CME4Life PA Prep Flashcards 750 terms cme4life TEACHER

What nerve are we checking for with EOM with an orbital fracture?

Infra-orbital Nerve What nerve are we checking for with EOM with an
orbital fracture?

Dendritic What kind of lesion represents herpes keratitis?

Superior temporal area Where is the tear from retinal detachment most
common?
Retinal Detachment What is classically described as a curtain being drawn
over the eye from the top to the bottom?

Macular degeneration What is the leading cause of irreversible central vision

loss?

Amsler Grid How is the metamorphosis of macular degeneration best

measured?

Diabetic retinopathy What is the leading cause of blindness in the USA?

Canal of Schlemm An impediment through what structure leads to

glaucoma?

Open angle Which kind of glaucoma is most common?

Peripheral visual field What is the main symptom of glaucoma?

loss

Sinusitis What is periorbital cellulitis primarily associated with?

Newborns. When is dacryostenosis most common and what is the

Symptomatic treatment?
treatment.

Meibomian gland, S. What is involved with an internal hordeolum and what is

Aureus the common pathogen?

Strep pneumonia, S. What is the most common pathogens of bacterial

Aureus and HFlu conjunctivitis?

Gonorrhea and What two diseases are caused by Neisseria?

Meningitis

Pinguecula What do we call a yellowish, fleshy conjunctival mass

typically on the nasal side?

Malignant HTN, What are the main causes of papilledema?

Increased intracranial
pressure and
pseudotumor cerebri
Disc swollen with How will papilledema appear?
margins blurred and
obliteration of the
vessels

Emboli (amaurosis What are the two most common causes of transient
fugax) or giant cell vision loss?
(temporal) arteritis

Central retinal vein What causes sudden vision loss?

occlusion, optic
neuropathy, papillitis
or retrobulbar neuritis

Strabismus What is the most common cause of amblyopia?

Osteogenesis What is blue/cyanotic discoloration of the sclera

imperfecta associated with?

Lateralize to the With a conduction hearing loss, how will the Webber test
affected ear respond?

Bone conduction With conductive hearing loss, how will the Rinne test
greater then air respond?
conduction

Presbycusis, high What is the most common cause of sensorineural

frequency hearing loss and what kind of hearing is lost?

Vertigo, low range What are the four main features of Meniere's disease?
hearing loss, tinnitus
and ear pressure

Aminoglycosides, What drugs ototoxic agents lead to hearing loss?

loops, and
chemotherapy drugs
(cisplastin)

Strep, H.flu and M.Cat What bugs most are most common in otitis media?
Horizontal with What kind of nystagmus is associated with peripheral
rotatory component. vertigo?

Dix-Hallpike What test is used to diagnosis BPPV?

True True or False: Most cases of sinusitis resolves without

antibiotics?

Centor's Criteria What symptoms are suggestive of Group A beta

hemolytic strep?

Corzya, hoarse voice What symptoms are NOT consistent with Group A beta
or cough hemolytic strep?

Erythromycin What is the antibiotic of choice for Group A beta

hemolytic strep if PCN allergic?

Peritonsillar abscess What is the diagnosis consistent with sore throat, uvula
deviation, drooling, and trismus?

Painful, round with How will aphthous ulcers appear in the mouth?
yellowish-gray centers
& red halos

Candidia albicans What is the most common yeast in oral thrush?

Kiesselbach plexus What is the location of anterior nose bleeds?

Samter's triad What is the triad called of nasal polyps, asthma and
aspirin sensitivity?

Strep pneumonia What is the most common cause of community acquired

pneumonia (CAP)?

Macrolide (not What antibiotic is appropriate for outpatient treatment of

erythromycin) or community acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
doxycycline

Young and old, sick, Who is the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

sickle cell, smokers, no recommended for?
spleen and liver
disease
Bullous myringitis and What are two buzz words that go with Mycoplasma
cold agglutinins pneumoniae?

Elevated LDH and What are two buzz words with pneumocystis jiroveci?
hyper-hypoxia

(aka streptococcus What is a buzz word for pneumococcal pneumonia?

pneumonia) Rust
colored sputum

ETOH abuse and What is a buzz word for klebisella pneumonia?

current jelly sputum

Klebsiella What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in a patient

with ETOH abuse?

Haemophilus What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in a patient

with COPD?

Pseudomonas What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in a patient

with cystic fibrosis?

Mycoplasma/chlamydi What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia young

a adults?

Legionella What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in a patient

with exposure to aerosolized water?

RSV What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in children

less than 1 year old?

Parainfluenza What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in children

less than 2 years old?

UTI What is the most common hospital acquired infection?

Pseudomonas What is the most likely pathogen for ICU acquired

pneumonia?

Pneumocystis jiroveci What is the most common opportunistic infection in

(formerly P. carinii) patients with HIV infection?
Fever, night sweats, What are the classic symptoms of TB?
weight loss

Calcified primary focus What are Ghon complexes that represent healed
in the lungs infection?

Caseating granuloma What is the historical landmark of TB?

that is AKA necrotizing
granuloma

B6 deficiency, What are the side effects of INH?

hepatitis, neuropathy

Orange discoloration What are the side effects of rifampin?

and hepatitis

Sputum color What is NOT predictive of bacterial bronchitis?

Bronchogenic What is the leading cause of cancer death?

carcinoma

Thumbprint sign What radiographic finding is diagnostic for epiglottitis?

Steeple sign What radiographic finding is diagnostic for croup?

Adenocarcinoma What is the most common cause of bronchogenic CA?

Surgery What is the treatment of choice for Non-small cell CA?

Obstruction of airflow, What are the three components of asthma?

hyperreactivity and
inflammation

10% What change in FEV1 after bronchodilation is supportive

of the diagnosis of asthma?

Inhaled steroids What is the most effective anti-inflammatory for chronic

asthma?

Smoking What is the most contributing cause of COPD?

Alpha 1 antitrypsin What deficiency leads to COPD?

Stopping smoking What is the single most important intervention in COPD?

Anticholinergics What is superior to B agonists in achieving
(ipratropium or bronchodilation?
tiotropium)

Supplemental oxygen What therapy is the only therapy that may alter the
course of COPD?

Cough, excessive What are the main symptoms of cystic fibrosis?

sputum, sinusitis,
steatorrhea and ABD
pain

Thoracentesis What is the gold standard for identifying a pleural

effusion?

Doxycycline and talc What are the most common irritants used for
pleurodesis?

Expiratory CXR What type of image reveals the presence of

pneumothorax?

Virchow's Triad: What are the risk factors for DVT/PE?

Damage, Stasis and
hypercoaguable state

High estrogen, cancer What are the most common hypercoaguable states?
and genetics

Spiral CT What is the initial method for the diagnosis of PE?

With low pre-test When is a negative D.Dimer helpful in ruling out PE?
probability

Pulmonary angiogram What is the definitive test for PE?

Systolic ejection click What physical findings are suggestive of pulmonary

and HTN?
splitting/accentuation
S2

Coal dust, silicate or What causes pneumoconoises?

other inert dusts
Steroidsbased plaques
Pleural What CXR
is used
findings
to relieve
are seen
chronic
in asbestosis?
alveolitis in silicosis?

Mesothelioma What is the number one complication of asbestosis?

Sarcoidosis What disease is a multiorgan disease of idiopathic cause

characterized by noncaseating granulomatous
inflammation in affected organs?

Choking, coughing or What is the main presentation of an aspirated foreign

unexplained wheezing body?
or hemoptysis

Hyaline membrane What is the most common cause of respiratory disease in

disease a preterm infant?

Exogenous surfactant What can be used as prophylaxis or rescue in a patient

with established hyaline membrane disease?

Gram negative sepsis What is the most common cause of shock?

Lactate What lab test can identify and monitor sepsis?

Indwelling catheter How should urine output be monitored in a patient with

with a urine output of shock?
0.5mL/kg/hour

Hours How long should it take to lower a patient with a HTN

urgency?

1 hour How long should it take to lower a patient with HTN

emergency?

Papilledema, What are the findings of malignant HTN?

encephalopathy or
renal failure

Headache What is the most common symptom of HTN?

Diuretic What is recommended as the initial agent for HTN?

Loop Diuretics What diuretic should be used in patients with renal
disease?

Younger/Caucasian In which patients are B-blockers most effective?

ACE Inhibitors What is the initial drug of choice in a diabetic patient

with HTN?

Cough What is the major side effect of an ACE Inhibitor?

Calcium Channel What agent is preferred for HTN in blacks and elderly?
Blocker

Nitroprusside and a B- What medications are recommended for BP control in

blocker aortic dissection?

Hydralazine What is the anti-HTN medication of choice in a pregnant

patient?

Enlarged heart, What are the cardiac signs of CHF?

diminished first heart
sound and S3

Echocardiogram What is the most useful image with CHF?

ACE Inhibitor and B- What two medications prolong life in a patient with CHF?
Blockers

EF<35% When is an implantable cardio-defibrillator indicated in a

patient with CHF?

Atherosclerosis What is the most common cause of cardiovascular death

and disability?

Smoking, Age (M > 55 What are the risk factors for arterial disease?
and F > 65,) DM,
Cholesterol, HTN and
family history
Stable (predictable,) Name the three kinds of angina
unstable
(unpredictable) and
Prinzmetal

Resting chest pain What is the most common presentation of unstable

angina?

Clenched fist and What is Levine sign?

teeth to describe
angina pain

Less than 3 minutes How long does stable angina last?

Horizontal or down What is the most sensitive clinical sign of angina on an

sloping ST segment EKG?
depression

25% What percent of patients with unstable angina will have a

normal EKG?

Exercise stress testing What is the most useful and cost effective noninvasive
test for angina?

Coronary angiogram What is the definitive diagnosis for angina?

Sublingual What is the primary pharmacotherapy for angina?

nitroglycerine

B-Blockers What is the first line therapy for chronic angina?

Ranolazine What medication prolongs exercise duration and time to

angina?

Unstable angina, Non- What disease encompass acute coronary syndrome?

STEMI and STEMI

EKG What is our primary decision point for patient with chest
pain?

Unstable and NSTEMI What two acute coronary syndromes are treated the
same?
V. Fib morning
Early What isisthe
When an AMI
rhythm
most
that
likely
mosttopeople
present?
die from?

Pericarditis, fever, What is Dressler's syndrome (post MI syndrome?)

leukocytosis,
pericardial or pleural
effusions

1 MM ST segment What is the EKG findings of a STEMI?

elevation in two
contiguous leads

LBBB What EKG finding is highly suspicious for STEMI?

Slow hearts, weak What are the contraindications to a B-blocker?

hearts (CHF) or bad
pulmonary patients

Immediately When should aspirin or clopidogrel be used in a patient

with a STEMI?

Tetralogy of fallot, Name the 4 cyanotic heart anomalies.

pulmonary atresia,
hypoplastic left heart
syndrome, and
Transpositon of the
great vessels

ASD, VSD, PDA, AV Name the non-cyanotic heart anomalies

septal defect (seen in
Down's syndrome) &
Coarctation of aorta

Ostium Secundum What is the most common ASD?

VSD What is the most common congenital heart anomaly?

Indomethacin How do we treat PDA pharmacologically?

IV prostaglandins E How do we keep the ductus arteriosus open?

Aortic Stenosis
Dyspnea on What is the most common presentation
valvular disease?
of valvular heart
exertion/exercise disease?
intolerance

Echocardiogram or What is the definitive method to identify heart structure

TEE and functional abnormalities?

Crescendo/decrescen How is the murmur of Tetralogy of Fallot identified?

do holosystolic at left
sternal border that
radiates to back

PDA What heart defect gives a "machinery murmur?"

Blowing and higher How are all regurgitation murmurs identified?

pitch

Aortic regurgitation What valvular pathology has an Austin Flint murmur?

A.Fib What is the most common arrhythmia?

Synchronized What is the key principle of treating an unstable

cardioversion arrhythmia?

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