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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (AIOT) JEE MAIN
COURSE : JP, JF, JR, ER, JCC TARGET : JEE(IITs/NITs) - 2013
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct
response.
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each question.
–1/4 (minus one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom
of each page.
7. On completion of the test, the candiate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However,
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Make sure that the CODE printed of the Answer Sheet is the same c as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the
condidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator fo replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.
-------------------------------- --------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
PART- A 3. A rod of length carrying current i is kept in uniform
magnetic field of magnitude B is shown in figure.
Then the force on rod due to magnetic field is.
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
T his s ec tion contains 27 m ultiple c hoic e
questions. Each question has choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
0 qV 0 qVR
(3) (4) 4 2
4 x 2 (R x 2 )3 / 2
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-1
6. A battery of EMF E, resistance R and an uncharged 8. The incorrect ray diagram for thin concave lens is :
capacitor C are connected in the circuit as shown in
figure. Then after switch is turned on :
(1)
(1)
(2) v
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-2
9. The point of intersection of emergent rays is : 11. In the figure shown find out the distance of centre
of mass of a system of a uniform circular plate of
radius 3 R from O in which a hole of radius R is
cut whose centre is at 2R distance from centre of
large circular plate.
(1) 2 cm left of o.
(1) R/4
(2) 2 cm right of o.
(2) R/5
(3) 1 cm left of o.
(3) R/2
(4) 1 cm right of o.
(4) none of these
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
3 o i
(1)
8r
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-3
14. The ratio of the secondary to the primary turns in a 18. The frequency of oscillation of current in the inductor
transfomer is 3 : 2 and the output power is P. is :
Neglecting all power losses, the input power must
be
2P 3P
(1) (2)
3 2
P 1 1
(3) (4) P (1) (2)
2 3 LC 6 LC
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-4
21. The rate of radiation of a black body at 0 ºC is E 24. In Young’s double slit experiment, separation
watt. Then the rate of radiation of this black body at between slits is halved and distance between slits
273 ºC will be: and screen is doubled. The fringe width is :
(1) 8 E (1) same.
(2) 16 E (2) quadrupled
(3) 4 E (3) halved.
(4) E (4) one–third
22. In a compound microscope the intermediate image 25. An alternating current is given by
is : i = i1 cos t + i2 sin t.
(1) real, inverted & magnified The rms current is given by
(2) real, erect & magnified
i1 i 2 i1 i2
(3) virtual, erect & magnified (1) (2)
2 2
(4) virtual, erect & reduced
23. A mass m is suspended from a massless pulley, i12 i22 i12 i22
(3) (4)
which itself is suspended by a massless string 2 2
and a spring as shown in figure. What will be the
time period of osillations of the mass. The force
26. A ball of relative density 0.8 falls into water from a
constant of spring is K-
height of 2m above the surface of water. The depth
inside water upto which the ball will sink is (neglect
viscous forces):
(1) 8 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 4 m
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-5
30. STATEMENT-1 : Gas ejected from rocket will never
SECTION - II exert thrust on the rocket if the ejected gas and the
Reasoning Type rocket move in the same direction.
This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. STATEMENT-2 : To exert thrust on rocket in its
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and direction of motion, the ejected gas ( w.r.t. rocket)
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. must move opposite to velocity of rocket (w.r.t. ground)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
28. STATEMENT–1: In photoelectric experiment the
Statement-1.
ejected electrons have a wide range of kinetic energy
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
even if the photons striking the surface have same
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
energy.
Statement-1
STATEMENT–2: According to Einstein electrons can
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
absorb any fraction of the energy of the striking
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
photon.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-6
PART- B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
31. Which of the following gases turns starch iodide 34. (P) forms a precipitate with AgNO3. The precipitate
paper blue? dissolves in excess reagent (P). (P) cannot be :
(1) CO2
(1) KOH
(2) SO2
(2) KCN
(3) NO2
(3) Na2S2O3
(4) H2S
(4) NH3
32. A substance (A) is water insoluble, On bubbling Cl2
through its suspension in water, it produces a 35. CS2 burns in excess air to produce :
coloured aqueous solution, forming a single product.
(A) may be :
(1) CO2 & SO2
(1) BiOCl
(2) CO2 & SO3
(2) CuCl
(3) CO & SO2
(3) Hg2Cl2
(4) CO & SO3
(4) All of these
36. Conc. HCl can dissolve :
33. Cold dilute HNO3 cannot dissolve :
(1) Mg
(1) Pb
(2) Ag
(2) PbO2
(3) Hg
(3) PbO
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-7
37. Which of the following pairs of compounds have 40. As a bomb explodes, gases are formed in a small
central atom with identical hybridization ? volume very rapidly. During explosion, these gases
rapidly expand. In this process of explosion :
(1) SO2 and SOCl2
(1) PV work is done by the atmospheric air.
(2) XeO3 and XeO2F2
(2) PV work is done on the atmospheric air.
(3) XeF4 and XeOF4
(3) exploding bomb is an isolated system.
(4) SF4 and XeF4
(4) energy is absorbed from the sunoundings.
38. Spin-only magnetic moment of [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
(in Bohr Magnetons) is : 41. During electrolysis of 1L, 1M AgNO3 using silver
Electrodes, 9.65 A current is used for one hour.
(1) Zero Assuming the volume to remain unchanged, molarity
of AgNO3 at the end of electrolytic process is :
(2) 3
(1) 1 M
(3) 0.64 M
(4) 35
(4) None of these
39. CO forms a volatile carbonyl complex with which of
the following metals ? 42. 100 mL of given KMnO4 solution titrates 50 mL of
0.1 M oxalic acid. Its normality against alkaline H2O2
(1) Na is :
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-8
43. Gold is plated with rhodium to give a base for 46. Arhenius equation is not applicable for :
mounting diamonds in modern jewellery. The
rhodium-gold alloy consistes of gold atoms in fcc (1) first order reactions
structure with half the face centers being replaced
by rhodium atoms. Formula of this alloy is : (2) Second order reactions
(2) syneresis
(1) 10–9 M
(3) peptization
(2)10–10 M
(4) dialysis.
(3)10–5 M
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-9
49. Consider the following acids and bases : 50. The product of following reaction
CH MgCl
3
ether
Acids :
(1)
(1) (2) (3)
(2)
Bases:
(3)
(4) (5) (6)
(2) 3 and 6
(3) 2 and 5
(4) 1 and 6
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-10
51. The product of the following reaction does not show 53. Number of optically active optical isomers of
positive test with
compound is :
(1) 4
NH
3 Br / NaOH
2 product.
(2) 2
(3) 0
(1) (CHCl3 + KOH)/(Carbyl amine test)
(4) 3
(2)
S3 : The aqueous solution of CH3MgBr is used for
SN2 reaction with primary alkyl halides.
(1) F F F
(3)
(2) T F T
(3) T F F
(4) (4) T F T
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-11
56. Identify a reagent from the following list which can C H Cl / AlCl ( X) (Y)
58. 25
3
easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne.
57. The reactant X & Y of following reactions are (3) X = CH3COCl / AlCl3, Y = I2 / NaOH, acidification
HO O
OH–
X + Y (4) X = KMnO4 / OH / , acidification, Y = CH3CH2Cl
H2O
/ AlCl3
(1) + CH3CHO
(1) Glyceraldehyde (2) Glucose
(3)
(1) IV > II > III > I (2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > IV > II > I (4) IV > II > III > I
(4)
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-12
64. Set of real values of k for which the lines x + 3y + 1 = 0,
PART- C
kx + 2y – 2 = 0 and 2x – y + 3 = 0 form a triangle is
SECTION - I 2 2 6
(1) R – , – 4 (2) R – , – 4,
3 3 5
Straight Objective Type
1 2 3
(3) [ n 2, n 6) (4) (–, n 2]
66. If matrix A = – 1 0 4 then the determinant of
6 2 – 1
2n
n
63. If I1 = nlim r 2 and
r 1 3rn 2n 2
matrix A500 – 2A499 is m. Number of zeros at the end
n
n
I2 = nlim 2r 2 then the value of of m is
r 1 3rn n2
(1) 1
2I1 – I2 is equal to
(2) 2
4 3
(1) n (2) n
3 4 (3) 0
3 (4) 3
(3) n (4) 0
2
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-13
70. Let (y – )2 = 4(x – ) be a parabola with x = 1 as
n n n n
67. L im 2 2 2 2
...... 2 directrix. If 2y = – 4x + 11 is tangent then =
n n n 1 n 2 2n 2n 1
(1) 1
is equal to
(2) –2
(1) 1
(3) 2
(2)
4 (4) – 1
(3) tan 1
71. If z and w be two complex numbers, such that
(4) tan |z|2w – |w|2z = z – w and (z w), then
4
(1) z w
x
sin , x 1
68. The function f x 2 , where [.] (2) zw 1
2x 3 x, x 1
(3) zw 2
denotes the greatest integer function, is
(1) Continuous and differentiable at x = 1 (4) zw 4
(2) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(3) Discontinuous at x = 1 sin 2x a b cos x
72. If (3 4 cos x) 3
dx e , where e
(4) None of these c(3 4 cos x )d
(2) f1 x f2 x (3) 29
(4) 30
(3) f1 x f2 x
(4) None of these
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-14
73. The distance of the plane passing through the point 76. The side of a regular hexagon is 2 cm. The ratio of
P(1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to the the radius of circumscribed circle to the radius of
inscribed circle is
x 1 y 1 z 1
line from the origin is 3
3 0 4 (1)
2
the equation f(x) = 0, then the value of p + q is A 1 A 2 A 3 ........ A 100 and A i A , then
i3
n(A) =
(1) 9 (2) 11
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 13 (4) 15
(3) 5 (4) 6
75. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its peak
78. Let x = x 1, x = x 2 be two points of minima of
is found to be . After ascending ‘h’ m toward the
4
y = x4 – 2x3 + x2 + 3. Area bounded by the curve,
mountain up a slope of inclination, the elevation
6 x-axis and x = x1, x = x2 is
is found to be . Height of the mountain is
3 81 91
(1) (2)
30 30
h
(1) ( 3 1) m (2) h( 3 1) m
2
71
(3) (4) None of these
30
h
(3) ( 3 – 1) m (4) h( 3 – 1) m
2
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-15
79. The probability that atleast one of the events A, B 82. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variance are
happens is 0.6. If probability of their simultaneously given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means
happening is 0.2, then P ( A ) + P ( B ) = are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The double of
the variance of the combined data set is
(1) 0.4
(1) 10
(3) 12
(3) 1.2
(4) 13
(4) 1.4
83. Consider the following statements
P : Suman is brilliant
80. If an ellipse slides between two perpendicular straight
Q : Suman is rich
lines, then the locus of its centre is
R : Suman is honest
(assuming length of axes of ellipse are constant)
The negation of the statement “Suman is brilliant
(1) a parabola
and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich” can be
expressed as
(2) an ellipse
(1) ((Q R) ~ P))
(2) (Q (P ~ R))
(3) a hyperbola
(3) Q ~ (P ~ R)
(4) ~ ((Q R) P))
(4) a circle
2cos2 2x sin2x sin x
2
81. Asymptotes of a hyperbola are represented by 84. f x sin2x 2sin x cos x . The value of
2x 2 + 3xy – 2y2 + 2x – y = 0. The eccentricity of sin x cos x 0
/2
hyperbola can be
f ' x dx is equal to
0
3 5
(1) (2)
2 3 (1) – 2
(2) – 1
(3) 2 (4) indeterminate
(3) 2
(4) 0
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-16
85. Let R = { (1,3), (4,2),(2,4),(2,3),(3,1)} be a relation 87. STATEMENT -1 : Solution of
on the set A = {1,2,3,4}. The relation R is (1 + x x 2 y 2 ) dx + y (–1 + x 2 y 2 ) dy = 0 is
(1) a function y2 1 2
x– (x + y2)3/2 + C1 = 0, C1 being arbitrary
(2) reflexive 2 3
constant.
(3) not symmetric
STATEMENT-2 : Solution of
(4) transitive
y
xdy – ydx = x 2 – y 2 dx is sin–1 = n x + C2, C2
x
SECTION - II being arbitrary constant.
Reasoning Type
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
This section contains 5 reasoning type questions.
STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
STATEMENT-1
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-17
89. STATEMENT - 1 :Locus of mid point of chords of 90. STATEMENT-1 : If ab2c3 , a2b3c4, a3b4c5 are in A.P.
(a, b, c > 0), then the minimum value of a + b + c
circle x2 + y2 = 4 which subtends angle of at
2
is 3.
origin is x2 + y2 = 1.
STATEMENT-2 : Arithmetic mean of any two
STATEMENT - 2 : If any chord of circle x2 + y2 = r2
numbers is greater than geometric mean of the
subtends an angle ‘’ at centre, then its mid point
numbers.
always lies on x2 + y2 = r2 cos2
2
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
STATEMENT-1 (2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
STATEMENT-1 (3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
False (4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
True
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-18