PRACTICE TEST

1. James is interested in studying the structure and parts of living organisms. Which
of the following do you think James will excel in?
a. cytology c. anatomy
b. taxonomy d. physiology

2. How are living things different from nonliving things in terms of level of
organization?
a. Living things are composed of atoms while nonliving things are composed
of cells.
b. Living things reach cellular level while nonliving things does not
c. Both living and nonliving things are composed of cells, but only living
things are composed of atoms.
d. Living things have tissues and organs while nonliving things are composed
only of cells.

3. Minda placed her hand on a kettle but immediately pulled it away from the kettle
as soon as she felt that it was hot. Which characteristic of living organism did
Minda show?
a. evolutionary adaptation c. homeostasis
b. respiration d. response to stimulus

4. Which inorganic compound is found abundantly in bones?

a. collagen c. cellulose
b. calcium carbonate d. calcium hydroxide

5. What do you call the organic molecules that act as catalyst during chemical
reaction?
a. acids c. hormones
b. enzymes d. neurotransmitters

6. Food rich in carbohydrates are important especially to workers like farmers and
construction worker because they
a. repair the damaged body tissues
b. help keep the body warm
c. are immediate source of energy
d. provide structural support to the body

7. Why is saturated fat bad for the body?

a. They make the consistency of the blood thinner.

b. They destroy blood cells.
c. They make the blood cells grow larger
d. They line around the inner wall of blood vessel making circulation more
difficult.

8. Which is true about enzymes?

a. it cannot be made nonfunctional
b. it is highly specific to only one molecule and will never react to other
molecules even if they fit into their active site
 c. it is not directly involve in the reaction
d. it maintains its chemical composition and structure after a reaction

9. Cells are the basic unit of life because

a. They are the smallest matter found in living things.
b. All living things have cells.
c. Atom can form cells.
d. They are the smallest unit exhibiting the characteristics of life.

10 – 15.

10. Which part of the

cell performs
respiration to
produce energy in
the form of ATP?
b. 3
c. 1
a. 5 d. 6

11. What is the function of structure number 6?

a. transport materials
b. controls the overall function of cell
c. package materials like proteins and lipids
d. digest molecules or worn out cell organelles

12. Which part of the cell regulates the entrance and exit of molecules?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 4 d. 7

13. The attachment of structure number 8 to structure number 4 makes the latter
the site for production of which macromolecule?
a. carbohydrates c. lipids
b. proteins d. nucleic acids

14. Which structure has a gel-sol consistency?

a. 7 c. 9
b. 3 d. 10

15. Which structure serve as poles during cell division?

a. 3 c. 7
b. 9 d. 8

16. Which type of cell would probably have the most number of mitochondrion?
a. epidermal cell c. red blood cell
b. muscle cell d. skeletal cell

17. Which cell structure is absent in mature red blood cell?

a. mitochondrion b. endoplasmic reticulum
 c. lysosome d. nucleus

18. Which of the following organelle is present in plant cell but not in animal cell?
a. chloroplast c. vacuole
b. mitochondrion d. centrioles

19. Which of the following pairs is a mismatch?

a. Golgi bodies – packaging
b. Mitochondrion – protein synthesis
c. Chloroplast – photosynthesis
d. Vacuole – storage

20. Which of the following choices includes all other in the list?
a. diffusion c. facilitated diffusion
b. osmosis d. passive transport

21. – 24. An animal cell has just been placed inside a beaker containing hypotonic
solution.

21. What will be the direction of osmosis?

a. water will move out of the cell
b. water will move into the cell
c. there will be no net movement of
water
d. there will be no movement of
water

22. What will happen to the animal cell after a few minutes?
a. it will shrink
b. it will burst
c. it will become turgid
d. it will remain the same

23. What will happen if a plant cell is placed in the same solution?
a. the cell will become turgid
b. the cell will burst
c. the cell will become flaccid
d. the cell will shrink

24. What will be the direction of movement of sodium and potassium following
concentration gradient?
a. Sodium and potassium will move out of the cell
b. Sodium and potassium will move into the cell
c. there will be no net movement of sodium and potassium
d. there will be no movement of sodium and potassium

25. Which metabolic pathway is occurs in the mitochondrion of eukaryotes?

a. glycolysis c. Krebs cycle
b. lactic acid fermentation d. alcohol fermentation
26. Which product of glycolysis is necessary in the electron transport chain?
a. ATP c. NADH
b. Pyruvate d. NADPH

27. Which part of the mitochondrion serve as the site for electron transport chain?
a. inner mitochondrial membrane
b. mitochondrial matrix
c. outer mitochondrial membrane
d. thylakoid

28. Which gas is essential to plants during cellular respiration?

a. carbon dioxide c. nitrogen
b. oxygen d. hydrogen

29. Which color of light is most effectively absorbed by plants during

photosynthesis?
a. green, yellow, violet c. red, blue, violet
b. blue, yellow violet d. red, blue, green

30. What are required during the light dependent reaction?

a. light and carbon dioxide c. water and carbon dioxide
b. light and water d. light and oxygen

31. What is another name for light independent reaction?

a. Krebs cycle c. Signal transduction pathway
b. Calvin Cycle d. Chemiosmosis

32. What is the final product of light independent reaction?

a. ATP
b. Glucose
c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
d. Ribulose bisphosphate

33. The sugar found in DNA is

a. a 5-carbon sugar
b. the same as the sugar in RNA
c. attached to another 6-carbon sugar
d. found at the middle portion of the molecule, depicting the rungs of
ladder

34. Which nitrogenous base is present only in RNA?

a. adenine c. thymine
b. guanine d. uracil

35. The backbone of DNA molecule is made of

a. ribose and phosphate
b. nitrogenous base and phosphate
c. deoxyribose and nitrogenous base
d. deoxyribose and phosphate

36. Which nucleic acid is not directly involved in translation?

a. tRNA c. mRNA
b. rRNA d. DNA
37. What is the correct base-pairing in DNA?
a. guanine-cytosine, adenine-thymine
b. adenine-uracil, guanine-cytosine
c. guanine-thymine, adenine-cytosine
d. guanine-adenine, thymine-cytosine

38. What happens during translation?

a. DNA nucleotide base-pairs with a strand of DNA
b. mRNA nucleotide base-pairs with a strand of DNA
c. tRNA base-pairs with mRNA
d. The strands of DNA split

39. Which of the following is true about codons?

a. They are 3 nucleotides of mRNA that specify a particular amino acid or
stop signal to protein synthesis.
b. They are 3 nucleotides of DNA that specify the appearance of ribosomes.
c. They are 3 nucleotides of tRNA corresponding to amino acid sequence.
d. They are 3 amino acids that specify a nucleotide.

40. How is DNA different from RNA?

a. The sugar composition of DNA is pentose while in RNA is hexose.
b. A complementary base-pair of nitrogenous base in DNA is composed of
purine and pyrimidine while in RNA is composed only of purines.
c. DNA is double stranded helix while RNA is circular.
d. Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA, while in RNA, adenine pairs with
uracil.

41. How is an mRNA molecule produced during the transcription stage of protein
synthesis?
a. The nucleolus puts together the amino acids that will determine the
nucleotides of the molecule.
b. The mRNA nucleotides are arranged in the ribosomes using the codes
provided by the nucleolus.
c. mRNA nucleotides will base-pair with a strand of DNA.
d. mRNA nucleotides will base-pair with tRNa in a ribosome.

42. What is the significance of the interphase in the cell cycle?

a. It prepares the cell for cell division.
b. It determines the kind of cell to be produced
c. It maintains the number of cells that will divide.
d. It decides which stage should be skipped during division.

43. What determines the location where the cleavage furrow forms?
a. poles during division c. cytoplasm
b. nucleus d. mitochondrion

44. At which stage do chromosomes align at the center of the cell?

a. anaphase c. prophase
b. metaphase d. telophase

45. What will happen to the set of chromosome of a cell that will undergo meiosis?
a. The number of chromosomes will remain the same.
b. The number of chromosomes will be reduced to half.
 c. The number of chromosomes will be doubled.
d. The number of chromosomes will be reduced by two.

46. Which of the following cell can still undergo mitosis?

a. nerve cell c. follicle cells
b. muscle cell d. gametes

47. What causes the separation of sister chromatids during anaphase?

a. The lysosome digests the centromere of chromosomes.
b. The spindle fibers attached to the chromosomes shorten.
c. Each chromatid has the same charge, causing them to repel from each
other.
d. The cell plate is starting to form between chromatids causing their
separation.

48. Why should the number of chromosomes be reduced to half in meiosis?

a. So that each daughter cell receives chromosomes.
b. So that each daughter cell would have different set of chromosomes.
c. So that the organism that will be formed after fertilization would have
the same number of chromosomes as that of the parents.
d. So that there will be a change in the number of chromosomes in the next
generation.

49. Parents both having a dominant phenotype could have offspring with recessive
phenotype if:
a. They have homozygous genotype
b. They have heterozygous genotype
c. The offspring is female
d. The offspring is male

50. What term did Mendel used to call the variable responsible for the trait of an
individual?
a. phenotype c. gene
b. genotype d. heritable factor

51. The separation of alleles into separate gametes during division exemplifies which
principle?
a. dominance c. independent assortment
b. segregation d. bottle neck effect

52. Which non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance exhibits an intermediate trait?

a. codominance c. multiple allelism
b. incomplete dominance d. polygenic inheritance

53. What is a very good indication of success in terms of evolution?

a. The number of living species at present
b. The size of the species
c. The intellect of the species
d. The appearance of their habitat

54. In which type of evidence does similarities in genetic code falls under?
a. fossil record c. chemical
b. anatomical d. embryological
55. Fishes and whales have similar structure even if they are from different class
because:
a. They live in similar habitat
b. They eat the same food
c. They are able to cross-breed
d. Fish mimic whales to scare predators

56. In incomplete dominace, a cross between the two heterozygotes would result to
which phenotypic ratio?
a. 1:2:1 c. 1:1:1:1
b. 3:1 d. 4:0

57. The total collection of genes in a population at any one time is called:
a. genome c. gametes
b. genotype d. gene pool

58. The beaks of finches in Galapagos and the difference in color of peppered moths
are due to:
a. divergent evolution c. natural selection
b. convergent evolution d. artificial selection

59. Which organisms could have the most number of genes similar to man?
a. pig c. earthworm
b. bacterium d. fish

60. The site for initial digestion of proteins is:

a. Mouth c. Stomach
b. Esophagus d. Small intestine

61. Which system may become affected if a person’s tonsil is surgically removed?
a. Integumentary system c. Immune system
b. Respiratory system d. Digestive system

62. Ramil has been struggling to maintain his weight. His neck seems to be swollen,
his eyes are bulging out and his eyebrows are starting to shed. What could be
causing these manifestations?
a. His adrenal gland secretes too much of epinephrine
b. Growth hormone from pituitary is irregularly secreted
c. His thyroid gland does not function normally
d. Testosterone level in his blood is too high for his age

63. According to 10% rule, how much energy will be made available to the next
trophic level?
a. 100% c. .1%
b. 90% d. 10%

64. Which of the following is true of hybrids?

a. They are normally fertile
b. They can produce fertile offspring
c. They can mate with hybrids of other species
d. They are either sterile of will produce a sterile offspring

65. What will be the effect of too much Antidiuretic hormone in the blood?
 a. The kidneys will be making too much urine
b. The urine formed will be more concentrated in solute, and lesser in
volume
c. The kidneys will not filter the blood
d. The urine formed will be laden with blood

66. The following are members of the excretory system except:

a. Small intestine c. Lungs
b. Skin d. Liver

67. Which part of the nervous system controls the contraction of the heart?
a. Pons c. Medulla oblongata
b. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum

68. Which of the following is the function of the large intestine?

a. Site for final digestion of fats
b. Reabsorbs water from undigested food
c. Stores digested macronutrients
d. Produces bile

69. Which organ system is primarily involved in distribution of material throughout

the body?
a. Integumentary system c. Immune system
b. Urinary system d. Circulatory system

70. Initial chemical digestion of starch is in the mouth. Which enzyme is responsible
for this action?
a. Salivary amylase c. Aminopeptidase
b. Pancreatic amylase d. Lipase

71. Which structure can be found in a prokaryote?

a. Nucleus c. Plastid
b. Ribosome d. Lysosome

72. Which duct carries blood toward the heart?

a. Artery c. Capillary
b. Vein d. Lymph vessel

73. Cris, having type O blood, needs a blood transfusion. Which blood type can he
receive?
a. A and O c. All types
b. B and O d. O only

74. When is Calvin cycle performed?

a. During the day
b. During the night
c. Anytime of the day as long as the necessary materials are present
d. At 12 midnight

75. What is the major function of epithelial tissue?

a. Movement
b. Protection
c. Transport of materials
d. Support
Prepared by: Eisha Vienna M. Fernandez