New York State

Department of Civil Service

Committed to Innovation, Quality, and Excellence

A Guide to the Written Test

for the

Careers in Labor Services Series

David A. Paterson Nancy G. Groenwegen

Governor Commissioner
INTRODUCTION
The New York State Department of Civil Service has developed this test guide to familiarize you with
the written test for the Careers in Labor Services Series. This test guide provides a general description
of the subject areas which will be tested and the different types of questions you may see on the test.

The written test for the Careers in Labor Services Series has an overall time allowance of 6 1/2 hours.
The following lists all of the subject areas that are included in this series. The exam announcement will
tell you which of the following subject areas you will be tested on.

1. Evaluating conclusions in light of known facts – These questions will consist of a set of facts
and a conclusion. You must decide if the conclusion is proved by the facts, disproved by the facts
or if the facts are not sufficient to prove or disprove the conclusion. The questions will not be
specific to a particular field.
2. Interacting with the public – These questions test for the ability to interact with other people in a
courteous and professional manner. Topics include obtaining and presenting information and
providing assistance, advice, and customer service to people with diverse needs, perspectives,
personalities, and levels of familiarity with agency operations.
3. Interviewing – These questions test for knowledge of the principles and practices employed in
obtaining information from individuals through structured conversations. These questions require
you to apply the principles, practices, and techniques of effective interviewing to hypothetical
interviewing situations. Included are questions that present a problem arising from an interviewing
situation, and you must choose the most appropriate course of action to take.
4. Understanding, interpreting and applying written material based on unemployment issues
under the Labor Law – These questions are designed to test how well candidates read,
understand and apply the provisions of the Labor Law to hypothetical case situations. The
candidates will be provided with a brief reading selection from the Labor Law, Commissioner's
Regulations or a Departmental Directive along with a set of facts describing the hypothetical case
situation and be required to answer a series of questions which require applying the law, regulation
or directive to the case. The candidates will not be required to bring any knowledge of the Labor
Law to the test, but may be required to perform arithmetic computations or interpret tabular data in
order to arrive at the answers to the questions.
5. Preparing written material – These questions test for the ability to present information clearly and
accurately, and to organize paragraphs logically and comprehensibly. For some questions, you will
be given information in two or three sentences followed by four restatements of the information.
You must then choose the best version. For other questions, you will be given paragraphs with
their sentences out of order. You must then choose, from four suggestions, the best order for the
sentences.
6. Understanding and interpreting written material – These questions test how well you
comprehend written material. You will be provided with brief reading selections and will be asked
questions about the selections. All the information required to answer the questions will be
presented in the selections; you will not be required to have any special knowledge relating to the
subject areas of the selections.
7. Understanding and interpreting tabular material – These questions test your ability to
understand, analyze, and use the internal logic of data presented in tabular form. You may be
asked to perform tasks such as completing tables, drawing conclusions from them, analyzing data
trends or interrelationships, and revising or combining data sets. The concepts of rate, ratio, and
proportion are tested. Mathematical operations are simple, and computational speed is not a major
factor in the test.

2
INTRODUCTION (continued)
8. Understanding, interpreting and applying written material based on selections of law – These
questions are designed to test how well candidates can read, understand and apply provisions of
law to hypothetical case situations. The candidates will be provided with a brief reading selection of
a law, regulation and/or directive along with a set of facts describing the hypothetical situation and
be required to answer a series of questions which require applying the law, regulation or directive to
the case. The candidates will not be required to bring any knowledge of any particular law to the
test, but may be required to perform arithmetic computations or interpret tabular data in order to
arrive at the answers to the questions.

The remainder of this test guide explains how you will be tested in each of the subject areas listed
above. A TEST TASK is provided for each subject area. This is an explanation of how a question will
be presented and how to correctly answer it. Read each explanation carefully. This test guide provides
at least one SAMPLE QUESTION for each subject area. The sample questions will be similar to what
will be presented on the actual test. This test guide provides the SOLUTION and correct answer(s) to
each sample question. You should study these in order to understand how the correct or best answers
were determined.

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SUBJECT AREA 1
EVALUATING CONCLUSIONS IN LIGHT OF KNOWN FACTS: These questions test for the ability to
evaluate conclusions in the light of known facts. The test area consists of sets of facts and conclusions.
You must decide whether the conclusion is proven by the facts, disproven by the facts, or neither
proven nor disproven. The questions are not specific to any job title.

TEST TASK: You will be given a set of statements (FACTS) you are to assume to be true and a
CONCLUSION based on the statements. The conclusion is derived from these statements only—NOT
on what you may happen to know about the subject discussed. Each question has three possible
answers. You must then select the correct answer in the following manner:

Select A, if the statements prove that the conclusion is TRUE.

Select B, if the statements prove that the conclusion is FALSE.
Select C, if the statements are INADEQUATE to prove the conclusion EITHER TRUE OR FALSE.

SAMPLE QUESTION 1:

FACTS: All file folders are delivered by the Conroy Company. Blue file folders are delivered on
Mondays or Fridays; green or brown file folders are delivered on Wednesdays. Human Resources and
Finance use blue file folders, Legal uses green file folders and Data Processing uses brown file folders.

CONCLUSION: The file folders Finance uses are delivered on Wednesdays.

SOLUTION: The last sentence of the FACTS says that Finance uses blue file folders. The second
sentence of the FACTS says that blue file folders are delivered on Monday or Friday. The
CONCLUSION says the file folders Finance uses are delivered on Wednesday. Wednesday is neither
Monday nor Friday. Therefore, the conclusion must be FALSE (choice B).

The correct answer to this sample question is B.

SAMPLE QUESTION 2:

FACTS: If Zhili works overtime, the assignment will be completed. If the assignment is completed,
then all unit employees will receive a bonus. Zhili works overtime.

CONCLUSION: A bonus will be given to all unit employees.

SOLUTION: The CONCLUSION follows necessarily from the FACTS. Zhili works overtime. The
assignment is completed. Therefore, all unit employees will receive a bonus.

The correct answer to this sample question is A.

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SUBJECT AREA 1 (continued)
SAMPLE QUESTION 3:

FACTS: Dennis has more seniority than Isabel. Amaya has more seniority than Dennis. Sarah has
twice as much seniority as Isabel.

CONCLUSION: Sarah has more seniority than Amaya.

SOLUTION: We know from the facts that both Sarah and Amaya have more seniority than Isabel. We
do not have any other information about the relative seniority of Sarah and Amaya. Therefore, no
conclusion about whether or not Sarah has more seniority than Amaya can be made.

The correct answer to this sample question is C.

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SUBJECT AREA 2
INTERACTING WITH THE PUBLIC: These questions test for the ability to interact with other people in
a courteous and professional manner. Topics include obtaining and presenting information and
providing assitance, advice, and customer service to people with diverse needs, perspectives,
personalities, and levels of familiarity with agency operations.

TEST TASK: You will be presented with a variety of situations in which you must apply knowledge of
how best to interact with other people.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

A person approaches you expressing anger about a recent action by your department. Which one of
the following should be your first response to this person?

A. Interrupt to say you cannot discuss the situation until he calms down.
B. Say you are sorry that he has been negatively affected by your department’s action.
C. Listen and express understanding that he has been upset by your department’s action.
D. Give him an explanation of the reasons for your department’s action.

SOLUTION:

Choice A is not correct. It would be inappropriate to interrupt. In addition, saying that you cannot
discuss the situation until the person calms down will likely aggravate him further.

Choice B is not correct. Apologizing for your department’s action implies that the action was improper.

Choice C is the correct answer to this question. By listening and expressing understanding that your
department’s action has upset him, you demonstrate that you have heard and understand his feelings
and point of view.

Choice D is not correct. While an explanation of the reasons for the action may be appropriate at a
later time, at this moment the person is angry and would not be receptive to such an explanation.

The correct answer to this sample question is choice C.

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SUBJECT AREA 3
INTERVIEWING: These questions test for knowledge of the principles and practices employed in
obtaining information from individuals through structured conversations. These questions require you
to apply the principles, practices, and techniques of effective interviewing to hypothetical interviewing
situations. Included are questions that present a problem arising from an interviewing situation, and
you must choose the most appropriate course of action to take.

TEST TASK: You will be presented with situations in which you must apply knowledge of the principles
and practices of interviewing in order to answer the questions correctly.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

An interview has just been completed at a government agency. Which one of the following interview
outcomes best demonstrates that the interview was successful?

A. The person being interviewed stated at the finish that she had learned a great deal about the
agency.
B. The person being interviewed praised the interviewer’s approach to asking questions.
C. The person being interviewed had a high level of meaningful participation.
D. The person being interviewed kept all answers very brief.

SOLUTION:

Choice A is not correct. How much a person learns about the agency during an interview is of fairly low
importance. The near opposite of this – how much the agency has learned from the person being
interviewed – is most important.

Choice B is not correct. The person’s opinion of how the interviewer asked questions does not relate to
the main purpose of an interview, gathering accurate, pertinent information from the person.

Choice C is the correct answer to this question. When the person being interviewed has a high level of
meaningful participation, she is giving a high amount of pertinent information, thereby meeting the
purpose of the interview and making it successful.

Choice D is not correct. When the person being interviewed gives very brief answers to all questions, it
is likely that the information received is not full and complete. During a typical interview, some
questions may require only brief answers, but some other questions require a longer response for the
interviewer to obtain clear, complete information.

The correct answer to this sample question is C.

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SUBJECT AREA 4
UNDERSTANDING, INTERPRETING AND APPLYING WRITTEN MATERIAL BASED ON
UNEMPLOYMENT ISSUES UNDER THE LABOR LAW: These questions are designed to test how
well candidates read, understand and apply the provisions of the Labor Law to hypothetical case
situations. The candidates will be provided with a brief reading selection from the Labor Law,
Commissioner's Regulations or a Departmental Directive along with a set of facts describing the
hypothetical case situation and be required to answer a series of questions which require applying the
law, regulation or directive to the case. The candidates will not be required to bring any knowledge of
the Labor Law to the test, but may be required to perform arithmetic computations or interpret tabular
data in order to arrive at the answers to the questions.

TEST TASK: You will be provided with passages to read and questions to answer about each.
Everything you need to know to answer the question is contained in the passage. To answer the
questions correctly, you must base your answers only on the information contained in the passage.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

Base your answer to the SAMPLE QUESTION on the following reading selection.

"Suspension of Accumulation of Benefit Rights. 1) Industrial Controversy. The accumulation of benefit

rights by a claimant shall be suspended during a period of seven consecutive weeks beginning with the
day after he lost his employment because of a strike, lockout, or other industrial controversy in the
establishment in which he was employed, except that benefit rights may be accumulated before the
expiration of such seven weeks beginning with the day after such strike, lockout, or other industrial
controversy was terminated."

Lena Applegate works as a secretary at the Excelsior Ship Building Company. She does not belong to
a union. The members of the pipefitters' union at the Company go on strike at 9:00 a.m. on
July 11, 2010 and the Company is immediately completely shut down. Lena files a claim for
unemployment insurance on July 11, 2010. Which one of the following most accurately states the
status of her claim for benefits?

A. Lena is subject to suspension of benefit rights for a period of seven consecutive weeks beginning
July 11, 2010, unless the strike ends sooner.
B. Lena is subject to suspension of benefit rights for a period of seven consecutive weeks beginning
July 12, 2010, unless the strike ends sooner.
C. Lena is not subject to suspension of benefit rights, as she is not a member of the pipefitters' union,
and she did not go on strike.
D. Lena is subject to suspension of benefit rights beginning July 12, 2010, for as long as the strike
lasts.

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SUBJECT AREA 4 (continued)
SOLUTION: To answer this question correctly, you must evaluate each choice against the information
contained in the passage. Reject the choices that are not completely supported by information in the
passage. Select the choice that is completely supported by information in the passage.

Choice A is incorrect. According to the passage, "the accumulation of benefit rights by a claimant shall
be suspended during a period of seven consecutive weeks beginning with the day after he lost his
employment because of a strike…" According to the facts in the question, Lena lost employment
because of a strike at her company on July 11, 2010. Therefore, according to the information in the
passage, the seven consecutive week period of suspension of benefit rights would begin on
July 12, 2010, not on July 11, 2010 as stated in Choice A.

Choice B is the correct answer to this question. As discussed above, Lena is subject to suspension of
benefit rights for a period of seven consecutive weeks beginning July 12, 2010, unless the strike ends
sooner, as the passage goes on to specify, "except that benefit rights may be accumulated before the
expiration of such seven weeks beginning with the day after such strike… was terminated." That is if
the strike lasts less than seven weeks, the claimant may again accumulate benefit rights starting the
day after the strike ends.

Choice C is incorrect. According to the passage, any claimant who loses employment because of a
strike in the place of employment is subject to the seven week period of suspension of accumulation of
benefit rights, not just claimants who are members of the striking union.

Choice D is incorrect in stating that the period of suspension is "for as long as the strike lasts." If the
strike continues for longer than seven weeks, the period of suspension will not continue to last. Rather,
as specified in the passage, the period of suspension will last only for "a period of seven consecutive
weeks."

The correct answer to this sample question is B.

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SUBJECT AREA 5
PREPARING WRITTEN MATERIAL: These questions test for the ability to present information clearly
and accurately, and to organize paragraphs logically and comprehensibly. For some questions, you will
be given information in two or three sentences followed by four restatements of the information. You
must then choose the best version. For other questions, you will be given paragraphs with their
sentences out of order. You must then choose, from four suggestions, the best order for the sentences.

TEST TASK:

There are two separate test tasks in this subject area.

• For the first, Information Presentation, you will be given information in two or three sentences,
followed by four restatements of the information. You must then choose the best version.

• For the second, Paragraph Organization, you will be given paragraphs with their sentences out of
order, and then be asked to choose, from among four suggestions, the best order for the
sentences.

INFORMATION PRESENTATION SAMPLE QUESTION:

Martin Wilson failed to take proper precautions. His failure to take proper precautions caused a
personal injury accident.

Which one of the following best presents the information above?

A. Martin Wilson failed to take proper precautions that caused a personal injury accident.
B. Proper precautions, which Martin Wilson failed to take, caused a personal injury accident.
C. Martin Wilson’s failure to take proper precautions caused a personal injury accident.
D. Martin Wilson, who failed to take proper precautions, was in a personal injury accident.

SOLUTION:

Choice A conveys the incorrect impression that proper precautions caused a personal injury accident.

Choice B conveys the incorrect impression that proper precautions caused a personal injury accident.

Choice C best presents the original information: Martin Wilson failed to take proper precautions and
this failure caused a personal injury accident.

Choice D states that Martin Wilson was in a personal injury accident. The original information states
that Martin Wilson caused a personal injury accident, but it does not state that Martin Wilson was in a
personal injury accident.

The best answer to this sample question is C.

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SUBJECT AREA 5 (continued)
PARAGRAPH ORGANIZATION SAMPLE QUESTION:

The following question is based upon a group of sentences. The sentences are shown out of sequence,
but when correctly arranged, they form a connected, well-organized paragraph. Read the sentences,
and then answer the question about the best arrangement of these sentences.

1. Eventually, they piece all of this information together and make a choice.

2. Before actually deciding upon a job, people usually think about several possibilities.

3. They imagine themselves in different situations, and in so doing, they probably think about their
interests, goals, and abilities.

4. Choosing an occupation is an important decision to make.

Which one of the following is the best arrangement of these sentences?

A. 2-4-1-3
B. 2-3-4-1
C. 4-2-1-3
D. 4-2-3-1

SOLUTION:

Choices A and C present the information in the paragraph out of logical sequence. In both A and C,
sentence 1 comes before sentence 3. The key element in the organization of this paragraph is that
sentence 3 contains the information to which sentence 1 refers; therefore, in logical sequence,
sentence 3 should come before sentence 1.

Choice B also presents the information in the paragraph out of logical sequence. Choice B places
sentence 4 in between sentence 1 and sentence 3, thereby interrupting the logical sequence of the
information in the paragraph.

Choice D presents the information in the paragraph in the best logical sequence. Sentence 4
introduces the main idea of the paragraph: “choosing an occupation.” Sentences 2-3-1 then follow up
on this idea by describing, in order, the steps involved in making such a choice. Choice D is the best
answer to this sample question.

The best answer to this sample question is D.

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SUBJECT AREA 6
UNDERSTANDING AND INTERPRETING WRITTEN MATERIAL: These questions test how well you
comprehend written material. You will be provided with brief reading selections and will be asked
questions about the selections. All the information required to answer the questions will be presented in
the selections; you will not be required to have any special knowledge relating to the subject areas of
the selections.

TEST TASK: For each question, you will be provided with a brief written selection, followed by a
question and a set of alternative statements relating to the selection. You must choose the statement
that best answers the question. Your answer should be based on the information found in the selection
only, NOT on knowledge you may have about the subject from other sources.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

“The increasing demands upon our highways from a growing population and the development of forms
of transportation not anticipated when the highways were first built have brought about congestion,
confusion, and conflict, until the yearly toll of traffic accidents is now at an appalling level. If the death
and disaster that traffic accidents bring throughout the year were concentrated into one calamity, we
would shudder at the tremendous catastrophe. The loss is no less catastrophic because it is spread
out over time and space.”

Which one of the following statements concerning the yearly toll of traffic accidents is best supported by
the passage above?

A. It is increasing the demands for safer means of transportation.

B. It has resulted in increased congestion, confusion, and conflict on our highways.
C. It does not shock us as much as it should because the accidents do not all occur together.
D. It has resulted mainly from the new forms of transportation.

SOLUTION: To answer this question correctly, you must evaluate each choice against the written
selection and determine the one that is best supported by the written selection.

Choice A: Nowhere in the passage does it say that there has been any demand for safer means of
transportation. Someone who picks this choice may believe that there could be or should be a demand
for safer transportation, but there is nothing in the passage to base it on. This choice is incorrect.

Choice B: The passage states that it is the congestion, confusion, and conflict which results in the
high toll of traffic accidents and not the other way around. A person who picks this choice could either
be confused as to which is the cause and which is the effect or not have read the choice carefully. This
choice is incorrect.

Choice C: This choice is supported by the last two sentences in the passage. The writer says, “If …,
we would shudder.” (A shudder is a response to shock.) The implication is that we don’t shudder
because traffic accidents do not all occur at the same time and place. The writer then points out that
we should think of the yearly toll as being catastrophic (shocking) even though the accidents are spread
out over time and space. This choice is supported by the information in the passage.

Choice D: There are two reasons given in the passage for the high accident rate. One is the
development of new forms of transportation; the other is the increased highway use from a growing
population. Neither one is described as the main reason. It is clearly incorrect to say that the new
forms of transportation are the main reason. This choice is incorrect.

The correct answer to this sample question is C.

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SUBJECT AREA 7
UNDERSTANDING AND INTERPRETING TABULAR MATERIAL: These questions test your ability to
understand, analyze, and use the internal logic of data presented in tabular form. You may be asked to
perform tasks such as completing tables, drawing conclusions from them, analyzing data trends or
interrelationships, and revising or combining data sets. The concepts of rate, ratio, and proportion are
tested. Mathematical operations are simple, and computational speed is not a major factor in the test.

TEST TASK: The questions in this subject area are contained in two or more sets. Each set consists of
data presented in one or more tables, followed by a number of questions. You must use the
appropriate data from the tables, in combination with the information given in each question, in order to
answer the questions correctly.

NOTE: You will be allowed to bring a calculator and use it during the test.

SAMPLE TABLE:

DIRECTIONS: Base your answers to the following two questions on the information in the table below.

Population of a City in 2007 by Age and Gender

(in Thousands)

Age Female Male Total

Under 25 70 72 142
25-34 ? 27 ?
35-44 ? 28 53
45-54 27 28 55
55-64 30 ? 57
65 and over 85 75 160
Total 261 257 518

NOTE: Spaces with question marks can be filled in using information given in the table and in the
questions.

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SUBJECT AREA 7 (continued)
SAMPLE QUESTION 1:

How many people in the city in 2007 were between 25 and 34 years old?

A. 51
B. 27,000
C. 51,000
D. cannot be determined from the information provided

SOLUTION: To answer this question correctly, you must first note that the numbers in the table
represent thousands of people (see the table heading). You are asked to find the total number of
people aged 25-34. Since this information is missing from the table, it is necessary to calculate it by
using other information which is in the table. You must add the number of people in all of the age
groups other than 25-34, and then subtract this sum from the total population of the city. This will then
give the number of people aged 25-34.

The correct answer to sample question 1 is C. (see the solution below).

under
142,000
+ 53,000 35-44 518,000 total population (all ages)
+ 55,000 45-54 -467,000 total population (all ages except 25-34)
+ 57,000 55-64 51,000 population aged 25-34
+160,000 65 and over
467,000

There are 51,000 people in the city between the ages of 25 and 34 (Choice C).

SAMPLE QUESTION 2:

Most nearly what percent of the total population of the city was female aged 35 to 54?

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 14%
D. 20%

SOLUTION: To answer this question correctly you must find the number of females aged 35 to 54. This
requires you to add the number of females aged 35-44 to the number aged 45-54. You must first find
the number of females who are aged 35 to 44. This information is missing from the table, but you can
calculate it by subtracting the number of males who are aged 35 to 44 from the total number of people
in that age group. (53 000- 28,000 =25,000; there are 25,000 females aged 35-44). You then need to
add the number of females aged 35- 44 to the number of females aged 45 to 54; (25,000 + 27,000 =
52,000; there are 52,000 females between the ages of 35 and 54). You must then divide this number
by the total population of the city, and convert the answer to a percent. (52,000/518,000 = .100386;
this is nearest to 10%, which is choice B).

The correct answer to sample question 2 is B.

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SUBJECT AREA 7 (continued)
SAMPLE QUESTION 3:

If 40% of the total male population of the city earns wages, and 30% of the total female population of
the city earns wages, which one of the following statements comparing the number of males earning
wages to the number of females earning wages is true?

A. There are 24,500 more males than females earning wages.

B. There are 27,300 more males than females earning wages.
C. There are 51,800 more males than females earning wages.
D. There are 27,300 fewer males than females earning wages.

Solution:
To answer this question correctly you must use some information given in the question and some
information given in the table. It is important to be careful and apply the correct percentage for each
gender. (The percentage for males is given first in the question, but the number of males is second in
the table).

To calculate the number of males earning wages, multiply the total number of males by 40%.
(257,000 x .40 = 102,800)

To calculate the number of females earning wages, multiply the total number of females by 30%.
(261,000 x .30 = 78,300)

To compare the two numbers, subtract the number of female wage earners from the number of male
wage earners. (102,800 – 78,300 = 24,500)

There are 24,500 more male wage earners than female wage earners (choice A).

The correct answer to sample question 3 is A.

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SUBJECT AREA 8
UNDERSTANDING, INTERPRETING AND APPLYING WRITTEN MATERIAL BASED ON
SELECTIONS OF LAW: These questions are designed to test how well candidates can read,
understand and apply provisions of law to hypothetical case situations. The candidates will be provided
with a brief reading selection of a law, regulation and/or directive along with a set of facts describing the
hypothetical situation and be required to answer a series of questions which require applying the law,
regulation or directive to the case. The candidates will not be required to bring any knowledge of any
particular law to the test, but may be required to perform arithmetic computations or interpret tabular
data in order to arrive at the answers to the questions.

TEST TASK: You will be provided with passages to read and questions to answer about each.
Everything you need to know to answer the questions is contained in the passage. To answer the
questions correctly, you must base your answers only on the information contained in the passage.

BASE YOUR ANSWERS TO THE NEXT 2 SAMPLE QUESTIONS ON THE FOLLOWING READING
SELECTION.

"If a child protective caseworker or other children's services staff person in a district is reported as a
subject of a child abuse or maltreatment report, the recommended course of action is to arrange,
through assignment by the SCR (State Central Register), for a contiguous county to conduct the
investigation.

All reports of suspected child abuse and maltreatment involving any employee of the local district
department of social services must be shared by the local Child Protective Service (CPS) with the
appropriate Regional Office of the State Central Register. Regional Office staff are responsible for
oversight and technical assistance and will determine the nature of necessary follow-up action (e.g.,
determining whether or not a personal contact with the caseworker responsible for the investigation is
necessary). In order to oversee the investigation, the Regional Office may request information from or
contact with the investigating district, in addition to being notified of the determination.

In the event a contiguous county finds that abuse or maltreatment is present and the initiation of a court
proceeding is necessary, action based upon such findings must be undertaken by the subject's "home"
district in its own jurisdiction. When the child(ren)'s welfare and protection have been assured, a
determination rendered, and a rehabilitative treatment plan of services developed, the contiguous
county’s child protective service may terminate its involvement with the case. If the contiguous county
has indicated* the case and recommended the provision of a rehabilitative services plan, the plan may
be transferred with SCR approval to the local district in which the subject(s) reside(s). If a subject of a
report requests an expungement review and/or a fair hearing, the contiguous county which made the
original determination will be required to substantiate the basis for the indicated determination as part of
the normal expungement review process. This county must also participate in the fair hearing in the
subject's home district.

All reports of suspected child abuse and maltreatment involving other than child protective or children's
services staff (e.g., staff of income maintenance programs, medical assistance programs, etc.) will be
assigned to the local child protective service in the county of the subject's residence. Other special
circumstances which may arise should be handled on a case-by-case basis in consultation with the
SCR and the Regional Office."

*indicated - term used when evidence of abuse or maltreatment is found

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SUBJECT AREA 8 (continued)____
SAMPLE QUESTION 1:

An Alpha County Income Maintenance Worker who resides in Alpha County is accused of neglecting
his child. In which one of the following ways, if any, should Alpha County most properly handle the
investigation?

A. There are no additional requirements for the investigation, because an Income Maintenance
Worker's position does not require direct contact with children.
B. Immediately contact the district in a contiguous county and ask them to take responsibility for the
investigation.
C. Unless other special circumstances exist, Alpha County may conduct the investigation and should
share the information contained in the report with the State Central Register.
D. The State Central Register will conduct the investigation because the Income Maintenance Worker
works for the county.

SOLUTION: To answer this question correctly, you must evaluate each choice against the information
contained in the passage. Reject the choices that are not completely supported by information in the
passage. Select the choice that is completely supported by information in the passage.

Choice A is incorrect. It states that there are no additional requirements for the investigation, because
an Income Maintenance Worker’s position does not require direct contact with children. There is
nothing stated in the reading that exempts any Local District workers from investigation.

Choice B is incorrect. It states that the Local District should immediately contact the district in a
contiguous county and ask them to take responsibility for the investigation. Paragraph one states this is
to be done if the subject is a Child Protective Worker or other childrens’ services staff person.

Choice C is correct. It states that unless other special circumstances exist (the question does not state
that they do), Alpha County may conduct the investigation and should share the information contained
in the report with the State Central Register. Paragraph four states that, in the absence of special
circumstances, the Income Maintenance Worker’s “home” county, Alpha County, should conduct the
investigation and, according to paragraph two, share the information with the State Central Register.

Choice D is incorrect. It states that the State Central Register will conduct the investigation because
the Income Maintenance Worker works for the county. Nothing in the reading states that the State
Central Register performs such investigations.

The correct answer to this sample question is C.

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SUBJECT AREA 8 (continued)__
SAMPLE QUESTION 2:

According to the reading selection, an action against a Child Protective Caseworker indicated for child
abuse would be brought by

A. the contiguous county which did the investigation

B. the county in which the Caseworker resides
C. a county assigned by the State Central Register
D. regional office staff of the State Office of Children and Family Services

SOLUTION: To answer this question correctly, you must evaluate each choice against the information
contained in the passage. Reject the choices that are not completely supported by information in the
passage. Select the choice that is completely supported by information in the passage.

Choice A is incorrect. It states that an action against a Child Protective Caseworker indicated for child
abuse would be brought by the contiguous county. The reading states that, while the investigation
would be done by a contiguous county, the action to be taken as a result of such investigation is to be
taken by the worker’s “home” county (paragraph three).

Choice B is correct. It states that an action against a Child Protective Caseworker indicated for child
abuse would be brought by the county in which the Child Protective Worker resides. See the
explanation for Choice A.

Choice C is incorrect. It states that an action against a Child Protective Caseworker indicated for child
abuse would be brought by a county assigned by the State Central Register. Nothing in the reading
states that this is to be done.

Choice D is incorrect. It states that an action against a Child Protective Caseworker indicated for child
abuse would be brought by regional staff of the State Office of Children and Family Services. Nothing in
the reading states that this is to be done.

The correct answer to this sample question is B.

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TEST SECURITY
The test you will be taking is the property of the New York State Department of Civil Service.
Candidates may not remove test material from the test site and may not reproduce, reconstruct, or
discuss the test content with others. Unauthorized possession or disclosure of the test material is
prohibited by law and punishable by imprisonment and/or a fine. Additionally, candidates may be
disqualified from appointment to the positions for which the examination is being held and from being a
candidate for any civil service examination for five years. After you take the test, other individuals may
want to talk with you about the test. You should not discuss the questions and answers, even in general
terms. You should be careful that you do not inadvertently violate test security and put yourself at risk.

CONCLUSION
Your attitude and approach to the test will influence how well you perform. A positive attitude will help
you do your best.

Before the test ...

• Study and review this guide to familiarize yourself with what the test will cover.
• Study and review the subject areas that will be covered on the test.

On the day of the test ...

• Arrive at the test site on time.
• Bring your Admission Notice, two No. 2 pencils, a photo ID containing your signature, a
quiet lunch or snack, and any other allowed materials.
• Do NOT bring this test guide to the test site.

At the test site …

• Do NOT bring cell phones, beepers, headphones, or any electronic or other communication
devices to the test site.
• The use of such devices anywhere on the grounds of the test site (this includes the test
room, hallways, restrooms, building, grounds, and parking lots) could result in your
disqualification.

During the test ...

• Read and follow all directions on your Admission Notice, test booklets, answer sheets, and
Candidate Directions.
• Follow the Monitor's instructions.
• Keep track of the time.

After the test ...

• Do NOT remove any test materials from the test room.
• Do NOT paraphrase, reconstruct, or reproduce the test material in any way.
• Do NOT discuss the test material with others.

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It is the policy of the New York State Department of Civil Service to provide reasonable
accommodation to ensure effective communication of information to individuals with
disabilities. If you need an auxiliary aid or service to make this information available to you,
please contact the New York State Department of Civil Service Public Information Office at
(518) 457-9375.

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 Visit the New York State
Department of Civil Service web site
www.cs.state.ny.us

New York State

Department of Civil Service
Albany, NY 12239

2010

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