ESE-2016

Detailed Exam Solutions

(Objective Paper-I)
Civil Engineering

solutions
 Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-I (ESE - 2016)
SET - A
1. Consider the following statements : 4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of
wood.
1. There will be no defects in select grade

R
timbers. Which of the above statements are correct ?
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
timer without defects may be reduced by (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible
stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with
a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a
TE Ans. (a)
Sol. Seasoning of timber causes increases in
strength, durability, workability and resilience.
Timber for treatment must be sound and
dried to an appropriate moisture content. All
AS
modification factor of 1.33 is adopted.
wood working processes like cutting to size,
Which of the above statements are correct ?
boring, etc. shall be done prior to treatment.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
Seasoning reduces shrinkage and warping
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (c) ASCU treatment is a method of preservation
of timber, which results in durability of wood
M

Sol. Some defects are permitted in all grades of and not strength.
timber and all other defects unlikely to affect
any of the mechanical strength properties. 3. Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition
of timber is /are mainly
 As IS: 1331 –1971 provides for reduction in
S

strength of Grade-II timber without defects (a) Methane and Hydrogen

not by more than 37.5%. (b) Hydrogen Sulphide
 Permissible stress in ungraded timbers is (c) Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
IE

adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.80. (d) Ammonia

 Modification factor of 1.33 is adopted in case
of wind and earthquake forces
2. Consider the following statements regarding
timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln
seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to
treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of
warping.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Rot in timber is decomposition or putrefaction
generally caused by damp atmosphere which
causes emission of gasses mainly carbonic
acid & hydrogen.
4. Efflorescence of bricks is due to
(a) Excessive burning of bricks
(b) High silt content in brick clay

, 8010009955
 (c) High porosity of bricks 7. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(d) Soluble salts present in parent clay regarding the strength of cement ?
Ans. (d) 1. Particle sizes less than 3m increases the
Sol. Effloresence is caused because of alkalies viscous nature of the cement.

ER
present in clay. Salts such as sulphates of 2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced
soidum and potassium, if present in clay are by fly-ash to improve the strength.
dissolved by the absorbed water. On drying
grey or white powder patches appear on the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
bri ck sur f ace, whi ch i s c al l ed as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
efforescence.

5. T
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is
primarily due to
Ans. (c)
Sol.  As particle size decreases viscous nature
of cement decreases.
AS
1. Efflorescence  Fly ash reacts with available lime and alkali
in concrete, producing additional
2. Magnesium sulphate in bricks
cementitious compounds as calcium silicate
3. Calcined clay admixtures hydrate (C–S–H) binder.
4. Kankar nodules
This additional binder produced by fly ash
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
M

reaction with available binder allows fly ash

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only concrete to gain strength over time. This
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 will ultimately exceed the strength of fly ash
concrete than of cement concrete mixes.
Ans. (d)
8. The constituent compound in Portland cement
S

6. Consider the following test : which reacts immediately with water, and also
sets earliest, is
1. Transverse strength test
(a) Tricalcium silicate
IE

2. Water absorption test

3. Impact test (b) Dicalcium silicate
4. Breaking strength test (c) Tricalcium aluminate
Which of the above are relevant to testing of (d) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
tiles ? Ans. (a)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Sol. Rate of hydration is
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only C3A > C4AF > C3S > C2S
(c) 3 and 4 only
C4AF and C3A are responsible for flash set.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 When water is added to the cement, the
Ans. (d) quickest to react with water is C 3A.

Sol. As per IS 13630 : 2006, all the four tests are 9. Which of the following statements are correct
performed. with regard to cement mortar ?

, 8010009955
 1. Workability of cement mortar can be where :  = shear stress,
improved by addition of lime.
0 = (initial) yield value,
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering
 = at-point plastic viscosity
jobs.
 =at-point rate of shear
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely Ans. (a)

R
crushed fire bricks. Sol. Concrete is most often assumed to behave as
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a bingham fluid.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only Hence,   0  
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans. (d)

Sol. Addition of saw dust decreases the workability

TE 12. W hich method of curing of concrete is
recommendable for rapid gain of strength of
concrete ?
(a) Sprinkling water
AS
because of water absorption. (b) Membrane curing
(c) High-pressure steam curing
10. In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the
(d) Infrared radiation curing
actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have
undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of Ans. (c)
cement, will be Sol. High pressure steam curing is generally
M

(a) 3.00 (b) 3.45 recommended for rapid gain of strength of

concrete.
(c) 4.50 (d) 6.00
Ans.(b) 13. Which of the following is appropriate as simple
Sol. Mix proportion = 1 : 3 : 6 field method for assesing consistency of
S

concrete ?
Let the volume of cement = 1 m3
(a) Compacting factor (b) Slump test
(unit volume of cement)
(c) Vee-Bee test (d) Kelly Ball test
IE

Volume of sand = 3 m3
Ans. (d)
Volume of aggregate = 6 m 3
15  Sol. Kelly ball test is field method for assessing
 3
Actual volume of sand = 3  1    3.45m consistency of concrete while compaction
 100 
factor test, slump test and vee-Bee test is used
11. The Rheological behavior of concrete, when to measure workability of concrete.
represented by shear stress vs rate of shear,
is characterized as 14. W hich of the following are relatable to
Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
(a)   0  . (b)  0    .
1. Light weight

(c)   . (d)   . 2. Strong
0

, 8010009955
 3 Inorganic Sol. (c)
4. Nontoxic
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |longitudinal strain| = 3 × |lateral strain|

R
Ans. (d) lateral strain
Possions ratio  =
longitudinal strain
Sol. Properties of autoclaved aerated concrete are

TE
as follows : 1
 =
(i) Thermal efficiency 3
E
(ii) Superior fire resistance Bulk modulus K =
3(1  2)
(iii) Light weight
E
AS
(iv) Great ventilation
K = 3  1  2  1 

(v) Non toxic  3
K = E = 1 × 105 N/mm2)
(vi) Strong
(vii) Inorganic 17. For an elastic material, Poisson’s ratio is  ,
Modulus of Elasticity is E, Modulus of Rigidity
M

15. The workability of concrete becomes more

is C and Bulk Modulus is K.  is expressible
reliable depending on
in terms of K and C as
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit 6K  2C 6K  2C
(a) (b)
S

3. Grading of the aggregate 3K  2C 3K  2C

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 6K  2C 3K  2C
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) (d)
IE

6K  2C 6K  2C
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
Sol. Workability of concrete depends upon all the
3K  2G
three components. Sol. Poisson ratio,  =
6K  2G
16. The longitudinal strain of cylindrical bar of 25 18. A mild steel bar of length 450 mm tapers
mm diameter and 1.5 m length is found to be uniformly. The diameters at the ends are 36
3 times its lateral strain in a tensile test. What mm and 18 mm, respectively. An axial load of
is the value of Bulk Modulus by assuming E = 12kN is applied on the bar. E = 2×105 N/mm2.
1×105 N/mm2 ? The elongation of the bar will be
(a) 2 × 105 N/mm2 (b) 1.1 × 105 N/mm2 1 1
(a) mm (b) mm
(c) 1 × 105 N/mm2 (d) 2.1 × 105 N/mm2 3 6
3 2
(c) mm (d) mm
2 3

, 8010009955
Ans. (b) 3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the
applied stress are known as lateral strain.
36 mm 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume
18 mm
is known as volumetric strain.
12 KN 12 KN
Sol. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
450 mm (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

R
4PL (c) 3 and 4 only
Elongation of bar =
d1d2E (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4  12  103  450 Ans. (b)

TE
= 5
  36  18  2  10 Sol. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in
1 longitudinal and compressive strain in lateral
= mm
6 directions.
19. Which of the following statements are correct Statement I, III and IV are true.
for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular
AS
faces of a plane element ? 21. The state of stress on an element is as shown
in the figure. If E = 2×105 N/mm2 and Poisson’s
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually
ratio = 0.3, the magnitude of the stress  for
perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of
no strain in BC is
the principal stresses.

2. The shearing stresses in two mutually
M

A B
perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude
and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the 2 2
difference between principal stresses. 80 N/mm 80 N/mm

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

S

D C
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 
Ans. (d) (a) 84 N/mm2 (b) 64 N/mm2
IE

Sol. Shearing stresses in two m utually (c) 34 N/mm2 (d) 24 N/mm2

perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude Ans. (d)
but not same in direction.

Statement-I and III are true.
A B
20. Which of the following statements are correct?
Sol.
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is
80
known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear D C
and lateral directions.


, 8010009955
 E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 dimension of the body so that its geometry
and properties of material can be assumed to
 = 0.3
be unchanged (i.e. dilation is taken as
for no strain in BC invariant).

R
1 2
 = 0 24. W hi ch one of the f ollowi ng represents
E E constitutive relationship ?
 1 = 0.3 × 80

TE
(a) Vertical displacements in a structure
 1 = 24 N/mm2 (b) Rotational displacements in a structure
(c) System of forces in equilibrium
22. In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer (d) Stress-strain behavior of a material
can occur in
Ans. (d)
AS
(a) Inner Bark and Sap Wood
Sol. Constitutive relation is relation between two
(b) Pith and Heart Wood physical quantities that is specific to the
(c) Sap Wood and Heart Wood material.
(d) Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Hence stress strain behaviour of solid material
Ans. (a) is constitutive relationship.
M

Sol. Cambium layer occurs in innerbarks and sap

wood. 25. A square element of a structural part is
subjected to biaxial stresses as shown in the
23. Consider the following statements : figure. On a plane along BD, the intensity of
the resultant stress due to these conditions will
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is be
S

taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic 2
sum of all normal stresses. 100 N/mm
IE

3. The shearing modulus is always less than D A

the elastic modulus.
2 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 300 N/mm 300 N/mm

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 C B
Ans. (d) 100 N/mm
2

E E
Sol. G (a) 25 5 N mm2 (b) 50 5 N mm2
3 2
(c) 75 5 N mm2 (d) 100 5 N mm2
In infinitesimal strain theory displacement of
material is much smaller than any relevant

, 8010009955
Ans. (d) Sol. This is a case of pure shear.
2
100 N/mm Principal streses in this case is  ,   
D A
1 = 80 N/mm2 (Tension)
 2 = –80 N/mm2 (Compresion)
45° 2
300 N/mm

R
Given  y = 240 N/mm2
B
C Factor of safety as per maximum normal stress
y
theory =

TE
Hence BD is plane of maximum shear stress 
240
1   2 =  1   2 
 = 80
2
= 3
300  100
Shear stress  = = 100 N/mm2
2 27. Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and
AS
  2 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in
Normal stress  = 1 = 200 N/mm2 simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2.
2
The values of factors of safety according to
Resultant stress = (100)2  (200)2
maximum principal stress theory and maximum
= 100 5 N/mm2 shear stress theory, respectively, are
(a) 2.5 and 2.5 (b) 2.5 and 5
M

26. A structural element is subjected to pure shear

(c) 5 and 5 (d) 5 and 1.67
of 80 N/mm2, as shown in the figure. The yield
stresses both in tension and in compression Ans. (a)
are 240 N/mm2. According to the maximum
normal stress theory, the factors of safety in Sol. Given 1  80N mm2 ,  2  40N mm2
S

tension and compression are, respectively

 y = 200 N/mm2
2
80 N/mm
IE

Max. principal stress = 80 N/mm 2 = P

FOS as per Max. principal stress Theory
80 N/mm 2 80 N/mm2
y
= 
P

80 N/mm2 200
=  2.5
(a) 2 and 2 (b) 2.5 and 2.5 80
    2 1  2 
(c) 3 and 3 (d) 4 and 4 Max. shear stress = Max. of  1 , ,
 2 2 2 
Ans. (c)
 80  40 80 40 
= Max. of  , ,
 2 2 2 

, 8010009955
 = Max. of (20, 40, 20) when bent, as a circular arc, subtends a central
= 40 N/mm2 angel   60 . Take E = 2×106 kg/cm2. The
max maximum stress induced in the ruler and the
FOS as per Max. shear stress theroy = magnitude is


R
 200 2  (a) 2618 kg/cm2 (b) 2512 kg/cm2
=  
 40  (c) 2406 kg/cm2 (d) 2301 kg/cm2
= 2.5 Ans. (a)

TE
28. The principal stresses at a point are 2 Sol. Given :
(tensile) and  (compressive), and the stress Cross-section of ruler = 0.0625 cm × 2.5 cm.
at elastic limit for the material in simple tension
is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear
strain theory, the value of  at failure is
AS
2.5 cm
(a) 70 N/mm2 (b) 105 N/mm2
(c) 140 N/mm2 (d) 210 N/mm2
0.0625 cm
Ans. (a)
Sol. Given 1  2, 2   Angle subtended = 60°
M

 y = 210 N/mm2  l =R

As per Max. shear strain theory. 25 = R   60
180
max fy
 2G  R = 23.87 cm
G
S

l
   2 1  2 
max = Max. of  1 , ,
 2 2 2 
IE

 2     2  
= Max. of  2
, , 
2 2
 R
  60°
= Max. of  1.5, , 
 2
= 1.5  Max. stress in the ruler will be on the extreme
1.5  210 end.
 f E
G 2G
 =
210 y R
 
2  1.5 f 2  106
0.0625 =
  70 N/mm2 23.87
2
29. A thin steel ruler having its cross-section of  f = 2618 Kg/cm2
0.0625 cm × 2.5 cm is bent by couples applied
at its ends so that its length l equal to 25 cm,

, 8010009955
30. Which of the following statements are correct ? 100
 Alumi = 3 × 0.5
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or
hoisting loads. 100
 Alumi =  66.7MPa
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power 1.5
shovels can be used as hoes. 32. In order that the extreme fibre stresses in
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often

ER
bending will be in the ratio 4:3 in the beam
used comfortably in the working of a tractor. shown in the following figure, the width b of the
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines upper flange (b < 10cm) of the beam section
if the material is water-saturated. is to be
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
b
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
2.5 cm
Ans. (a)

31.
T
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are
2.5 cm 10 cm
AS
heated to a same temperature. Forces are 2.5 cm
applied at the ends of the bars to maintain
10 cm
their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s
moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the (a) 6.1 cm (b) 6.6 cm
ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of (c) 5.1 cm (d) 5.6 cm
Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the Ans. (d)
M

stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on

Sol. Since b < 10 cm, top fibre will have higher
the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
stress.
(a) 16.7 MPa (b) 66.7 MPa 4
(c) 136.7 MPa (d) 150.0 MPa 15 – y
S

Ans. (b)
y
Esteel 
Sol. Given :  3, steel  0.5
IE

E Alumi  alumi 3 Strain

Stress distribution
 steel  100MPa  Aluni  ? distribution
Let the stress in extreme fibres be 4 and
We know,
3 .
 = E Let the distance of neutral axis from bottom =
Here,  = T f M E
y. We know  
1 E1 1 y I R
  2 = E 2 2 4 3
 =
steel Esteel   steel  T 15  y y
 Alumi = 4y = 45 – 3y
E Alumi   Alumi  T
7y = 45

, 8010009955
 y = 6.428 cm from bottom 34. The bending moment at A for the beam shown
C.G. from bottom below (With BD being a rigid bar) is
10  2.5  1.25  10  2.5  7.5  b  2.5  13.75 3m B
= A
10  2.5  10  2.5  b  2.5 (Vertical)

R
87.5  13.75b
= 3m 1m
20  b C
D
87.5  13.75b 3 kN
Now,  6.428

TE
20  b (a) Zero (b) 12 kN-m
 87.5  13.75b  128.56  6.428b (c) 8 kN-m (d) 6 kN-m
7.322b = 41.06 Ans. (b)
A
 b = 5.6 cm 3m
33. A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical Sol. RBD
AS
I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam
RBD
is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and C 1m
bottom are 120 N/mm 2 and 80 N/mm 2 ,
respectively. The depth of the natural axis from 3m 3 KN
the top of the beam will be
Since, there is a hinge at C,
(a) 120 mm (b) 100 mm
M

(c) 80 mm (d) 60 mm   MC = 0

3  4  RBD  3  0
Ans. (a)
 RBD = 4 KN
S

Sol. Overall depth = 200 mm. Now,

 top = 120 N/mm2 MA = RBD × 3
=4× 3
IE

bottom = 80 N/mm2
= 12 KNm
Let the depth of netural axis from top = y Alternatively
f1 f2
 y1 = y 2
120 80 3
=
y 200  y
2(200 – y) = 2y 3

600 – 3y = 2y 3m
R
600 R
y =
5 R
= 120 mm from top. 3

3–R

, 8010009955
  (3 – R) × 3 + 3 = 0 Ans. (a)
 R =4 Sol. Given N = 200 rpm, T = 1500 Nm

 MA = 4 × 3 = 12 kNm 2N 2  200 20

 =    rad s
35. The bending moment diagram for the beam 60 60 3
shown below is
P = T.

R
D E (Rope tied at B
turned at fixed 20
point E, and on = 1500   10000 watt
pulley at D) 3
2m 1m

TE
A B
C = 10  kW
2 kN

2 kN-m 37. Torques are transmitted to the solid circular

shaft as shown in the figure below. If the
corresponding permissible stress in the shaft
(a)
is 60 N/mm2, the diameter of the shaft is nearly.
AS
2m
4 kN-m 900 N-m 2150 N-m
2 kN-m
A B C D

(b) 450 N-m 800 N-m

2m 2m
M

4 kN-m (a) 57.3 mm (b) 47.3 mm

2 kN-m (c) 37.3 mm (d) 27.3 mm
Ans. (b)
(c) Sol.
S

A B
800
4 kN-m
B C D
2 kN-m 900N-m 1250
IE

2150 1250 D
900 1250
900
800
(d) 900 450

4 kN-m Max. torque at ny section = 1250 N – m

Ans. (*)
perm = 60N/m2
36. A circular shaft rotates at 200 rpm and is subject
 T
to a torque of 1500 Nm. The power transmitted  =
r J
would be
60 1250  1000
 =
(a) 10 kW (b) 15 kW d2 d4 32
(c) 20 kW (d) 30 kW  d = 47.34 mm

, 8010009955
38. A solid circular shaft has a diameter d. It polar As we know,
modulus will be  T
=
r J
 2  3
(a) d (b) d 420 13569
16 64 =

R
4
d/2   4  d 
 3  2 d    
(c) d (d) d 32   2  
16 32 
Ans. (c) 840 13569

TE
=  15
Sol. Polar moment of inertia for a d   d4
32 16
d4
Circular saft =  d = 5.6 cm
32
J d4
 40. Two thin-walled tubular members made of the
Plar modulus = y 32  d
AS
same material have the same length, same
2
wall thickness and same total weight and are
d3
= both subjected to the same torque of magnitude
16
T. If the individual cross-sections are circular
Where y = distance of maximum stress fibre and square, respectively, as in the figures, then
from centre.
the ratios of the shear stress  reckoned for
39. A hollow steel shaft has outside diameter and
M

the circular member in relation to the square

inside diameter d/2. The value of d for the shaft, member will be
if it has to transmit 200 hp at 105 rpm with a
Figures not to scale
working shear stress of 420 kg/cm2, is
(a) 5.6 cm (b) 2.6 cm t
S

(c) 12.1 cm (d) 15.5 cm

Ans. (a)
IE

A0́ A´0´
Sol. d/2 d
(a) 0.785 (b) 0.905
(c) 0.616 (d) 0.513
Given, P = 200 hP, Ans. (a)
N = 105 rpm T
Sol. For thin walled section shear stress   2tA
m
max = 420 Kg/cm2
Am = mean area
P = T.
2  105
200 × 746 = T  Am
60
T = 13569 N-m

, 8010009955
 Weight of the two member is same hence 42. A mild steel bar, 1.5 m long, has a square
section 40 mm × 40 mm. The bar is subjected
to a two-dimensional stress,  x =310 N/mm2

t R
(tensile) and  y =300 N/mm2 (compressive).

E=2×105 N/mm2, Poisson’s ratio   0.3 . The

R
a elongation of the bar is the direction of  x will
4at = 2R  t be

TE
R (a) 1.25 mm (b) 1.75 mm
a =
2 (c) 2.25 mm (d) 3 mm
Ratio of spear stress, Ans. (d)
 T  40
c  
 2A m t c
AS
=
s  T  Sol. 40
 
 2A m t s
Ams  a2, Amc = R2 neglecting thickness l = 1.5 m

c A ms a2  x = 310 N/mm2

M

=
s A mc R 2
 y = –300 N/mm2
2
 R 
c  
2    x  y
s
=  =  0.785 x =



R 2 4
310 0.3  ( 300)
S

41. In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, = 5


2  10 2  105
the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a 
= 0.002
IE

1. Point of Contraflexure l
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force  = 0.002 × 1500
3. Point of Inflection = 3 mm

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 43. A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of
200 m/minute, which can increase by 25%
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
when the load is removed/deposited. Generally,
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed
Ans. (a) (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where
Sol. haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per
round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an
BMD average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and
deflected shape

, 8010009955
 unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. 40×75
A
What is its effective cycle time ?
(a) 157 seconds (b) 161 seconds
40
(c) 173 seconds (d) 182 seconds

R
Ans. (b)
40 × 75
Sol. Running speed of loaded tractor

TE
= 200 × 0.8 = 160 m/minute 40

Running speed of unloaded tractor

= 200 × 1.25 × 0.8
MA = 40 × 45 – 40 × 180
= 200 m/minute
= – 4200 kNmm
AS
Total time for the trip
45. In the pin-end cantilever truss shown below,
120  60 120  60 member FG had been fabricated 10 mm longer
=   50  30
160 200 than required. How much will point E deflect
= 161 seconds vertically ?

44. The bending moment at A for the beam shown F G H J K

M

below (not to scale) is a

A B A B C D E
180 mm 75 mm 4×a = 4a
D C (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
S

75 mm
40 kN (c) 30 mm (d) 40 mm
(a) 3200 kN.mm (b) 3600 kN.mm Ans. (c)
IE

(c) 4200 kN.mm (d) 4800 kN.mm uFg

Ans. (c)
a
Sol. E
a a a a 1
UFg ×a = 1 × 3a
A 180 mm B
UFg = 3
75 mm E  uii  10  3  30 mm
D C
75 mm 46. The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column
40 kN is to
(a) Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
(b) Facilitate compaction of concrete

, 8010009955
 (c) Increase the load carrying capacity of the Sol.
column
(d) Facilitate construction
Ans. (a)
Sol. Lateral ties are provided to avoid buckling of
longitudinal bars. 1 restraint 1 restraint

R
required required
47. When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected 1 restraint 2 restraint
to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal required required
thrust at the support will
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Increase
Decrease
Remain same
TE
Increase or decrease depending on the span
No. of cuts required = 2
No. of restraint required = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5
Degree of static
indeterminacy = 3C – r
AS
= 3× 2– 5 = 1
Ans. (a)
Sol. Horizontal t hrust due to increases in 49. In the slope-deflection equations, deformations
are considered to be caused by
temperature by T
(a) Shear forces and bending moments only
·t· l (b) Axial forces, shear forces and bending
M

H = 2 moments
l y ds
0 EI (c) Axial forces and bending moments only
(d) Bending moments only
48. The degree of static indeterminacy for a rigid Ans. (d)
S

frame as shown below is

Sol. In slope deflection equation, deformation are
considered to be caused by bending moments
only.
IE

50. The maximum bending moment caused by a

Hinge set of concentrated moving loads is
(a) Always at the midpoint of span
(b) Between the midpoint and concentrated load
next to the midpoint of the span
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) Not definable
(c) 2 (d) 3
(d) Always under a load close to the centroid of
Ans. (b)
the set of loads

, 8010009955
Ans. (d)
Sol. The maximum bending moment caused by a
set of concentrated moving loads occurs when
the mid point of span lies midway between the
53. Muller-Breslau Principal for obtaining influence
lines is applicable to
1. Statically determinate beams and frame
2. Statically indeterminate structures, the

R
C.G. of load and the concerned load. Max B.M. material of which is elastic, and follows
always occurs under a load. Hooke’s law.
3. Any statically indeterminate structure

TE
51. Force method of analysis of a structure is
particularly preferred when (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
1. The degrees of freedom of the structure
Ans. (a)
become large
2. The structure has less number of static, and 54. The plastic neutral axis
AS
more number of kinematic, indeterminacies
1. Divides the given section into two equal
3. The structure has more numbers of static,
halves
and less numbers of kinematic,
indeterminacies 2. Divides the given section into two unequal
parts
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Lies on the centroidal axis of the section
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
M

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Sol. Force method uses force as basic unknown
Ans. (a)
v ari abl e whi ch is a f uncti on as stat ic
indeterminacies so, force method is preferred 55. The plastic moment capacity MP is
S

when there is less no. of static and more

numbers of kinematic indelerminacies. (a) Less than the yield moment
(b) Equal to the yield moment
IE

52. Stiffness matrix method is the category of (c) Greater than the yield moment
1. Compatibility method (d) Dependent on section dimensions
2. Displacement method Ans. (c)
3. Force method Sol. Plastic moment capacity is greater than the
4. Equilibrium method yield moment because in plastic stage all
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only the fibres are yielded where as in other only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only outer fibre yieldes.
Ans. (d) 56. Web crippling is caused by
Ans. Stiffness matrix method is modification of (a) Excessive bending moment
sl ope def l ect i on m et hod whi ch uses
(b) Failure of web under point loads
equi li brium equation to det ermi ne t he
ki nem at i c (di spl acem ent ) response of
structure and then force response

, 8010009955
 (c) Width of flanges ratio is restricted to 120, the maximum column
(d) Column action of web height will be
Ans. (b) (a) 1.0 m (b) 2.4 m
Sol. Web crippling is actually local buckling that (c) 4.0 m (d) 4.8 m
occur when the web is slender. It occur due Ans. (c)
to high magnitude of point load which result

R
in stress concentration and bearing failure. L
Sol. Sr  1.2 
57. The block shear failure of a bolted joint in ry

TE
tension occurs because of
L
120  1.2 
1. Use of higher shear strength bolts 40
2. Use of paltes with higher bearing strength L = 4.0 m
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 60. As per I S 800 – 2007, the permit ted
slenderness ratio for a bracing member in case
AS
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neithter 1 nor 2
of hangers shall be
Ans. (c)
(a) 140 (b) 145
Ans. W hen high shear strength bolt and high
bearing strength plates are used, length of (c) 150 (d) 160
connection gets reduced leading to block Ans. (d)
shear failure
M

Sol. Clause 12.8.2.2 of IS 800 : 2007

58. As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch 61. A rectangular beam of depth d is under bending.
allowed in bolted joints of tension members is Load has been gradually increased when the
nominally top fibre has obtained five times the strain at
(a) 12 times the thickness of the plate the first yield. What detph of the beam will still
S

respond by elastic conditions?

(b) 12 times the diameter of the bolt
(a) 0.16 d (b) 0.20 d
(c) 16 times the thickness of the plate
IE

(d) 16 times the diameter of the bolt (c) 0.25 d (d) 0.40
Ans.(c) Ans. (b)

Sol. maximum longitudinal pitch allowed is 16

times the thickness as the plate
5y y
 
59. ISMB 100 (rx = 40 mm, ry = 10 mm) has been Sol. d x
used as a column in a industrial shed. Along 2
the minor axis, the the column has restraints in d
the form of purlins at 1.0 m intervals. Effective x  0.1d
10
length factor along major and minor axes are depth of elastic section = 2x = 0.2d
1.2 and 1.0, respectively. If the slenderness

, 8010009955
 5 y Which of the above cases are considered for
safe design of R.C members in flexure?

y d d/2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only

x
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only

R


Ans. (b)
Sol. Under-reinforced section which result in

TE
tension failure give ample warning before
5 y collapse.
62. The ultimate moment capacity of a mild steel 65. The bond between steel and concrete is mainly
section is usually due to
(a) Equal to the plastic moment capacity 1. Mechanical resistance
AS
(b) More than the yield moment capacity 2. Pure adhesive resistance
3. Frictional resistance
(c) Let than the yield moment capacity
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) More than the plastic moment capacity
Ans. (a) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

63. The portal bracing in a truss-bridge is used to

M

Ans. (d)
(a) Transfer load from top of end posts to Sol. 1. Mechanical resistacne is developed due
bearings to bearing stress against the rib. whereas
(b) Maintain the rectangular shape of the bridge friction and adhesive property develop at the
cross-section contact of steel and concrete.
S

(c) Stiffen the structure laterally 66. The carbonation process is demonstrated more
by
(d) Prevent the buckling of top chord under side
IE

sway (a) Atmospheric corrosion

Ans. (c) (b) Choloride corrosion
Sol. Portal bracing stiffens the structure laterally (c) Stress corrosion
and transfer the wind and seismic load from (d) Hydrogen embrittlement
top of end posts to bearing.
Ans. (a)
64. Consider the following cases in the design of
Carbonation occure when carbon dioxide
reinforced concrete members in flexure:
from the air penetrates the concrete and
1. Over-reinforced section reacts with hydroxides such as cacium
2. Tension failure hydroxide to form cabonates
3. Compression failure
Ca(oH)2 + CO 2  CaCo3 + H2O
4. Under-reinforced section

, 8010009955
 This reaction reduces the pH of the pore (a) Diagonal tension failure
solution as low as 8.5, at which the passive
(b) Diagonal compression failure
film on the steel is not stable.
(c) Flexural tension failure
67. When a sprially reinforced short column is
(d) Flexural compression failure
loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is
subjected to Ans. (b)

R
(a) Bending and compression Sol.  cmax is based on diagonal compression
failure.
(b) Biaxial compression
70. Footings shall be designed to sustain the
(c) Triaxial compression
(d) Uniaxial compression
Ans. (c)
The concrete inside the core is subjected to
tri-axial compression. It is confined by hoop
TE 1. Applied loads
2. Moments and forces under relatable loading
conditions
3. Induced reactions
AS
(a) 1and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
stress in spiral reinforcement and axial load
transfer path. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

68. In a reinforced concrete section, shear stress Ans. (d)

distribution is diagrammatically Sol. As per IS 456 : Clause 34.1
(a) Wholly Parabolic 71. Reinforced concrete slabs are designed for
M

(b) Wholly Rectangular 1. Shear

(c) Parabolic above NA and Rectangular below 2. Flexure
NA 3. Positive bending moment
(d) Rectangular above NA and Parabolic below 4. Negative bending moment
S

NA (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only

Ans. (c) (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IE

Ans. (c)
Sol. Sl abs are desi gned f or be ndi ng and
def lect ion and not desi gned f or shear
N.A because
(i) Slabs have much small depth than beams.
Sol.
(ii) Most of slabs subjected to unif ormly
distributed loads.
72. As compared to the working stress method of
design, the limit state method of design
69. As per IS 456 – 2000, the maximum permissible premises that the concrete can admit
shear stress, Cmax ' is based on

, 8010009955
 (a) A lower stress level loading a parabolic profile with convexity
downward is provided.
(b) A higher stress level
(c) Occasionally higher, but usually lower, stress 75. In a post-tension pre-stressed concrete beam,
the end block zone is in between the end of
level

R
the beam and the section where
(d) Only the same stress level
Ans. (b) (a) The shear stresses are maximum

TE
73. The bending stress in a T-beam section is (b) Only shear stresses exist
maximum (c) No lateral stresses exist
1. At top fibre (d) Only longitudinal stresses exist
Ans. (d)
2. At centroidal fibre
Sol. The zone between the end of the beam and
AS
3. At bottom fibre
the section where only longitudinal stress
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ex i st i s g eneral l y ref erred t o as t he
(c) 3 only anchorage zone or end block zone.
(d) At a level which is dependent on the loading 76. In the pre-tensioning method
condition.
1. Tension in concrete is induced directly by
M

Ans. (d) external force

Sol. At lower stress value bottom fibre has 2. Tension is induced in the tendons before
maximum stress whereas if we increase concreting
loading, concrete under tension undergoes 3. Concrete continues to be in tension after
cracking in such condition maximum bending pre-stressing
S

stress can be at top fibre (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

74. If the loading on a simply supported pre- (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
IE

stressed concrete beam is unif ormly Ans. (b)

distributed, the centriod fo the pre-stressing
tendon should be as
(a) A straight profile along the lower edge of
the kern
(b) A parabolic profile with convexity downward
(c) A straight profile along the centriodal axis
(d) A circular profile with convexity upward
Ans. (b)
Sol. In pretensioning, tension is induced in the
tendons before concreting. Once the concrete
sets and hardens, tendons are cut and
prestress is transferred to concrete. Hence after
application of prestress, concrete is in
compression.
77. Flexural collapse in over-reinforced beams is
due to

Sol. The centriod profile as tendon must be (a) Primary compression failure
provided such that section is under uniform (b) Secondary compression failure
compression. For unif ormly destributed

, 8010009955
 (c) Primary tension failure (a) 33  2 lps (b) 35  6 lps
(d) Bond failure
(c) 37  0 lps (d) 38  2 lps
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
Sol. Over reinforced beam undergo compression
failure which is a sudden failure due to crushing Sol. L = Stroke length = 25 cm

R
of concrete in compression zone. this type of
N = speed = 135 rpm
failure of compression zone is called secondary
compression failure. D = Dia. of piston = 30 cm

TE
Slip = 4%
78. If a beam is likely to fail due to high bonding
stresses, then its bond strength can be  Qacutal 
increased most economically by % slip =  1  Q   100
 Theotical 
(a) Providing vertical stirrups
(b) Increasing the depth of the beam
AS
 Qacutal 
1  100
(c) Using smaller diameter bars in  4 =  ALN 
 
correspondingly more numbers  60 
(d) Using higher diameter bars by reducing their
numbers  Qac 
1   100
4 =   N
 (D)2  L  
Ans. (c)  4 60 
M

 135
Sol. To increase bond strength we should use (1  0.04) (0.3)2  0.25  = Qac (m3 /s)
4 60
smaller diameter bars in correspondingly large = 38.17 l /s
numbers (such that area of steel remains
80. In the design of pre-stressed concrete
same). This would effectively increase surface
S

structures, which of the following limit states

area of contact between steel and concrete.
will qualilfy as the limit states of serviceability?
Stirrups are used in beams to counter shear 1. Flexural
IE

force. Increase in depth of beam would not 2. Shear

bring any change in bond strength. 3. Deflection
79. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke 4. Cracking
of 25 cm, speed of 135 rpm, and a piston of 30 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
cm diameter. If its slip has been estimated as (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
4% at a particular operating condition, what is
the corresponding realized discharge through Ans. (b)
a height of 14 m?
Sol. In the method of design based on limit state
concept, the structure shall be designed to

, 8010009955
 safely all loads liable to act on it. The resistance Type of Cement Type of Line
Nature of work
to bending, shear, torsion and axial loads at Mortar Mortar
every section shall not be less than the Reinforced 1:3 which means 1
appropriate value at that section produced by Brikwork part cemnt.
3 part Scmed
the probable most unfavorable combination of

R
(in term of volume)
loads on the structure using the appropriate Plaster work 1:3 to 1:4 1:2
partial safety factors. This constitutes assessing Stone Masonary 1:2 lime
limit state of collapse. with ordinary 1:6 being hydraulic

TE
stones lime

The structure shall also satisfy limit states of Stone Masonary 1:2 lime being
with best variety hydraulic lime
serviceability requirements, such as limitations of stones
on deflection and cracking. Think joints in 1:3; lime being
brickwork fat lime
81. Consider the following statements:
AS
General RCC
1:3
works
1. Pumps used in series are generally of the
Construction work 1:3 lime being
centrifugal type. in water logged 1:3 hydraulic lime
areas & exposed
2. Centrif ugal pumps, though yielding conditions
comparatively smaller discharges than axial
Damp proof
flow pumps, yield higher heads (at each courses and
1:2
cement - concrete
M

stage) compared to axial flow pumps.

roads
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
83. The efficacy of pumpcrete is based primarily
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
on
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The capacity of pump
S

Ans. (c) 2. The aggregate size, which should not

exceed 8 cm
82. When steel reinforcing bars are provided in 3. The diameter of pipe being large, with more
IE

masonry, the bars shall have an embedment

than 30 cm being desirable
with adequate cover in cement-sand mortar not
4. The performance of the agitator
leaner than
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 6
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Efficiency of concrete pump depends on
 Length of horizontal pipe–300 to 400 m
 Length of vertical pipe

, 8010009955
  Number of bends 750  4000 / 60
720  780
 Diameter of pipe line (150 mm – 200 mm) =
2 Hn3/4
 Slump of concrete (> 75 mm)
 Hm = 16 m
 Capacity of pump
80
 Maximum size of Aggregate = 40 mm  No. of impellers = 5
16
 Performance of Agitation

R
86. A 15 cm centrifugal pump delivers 6 lps at a
84. In a non-tilting type drum mixer,
head of 26 m running at a speed of 1350 rpm.
1. Large size aggregate up to 20 – 25 cm can A similarly designed pump of 20 cm size runs

TE
be handled at the same speed. What are the most likely
2. Mixing time is less than 2 minutes nearest magnitudes of discharge and delivery
3. Discharge is through buckets onto the head provided by the latter pump?
platform
(a) 11 lps and 46 m (b) 14 lps and 52 m
4. For large size mixers, the mixing time should
(c) 11 lps and 52 m (d) 14 lps and 46 m
AS
be slightly increased if handling more than
800 litres of the mix Ans. (d)
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Pump 1 Pump 2
Sol.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only D  15 cm D1  20 cm
Q  6 lps Q1 
Ans. (d)
M

H  26 m H1 
Sol. In Non tilting mixtures large size of aggregates N  1350 rpm N1  1350 rpm
upto 80 mm can be used. N1D1
ND
As per IS-456 : 2000 mixing time shall be closer = H
H 1
S

to 2 min 20
15
= H
85. How many impellers are required for a multi- 26 1
IE

stage pump to lift 4000 lpm against a total head H1 = 46.22 m

of 80 m at a speed of 750 rpm; given that Ns Q Q1
for each impeller should be between 720 to Also 3 = 3
D1 N1
DN
780 units? 3
 20 
(a) 6 (b) 5  Q1 = 6   
 15 
(c) 4 (d) 3 = 14.22 lps
Ans. (b) 87. Which fo the following statements are correct
as operating characteristics of centrifugal
N Q pump?
Sol. NS = 3/4
Hm

, 8010009955
 1. As discharge increases from zero value, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
head slightly increases; then the head Ans. (c)
declines gently; and beyond a certain
discharge, the head falls steeply. P0 T
2. As discharge increases, efficiency increases Sol. H0 = HS   S

R
PS T0
from zero, rising fast to a maximum value
and then falls rapidly, more rapidly than the H0 = Observed horse power
head-discharge curve.

TE
HS = Standard horse power
3. BHP increases from a non-zero (positive)
value at zero discharge, the increase being P0 = Observed barometric pressure
only moderate before it starts falling beyond PS = Standard barometric pressure
a certain discharge.
TS = Absolute temperature f or
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
standard conditions
AS
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
T0 = Absolute temperature f or
Ans. (a)
observed condition.
Power increases when pressure increases and
temperature decreases.
Head
89. Manometric head developed hm in m, and
M

Sol.
 discharge Q in lps in respect of two pumps, 1
poner and 2, are tabulated. The pumps are connected
Q in series against a static head of 100 m. Total
head losses for a discharge of Q are as
S

88. Engines used in earthwork equipment are Q2

(m). What is the delivered discharge?
qualified by the power developed under 100
IE

sepcified conditions. As operating conditions

Qin lps 15 18 20 22 25
change, the power developed will increase with
local ambience, if hm1 in m 60  6 61 2 62  0 55  0 48  0
hm1 in m 50  8 51  0 48  8 45  8 40  0
1. Ambient temperature increases
2. Ambient temperature decreases (a) 20  15 lps (b) 21  25 lps
3. Ambient pressure increases (c) 21  95 lps (d) 22  20 lps
4. Ambient pressure decreases
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only

, 8010009955
Ans. (b) developed = 25 m; Input shaft horse power
= 11.9 W. What is the non-dimensional specific
Sol.  2 
Required head  100  Q  speed of the pump it it was running at 1500
Available  100  rpm? (May adopt the following (all in S.I. units):
Q
head Vd2
neglecting velocity head 1/4
= 1  77 , g1/2 = 3  132 , g3/4 = 5  544 ,
2g g
15 111.4 102.25

ER
18 112.2 103.24 2 = 1  414 , 5 = 2.236 and 10 = 3  162 )
20 110.8 104.0 (a) 165 (b) 155
21 105.8 104.41 (c) 145 (d) 135
21.5 103.3 104.615 Ans. (b)
22 100.8 104.82
25 88.0
T
106.25
Hence, discharge Q will lie between 21 and
Sol. Given that  = 40 lps (centrifugal pump)

manometric head, Hm = 25 m
AS
21.5.
N Q
90. A reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, Non dimensional specific speed Ns =
(gHm )3/4
spped of 100 rpm, and a piston of 22  5 cm
1500  40
diameter. It discharge and 18  9 lps . What is the NS =
(9.81 25)3/4
slip of the pump?
NS =153.07 rpm
M

(a) 3.12 % (b) 3  54%

(c) 4  15% (d) 4  95% (Discharge has been taken in lps instead of
Ans. (d) m3/s which is actually not correct).
92. The total head to be developed by a centrifugal
 Qac 
S

Sol. %slip =  1  Q   100 pump is expected to be up to 50 m. The normal

 th  ratio of radii of impeller rim and impeller eye of
ACN  100 3 2 is maintained. The design is for a speed of
 (0.225)2  0.3 
IE

Qth = m /s 1300 rpm, What is the nominal diameter of the

60 4 60
= 0.01987 m3/s 1
impeller? Take g  3  13 and  0  318 .

= 19.87 l/s
Qac = 18.9 l/s (a) 53 cm (b) 57 cm
(c) 60 cm (d) 64 cm
 18.9  Ans. (a)
 % slip =  1    100 = 4.95%
 19.87 
For starting of pump min centrifugal head
91. The following data were recorded when a developed > Hm
centrifugal pump worked at its maximum Hence,
efficiency: Q = 40 lps ; Manometric head

, 8010009955
 2 2
 DBN   DAN 
    A B1 B2
Hm =  60   60   50 m 8,3 3,1 3,1 B3
2g C1 4,2 3,1
C2
DB

R
4,2
Given that D = 2 Sol. D 4,2 C3
A 6,3 1
D2 D3
 DBN 
2   D 2  6,3 6,3
 60  1   A  
  DB   = 2g ×50

TE
   
2 If activity B is divided into 3 equal parts then
  DB  1300  2  9.81 50
each part will have duration 3 units and
  
 60  (1  0.52 )
standard deviation 1
DB  53 cm
12  12  12
AS
where 4.5 =
93. Activities A, B, C and D constitute a small (3  1)
project; their interrelationship, expected duration
2
and standard deviation of this expected duration  1 =  4.5
3
are shown in the figure, respectively.
2
Similarly, S.D. of C1, C2, C3 =2=  3 each
A B C D 3
M

8, 3 9, 4  5 12, 3 18, 1 5 2
S.D. of D1, D2, D3 = 3 =  1.5 each
3
W ith a view to improving the speed of
implementation, each of B, C and D are split Modified project duration
into three equal segments, maintaining = 8+ 3+ 4 + 6 + 6
S

appropriate inter-relationships between A and

= 33 units
each of these nine segments. What will be the
standard deviation of the modified project Modified project S.D.
IE

1 2 2
duration after segmentation (to the nearest 32   4.52   32
10 3 3
unit)? = 2 
   1.5 2   3
 3 
(a) 6  2 (b) 5  6
= 5.7
(c) 5  2 (d) 4  6
Ans. (b) 94. W hich of the f ollowing is/are the main
drawback(s) in adopting bar charts?
1. All the activities are shown as being
independent of each other
2. The sequence of activities is not defined at
all

, 8010009955
 3. It is difficult to judge whether an activity is Ans (b)
completed or not
Sol. Length of arrows in network diagram has no
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only significance.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
An activity lies between two nodes. Number
Ans. (d)
of nodes increase as the activity progresses.

R
Sol. Bar chart does not show intedependency of
97. Which of the following statements are implicit
activities. Hence they seem to be independent
in developing the critical path network?
of each other and their sequence is not shown.

TE
1. Only one time estimate is required for any
Bar chart does not depeict review of project activity
progress hence it is difficult to judge whether
2. Time only is the controlling factor at this
an activity is complete or not.
stage
95. The purpose of work-break-down structure in 3. Time and cost both are controlling factors
project planning is mainly to at this stage
AS
1. Facilitate and improve the decision-making 4. Critical events may have positive, negative,
on procurement of resources or zero float
2. Relate activities under particular trade (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
specializations to help in organizing for (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
project staff
Sol. (b)
3. Co-ordinate regarding milestone events
M

across trade specializations to improve the Ans. In CPM only one time estimate is given for
synergy between the trades each activity.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only In CPM time and cost both are controlling
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 factors.
Ans. (d)
S

Float is associated with activity hence 4 th

96. W hich of the following statements is/are statement is wrong.
correct? 98. In the crtical path method of project planning,
IE

1. An activity is in between two node numbers, free float can be

which need not be in an increasing order in
(a) Greater than independent float
the activity progress sequence.
2. The length of the arrow in a network has (b) Greater than total float
certain significance. (c) Less than independent float
3. Concurrent acitv ities are mutually (d) Equal to total float
independent and can possibly be taken up
Ans. (a)
simultaneously.
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only Sol. In critical path method.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Total float = LFT – EFT = LST – EST

, 8010009955
 Free Float = F T – Sj P Q R
Independent Float = F f – Si T C T C T C

Free float will be greater then independent 8 250 6 340 8 400


float. 9 235 7 320 10 375

R
10 225 8 295 12 350
 Free float will be less than total float. 11 215 9 275
99. Slack time in PERT analysis For a total duration of 25 units of time, the

TE
(a) Can never be greater than zero least total direct cost for the complete project
(b) Is always zero for critical actvities will be
(c) Can never be less than zero (a) 965 units (b) 950 units
(d) Is minimum for critical events
(c) 940 units (d) 925 units
Ans. (d)
AS
Ans. (d)
Sol. In PERT analysis slack time can be
P Q R
(a) +ve i.e S > 0
(b) –ve i.e S < 0 Sol. T C T C T C

(c) Zero i.e S = 0 8 250 6 340 8 400

M

But for critical events slack will be minimum 9 235 7 320 10 375
or zero. 10 225 8 295 12 350
Slack is associated with ev ents hence 11 215 9 275
statements (b) is wrong
S

Normal project duration = 11+9+12 = 32 units

Note:- Generally for crtical activities slack
will be zero, but it can be minimum also. Normal project cost = 840 units
IE

100. A small project consists of 3 actvities P, Q and Crash P by 2 day.

R to be executed in that sequence. The Project duration = 30 units
relationship between time duration (in ‘Units of
Project cost = 860 units
tme-T) and corresponding total direct cost (C
units) for each of the activities, for alternate Crash R by 4 days.
mutually exclusive possible durations for each
Project duration = 26 units
activity, are tabulated herewith:
Project cost = 910 units
Crash P by 1 day.
Project duration = 25 units
Project cost = 925 units.

, 8010009955
 Directions: Each of the next twenty (20) items
consists of two statements, one labelled as the
‘statement (I)’ and the other as ‘statement (II)’.
examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to thse items using the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
individually true and statement (II) is the
correct explanation of statement (I)
(b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
T
individally true but statement (II) is not the
correct eplanation of statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is
AS
false
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is
true.
101. Statement (I): Splitting of fibres is a type of
seasoning defect in wood.
M
Statement (II):Seasoning of timber is a general
requirement for structural purposes.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Spliting is separation of fibers along the grain
and extends from one end of the blank to the
S
other end it is due to seasoning defect.
Seasoning of timber is a general requirement
for structural purpose because it helps in
IE
1. Reducing tendency to sphit warp and shrink.
2. Immune from attack by insects.
3. Increasing strength durability, workability and
resilience.
4. Reduce weight and minimize cost of
transportation.
5. Readily burning of timber, if used as fuel.
102. Statement (I): Hardwoods are used in special
purpose heavy constrctions.
Statement (II):Hardwoods too are porous in
nature.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Hardwoods are used in special purpose heavy
construction because they are strong in tension,
compression and shear, strong along and
across the grains.
All hardwoods have vessels (little pipelines) that
ER
are used in sap production. When the vessels
are cut across the end grain, they are referred
to as pores, thus hardwoods are known as
“porous woods”.
103. Statement (I): In general, bricks cannot be
used in industrial foundations.
Statement (II): Heavy duty bricks can withstand
higher temperatures.
Ans. (b)
104. Statement (I): In multistoried constructions,
burnt clay perforated bricks are used to reduce
the cost of construction.
Statement (II): Perforated bricks are economical
and they also provide thermal insulation.
Ans. (a)
105. Statement (I): Positive displacement pumps
can be used for pumping of ready-mixed
concrete.
Statement (II):The coarse aggregate in the mix
is unlikely to be crushed during positive
displacement.
Ans. (a)
106. Statement (I): Fire resistance of plastering can
be achieved by mixing surkhi to the cement
mortar.
Statement (II): Insulation against sound and
fire be achieved by adding sufficient water in-
situ just before applying the mortar.
Ans. (c)
107. Statement (I): Water containing less than 2000
ppm of dissolved solids can generally be used
, 8010009955
 satisfactorily for making concrete.
Statement (II): The presence of any of zinc,
manganese, tin, copper or lead reduces the
strength of concrete considerably.
needle vibrators are preferred in foundation
concreting.
Statement (II): Needle vibrators are susceptible
to get dysfunctional with leaking-in of cement

R
slurry – which is not the case with the shutter
Ans. (b)
vibrator.
108. Statement (I): Though a non-elastic material,
Ans. (b)
yet concrete exhibits a linear relationship

TE
between stress and strain at low values of 113. Statement (I): The forward edge of wheels or
stress. outriggers acts as a fulcrum in determining the
lifting capacity of a mobile crane.
Statement (II):The modulus of elasticity of
concrete is dependent on the elastic properties Statement (II): There is in-build security and
of aggregate and on curing. safety against sudden dropping of load, as well
AS
as against abrupt swinging, in the working of a
Ans. (b)
mobile crane.
109. Statement (I): Finer the cement, greater is the
Ans. (b)
need for water for hydration and workability.
Sol. The stability-limited rated load for a mobile
Statement (II): Bleeding of a mix occurs due to
crane supported on outriggers is 85% of tipping
low water-cement ratio.
M

load.
Ans. (c)
 Tipping takes about fulcrum.
110. Statement (I): The failure of a mild steel
114. Statement (I): Hand-operated chain-hoists
specimen of circular cross-section, subjected
include differential screw-geared types within
to a torque occurs along its cross-section.
S

their range.
Statement (II): The failure occurs on a plane of
Statement (II): In case of a hoist-winch, the
the specimen subjected to maximum shear
capacity of the hoist is increased by a number
IE

stress; and mild steel is relatively weak in shear.

of gear reductions.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
111. Statement (I): In elastic analysis of structures,
Sol. Hand operated chain hoist are screw geared
the neutral axis is the intersection between the
and differential type i.e., they are self locking
plane of bending and the neutral plane.
and will automatically hold a load in position.
Statement (II): Neutral axis in the context of
Winch is used for pulling and hoisting objects,
plastic analysis of structures is always the Equal
lower is the gear ratio higher is the power.
area axis of the cross-section.
115. Statement (I): When employing weigh-batching
Ans. (d)
for mix preparation, bulking of sand has to be
112. Statement (I): Whereas shutter vibrators are accounted for.
preferred for use with pre-stressed beams,

, 8010009955

Statement (II): Bulked sand will affect the
proportional composition of the ingredients to
be used in making wet concrete of the desired
eventual strength.
Ans. (d)
116. Statement (I): Critical path(s) through a CPM
network can be identified even without working
out the backward pass computations by a
competent user.
chain of activities from start to finish (not
excluding between splitting and merging nodes)TE
Statement (II): Critical path is the progressive
through the network where total float is absent
throughout (including through dummy arrrows,
AS
if appropriate).
Ans. (b)
Sol. Critical path is the longest path time wise which
canbe determined from forward path method
M
only
117. Statement (I): For implementing weigh-
batching, separate compartments are made for
storing large quantities of the aggregates.
Besided lifting and loading equipments, there
S
must be regular assessment of grading and
also of moisture content.
IE
Statement (II): Whereas eventual strength of
the mix depends also on the grading of the
ingredients, the water needs too must be
properly computed and implemented.
Ans. (b)
118. Statement (I): Resources optimization is largely
a pre-im plementati on pursuit whereas
resources al locat ion i s a through-
implementation dynamic process.
R
Statement (II): Resources allocation has a
larger bearing on inventory management than
resoures optimization.
Ans. (b)
119. Statement (I): Crashing of project duration
always increases the cost of the project on its
completion, no matter what the indirect, or
overhead, costs are.
Statement (II): The critical path along the project
activities network diagram is compressed in the
process of investigating the crashing of the
project duration, and not the non-critical
activities, up to a certain stage of crashing.
Ans. (d)
120. Statement (I): In the operation of reciprocating
pumps, slip can sometimes be negative.
Statement (II): Under conditions of high speed,
long suction pipes (without cavitation) and short
delivery pipes, inertia pressure can be relatively
rather high, causing the delivery value to open
before the discharge stroke begins.
Ans. (a)
, 8010009955