Indian Engineering Services (IES)

Examination
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING-1994
PAPER--II (Objective)

I. ::t(~,Of~re" in ::;i(~,",e_~T"i,(:;"[
a i: ~ J (d) nooo
of ,h"hovo

Sol. (e) A statc of purc shear in a biaxial state of stress is given by [0".'L x 'Lx..,..]
0",
rx

2. The number of strain readings (using strain gauges) needed on a plane surface to determine the principal
strains and thcir directions is
(a) I (b) 2 (e) 3 (d) 4
Sol. (e) Three strain gauge are needed on a plane surface to determine the principal strains and their
dIrections.
3. When two mutually perpendicular principal stresses are unequal but like, the maximum shear stress is
represented by
(0) the diameter of the Mohr's circle (b) half the diameter of the Mohr's circle
(c) one-third the diameter of the Mohr's circle (d) one-fourth the diameter of the Mohr's circle.
Sol. (b) The maximum shear stress is represented by half the diameter of Mohr's circle when two mutually
perpendicular principal stresses are unequal but alike.
4. If the value of Poisson's ratio is zero, then it means that
(a) the material is rigid. (b) the material is perfectly plastic.
(e) there is no longitudinal strain in the material.
(d) the longitudinal strain in the material is infinite.

Sol. (a) If Poisson's ratio is zero, then material is rigid.

5. If the bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam is of the form given below.
Then the load acting on the beam is

(a) a concentrated force at C

(b) a uniformly distributed load over the whole length of the beam
(e) equal and opposite moments applied at A and B
(d) a moment applied at C.
Sol. (d) A vertical line in centre of B.M. diagram is possible when a moment is applied there.
6. A beam is simply supported at its ends and is loaded by a couple at its mid-span as shown in figure A.
Shear force diagram for the beam is given by the figure.
 (a) B (b) C (c) D
Sol. (d) Figure at(c)represents correct shear force for loading at A.
7. The shear force diagram shown in the following figure is that of a
(a) freely supported beam with symmetrical
point load about mid-span.
(b) freely supported beam with symmetrical
uniformly distributed load about mid-span.
(c) simply supported beam with positive and
negative point loads symmetrical about the
mid-span.
(d) simply supported beam with symmetrical
varying load about mid-span.
Sol. ~ The shear force diagram is possible on simply supported beam with symmetrical varying load about
mid span.
8. A solid shaft of diameter 'D' carries a twisting moment that develops maximum shear stress t. If the
shaft is replaced by a hollow one of outside diameter 'D' and inside diameter D/2, then the maximum
shear stress will be.
(a) 1.067 t (b) 1.143 t (c) 1.333 t (d) 2 t.
Sol. (a) Maximum shear stress in hollow shaft of outer and inner diameters D and D/2 in comparison to
solid shaft of diameter D is 1.067 times the maximum stress in solid shaft.
9. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5kNm. If the torque is reduced to 4 kNm, then the maximum
value of bending moment that can be applied to the shaft is
(a) 1 kNm (b) 2 kNm (c) 3 kNm (d) 4 kNm

Sol. (c) Te=-J'f+M2 or 52=-J42+M2, .. M=3kNm

10. Which one of the following combinations of angles will carry the maximum load as a column'!

ll_~
11. A steel hub of 100 mm internal diameter and uniform thickness of 10mm was heated to a temperature
of 300 deg. C to shrink-fit it on a shaft. On cooling, a crack developed parallel to the direction of the
length of the hub. Consider the following factors in this regard :
I. Tensile hoop stress. 2. Tensile radial stress.
3. Compressive hoop stress. 4. Compressive radial stress.
The cause of failure is attributable to
(a) I alone (b) I and 3 (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4
Sol. (a) A crack parallel to the direction of length of hub suggests that failure was due to tensile hoop stress
alone.
12. A compound cylinder with inner radius 5 cm and outer radius 7 cm is made by shrinking one c~linder
on to the other cylinder. The junction radius is 6 cm and the jU"1ction pressure is II kgf/cm. The
maximum hoo~ stress developed in the inner cylinder is
(a) 36 kgf/cm compression (b) 36 kgf/cm2 tension
2
(c) 72 kgf/cm compression (d) 72 kgf/cm2 tension.
Sol. (c) Using nOJIl1alformulae for compound cylinder, maximum hoop stress in the inner cylinder == 72
kg/cm2 compression.

13. Cracks in helical springs used in Railway carriages usually start on the inner side of the coil because of
the fact that
(a) it is subjected to the higher stress than the outer side.
(b) it is subjected to a higher cyclic loading than the outer side.
(c) it is more stretched than the outer side during the manufacturing process.
(d) it has a lower curvature than the outer side.
Sol. (d) Cracks in helical springs start on inner side because it has lower curvature than outside.
14. Two helical springs of the same material and of equal circular cross-section and length and number of
turns, but having radii 20 mm and 40 mm, kept concentrically (smaller radius spring within the larger
radius spring), are compressed between two parallel planes with a load P. The inner spring will carry a
load equal to
(a) P/2 (b) 2PI3 (c) PI9 (d) 8P19.

W" R~
Sol. (d) W=3'=
(20J3 I Wi
40 =g; Wo=g'
Wi
Wi+g=P,
9
gWi=P and Wi=9'P
8
I R"
15. Rankine Gordon formula for buckling is valid for
(a) long column (b) short column
(c) short and long column (d) very long column.
Sol. (d) Rankine Gordon formula for buckling load is valid for very long column.
16. If failure in shear along 45° planes is to be avoided, then a material subjected to uniaxial tension should
have its shear strength equal to at least
(a) tensile strength (b) compressive strength
(c) half the difference between the tensile and compressive strengths.
(d) half the tensile strength.

Sol. (c) It failure in shear along 45 deg. is to be avoided, then a material subjected to uniaxial tension should
have its shear strength equal to at least half the difference between the tensile and compressive
strengths. .
17. A shaft is subjected to a maximum bending stress of 80 NI mm2 and maximum shearing stress equal to
30 N/mm2 at a particular section. If the yield point in tension of the material is 280 N/mm2, and the
maximum shear stress theory of failure is used, then the factor of safety obtained will be
(a) 2.5 (b) 2.8 (c) 3.0 (d) 3.5.
Sol. (b) Max shear stress = -'J'(80
-2- - 0)2 + 30
. 2 = 50 N/mm 2

0" 280
According to maximum shear stress theory 't =~, .. F.S. = 2 x 50 = 2.8
18. If O"y is the yield strength of a particular material, then the distortion energy theory is expressed as
2 2 22 b 222
(0"1- 0"2) + (0"2- 0"3) + (0"3- 0"1) = 20"y (0"1- 0"2+ 0"3)- 2v (0"10"2+ 0"20"3+ 0"30",)= O"y
2
(a) ()
2 2 2 2 2 2
(c) (0"1- 0"2) + (0"2- 0"3) + (0"3- 0"1) = 30"y (d) (1 - 2v)(0"1 + 0"2+ 0"3) = 2(1 + v) = O"y

Sol. (a) Distortion energy theory is expressed as (0"1- O"i + (0"2- O"i + (0"3- 0"1)2= 20"~

19. Which one of the following structural joints with 10 rivets and same size of plate and material will be
the most efficient?

Sol. (b) The most efficient rivettedjoint for 10 rivets is at (b).

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.
List I (Types ofjoints) List JJ (An element of the joint)
A. Riveted joint 1. Pin
B. Welded joint 2. Strap
C. Bolted joint 3. Lock washer
D. Knuckle joint 4. Fillet
Codes: ABC D
(a) 4 3 2 I
(c) 2 4 3 I
Sol. (c) Correct matching is A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1.
21. Consider the following statements regarding power screws:
I. The efficiency of a self-locking screw cannot be more than 50%.
2. If the friction angle is less than the helix angle of the screw, then the efficiency will be more than
50%.
3. The efficiency of ACME (trapezoidal thread is less than that of a square thread.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) I and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 2 are correct
'":01. (a) Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct about power screws.
22. The following two figures show welded joints (x x x x x indicates welds), for the same load and same
dimensions of plate and weld.

The joint shown in

(a) fit. I is better because the weld is in shear and the principal stress in the weld is not in line with P
(b) fig. I is better because the load transfer from the tie bar to the plate is not direct
(c) fig. II is better because the weld is in tension and safe stress of weld in tension is greater than that
in shear
(d) fig. II is better because it has less stress concentration.
Sol. (c) Figure II is better because the weld is in tension and safe stress of weld in tension is greater than
shear.
23. Given that P = chain pitch, c = centre distance,
N, n = number of teeth on large and small sprocket respectively
the length of chain in terms of pitches can be approximated by

(a) 2c (b) 2c + (N + n)/2 (c) 2 C+ [(N _ n)l2p]2 E.

P P p c
2c 2E.
(d) P + (N + n)l2p + [(N - n)/2p] c

. 2C (N + n) [(N - n)]2 n
Sol. (d) Length of cham = - + --- + -- L-
P 2p 2p C
24. When compared to a rod of the same diameter and material, a wire rope
(a) is less flexible. (b) has a much smaller load carrying capacity.
(c) does not provide much warning before failure.
(d) provides much greater time for remedial action before failure.
Sol. (d) A wire rope provides much greater time for remedial action before failure.
25. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (1) and bending moment (M) are
1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for bending is 1.5 and
combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is
(a) 2000N-m (b) 2050N-m (c) 2100N-m (d) 2136 N-m.
Sol. (d) T.
q
= --j(l5 x 500)2 + (2 x 1(00)2 = --j(750)2 + (2000)2 = 2136 Nm

26. The lead angle of a worm is 22.5 deg. C. Its helix angle will be
(a) 22. 5 deg. (b) 45 deg. (c) 67.5 deg. (d) 90°C.
Sol. (c) ex = Pressure angle == lead angle; ex + p = 90°; P = helix angle = 90° - 22.5° = 67.5°
27. Consider the following statements about anti-friction bearings:
I. They have low starting and low running friction at moderate speeds.
2. They have high resistance to shock loading. 3. They can carry both radial and thrust loads.
4. Their initial cost is high. 5. They can accommodate some amount of misalignments of shaft.
 Of these statements
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct (b) 1,3 and 4 are correct
(c) I, 4 and 5 are correct (d) I, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
Sol. (a) For anti-friction bearings, statements I to 4 are correct.
28. A thin circular disc is rolling with a uniform linear speed, along a straight path on a plane surface.
Consider the following statements in this regard:
I. All points on the disc have the same velocity.
2. The centre of the disc has zero acceleration.
3. The centre of the disc has centrifugal acceleration.
4. The point on the disc making contact with the plane surface has zero acceleration.
Of these statements
(a) I and 4 are correct (b) 3and 4 are correct.
(c) 3 alone is correct (d) 2 alone is correct.
Sol. (d) Statement 2 alone is correct.

29. An elliptic trammel is shown in the given figure.

Associated with the motion of the mechanism are
fixed and moving centrodes. It can be established
analytically or graphically that the moving centrode AB = I
is a circle with the radius and centre respectively of B 0 = DA
(a) I and 0 E,Iliptic trammel

(b) //2 and B

(c) //2 and C
(d) //2 and D
Sol. (a) For given elliptic trammel, the moving centrode is a circle with radius and centre as I and O.
30. An electric lift is moving downwards with an acceleration of g/3. The vertical force between a passenger
in the lift and its floor is equal to
(a) 2/3 of the passenger's weight
(b) 4/3 of the passenger's weight
(c) passenger's weight
(d) 4/3 of the passenger's weight.
Sol. (a) When lift is moving down with acceleration of g/3, then vertical force between a passenger in lift
and its floor = 2/3 of passenger's weight.
31. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any position of the lift would depend only
upon
(a) total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of earn and earn speed.
(b) radius of circular are, earn speed, location of centre of circular arc and roller diameter.
(c) weight of earn follower linkage, spring stiffness and earn speed.
(d) total lift, centre of gravity of the earn and earn speed.
Sol. (b) (b) is correct answer.
32. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism.
(a) is a simplified version of instantaneous centre method
(b) utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
(c) enables detemlination of Corioli' s component.
(d) is based on the acceleration diagram.
Sol. (d) Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism is based on the acceleration
diagram.
 33. With reference to the mechanism shown In the figure, the
relation between F and Pis
I
(a) F == - P . tan a
2
(h) F == P . tan a
(c) P == 2F tan a
(d) F == 2P tan a
Sol. (h) F == P tan a.

34. In the given figure, ABCD is a four-bar mechanism. At the

instant shown, AB and CD are vertical and BC is horizontal
AB is shorter than CD by 30 cm. AB is rotating at 5 radius and
CD is rotating at 2 rad/s. The length of AB is
(a) 10cm
(h) 20 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 50 cm.

Sol. (h) 51 == 2(1 + 30), 31 == 60 and 1== 20 cm

35. The two-link system, shown in the given figure, is constrained to move
with planar motion. It possesses
(0) 2-degrees of freedom Vf /
(I') 3-degrees of freedom

1/
(c) 4-de grees of freedom
(d) 6-degrees of freedom

Sol. (a) Two link system shown in the above figure has 2 degrees of
freedom.
o
36. Two co-axial rotors having moments of inertia I" 12 and angular speeds 00, and 00 respectively are
2
engaged together. The loss of energy during engagement is equal to
1/2 (00, - 002) 2 1/ (WI2 - 0022)
(a) ---- 12
(b) ----"-=_'---_=_2
2(/, + 12) 2 (1\ - 1 )
2
2 2 2
(c)
2//2 (WI - 002)
---'---'---- (d) -
1\00\ -/ 00
__2 2
(I, + 12) (1\ + 1 )
2
Sol. (d) Loss of energy during engagement == (lIW~ - 1 00;)/(/1
2
+ 1 ),
2
37. A spring controlled governor is found unstable. It can be made stable by
(a) increasing the spring stiffness
(b) decreasing the spring stiffness
(c) increasing the ball weight
(d) decreasing the ball weight.

Sol. (b) A spring controlled governor can be made stable by decreasing the spring stiffness.
38. If a number of forces act on a rigid body, each force may be replaced by an equal and parallel force
acting through a fixed point, together with a couple. For the rigid body to be in equilibrium,
(a) the resultant force at the fixed point must be zero
(b) the resultant couple on the body must be zero
(c) both resultant force and couple must be zero
(d) none of the above need be zero.

Sol. (c) For rigid body to be in equilibrium, both resultant force and couple must be zero.
39. A rotor which is balanced statically but not dynamically is supported on two bearings L apart, and at
high speed of the rotor, dynamic reaction on the left bearing is R. The right side of the bearing is shifted
to a new position 2L apart from the left bearing. At the same rotor speed, dynamic reaction on the left
bearing in the new arrangement will
(0) remain same as before (b) become equal to 2R
(c) become equal to RI2 (d) become equal to R14.
Sol. (b) (b)is correct answer.

40. Consider the following statements regarding a high speed in-line engine with identical reciprocating
parts with cranks spaced to give equal firing intervals:
1. All harmonic forces, except those which are multiples of half the number of cylinders, are balanced.
2. Couples are balanced if the engine is symmetrical about a place normal to the axis of the crank
shaft.
3. In a four cylinder in-line engine, second and fourth harmonic forces are unbalanced whereas in a
six cylinder in-line engine, second, fourth and sixth harmonic forces are unbalanced.
Of these statements
(0) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct
Sol. (0) Statements 1,2, and 3 are correct.
41. In the statement, "an eccentric mass rotating at 3000 rpm will create X times more unbalanced force
than 50% of the same mass rotating at 300 rpm, 'X' stands for
(0) 10 (b) 50 (c) 100

Sol. (d) m x 30002 = X x m x 3002 ; •• X = 200

42. A machine of 100 kg mass has a 20 kg rotor with 0.5 mm eccentricity. The mounting springs have
stiffness 85 kNlm, and damping is negligible. If the operating speed is 207t radls and the unit is
constrained to move vertically, the dynamic amplitude of the machine will be
4
(0) 0.470 x 1O- m (b) 1.000 x 1O-4m (c) 1.270 x 1O-4m (d) 2.540 x 1O-4m.

Sol. (0) -{f = ~

wn = = = ~~~ =
85 72~000 26.6, ~ 2.36

x=; [:.J1[1,- [:j( +:')']=047 10-' x m

Dynamic amplitude of machine = 0.470 x 10- 4 m

43. Match List I (force transmissibility) with List II (frequency ratio) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List! List II
A. wlwn > fl
B. Less than 1 wi wn = fl
C. Greater than 1 wlwn» fl
D. Tending to zero wlwn < fl.
Codes: A B
(0) 2 1
(c) 1 2
Sol. (b)
 44. A mass of I kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness 0.7 N/mm. The critical damping
coefficient of this system is
(a) 1.40 Ns/m (b) 18.522 Ns/m (c) 52.92 Ns/m (d) 529.20 Ns/m

Sol. (c) For critical damping ~ ==I ==_c_,

2mron \J c ==2 x I x - fK
;; ==2 -v 70 0 ==2 x 26.45 ==52.92 Ns/m
1
45. A system is shown in the following figure. The bar AB is assumed to be rigid and weightless.
The natural frequency of vibration of the system is given by
I -V k)k2 (a/I)2
(a) In ==21t m [k + (a/l)2 kd
2

(b) In
I
==21t
-V k]k2
m (k] + k )
2

(c) f. I~)
==- -
n 21t mk2

(d)
I_~
In ==21t \J --:;;u ) 2

Sol. (a) Natural frequency of system in given figure is as

per (a).

46. Two heavy rotating masses are connected by shafts ofiengths 1),12 and 13 and the corresponding diameters
are dl, d2 and d3· This system is reduced to a torsionally equi valent system having uniform diameter "d "
j
of the shaft. The equivalent length of the shaft is
I) + 12 + 13
(a) 3

Sol. (e) Equivaknt'oogth of ,haft i, i, + i, (:; J J

+ i, (:;

47. A shaft has two heavy rotors mounted on it. The transverse natural frequencies, considering each of tht
rotor separately, are 100 cycles/see and 200 cycles/see respectively. The lowest critical speed is
(a) 5367rpm (b) 6000rpm (c) 9360rpm (d) 12,000 rpm
Sol. (b) Lowest critical speed ==6000 rpm.

48. A shaft has an attached disc at the centre of its length. The disc has its centre of gravity located at a
distance uf2 mm from the axis'ofthe shaft. When the shaft is allowed to vibrate in its natural bow-shaped
mode, it has a frequency of vibration of 10 radians/second. When the shaft is rotated at 300 revolutions
per minute, it will whirl with a radius of
(a) 2 mm (b) 2.25 mm (c) 2.50 mm (d) 3.00 mm
Sol. (b) ro ==300 rpm ==5 x 21t cylces/sec ==101t
ro 101t (ro/roi x e 1t2 X 2 9.86 x 2
-==-==1t; y== 2 --2 ----==2.25
roc ro 1- (ro/roc) I-1t 8.86

49. Let Sand G be positions of centre of mass and geometric centre of a disc attached to a rotating disc with
axis at O. Let the system be resisted by viscous damping. Then at the critical speed, the relative positions
of 0, G and S are given by
 IbI
O
®
kl@ Idl (Q
Sol. (d) Figure at (d) is correct.
50. Consider the following statements regarding the differential of an automobile:
I. The speed of the crown wheel will always be the mean of the speeds of the two road wheels.
2. The road wheel speeds are independent of the .::.:mber of teeth on the planets.
3. The di fference between the speeds of the road wheels depends on the number of teeth on the planets.
4. The ratio of speeds of the road wheels depends upon the number of teeth on the gear wheels attached
to them and on the crown wheel.
Of these statements
(a) I and 2 are correct (b) 3 and 4 are correct (c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 2 and 4 are correct.
Sol. (d) Statements 2 and 4 are correct.
51. A single epicyclic gear train is shown in the given figure. Wheel A is stationary. If
the number of teeth on A and Bare 120 and 45 respectively, then when B rotates about
its own axis at 100 rpm, the speed of C would be
(a) 20 rpm
3
(b) 27 rpm
11
7
19
(e)
11 rpm
(d) 100 rpm.
3
Sol. (b) Speed of C = 27 rpm
11
Directions: The following fifteen items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion A' and the
other labelled the' Reason R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion
A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet
accordingly.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(e) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

52. Assertion A Tool wear is expressed in terms of flank wear rather than crater wear.
Reason R Measurement of flank wear is simple and more accurate.
~L~)
974
Sol. (a) Tool wear is expressed in flank wear because same is simple and accurate to measure.
53. Assertion A In a mould, a riser is designed and placed so that the riser will solidify after the casting
has solidified.
Reason R A riser is a reservoir of molten metal which will supply molten metal where a shrinkage
cavity would have occurred.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides correct explanation for A.
54. Assertion A : Machine tool beds are generally made of grey cast iron.
Reason R : Cast iron possesses good self-lubricating properties.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides correct explanation for A.
55. Assertion A "Carburising" is done on non-ferrous alloys to increase the surface hardness.
Reason R "Precipitation hardening" of non-ferrous alloys involves "solution heat treatment"
followed by "precipitation heat treatment".
Sol. (d) R is true and A is false.
56. Assertion A Planning and scheduling of job order manufacturing differ from planning and schedul-
ing of mass production manufacturing.
Reason R In mass production manufacturing, a large variety of products are manufactured in large
quantity.
Sol. (c) A is true and R is false.
57. Assertion A In distribution problem, unit cost of production as well as transportation cost are considered.
Reason R The Vogel approximation method can reduce the number of iterations required to move
from the initial assignment to the optimal solution.
Sol. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation for A.
58. Assertion A A hollow shaft will transmit a greater torque than a solid shaft of the same weight and
same material.
Reason R The average shear stress in the hollow shaft is smaller than the average shear stress in
the solid shaft.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides right explanation for A.
59. Assertion A A column subjected to eccentric load will have its stress at centroid independent of the
eccentricity.
Reason R Eccentric loads in columns produce torsion.
Sol. (c) A is true and R is false.
60. Assertion A : Uniform-streRgth bolts are used for resisting impact loads.
Reason R : The area of cross-section of the threaded and unthreaded parts are made equal.
Sol. (c) A is true and R is false.
61. Assertion A In a short centre open-belt drive, an idler pulley is used to maintain the belt tension and
to increase the angle of contact on the smaller pulley.
Reason R An idler pulley is free to rotate on its axis and is put on the slack side of the belt.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true, and R provides correct explanation for A.
62. Assertion A The effect of keyways on a shaft is to reduce its load carrying capacity and to increase
its torsional rigidity.
Reason R Highly localised stresses occur at or near the corners of keyways.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true, and R provides correct explanation ,for A.
63. Assertion A The Lewis equation for gear tooth with involute profile predicts the static load capacity
of cantilever beam of uniform strength.
Reason R For a pair of meshing gears with involute tooth profile, the pressure angle and module
must be the same to satisfy the condition of interchangeability.
Sol. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not right explanation for A.
64. Assertion A Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are
slightly offset.
Reason R There is no sliding member to reduce power in Oldham c0upling.
Sol. (c) A is true and R is false.
65. Assertion A In hydrodynamic journal bearings, the rotating j0urnal is held in floating condition hy
the hydrodynamic pressure developed in the lubric:ant.
Reason R Lubricant flows in a converging-diverging channel.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides correct explanation for A
66. Assertion A : When a link has pure translation, the resultant force must pass through the centre of
gravity.
Reason R The direction of the resultant force would be in the direction of acceleration of the hody.

Sol. (d) A is false and R is true.

67. The following parameters determine the model of continuous chip formation:
I. True feed 2. Cutting velocity. 3. Chip thickness 4. Rake angle of the cutting tool.
The parameters which govern the value of shear angle would include
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4 (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4.
Sol. (b) Shear angle is function of 1, 3 and 4.
68. What is. the correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to minimum
influence on tool life?
I. Feed rate 2. Depth of cut 3. Cutting speed.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1,2,3 (b) 3,2, I
Sol. (d) Correct order is 3, 1, 2.
69. Tool geometry of a single point cutting tool is specified by the following elements:
I. Back rake angle 2. Side rake angle. 3. End cutting edge angle 4. Side cutting edge angle.
5. Side relief angle 6. End relief angle. 7. Nose radius.
The correct sequence of these tool elements used for correctly specifying the tool geometry is
(d) I, 2. 6, 3, 5. 4, 7.
(a) 1,2,3,6,5,4,7 (b) 1,2,6,5,3,4, 7 (c) 1,2,5,6,3,4, 7
Sol. (b) Correct sequence is as per (b).
70. Consider the following tool materials:
I. Carbide 2. Cernet 3. Ceramic 4. Borazon.
Correct sequence uf these tool materials in increasing order of their ability to retain their hot hardness
IS
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,2,4,3
Sol. (a) Correct sequence is 1,2,3 and 4.
 l~"1
ef 976

71. The ratio of thrust force to cutting force is nearly 2.5 in

(a) turning (b) broaching (c) grinding (d) plain milling.
Sol. (c) Ratio of thrust force to cutting force is nearly 2.5 in grinding.
72. Which one of the following operations is carried out at the minimum cutting velocity if the machines are
equally rigid and the tool work materials are the same?
(a) Turning (b) Grinding (c) Boring (d) Milling
Sol. (d) Minimum cutting velocity is in milling.
73. Given that, average cutting speed = 9 m/min, the return time to cutting time ratio is = 1 : 2, the feed rate
= 0.3 mm/stroke, the clearance at each end of cut = 25 mm
and that the plate is fixed with 700 mm side along the direction of tool travel, the time required for
finishing one flat surface of a plate of size 700 x 30 mm in a shaper, will be
(a) 10 min (b) 12.5 min (c) 15 min (d) 20 min

Sol. (b) ~.~ = 100 stroke; Cutting time = 0.;5 x %x 100 = 12.5 min.

74. Consider the following statements regarding grinding of high carbon steel:
I. Grinding at high speed results in the reduction of chip thickness and cutting forces per grit.
2. Aluminium oxide wheels are employed.
3. The grinding wheel has to be of open structure.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct.
Sol. (b) 1 and 2 are correct.
75. Enlarging an existing circular hole with a rotating single point tool is called
(a) boring (b) drilling (c) reaming (d) internal turning.
Sol. (a) Enlarging an existing circular hole with a rotating single point tool is called boring.
76. Consider the following operations:
1. Cutting key ways on shafts. 2. Cutting external screw threads.
3. Cutting teeth of spur gears. 4. Cutting external splines.
Those which can be performed with milling cutters would include
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2,3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2,3 and 4 .
Sol. (c) Milling cutters can do operations 1 and 3.
77. Consider the following machine tools:
1. Hobbing machine. 2. Gear shaping machine.
3. Broaching machine.
The teeth of internal spur gears can be cut in
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) I and 2 (c) I and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Sol. (d) Teeth of internal spur gears can be cut in gear shaping and broaching machines.
78. Match List I with List IIand select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Metal farming process) List II (A similar process)
A. Blanking 1. Wire drawing
B. Coining 2. Piercing
C. Extrusion 3. Embossing
D. Cup drawing 4. Rolling
5. Bending
 t)4CJ])
977

Codes: ABC D A B C D
(0) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 3 I 4

(c) 3 2 I 5 (d) 2 3 I 5
Sol. (h) Correcl matching is A-2, B-3, C-I, D-4.
79. Which of the following materials can be used for making patterns ?
I. Aluminium 2. Wax 3. Mercury
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(0) 1,3and4 (b) 2,3 and 4 (c) 1,2and 4 (d) 1,2and3
Sol. (el) Aluminium, wax and mercury can be used for making patterns.
1'10.\\'llich one of the following welding processes uses non- consumable electrodes?
(il) TIG welding (b) MIG welding
(c) Manual arc welding (d) Submerged arc welding.

Sol. (0) TlG welding uses non consumable electrodes.

81. Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Filler) List II (Joining process)
A. Cu, Zn, Ag alloy 1. Braze welding.
B. Cu, Sn, alloy 2. Brazing.
C. Pb, Sb, alloy 3. Soldering
D. Iron oxide and aluminium powder 4. TIG welding of aluminium.
Codes: ABC DAB C D
(0) 2 I 3 (b) 1 2 4
(c) 2 I 3 4 (d) 2 3 4
Sol. (c) Correct matching is A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4.
82. In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that
(0) press load is reduced. (b) good cut edge is obtained.
(c) warping of sheet is minimised. (d) cut blanks are straight.
Sol. (0) Shear is provided on punch and dies to reduce press load.
83. For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by drawing, the size of the round blank should
he approximately
(0) 42 mm (b) 44 mm (c) 46 mm (d) 48 mm

Sol. (c) D = I/i + 4dh = 1/252 + 4 x 25 x 15 = 46 mm.

84. Which of the following pairs of process and draft are correctly matched '!
1-. Rolling 2. 2. Extrusion 50.
3. Forging 4.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(0) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Sol. (0) 1,2 and 3 are correctly matched.
85. The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is
(a) bending (b) stretching
(c) rolling and stretching (d) bending and stretching.
Sol. (d) Mode of deformation of metal during spinning is bending and stretching.
 \

86. In drop forging, forging is done by dropping

(a) the work piece at high velocity
(b) the hammer at high velocity.
(e) the die with hammer at high velocity.
(d) a weight on hammer to produce the requisite impact.

Sol. (e) In drop forging, forging is done by dropping the die with hammer at high velocity.
87. Metal extrusion process is generally used for producing
(a) uniform solid sections (b) uniform hollow sections
(e) uniform solid and hollow sections (d) varying solid and hollow sections.
Sol. (d) Metal extrusion process is generally used for producing varying solid and hollow sections.
88. In reaming process
(a) metal removal rate is high (b) high surface finish is obtained.
(e) high form accuracy is obtained (d) high dimensional accuracy is obtained.
Sol. (d) In reaming process, high dimensional accuracy is obtained.
89. The ratio between two consecutive spindle speeds for a six-speed drilling machine using drills of
diameter 6.25 to 25 mm size and at a cutting velocity of 18 mlmin is
(a) 1.02 (b) 1.32 (e) 1.62 (d) 1.82
Sol. (e) <1>5 =: 4, <1>=: 5-{4 =: 1.62
90. In a single spindle automatic lathe two £Oolsare mounted on the turret, one form tool on the front slide
and the other, a parting tool on the rear slide. The parting tool operation is much longer than form tool
operation and they operate simultaneously (overlap). The number of cams required for this job is
(a) one (b) two (e) three (d) four
Sol. (a) One cam is required.
91. Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by
(a) synchronous motors (b) induction motors (el stepper motors (d) servo-motors.
Sol. (d) Feed drive in CNC is by servo motor.
92. In a transfer line
(a) all the machine tools must be automatic. (b) the work stations must form a closed-loop.
(e) the cycle time is total time taken by all the machining operations.
(d) all the machine tools must be of conventional and general purpose type.
Sol. (a) In transfer line, all the machine tools must be automatic.
93. Consider the following statements regarding fixtures employed for holding work piece during machin-
mg:
I. The location is based on the 3-2- I principle.
2. The numbers refer to the pins employed in three mutually perpendicular planes to arrest all the
degrees of freedom.
3. Fixture also provides tool guidance.
Of these statements
(a) I, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (e) I and 3 are correct (d) I and 2 are correct
Sol. (a) Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct.
94. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Resilience Resistance to deformation.
2. Malleability Shape change.
3. Creep .... Progressive deformation.
4. Plasticity .... Permanent deformation.
 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 2.3and4 (h) I,2and3 (c) 1,2 and 4
Sol. (d) Pairs at I.~ and 4 are correctly matched.
95. Consider the foilowing treatments:
I. Normali~;ing 2. Hardening. 3. Martempering 4. Cold working.
Hardnc:;~;alld tensile strength III austenictic stainless steel can be increased by
fa) 1.:2 and 3 (h) I and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 4 alone
Sol. (d) Hardness and tensile strength in austenitic steel can be increased by cold working alone.
96. Killeo steels
((I) h~JVeminimum impurity level
OJ) have almost Lero percentage of phosphorus and sulphur
(e) are produced by LD process. (d) are free from oxygen.
Sol. (d) Killed steels are free from oxygen.
97. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Silicon steels Transformer stampings. 2. Duralumin Cooking utensils.
3. Gun metal.... Bearings.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) 1,2 and 3 (h) 1 and2
Sol. (a) Correct matching is for 1,2 and 3.
98. Which of the following pairs of plastics and their modes of formation are correctly matched?
I. Polythene Condensation polymerisation.
2. Polycarbonate ....Addition polymerisation.
3. Polystyrene Addition polymerisation.
4. Polyamide Either by addition or by condensation polymerisation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I and 2 (h) 2 and 4 (c) I and 4
Sol. (d) Correct matching is for 3 and 4.
99. Cubic boron nitride is used
(a) as lining material in induction furnaces (h) for making optical quality glass.
(c) for heat treatment (d) for none of the above.
Sol. (d) None of the uses IS true for CBN.
100. Match List I (materials) with List II (applications) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Engineering ceramics Bearings.
B. Fibre reinforced plastics Control rods in nuclear reactors.
C. Synthetic carbon Aerospace industry
D. Bbron Electrical insulator
Codes: A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (h) I 4 3 2
(c) 2 3 I 4 (d) 4 3 I 2
Sol. (a) Correct matching is A-4, B-3, C-I, D-2.
101. Consider the following objectives:
I. To train the individual regarding motion economy.
2. To assist in research projects in the field of work study.
3. To help in the collection of Motion Time data.
The objectives of Micromotion Study would include
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) I and 2 (e) 2 and 3 (d) I and 3
Sol. (d) Objectives 1 and 3 are true for micromotion study.
102. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Lead screw nut.. Phosphor bronze. 2. Piston Cast iron.
3. Cam EN-31 steel. 4. Lead screw Wrought iron.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 2,3and4 (b) 1,3and4 (e) 1,2and 4 (d) 1,2and3
Sol. (d) Pairs at 1,2 and 3 are correctly matched.
103. Consider the fol1owing steps:
I. Method time measurement 2. Work sampling
3. Work factor system.
PMTS (Predetermined motion time systems) in work study would include
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (e) 2 and 3 (d) ,1 and 3
Sol. (d) PMTS includes I and 3.
T -T
104. Earning in Rowan system. = R x T,. +.~ T" Ta R, Earning in 50% Halsey plan = R x T .I + peT .\ - Ta ) R,

where R = hourly rate, Ta = actual completion time of task

T, = standard time for the task, p = percentage al1owed.
Both Rowan system and 50% Halsey plan wil1 provide the same earning when the actual time is
(a) equal to standard time (b) half the standard time
(e) one-quarter of standard time (d) twice the standard time.
Sol. (b) (b)is correct answer.
105. Which one of the following steps would lead to interchangeability ?
(a) Quality control (b) Process planning (c) Operator training (d) Product design.
Sol. (a) Quality control leads to interchangeability.
106. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Element of cost) List II (Nature of cost)
A. Interest on capital 1. Variable
B. Direct labour 2. Semi-variable
C. Water and electricity 3. Fixed.
Codes: ABC ABC
(a) 3 I 2 (b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 2 3 I
Sol. (c) Correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-l.
107. Consider the following situations that would warrant a study of the layout:
I. Change in the work force. 2. Change in production volume.
3. Change in product design. 4. Competition in the market.
 The situation (s) that would lead to a change in the layout would mclude
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1,3 and 4 (c) 3 alone
Sol. (c) Study of layout is called for in case of change in product design.
108. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Products) List II (Factors for site selection)
A. Aluminium 1. Transportation cost.
B. Photographic material 2. Skilled labour
C. Cement 3. Abundance of power.
D. Jigs and fixtures 4. Climatic conditions.
Codes: ABC DAB
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 2
(c) 3 4 I 2 (d) 1 4
Sol. (c) Correct matching is A-3, B-4, C-I, D-2.
109. There are two products A and B with the following characteristics
Product Demand (in units) Order cost (in Rs.lorder) Holding cost (in Rs.lunitlyears)
A. 100 100 4
B. 400 100 1
The economic order quantities (EOQ) of product A and B will be in the ratio of
(a) I: I (b) I: 2 (c) 1: 4 (d) 1 :8

AD ~ 2 X Order cost X Demand

Sol. (a) EOQ of A and B is in ratio of 1 : 1 being -h- =
~ Holding cost
110. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a hook at the end of retractable chains or
cable is called
(a) hoist (b) jib crane (c) portable elevator (d) chain conveyor
Sol. (a) Hoist.
111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Linear programming problem I. Travelling salesman
B. Queueing problem 2. Saddle point
C. Dynamic problem 3.\ Product mix
D. Game theory problem 4. Normal distribution
Codes: ABC DAB C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2: (d) 4 3 2 1
Sol. (a) Correct matching is A-3, B-4, C-I, D-2.
112. A simplex table for a linear programming problem is given below

5 2 3 0 0 0
Z
XI X2 X3 X4 X5 X6

X4 I 2 2 I 0 0 8
~
X5 3 4 I 0 0 7

r X6 2 3 4 0 0 10

- ---------
 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Which one of the following correctly indicates the combination of entering and leaving variables 'I

(a) Xl and X4 (b) X2 and X6 (e) X2 and X5 (d) X3 and X4

Sol. (e) The combination of entering and leaving variables corresponds to Z being minimum and maxi',.um
value of row in table,
113. A feasible solution to the linear programming problem should
(a) satisfy the problem constraints,
(b) optimise the objective function,
(e) satisfy the problem constraints and non-negativity restrictions,
(d) satisfy the non-negativity restrictions.

Sol. (a) A feasible solution to the linear programming problem should satisfy the problem constraints.
114. If the arrival takes place every 10 minutes with a service times of 4 minutes per unit, then the mean
arrival rate, mean service rate and the probability that one would have to wait will be respectively.
(a) 10,4 and 0.25 (b) 0,1,0.25 and 0.4 (e) 10, 0.4 and 0.25 (d) 0.1,0.25 and 0.1
1 1 A 0.1
Sol. (b) A=lO=O.I, 1l=4=0.25andP=~=0.25=0.4

115. In a MIMII queueing system, the expected waiting time of a unit that actually waits is given by
A (b) _A_ (e) _1_ A
() (d) ---
2
a 11(11- A) 11- A 11- A 11 (11- A)

Sol. (a) Expected waiting time = ,A A)

11 ~Il-
116. Consider the following phases:
1. Information phase 2. Evaluation phase 3. Creative phase 4. Investigation phase.
The correct sequence of these phases in value engineering is
(a) 1,3,4,2 (b) 1,3,2,4 (e) 3,1,4,2 (d) 3,1,2,4.
Sol. (b) Correct sequence is 1,3,2,4.
117. In a connected network of 'n' arcs (roads) joining 'm' vertices (towns), a selection of roads is taken up
for resurfacing based on a minimum spanning tree of network as being the least cost solution. This
spanning tree will contain
(a) marcs (b) (m+l)arcs (e) (m-l) arcs (d) (m+n-1)arcs
Sol. (a) Spanning tree will have m + n - 1 acrs.
118. For the PERT network shown in the given figure, the probability of completing the project in 27 days
is

te = 6

Lk
CT=2

Sol. (a) Critical path is 1-2-4-5

te = expected project time = 5 + 14 + 4 = 23 days
cr = "-/22 + 2.82 + 22 == 4 23 27
 z= 27 - 23 _ I
4
Area for Z = I is 0.341
.. Probability 0.5 + 0.341 = 0.841
119. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by
Crash cost Crash cost - Normal cost
(a) Normal cost (b) Normal time - Crash time
Nonnal cost Nonnal cost - Crash cost
(c) Crash cost (d) Nonnal time - Crash time
Crash cost - Normal cost
Sol. (b) Cost slope = Crash Cost = N I' C h'
orma tIme - ras time
120. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Memory I. Assembler
B. Software for layout 2. Buffer
C. Compiler 3. GPSS
D. Simulation 4. Hardware
5. CRAFT
A
(a) 3
(c) 2
Sol. (d)