1.

Which of the following should be avoided when treating children with infectious
mononucleosis?
a. ampicillin or amoxicillin
b. penicillin
c. corticosteriods
d. symptomatic treatment
e. solid foods
2. Incubation period of 1-12 months
a. Mumps
b. Tuberculosis
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Measles
e. Coxsackie
3. Diagnosis is often difficult so decision to treat is based on contact history, Mantoux test,
chest X-Ray, and clinical features
a. Rocky mountain spotted fever
b. Cat scratch disease
c. Tuberculosis
d. Subacute scleorosing panencephalitis
e. Lyme disease
4. A separate injection is given to children at 3,4 and 12 months to protect against
a. tetanus
b. H influenzae B
c. rubella
d. group C meningococcus
e. tuberculosis
5. A rare cause of childhood encephalitis
a. HHV6
b. respiratory viruses
c. varicella
d. HSV
e. enteroviruses
6. In severe cases, involvement of the anterior horn cells and cerebral cortex leads to
varying degrees of paralysis which may be permanent. The muscles of respiration may be
involved.
a. Kawasaki's disease
b. Erysipelas
c. Poliovirus infection
d. Herpes zoster
e. Herpangia
7. Complications are rare in childhood but include arthritis, encephalitis, thrombocytopaenia
and myocarditis.
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Tuberculosis
e. Herpes
8. Potential HSV encephalitis should be treated with
a. ceftriaxone
b. ampicillin
c. cefotaxime
d. dexamathazone
e. aciclovir
9. Associated with desquamation
a. Post scarlet fever
b. Thrombocytopaenia
c. Impetigo
d. Chickenpox
e. Rubella
10. Which of the following is a possible complication of varicella zoster infection?
a. Stroke
b. Encephalitis
c. Purpura fulminans
d. All of these
e. Necrotising fasciitis
11. The most common cause of meningitis
a. Malignancy
b. Bacterial
c. Fungal
d. Viral
e. Autoimmune
12. A tick-borne illness which may produce a distinctive skin lesion - erythema chronicum
migrans - caused by a spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi.
a. Tuberculosis meningitis
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky mountain spotted fever
d. Ziehl-Neilson disease
e. Cat scratch disease
13. An acute illness with fever, pleuritic chest pain and muscle tenderness. May be pleural
rub.
a. Hand, foot and mouth disease
b. Impetigo
c. Herpangia
d. Bornholm's disease
e. Erysipelas
14. Recommended for high-risk immunocompromised individuals with deficient T-
lymphocyte function, following contatc with chickenpox
a. VSH
b. GIZ
c. ZIG
d. VSV
e. HSV
15. Risk factors include low birthweight, young age, not being breastfed, vitamin A
deficiency, overcrowding.
a. Malaria
b. HIV
c. Measles
d. Pneumonia
e. Thrombocytopaenia
16. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the UK
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae type B
d. Neisseria meningitidis
e. Listeria monocytogenes
17. Associated with a classical skin lesion known as erythema migrans - a painless red
expanding lesion with a bright red outer spreading edge.
a. Subacute scleorosing panencephalitis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Rocky mountain spotted fever
d. Lyme disease
e. Cat scratch disease
18. What is the vaccine failure rate for primary vacination with MMR at 12-18 months of age
with respect to measles prevention?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 20
d. 15
e. 10
19. The most common form of primary HSV illness in children
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Eczema herpeticum
c. Blepharitis
d. Herpetic whitlows
e. Gingivostomatitis
20. Associated with a purpuric/petechial rash
a. Kawasaki's disease
b. Chickenpox
c. Impetigo
d. Shingles
e. Enterovirus
21. Associated with pustular/bullous lesions
a. Impetigo
b. Rubella
c. Kawasaki's disease
d. Thrombocytopaenia
e. Chickenpox
22. The HIV test is unreliable before ____ of age
a. 4 years
b. 18 months
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. 6 months
23. Widespread vesicular lesions develop on the skin which may be complicated by
secondary bacterial infection, possibly leading to septicaemia
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Herpetic whitlows
c. Blepharitis
d. Eczema herpeticum
e. Gingivostomatitis
24. Spread via the respiratory route, progressing via the blood to cause vesicualr lesions on
the skin.
a. Rubella
b. Herpes
c. Mumps
d. Varicella Zoster
e. Measles
25. Which of the following is NOT employed to reduce vertical transmission of HIV?
a. antenatal retroviral drugs
b. postnatal retroviral drugs
c. avoidance of breastfeeding
d. perinatal retroviral drugs
e. avoidance of caesarian section
26. Vesicular and ulcerated lesions on the hands, feet, mouth and tongue. Mild systemic
features, subsides within a few days.
a. Hand, foot and mouth disease
b. Impetigo
c. Erysipelas
d. Bornholm's disease
e. Herpangia
27. Associated with a papular rash
a. Kawasaki's disease
b. Impetigo
c. Chickenpox
d. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
e. Shingles
28. Caused by an arbovirus, common in tropic and subtropical areas, particularly India,
South East Asia and the Pacific. Spread by mosquitoes. Primary infection characterised by a
fine erythematous rash, myalgia, arthralgia and fever.
a. Dysentry
b. Dengue fever
c. Typhoid
d. Tuberculosis
e. Diptheria
29. Maternal transmission may lead to foetal hydrops and death due to severe anaemia,
althougbthe majority of foetuses will recover.
a. VSV
b. HHV6
c. Parvovirus B19
d. HHV8
e. Enterovirus
30. Incubation period of 15-24 days (median 19)
a. Measles
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Mumps
d. Coxsackie
e. Tuberculosis
31. Which of the following crosses the placenta?
a. IgB
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgE
e. IgM
32. White spots on buccal mucosa, seen against a bright red background. Pathognomic for
measles.
a. Kopernan's spots
b. Kupferman's spots
c. Copwer's spots
d. Copernican's spots
e. Koplik's spots
33. With mumps, infectivity is for up to __ days after the onset of parotid swelling
a. 7
b. 21
c. 2
d. 14
e. 34
34. Treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, aspirin and anti-platelet aggregation agents
a. Kawasaki's disease
b. Toxic shock syndrome
c. Necrotising fasciitis
d. Scalded skin syndrome
e. Periorbital cellulitis
35. How long should a child stay away from school if they have had gastroenteritis? (from
last episode of diarrhoea)
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 56 hours
e. 48 hours
36. Reduces the risk of long term complications from
meningitis such as deafness when administered with antibiotics
a, Dexamethasone
b. Cefotaxzmine
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Ampicillin
e. Rifampicin
37. When treating TB, this should be given weekly to prevent peripheral neuropathy
associated with isoniazid therapy
a. Ethambutol
b. Pytazinamide
c. Rifampicin
d. Pyridoxine
e. Dexamethazone
38. IgG levels in the infant are lowest at around
a. 8-12 months
b. 1-2 days
c. 6-8 months
d. 2-3 weeks
e. 2-4 months
39. A rare, fatal, late complication of measles infection. Death is inevitable.
a. Rocky mountain spotted fever
b. Cat scratch disease
c. Lyme disease
d. Post infectious encephalopathy
e. Subacute scleorosing panencephalitis
40. Associated with a vesicular rash
a. Kawasaki's disease
b. Chickenpox
c. Rubella
d. Impetigo
e. Thrombocytopaenia
41. The MMR vaccination is given at about
a. 4 months
b. 13 months
c. 2 months
d. 6 months
e. 8 months
42. Associated with a purpuric/petechial rash
a. Meningococcal infection
b. Chickenpox
c. Kawasaki's disease
d. Impetigo
e. Shingles
43. Which of the following is NOT caused by enteroviruses
a. Herpangia
b. Pleurodynia
c. Meningitis/encephalitis
d. Chickenpox
e. Myocarditis/pericarditis
44. Which of the following is NOT associated with periorbital cellulitis
a. H. influenzae
b. Strep. pneumoniae
c. Staph. aureus
d. all of these ARE associated
e. Strep. pyogenes
45. Which of the following is FALSE regarding Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI)?
a. Causes 'bird flu'
b. It may cause pulmonary disease
c. It is an opportunistic human pathogen
d. Characteristic features include fever and diarrhoea
e. Common in patients with advanced HIV
46. Caused by parvovirus B19, it causes production of red blood cells (RBC's) to be shut
down for 10 days
a. ahaemotic crisis
b. parvocrisis
c. productive crisis
d. enterocrisis
e. aplastic crisis
47. Incubation period of 6-19 days (median 13)
a. Gastroenteritis
b. Measles
c. Coxsackie
d. Mumps
e. Tuberculosis
48. Mortlity of more than 70% if untreated
a. Encephalitis
b. Gingivostomatitis
c. Eczema herpeticum
d. varicella zoster
e. Aseptic meningitis
49. Which of the following is not protected against by the 5 in 1 injection given to infants at
2, 3 and 4 months of age?
a. polio
b. pertussis
c. diptheria
d. tetanus
e. tuberculosis
50. Incubation period of 15-20 days. Spread via respiratory route. Maculopapular rash often
first sign of infection.
a. Rubella
b. Measles
c. Herpes
d. Tuberculosis
e. Mumps
51. May be treated with ganciclovir or foscarnet, but both have serious side effects.
a. HHV6
b. CMV
c. HSV
d. HHV8
e. EBV
52. Inflammation of the brain, usually caused by a virus. Occurs in about in 5000 cases of
measles.
a. Periventricular acquiesence
b. Encephalitis
c. Periventricular leukomalacia
d. Elephantitis
e. Leukotriene encephaly
53. The virus gains access to the parotid glands before further dissemination to other tissues
a. Rubella
b. Mumps
c. Measles
d.Tuberculosis
e. Herpes
54. Refers to the phenomenon in scalded skin syndrome where areas of epidermis separate
on gental pressure.
a. Mikhailovich's sign
b. Nikolsky's sign
c. Dostoevsky's sign
d. Fyodor's sign
e. Sarkovsky's sign
55. An antiviral drug used in immunocompromised patients with measles
a. Ribavarin
b. Rifabutin
c. Rifamate
d. Riboflavin
e. Ridaura
56. Features include; fever, malaise, tonsillopharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy
a. Herpes
b. Encephalitis
c. Purpura fulminans
d. Varicella Zoster
e. Infectious mononucleosis
57. Which of the following is a NNRTI?
a. abacavir
b. zidovudine
c. nelfinavir
d. efavirenz
e. emtricitabine
58. Incubation period of 2-7 days
a. Chickenpox
b. Coxsackie
c. Enterovirus
d. Herpes Simplex
e. Gastroenteritis
59. The hallmark is that after primary infection the virus persists within the host, usually in a
dormant state.
a. Herpes
b. Rubella
c. Tuberculosis
d. Mumps
e. Measles
60. Scalded skin syndrome is most likely to be caused by
a. Streptococcal family
b. H. influenzae family
c. Staphlococcal family
d. Parvovirus family
e. Enterovirus family
61. Transmission is primarily by the faecal-oral route
a. Epstein-Barr viruses
b. Parvoviruses
c. Herpes viruses
d. Enteroviruses
e. Cytomegaloviruses
62. Boils are usually caused by
a. Group B Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Parvoviruses
d. Group A Streptococcus
e. Enteroviruses
63. Painful, erythematous oedmatous white pustules on the site of broken skin on the
fingers
a. Blepharitis
b. Herpetic whitlows
c. Eczema herpeticum
d. Conjunctivitis
e. Gingivostomatitis
64. Associated with a macular rash
a. Impetigo
b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
c. Chickenpox
d. Rubella
e. Shingles
65. Can be followed by hearing loss, although this is usually unilateral and transient.
a. Rubella
b. Herpes
c. Measles
d. Mumps
e. Tuberculosis
66. Incubation period of 10-23 days
a. Gastroenteritis
b. Chickenpox
c. Enterovirus
d. Herpes Simplex
e. Coxsackie
67. Incubation period of 1-10 days
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Coxsackie
d. Chickenpox
e. Enterovirus
68. Treatment is with aciclovir
a. Tuberculosis
b. Herpes
c. Mumps
d. Measles
e. Rubella
69. Associated with a purpuric/petechial rash
a. Kawasaki's disease
b. Impetigo
c. Thrombocytopaenia
d. Shingles
e. Chickenpox
70. Mainly transmitted through the transfer of genital secretions
a. HSV1
b. HSV2
c. HSV4
d. HSV5
e. HSV3
71. Transmitted via saliva, genital secretions or breastmilk. In the immunocompromised
host infection can cause retinitis, pneumonitis, bone marrow failure, encephalitis, hepatitis,
colitis and oesophagitis. Organ recipients are closely monitored for evidence of ____
acvtivation.
a. CMV
b. HHV6
c. HSV
d. HHV8
e. EBV
72. Lymphocytes are seen in the CSF in ____% cases of meningitis
a. 40
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
e. 50
73. Coxsackie, Echovirus, and Polio are all examples of ----Infection
a. Enteroviruses
b. Parvoviruses
c. Herpes viruses
d. Cytomegaloviruses
e. Epstein-Barr viruses
74. Uncommon complications include orchitis, oophoritis, mastitis and arthritis
a. Rubella
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Meningitis
e. Herpes
75. Inflammation of the brain parenchyma with the presence of clinically evident
neurological dysfunction
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Meningitis
c. Cerbellosis
d. Cerebellitis
e. Encephalitis
76. A localised, highly contagious, staphylococcal and/or streptococcal skin infection, most
common in infants and young children. Honey crusted lesions often seen.
a. Herpangia
b. Hydrops
c. Impetigo
d. Bornholm's disease
e. Hand foot and mouth disease
77. Often present for long periods in the nasopharynx of health children. May cause
pharyngitis, otitis media, conjunctivitis, sinusitis, pneumonia, bacterial sepsis, & meningitis.
a. Staph. aureus
b. Strep. pyogenes
c. Strep. pneumoniae
d. Step. pyogenes
e. H. influenzae
78. Associated with Kaposi's sarcoma, a tumour which occurs in immunosuppressed
patients and certain African and Mediterranean populations
a. HHV6
b. HHV8
c. HHV7
d. VSV
e. Parvovirus B19
79. The major cause of the infectious mononucleosis syndrome, but also involved in
pathogenesis of Burkitt's lymphoma and naospharyngeal carcinoma
a. EBV
b. VZV
c. HSV
d. HHV8
e. HHV6
80. There are currently 8 known viruses causing this condition
a. Tuberculosis
b. Herpes
c. Measles
d. Rubella
e. Mumps
81. A systemic illness with high fever, diffuse macular rash, and hypotension, among other
symptoms. Caused by staphlococci and streptococci. 1-2 weeks after onset there is
desquamation of the palms, soles, fingers and toes.
a. Toxic shock syndrome
b. Rubella
c. Cellulitis
d. Mumps
e. Measles
82. Prophylaxis against primary pneumocystis pneumonia (Pneumocystis jiroveci) in infants
with HIV
a. Pyridoxine
b. Rifampicin
c. Pytazinamide
d. co-trimoxazole
e. Ethambutol
83. Causes erythema infectiosum, fifth disease, or slapped cheek syndrome
a. HHV7
b. VSV
c. HHV8
d. HHV6
e. Parvovirus B19
84. A rare chronic, progressive conditon affecting primarily children and young adults,
caused by a persistent infection of immune resistant measles virus. 1 in 100,000 people
infected with measles develop this.
a. Periventricular leukomalacia
b. Elephantitis
c. Periventricular acquiesence
d. Leukotriene encephaly
e. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
85. The classic infectious syndrome associated with this is exantheum subitum (frequently
misdiagnosed as measles or rubella)
a. HHV8
b. CMV
c. HHV7
d. VSV
e. HHV6
86. May occur in sexually active adolescents. Usually a complication of HS2 infections,
occuring within 10 days of a primary infection. Resolves without sequelae.
a. varicella zoster
b. Encephalitis
c. Gingivostomatitis
d. Eczema herpeticum
e. Aseptic meningitis
87. Aneurysms of the coronary arteries are an important complication. Mainly affects
children 6 months to 4 years old. It is a vasculitis affecting small and medium sized vessels.
Associated with fever > 5 days.
a. Periorbital cellulitis
b. Scalded skin syndrome
c. Necrotising fasciitis
d. Toxic shock syndrome
e. Kawasaki's disease
88. Which of the following is a protease inhibitor?
a. efavirenz
b. abacavir
c. emtricitabine
d. zidovudine
e. nelfinavir
89. Triple or quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) is the
recommended initial treatment combination
a. Cat scratch disease
b. Tuberculosis
c. Subacute scleorosing panencephalitis
d. Rocky mountain spotted fever
e. Lyme disease
Key
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. E
9. A
10. D
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. E
19. E
20. E
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. D
25. E
26. E
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. C
32. E
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. A
37. D
38. E
39. E
40. B
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. D
45. A
46. E
47. B
48. A
49. E
50. A
51. B
52. B
53. B
54. B
55. A
56. E
57. D
58. C
59. A
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. B
64. D
65. D
66. B
67. B
68. B
69. C
70. B
71. A
72. E
73. A
74. D
75. E
76. C
77. C
78. B
79. A
80. B
81. A
82. D
83. E
84. E
85. E
86. E
87. E
88. E
89. B