion of estrogen (1)
(2) Suppression of secretion of FSH (2) FSH
(3) Suppression of secretion of LH (3) LH
(4) Suppression of secretion of testosterone (4)
157. Menstruation occurs due to- 157.
(1) withdraw of LH (1) LH
(2) withdrawl of prostaglandins (2)
(3) withdrawl of sex hormones (3)
(4) degeneration of ovary (4)
158. What is the important use of condom other than 158.
contraception ? (1)
(1) To increase sexual desire (2) STD
(2) Protection from STD
(3)
(3) To make coitus easier
(4) Permanent contraception (4)
159. Which chemical is not secreted by sertoli 159.
cells ?
?
(1) Inhibin (2) ABP (1) (2) ABP
(3) testosterone (4) All of the above (3) (4)
160. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs 160.
;
of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats
used in flying are an example of :-
(1) Analogous organs (2) Adaptive radiation (1) (2)
(3) Homologous organs (4) Convergent evolution (3) (4)
161. Which one of the following are analogous 161.
structures ? (1)
(1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon.
(2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man. (2)
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of
(3)
Cucurbita
(4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse (4)
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162. On Galapagos island Darwin observed variation 162.
in beaks of birds (Darwin's finches) and he
:-
concluded
(1)
(1) Interspecies variation
(2)
(2) Intraspecies variation
(3) Natural selection according to food (3)
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters (4)
163. Darwin's finches are a good example of 163.
(1) Convergent evolution (1)
(2) Industrial melanism, (2)
(3) Connecting link (3)
(4) Adaptive radiation (4)
164. Potato and ginger are examples of :- 164.
(1) Vestigial organs (1)
(2) Retrogressive evolution (2)
(3) Analogous organs (3)
(4) Homologous organs (4)
165. When two species of different genealogy come to 165.
resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the
phenomenon is termed ?
(1) Convergent evolution (1)
(2) Divergent evolution (2)
(3) Microevolution (3)
(4) Co-evolution (4)
166. One of the important consequences of 166.
geographical isolation is :-
(1) Random creation of new species (1)
(2) No change in the isolated fauna (2)
(3) Preventing Speciation (3)
(4) Speciation through reproductive isolation (4)
167. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth 167.
proves that :-
(1) Melanism is a pollution-generated feature (1)
(2) The true black melanic forms arise by a (2)
recurring random mutation
(3) The melanic form of the moth has no selective (3)
advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(4) The lighter-form the moth has no selective (4)
advantage either in polluted industrial area or
non-polluted area
168. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:- 168.
(1) Possible origin of life by combination of (1)
chemicals under suitable environmental
conditions
(2) Crystallization of chemicals (2)
(3) Interaction of water, air and clay under intense (3)
heat
(4) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals (4)
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169. Among the human ancestors the brain size was 169.
1000 CC
more than 1000 CC in :-
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo neanderthalensis (1) (2)
(3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus (3) (4)
170. The tendency of population to remain in genetic 170.
equilibrium may be disturbed by :
(1) lack of random mating (1)
(2) random mating (2)
(3) lack of migration (3)
(4) lack of mutations (4)
171. An important evidence in favour of organic 171.
evolution is the occurrence of –
?
(1) Homologous and vestigial organs (1)
(2) Analogous and vestigial organs (2)
(3) Homologous organs only (3)
(4) Homologous and analogous organs (4)
172. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is 172.
characterised by –
?
(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds
(1)
appear
(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like (2)
reptiles (3)
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
appear
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear (4)
173. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as 173.
?
(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry (1) (2)
(3) Paleontology (4) Ontogeny (3) (4)
174. Which one of the following experiments suggests 174.
that simplest living organisms could not have
originated spontaneously from non–living matter
(1) Larvae could appeared in decaying organic
–
matter (1)
(2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and (2)
kept sealed in a vessel
(3) Microbes did not appear in stored meat (3)
(4) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic
matter (4)
175. There are two opposing views about origin of 175.
modern man. According to one view Homo erectus
in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study
of variation of DNA however suggested African
origin of modern man. What kind of observation
of DNA variation could suggest this –
–
(1) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa (1)
(2) Similar variation in Africa and Asia (2)
(3) Variation only in Asia and no variation in (3)
Africa
(4) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia (4)
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176. Which of the following is not true for a species? 176.
(1) Members of a species can interbreed
(2) Variations occur among members of a species (1)
(3) Gene flow does not occur between the (2)
populations of a species (3)
(4) Each species is reproductively isolated from (4)
every other species
177. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic 177.
evolution while working on –
–
(1) Oenothera lamarckiana (1)
(2) Drosophila melanogaster (2)
(3) Pisum sativum (3)
(4) Althea rosea (4)
178. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined 178.
by radio-carbon method and other methods
involving radioactive elements found in the rocks.
More precise methods, which were used recently
and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods
for differents groups of organisms includes– –
(1) Study of the conditions of fossilization (1)
(2) Electron spin resonance (ESR) & fossil DNA (2)
(ESR) DNA
(3) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks (3)
(4) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils (4)
179. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more 179.
closely related with chimpanzee than with other
hominoid apes ? ?
(1) Comaprison of chromosomes morphology only (1)
(2) Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil (2)
mitochondrial DNA alone
DNA
(3) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
(3)
chromosomes, autosomes & mitochondria
(4) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes DNA
only (4)
DNA
180. Convergent evolution is illustrated by :- 180.
(1) Rat and dog
:-
(2) Bacterium and protozoan (1)
(3) Starfish and cuttle fish (2)
(4) Dogfish and whale (3)
(4)
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