MCRT 10003 Negative marks:-0.

33 70 MINUTES

Section 1: Quantitative Ability No. Of questions: 20 Duration: 25 minutes

Directions for Questions 1-7: Answer the questions independently.

1. The unit’s digit in the product 735 × 371 × 1155 is:

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 9

2. There is a 2 digit number, the second digit of which is smaller than its first digit by 4, and if the number was
divided by the digit’s sum, the quotient would be 7. Can you find the number?

(1) 84 (2) 73 (3) 62 (4) None of these

3. You are having 31 kg of rice. You are provided with some stones for weighing. What can be the minimum
number of stones required to weigh any integral value from 1 to 31? (Weights are on one side only)

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

4. A starts at 11:00 a.m. and travels at a speed of 4 km/hr. B starts from the same point at 1:00 p.m. and travels at
1 km/hr for the first 1 hr and 2 km/hr for the next hr, 4km/hr for the next hour and so on. When do they meet/?

(1) Between 7-8 pm (2) Between 8-9 pm (3) Between 9-10 pm (4) Between 10-11 pm

5. There are 10 coins, all having equal weights barring one. You are given a spring balance to weigh. In how
many weighings the odd coin can definitely be found?

(1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) None of these

6. If the price of a dress was cut by 20% for a sale, by what percentage of the sale price must it be increased by to
resell it at the original price?

(1) 25% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) None of these

7. A, B, C, can do a work in 8, 14, 16 days respectively. A does the work for 2 days. B continues from it and
finishes till 25% of the work is remaining. C finishes the remaining work. How many days would have taken
to complete the work?

(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 13

Directions for Questions 8-12: Convert the given binary numbers.

8. (10010100)2 = ( )8

(1) 234 (2) 224 (3) 244 (4) 254

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9. (11101111)2= ( )16

(1) 13F (2) 14F (3) 14AB (4) 13A

10. (11010110)2= ( )10

(1) 114 (2) 214 (3) 216 (4) None of these

11. (01101010)2 = ( )8

(1) 152 (2) 154 (3) 142 (4) 156

12. (11000011001)2 = ( )4

(1) 1127 (2) 1253 (3) 1561 (4) 1563

Directions for Questions 13-20: Answer the questions independently.

13. You drive to the store at 20 mph and return by the same route at 30 mph. Discounting the time spent at the
store, what was your average speed?

(1) 25 mph (2) 22 mph (3) 26 mph (4) 24 mph

14. Two trains travel toward each other on the same track, beginning 100 miles apart. One train travels at 40 miles
per hour; the other travels at 60 miles an hour. A bird starts flight at the same location as the faster train, flying
at a speed of 90 miles per hour. When it reaches the slower train, it turns around, flying the other direction at
the same speed. When it reaches the faster train again, it turns around — and so on. What is the total distance
travelled by the bird when the trains collide?

(1) 160 miles (2) 90 miles (3) 40 miles (4) 50 miles

15. There are several chickens and rabbits in a cage (with no other types of animals). There are 72 heads and 200
feet inside the cage. How many rabbits and chickens are there?

(1) 25, 47 (2) 26, 46 (3) 27, 45 (4) 28, 44

16. HCF of 3240, 3600 and a third number is 36 and their LCM is 24 × 35 × 52 × 72. The third number is

(1) 22 × 35 × 72 (2) 22 × 53 × 72 (3) 23 × 35 × 72 (4) 25 × 52 × 72

17. In a co-educational school there are 15 more girls than boys. If the number of girls is increased by 10% and the
number of boys is also increased by 16% there would be nine more girls than boys. What is the number of
students in the school?

(1) 140 (2) 125 (3) 265 (4) 255

18. How much water must be added to 100 cc of 80% solution of boric acid to reduce it to a 50% solution?

(1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 50 (4) 60

19. A trader marks his goods at such a price that he can deduct 15% for cash and yet make 20% profit. Find the
approx marked price of an item which cost him Rs. 90:

(1) Rs. 136 (2) Rs. 105 (3) Rs. 127 (4) Rs. 95

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20. There is a room in the shape of a cube with dimensions 1 m each. A spider wants to go from one corner to the
diagonally opposite corner (body diagonal). Assuming that it cannot fly, what is the minimum distance it has
to cover?

(1) √2 + 1 (2) 3 (3) √5 (4) √3

Section 2: Verbal Ability No. of questions: 25 Duration: 20 minutes

Directions for Questions 1-5: Given below are five sentences, i.e. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Arrange them
in proper order so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the following questions.

A) It assumes incorrectly that the amount of business activity in an economy is fixed.

B) Since that time, productivity in agriculture has increased tremendously.

C) It is tempting to conclude that if productivity increases, then employment must go down.

D) In fact, if workers are available, entrepreneurs can match them with new business ideas and investment
capital and thus increase the total amount of business activity in an economy.

E) After all, 200 years ago virtually all people who could work worked in agriculture.

1. Which sentence will come at 'second' place in the paragraph?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) None of these

2. Which sentence will come at 'last' place in the paragraph?

(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) None of these

3. Which will be the 'first' sentence in the paragraph?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) None of these

4. Which will be the 'fourth' sentence in the paragraph?

(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) None of these

5. Which sentence will come at 'third' place in the paragraph?

(1) B (2) D (3) A (4) None of these

Directions for Questions 6-8: In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each
sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words
can be filled up in the blanks in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

6. The party has itself to ______ for failing in its basic task of addressing people's ______.

(1) punish, concerns (2) penalise, woes (3) blame, problems (4) introspect, duties

7. The serial has been ______ aspirants from ________ the society.

(1) attracting, across (2) haunting, amidst (3) eulogising, among (4) gathering, above

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8. Despite illiteracy, the ________ of Indian voters have already demonstrated their political _______.

(1) mood, hobnob (2) bulk, callousness (3) multitude, maturity (4) reflection, taste

Directions for Questions 9-13: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the
information provided in the passage.

MARK HUGHES is a master of the fine art of survival. His Los Angeles-based Herbalife International Inc. is
a pyramid outfit that peddles weight-loss and nutrition concoctions of dubious value. Bad publicity and
regulatory crackdowns hurt his U.S. business in the late 1980s. But Hughes, 41, continues to enjoy a luxurious
lifestyle in a $20 million Beverly Hills mansion. He has been sharing the pad and a yacht with his third wife, a
former Miss Petite U.S.A. He can finance this lavish lifestyle just on his salary and bonus, which last year
came to $7.3 million.

He survived his troubles in the U.S. by moving overseas, where regulators are less zealous and consumers
even more naive, at least initially. Today 77% of Herbalife retail sales derive from overseas. Its new prowling
grounds: Asia and Russia. Last year Herbalife’s net earnings doubled, to $45 million, on net sales of $632
million. Based on Herbalife’s Nasdaq-traded stock, the company has a market capitalization of $790 million,
making Hughes 58% worth $454 million. There’s a worm, though, in Hughes apple. Foreigners aren’t stupid.
In the end they know when they’ve been had. In France, for instance, retail sales rose to $97 million by 1993
and then plunged to $12 million last year. In Germany sales hit $159 million in 1994 and have since dropped
to $54 million. Perhaps aware that the world may not provide an infinite supply of suckers, Hughes wanted to
unload some of his shares. But in March, after Herbalife’s stock collapsed, he put off a plan to dump about a
third of his holdings on the public. Contributing to Hughes’ woes, Herbalife’s chief counsel and legal attack
dog, David Addis, quit in January. Before packing up, he reportedly bellowed at Hughes, “I can’t protect you
anymore.” Addis, who says he wants to spend more time with his family, chuckles and claims attorney-client
privilege.

Trouble on the home front, too. On a recent conference call with distributors, Hughes revealed he’s divorcing
his wife, Suzan, whose beaming and perky image adorns much of Herbalife’s literature. Meanwhile, in a
lawsuit that’s been quietly moving through Arizona’s Superior Court, former Herbalife distributor Daniel
Fallow of Sandpoint, Idaho charges that Herbalife arbitrarily withholds payment to distributors and marks up
its products over seven times the cost of manufacturing. Fallow also claims Hughes wanted to use the Russian
mafia to gain entry to that nation’s market. Fallow himself is no angel, but his lawsuit, which was posted on
the Internet, brought out other complaints. Randy Cox of Lewiston, Idaho says Herbalife “destroyed my
business” after he and his wife complained to the company that they were being cheated out of their money by
higher-ups in the pyramid organization. Will Hughes survive again? Don’t count on it this time.

9. Herbalife Inc is based in:

(1) Los Angeles (2) Columbus (3) New York (4) Austin

10. Daniel Fallow:

(1) Was a former attorney for Hughes

(2) Was a former distributor of Herbalife

(3) Co-founded Herbalife

(4) Ran Herbalife’s German unit

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11. The complaint of Randy Cox of Lewiston, Idaho, against Herbalife was:

(1) The company did not pay them their dues

(2) The products supplied by Hughes were inferior

(3) Their higher-ups in the pyramid cheated them

(4) Hughes had connections with the Russian mafia

12. In the year in which Hughes’ salary and bonuses came to US$ 7.3 million, what were the retail sales for
Herbalife in France?

(1) $12 million (2) $159 million (3) $54 million (4) $97 million

13. At the time when this article was written, if Herbalife had had a market capitalisation of $ 1 billion, what
would have been Hughes’ share?

(1) $420 million (2) $580 million (3) $125 million (4) $500 million

Directions for Questions 14-18:Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If there is
any error, it will be only one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error.

14. Modern film techniques / are far superior / than that / employed in the past.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. I believe / that respect / is more preferable than / money.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

16. The principals of equal justice / for all is one of / the corner stones of our democratic way of life. / no error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

17. In order to save patrol, / motorists must have to/ be very cautious while driving along the highways/ no error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

18. Not one of the children / has ever sang/ on any occasion in public before/ no error

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Directions for Questions 19-22: In each of the following questions, some sentences are given which are on
the same theme. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar; meaning and
usage, suitable for formal writing in English. Find the correct sentence.

19.

(1) He came in too quickly to avoid waking his father

(2) He entered in quickly. so as not wake his father.

(3) Having not to wake his father, he came in quickly

(4) He came in very quickly so that he might avoid waking his father.

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20.

(1) Common people are rather impressed by the style of a speech than by its substance

(2) Common people are impressed rather by the style of a speech than by its substance

(3) Rather common people are impressed by the style of a speech than by its substance

(4) Common people are impressed by the style of a speech than by its substance.

21.

(1) I have read such a lot about him that I am looking forward to seeing him very much

(2) I am reading such a lot about him that I will be looking forward to seeing him very much

(3) Having read such a lot about him that I will be looking forward to seeing him very much

(4) I had read such a lot about him that I am looking forward to seeing him very much.

22.

(1) By June next year, Ajay will be twenty years working in the office.

(2) Being twenty years completed, Ajay will be working in this office till June next

(3) Till June next year, Ajay will work in the office for twenty years.

(4) Ajay will be working in this office upon completing twenty years by next June.

Directions for Questions 23-25: In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been
broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the
correct order of these parts from the given alternatives.

23.

1) her 2) she 3) to 4) cancel 5) dental 6) appointment

(1) 2, 7, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6 (2) 2, 7, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6 (3) 1, 7, 3, 4, 5, 2, 6 (4) 2, 1, 3, 4, 7, 5, 6

24.

1) all 2) I 3) the 4) keep 5) sneezing 6) time

(1) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1, 6 (2) 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, 1 (3) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6 (4) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6

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25.

1) is 2) at 3) TV 4) film 5) midnight 6) a 7) on 8) great 9) There

(1) 9, 1, 6, 8, 4, 7, 3, 5, 3

(2) 9, 1, 6, 8, 4, 7, 3, 2, 5

(3) 9, 6, 1, 8, 4, 7, 3, 2, 5

(4) 9, 1, 6, 8, 7, 4, 3, 2, 5

Section 3: Analytical Ability No. of questions: 25 Duration: 25 minutes

Directions for Questions 1-3: Answer the questions independently.

1. What is two days after the day after the day before yesterday?

(1) Today (2) Tomorrow (3) Yesterday (4) None of these

2. A box contains 12 marbles of three different colours green, yellow and blue-4 each. If you were to close your
eyes and pick them at random, how many marbles must you take out to be sure that there is at least two of one
colour among the marbles picked out?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

3. Count the total number of triangles that are visible

(1) 15 (2) 21 (3) 24 (4) more than 24

Directions for Questions 4-7: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the
question mark (?)

4. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

5. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

6. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

7. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Directions for Questions 8-10: Answer the question independently.

8. Five cities all got more rain than usual this year. The five cities are: Last Stand, Mile City, New Town,
Olliopolis, and Polberg. The cities are located in five different areas of the country: the mountains, the forest,
the coast, the desert, and in a valley. The rainfall amounts were: 12 inches, 27 inches, 32 inches, 44 inches,
and 65 inches.

* The city in the desert got the least rain; the city in the forest got the most rain.

* New Town is in the mountains.

* Last Stand got more rain than Olliopolis.

* Mile City got more rain than Polberg, but less rain than New Town.

* Olliopolis got 44 inches of rain.

* The city in the mountains got 32 inches of rain; the city on the coast got 27 inches of rain.

Which city got the most rain?

(1) Last Stand (2) Mile City (3) New Town (4) Olliopolis

9. Tam ceno means sky blue

Ceno rax means blue cheese

Apl mitl means star bright

Which word could mean "bright sky"?

(1) ceno tam (2) mitl tam (3) rax mitl (4) apl ceno

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10. Grana melke means big tree

Pini melke means little tree

Melke hoon means tree house

Which word could mean "big house"?

(1) grana hoon (2) pini shur (3) pini hoon (4) melke grana

Directions for Questions 11-13: Study the following pie-chart and the table and answer the questions based
on them.

Proportion of Population of Seven Villages in 1997

Village % of population below poverty line

X 38
Y 52
Z 42
R 51
S 49
T 46
V 58

11. The ratio of population of village T below poverty line to that of village Z below poverty line in 1997 is:

(1) 11: 23 (2) 13: 11 (3) 23: 11 (4) 11: 13

12. If the population of village R in 1997 is 32000, then what will be the population of village Y below poverty
line in that year?

(1)14100 (2) 15600 (3) 16500 (4)17000

13. If in 1998, the population of villages Y and V increase by 10% each and the percentage of population below
poverty line remains unchanged for all the villages, then find the population of village V below poverty line in
1998, given that the population of village in 1997 was 300000.

(1) 11250 (2)12760 (3)19140 (4)13780

Directions for Questions 14-20: Answer the questions independently.

14. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh
related to that boy?

(1)Brother (2)Uncle (3)Cousin (4) Father

15. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B.
Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

(1) M - N x C + F (2)F - C + N x M (3) N + M - F x C (4) M x N - C + F

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16. Pointing towards a girl, Abhisek says, "This girl is the daughter of only a child of my father." What is the
relation of Abhisek's wife to that girl?

(1) Daughter (2) Mother (3) Aunt (4) Sister

17. Anupam said to a lady sitting in a car, "The only daughter of the brother of my wife is the sister-in-law of the
brother of your sister." How the husband of the lady is related to Anupam?

(1) Maternal uncle (2) Uncle (3) Father (4) None of these

18. In a certain code language the word DISTURB is written as DTWVUKF. How will the word FRANTIC be
written in that code language?

(1) EKUPDTH (2) FKCPVTH (3) EKVPCTH (4) FLVPCTH

19. If 'A $ B' means 'A is brother of B', 'A @ B' means 'A is wife of B', 'A #B' means ' A is daughter of B' and 'A *
B' means 'A is father of B', then which of the following expressions indicates the relationship 'U is father-in-
law of P?

(1) P@Q$T#U*W (2) P@W$Q*T#U (3) P@Q$W*T#U (4) None of these

20. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F joined an institute in the year 1993 but on different days. Only E has joined
after C and D. C joined immediately before A and immediately after B. F is not the first or the last person to
join. Who is the first person joining the Institute?

(1) D (2) B (3) A (4) Data inadequate

Directions for Questions 21-25: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below it:

Six boys B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, and six girls C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, and C6 are standing in rows in such a way
that each girl faces one boy, not necessarily in the same order. C1 is to the immediate right of the girl who is
facing B5, the boy at the extreme right. Only B2 is between B4 and B5. B6 is to the immediate left of B1 and
is to the immediate right of B3. C3 is facing B1 and is to the immediate left of C2. C6 is third to the left of C4.

21. Which of the following girls is facing B4?

(1) C5 (2) C4 (3) C6 (4) None of these

22. Which of the following pairs of boy and girl is at one of the extreme ends?

(1) C1, B5 (2) C4, B3 (3) C5, B2 (4) None of these

23. Which of the following boys is to the immediate left of B4?

(1) B1 (2) B2 (3) B1 or B2 (4) None of these

24. Who is facing C2?

(1) B1 (2) B6 (3) B4 (4) None of these

25. If B6 and C6 interchange places, who sits to the immediate left of B6?

(1) C1 (2) C6 (3) C4 (4) None of these

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