Haryana AE Civil Papers Solutions

HARYANA
AE - CIVIL
PAPER
SOLUTIONS
INDEX
CHAPTER NO. CHAPTER NAME PAGE NO.
1 CPM 1
2 EM 2
3 ENVIRONMENT 3–8
4 FM 9 – 15
5 HIGHWAY 16 – 20
6 HYDROLOGY 21 – 23
7 IRRIGATION 24 – 26
8 RAILWAY 27
9 RCC 28 – 44
10 SOIL 45 – 51
11 BM 52 – 60
12 SOM 61 – 80
13 STRUCTURE 81 – 91
EDUZPHERE - INSTITUTE FOR CIVIL ENGINEERS
CPM CHAPTER – 1
1. Which of the following does not represent an activity?
a) Site located
b) Foundation is being dug
c) The office area is being cleaned
d) The invitations are being sent (HR-AE) (Q-98)
Ans (a) Activity are those which consume time and resources.
Here Site located is not activity as it doesn’t required resources or time for location i.e. it is
event which is start or end of an activity following activity are consuming time and resources
i.e.
i. Foundation is being Dug

ii. The office area is being cleaned
iii. The invitations are being sent
2. Latest start of an activity is always

a) Greater than or equal to latest event time of preceding node
b) Less than or equal to latest event time of preceding node
c) Equal to latest event time of preceding node
d) Less than latest event time of preceding node (HR-AE) (Q-99)
Ans (a)
Latest start time of an activity is always greater than or equal to latest event time of
preceding node.
HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 1

EM CHAPTER - 2
1. If a system of forces A,B and C are in equilibrium, then magnitude of their resultant is equal
to
a) A + B + C
b) A2 + B2 + C
c) (A2 + B2 + C2)
d) Zero
e) None of the above (HR-PH-AE) (Q - 51)
Ans (d) If a system if force A, B and C equilibrium, then magnitude of their resultant is 0
2. The maximum number of unknown forces that can be determined in a concurrent force
system under equilibrium is
a) Zero
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Ans (b) Max. no. of unknown forces that can be determined in a concurrent force system
under equilibrium is 2.

ENVIRONMENT CHAPTER – 3
1. In transition sewers from smaller diameter sewers to larger diameter sewers, the continuity
of sewers is maintained at the
a) Bottom of the concrete bed of sewers
b) Inverts of the sewers
c) Crowns of the sewers
d) Hydraulic gradients of the sewers (HR-AE) (Q-57)
Ans (c) In transition sewer
The continuity of sewer is maintained at the crown of the sewers.
2. Which one of the following would contain water with the maximum amount of turbidity?
a) Lakes
b) Rivers
c) Oceans
d) Wells (HR-AE) (Q-59)
Ans (b) Maximum amount of turbidity is in River because during monsoon, the river contain
maximum suspended solids.
3. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by the

a) Discharge of toxic substances
b) Excessive discharge of nutrients
c) Excessive discharge of suspended solids
d) Excessive discharge of chlorides (HR-AE) (Q-60)
Ans (b) Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by the excessive discharge of nutrients.

4. Non disposal of solid waste may cause the spread of

a) Malaria
b) Rodents related plague
c) Typhoid
d) Dysentery (HR-AE) (Q-61)
Ans (b) Non disposal of solid waste may cause the spread of Rodents related plague.
5. Sewage sickness occurs when

a) Sewage contains pathogenic organisms
b) Sewage enters the water supply system
c) Sewage get clogged due to accumulation of solids
d) Voids of soil clogged due to continuous application of sewage on a piece of land
(HR-AE) (Q-62)
Ans (d) Sewage sickness is the condition occurs when voids of soil get clogged due to
continuous application of sewage on a piece of land.
6. The typical density in kg/ (in situ) of well compacted municipal solid waste landfill is in
the range of
a) 100 to 300
b) 300 to 500
c) 500 to 800
d) 900 to 1100 (HR-AE) (Q-63)
Ans (d) The typical density in kg/m3(in situ) of well compacted municipal solid waste land fill in
the range of 900 – 1100 kg/m3.
7. Which of the following principal types of reactor is related to trickling filler?

a) Plug flow
b) Complete mix
c) Packed-bed
d) Fluidized bed (HR-AE) (Q-64)
Ans (c) Principal types of reactors is related to trickling filter is packed bed.
Type reactor Application

1. Batch Active sludge process
2. Complete - mix Aerated lagoons
3. Plug flow Chlorine contact basin, natural treatment

system
4. Packed bed Trickling filter
5. Fluidized bed Up flow sludge blanket
8. Which one of the following sewage treatment units has a Parshall flume?
a) Trickling filter
b) Aerated lagoon
c) Grit chamber
d) Oxidation ditch (HR-AE) (Q-65)
Ans (c) Parshall flume and proportioning weirs are used in grit chamber and they maintain
constant flow velocity in grit chamber for settling (type – I) of inorganic particles, therefore
Parshall flume is used in grit chamber to maintain constant velocity.
9. Aerosol is
a) Finely divided particles of ash
b) Dispersion of small solid or liquid particles in gaseous media
c) Diffused liquid particles
d) Carbon particles of microscopic size (HR-AE) (Q-66)
Ans (b) Aerosol is the dispersion of small solid or liquid particles in gaseous media. Aerosols or
particulates or suspended particles matter is defined as the liquid or solid particles when they
are suspended in gaseous medium. The term aerosol is used during the time it is suspended in
air. After the particle is settled down, the term ceases to be valid.
10. The purpose of a proportional weir at the effluent end of a channel type grit removal unit
is to
a) Maintain constant mean velocity in the channel
b) Provide easy passage of solid particles
c) Measure the rate of flow in the channel
d) Keep the depth of flow in the channel above a certain value (HR-AE) (Q-67)
Ans (a) Proportion weir and parshall flume are used in grit chamber to maintain constant
mean velocity in the channel.
11.The trap used for a water closet is called

a) Gully trap
b) Intercepting trap
c) P trap

d) Anti siphon trap (HR-AE) (Q-68)
Ans (c) The trap used for a water closet in called P – trap.
12.In which one of the following tests is the organic matter in the waste water used as food by
micro-organisms?
a) BOD
b) Most probable number
c) COD
d) Chlorine demand (HR-AE) (Q-69)
Ans (a) BOD – organic matter in waste water used as food by micro – organisms.
MPN – Most probable number used to indicate presence of coliform.
13.Air binding may occur in

a) Aerator
b) Filter
c) Artesian well
d) Sewers (HR-AE) (Q-70)
Ans (b) Problem occurs in Rapid filter are
(i) Air binding

(ii) Cracking
(iii) Mud pumping
14.The space above the water table and below the surface of earth is known as the zone of
a) Aeration
b) Saturation
c) Rock flowage
d) Rock fracture (HR-AE) (Q-13)

Ans (a)
The space above the water table and below the surface of earth is known as Zone of
aeration.
15.The underground formations which neither contain any water nor allow any transmission
of water through them are known as
a) Aquifers
b) Aquicludes
c) Aquifuges
d) All of above are correct (HR-AE) (Q-19)
Ans (c) Aquifers = both porosity and permeability
Aquifuges = neither porosity nor permeability
16.The surface joining the state levels in several non-pumping wells penetrating a continuous
confined aquifer represents.
a) Water table surface
b) Capillary fringe
c) Piezometric surface of the aquifer
d) Physical top surface of the aquifer (HR-AE) (Q-25)
Ans (c) The surface joining the static levels in several non – pumping wells penetrating a
continuous confined aquifer represents piezometric surface of the aquifer.

17.Water present in an artesian aquifer is usually

a) At sub-atmospheric pressure
b) At atmosphere pressure
c) At 0.5 times of the atmospheric pressure
d) Above atmosphere pressure (HR-AE) (Q-53)
Ans (d) Water present in an artesian aquifer is usually above atmospheric pressure which is
the reason that the level of artesian well water is High from nature Ground water table.

FM CHAPTER - 4
1. If the pressure head of water at C is 80 m, then its equivalent pressure head if kerosene
oil of Sp. Gr. 0.80 is used, will be
a) 100 m
b) 10 m
c) 64 m
d) 80 m (HR-AE) (Q-2)
Ans (a) Pressure Head of water = 80 m
Pressure =
Where Pressure Head
density of fluid (water)
Given
(Pressure)water = (Pressure)Kerosine
density of kerosene = [ ] kg/m3
1000 x g x 80 = 800 x g x Hk
Hk = 100 m
2. Water flows at the rate of 100 m/min in a pipe of diameter 300 mm. if this diameter of pipe
is reduced to 150 mm, then the velocity of water in the pipe will be
a) 50 m/min
b) 25 m/min
c) 200 m/min
d) 400 m/min (HR-AE) (Q-5)
Ans (d) Initial flow = 100 m/min in a pipe of diameter 300 mm.
Discharge = velocity x area

= 100
[discharge]1 = [Discharge]2
Diameter of pipe is reduced to 150 mm
continuity equation [conservation of mass]

3. Bernoulli’s theorem has been derived under the assumption that no external force acts on
the liquid except.
a) Atmospheric pressure
b) Force due to gravity
c) Wind pressure
d) None of these (HR-AE) (Q-6)
Ans (a) Bernoulli’s theorem has been derived under the assumption that no external force acts
on the liquid except atmosphere pressure as well as gauge pressure, but in option only
atmosphere pressure is given.
4. In order to avoid separation of liquid flow, absolute pressure head of water should not be
less than
a) 1 m
b) 9.81 m
c) 32 m
d) 2.8 m (HR-AE) (Q-7)
Ans (d) In order to avoid separation of liquid flow, absolute pressure head of water should not
be less than vapour pressure i.e. 2.8 m.
5. The ratio of inertia force and viscous force is called as

a) Reynolds number
b) Froude number
c) Weber number
d) Euler number (HR-AE) (Q-8)
Ans (a) Reynold’s number =
Fr = Froude number =
Weber number =
Euler number =
All there number mention above are dimensionless number and have great application
in fluid mechanics.

6. When the depth of flow changes abruptly over a short distance in an open channel, then
the flow will be termed as
a) Rapidly varied flow
b) Unsteady flow
c) Gradually varied flow
d) Turbulent flow (HR-AE) (Q-10)
Ans (a)Change of depth over a short distance in an open channel flow – Rapidly Varied Flow
Change of depth over a long distance in an open channel flow – Gradually Varied Flow
7. Shear velocity is
a) A non-dimensional quantity
b) The velocity of fluid at the edge of laminar sub-layer
c) A fictitious quantity
d) The velocity of fluid at the edge of roughness element (HR-AE-56) (Q-14)
Ans (c) Shear velocity √
Dimension of shear velocity = LT – 1

It is a fictitious quantity.
8. A pumped storage plant is a

a) High head plant
b) Run-off river plant
c) Peak load plant
d) Base load plant (HR-AE) (Q-15)
Ans (c) A pumped storage plant is a medium Head or High Head as it use reversible turbines.
A pumped storage plant generates power during peak hours, but during the off – peak hours
water is pumped back.
9. For a stream function, ϕ = - , the magnitude of velocity at the point (2,1) is

a) 12.37
b) 11
c) 13.33
d) 13.5 (HR-AE) (Q-22)

Ans (a) Stream function at (2, 1)
[ ]
[ ]
=
[ ]
Velocity vector =
Magnitude of velocity =
10.If the velocity in laminar flow is parabolic, then the shear stress profile must be
a) A hyperbola
b) A straight line
c) A parabola
d) An ellipse (HR-AE) (Q-23)
Ans (b)
11.Water having kinematic viscosity 1 cm diameter pipe. Critical flow will correspond to a
discharge of approximately.
a) 0.008 I/s
b) 0.013 I/s
c) 0.016I/s
d) 0.024I/s (HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-24)

Ans (c) Kinematic viscosity = 1 centi stoke
= 10 – 6 m2/s
Diameter of pipe = 1 cm = 10 – 2m
Critical flow =
Reynold no. = Re =
=
For laminar flow Re< 2000
2000 =
Where velocity
D diameter
kinematic viscosity
2000 =
m/s
Critical discharge Area x velocity
=( ) velocity
=* +
= 0.0000157 m3/s
= 0.0157 Lt/s = 0.016 Lt/s
12.The distorted models used in the hydraulic studies are those which
a) Have long lengths
b) Are not geometrically similar to the prototypes
c) Are partially broken
d) Have the same Froude number as that for the prototypes (HR-AE) (Q-27)
Ans (b) Distorted models used in the hydraulic studies are those are not geometrically similar
to the prototypes.
13.The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called
a) Useful storage
b) Dead storage
c) Valley storage
d) Surcharge storage (HR-AE) (Q-58)

14.During flood, water entered in an office having wooden tables. The position of the table
while floating will be
a) Legs downward
b) Legs upward
c) Legs on sides
d) In any position (HR-AE) (Q-3)
Ans (b) During flood, water entered in an office having wooden tables. The position of the
table while floating will be legs upward, because Metacenter of table lies below where as
C.O.G lie above, which rises to unstable condition.
15.A channel with bed slope 0.0009 carries a discharge of 30 cumec when the depth of flow is
0.1 m. What is the discharge carried by an exactly similar channel at the same depth of flow
if the slope is changed to 0.0001?
a) 10 cumec
b) 15 cumec
c) 60 cumec
d) 90 cumec (HR-AE) (Q-17)
Ans (a) S = Bed slope = 0.0009
discharge = 30 cumec = 30 m3/s

depth of flow = 1.0 m
⁄ ⁄
⁄
⁄
i.e. ( )
⁄
* + * +
m3/s

16.Storage of water by impounding is required when

a) Plenty of water is available in the stream in all seasons
b) Excess of suspended and dissolved matter are present in the water
c) There is a large variation in quantity of the river flow from time to time
d) The flow is uniform throughout the year but is insufficient
(HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-18)
Ans (c) Storage of water by impounding is required when there is a large variation in
quantity of the river flow from time to time.

HIGHWAY CHAPTER - 5
1. The highest point on a carriage way is known as
a) Crown
b) Camber
c) Super elevation
d) Gradient (HR-AE) (Q-28)
Ans (a) The Highest point on a carriage way is known crown
2. The widening of road is not required when its radius will be

a) Less than 300 m
b) More than 300 m
c) Less than 460 m
d) More than 460 m (HR-AE) (Q-29)
Ans (b) The widening of roa0d is not required when its radius will be more than 300 m.
3. Abrasion test is conducted to find

a) Hardness of aggregate
b) Toughness of aggregate
c) Durability of aggregate
d) Strength of aggregate (HR-AE) (Q-30)
Ans (a)
TEST
 Abrasion test  Hardness of aggregate
 Impact test  Toughness of aggregate
 Soundness test  Durability of aggregate
 Compressive test  Strength of aggregate

4. Which test is carried out to know the resistance to flow, of given bituminous material?
a) Softening point
b) Penetration
c) Ductility
d) Viscosity (HR-AE) (Q-31)
Ans (d) Viscosity test find the resistance to flow.
5. Sub base course is provided not to improve

a) Bearing capacity of sub-grade
b) Capillary rise of the coil
c) Drainage action of the soil
d) Durability of sub-grade (HR-AE) (Q-32)
Ans (b) Sub – base course is provide to improve.
a. Bearing capacity of sub grade.

b. Drainage action of the soil.
c. Durability of sub grade.
6. As per IRC, in hilly roads, the ruling gradient should not be more than
a) 3.33 %
b) 5 %
c) 6 %
d) 6.66 % (HR-AE) (Q-33)
Ans (b) IRC, Gradient for Roads
Terrain Ruling gradient Limiting gradient Experiment gradient

Plain/Rolling 3.3% 5% 6.7%
Mountain terrain and 5.0% 6% 7%
steep terrain having
elevation more than
3000 m above M.S.L
Steep terrain upto 6.0% 7% 8%
3000 m height above
M.S.L

7. A transition curve is introduced to change gradually the

a) Direction
b) Super elevation
c) Gradient
d) Camber (HR-AE) (Q-48)
Ans (b) A transition curve is introduced to change gradually the super elevation and
acceleration.
8. What is the minimum length of transition curve for a design speed of 80 kmph in a
horizontal curve of 240 m radius?
a) 32 m
b) 42 m
c) 52 m
d) 72 m (HR-AE) (Q-86)
Ans (d) length of transition curve (maximum of them)
(i)
m2/s
C 0.8
m
(ii) For plain terrain
m
For hilly terrain
From option answer will be 72 m as 89 m is not present in the option.
9. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle
and weaving distance for its design?
a) Rotary design
b) Right-angle intersection
c) Roundabout
d) Grade-separated junction (HR-AE) (Q-87)

Ans (a) Rotary design requires the magnitudes of weaving angle & weaving distance for its
design.
Capacity of rotary = C
* +
C = 280 w * +
* +
Where W = width of weaving section

e = average width of entry e1
Generally e1 = e2 and
Width of non weaving section e2.
Range of
L = length of weaving section
P = proportion of weaving traffic
10.If super-elevation is not provided on a horizontal curve of a highway, then on which portion
of the road, are pot holes likely to develop?
a) Outer edge of the road
b) Inner edge of the road
c) Centre of road
d) Shoulder of road (HR-AE) (Q-88)
Ans (a) when a vehicle negotiates a horizontal curve on a highway, without super – elevation
the pressure on the tyres on outer edge is more than on the inner ones. Thus the chances of
appearing of potholes is more on the outer edge of the road.

11.The aggregate impact value of aggregate used in

a) Building concrete is less than 45
b) Road pavement concrete is less than 30
c) Runway concrete is less than 30
d) All the above
e) None of the above (HR.PH.AE) (Q-2)
Ans (d) The aggregate impact value : AIV

AIV 30 % surface course
36 % B.M
40% WBM

HYDROLOGY CHAPTER - 6
1. A two-hour storm hydrograph has 5 units of direct runoff. The two-hour unit hydrograph
for this storm can be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the storm hydrograph by
a) 2
b) 2/5
c) 5
d) 5/2 (HR-AE) (Q-9)
Ans (c) A two hour storm has 5 units of direct run – off.
The two hour unit hydrograph for this storm can be obtained by dividing the ordinates of
storm hydrograph by 5 units.
Storm Hydrograph of n = 5 i.e. direct run-off
2. The moving average of annual precipitation record is carried out to determine

a) Trend
b) Annual mean
c) Extreme annual variation
d) Extreme seasonal variation (HR-AE) (Q-12)

Ans (a) A moving average plot, in which the average value of precipitation of three or five
consecutive time intervals is plotted at the mid – value of the time interval is useful in
smoothening out the variations & bringing out the trend.
i.e. the moving average of annual precipitation record is carried out to determine trend.
3. A bridge has an expected life of 50 years and is designed for a flood magnitude of return
period 100 years. What is the risk associated with this hydrologic design?
a) 1 -
b)
c)
d) (HR-AE) (Q-16)
Ans (a) Risk = ( )
=
Risk =
P= T = return period = 100 years
4. The basic assumptions in Unit Hydrograph theory are

a) Non-linear response and time invariance
b) Non-linear time variance and linear response
c) Linear response and linear time invariance
d) Time invariance and linear response (HR-AE) (Q-52)
Ans (d) The basic assumption in unit Hydrograph theory are
a. Time invariance
b. Linear response
Ans (b) The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called Dead storage.


a. Time invariance
b. Linear response

a. Time invariance
b. Linear response
7. Probability of a 10 year flood to occur at least once in the next 4 years is

a) 20 %
b) 35 %
c) 45 %
d) 60 % (HR-AE) (Q-54)
Ans (b) Probability (at least once) = 1 – (1 – P)n
=1–( )
=1-[ ] [ ]
= 0.344 i.e. 35%
8. The trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of

a) Inflow to the reservoir
b) Ratio of inflow to storage capacity
c) Ratio of reservoir capacity to inflow
d) Reservoir capacity (HR-AE) (Q-55)
Ans (c) trap efficiency of a reservoir =

IRRIGATION CHAPTER - 7
1. The performance of a well is measured by its
a) Specific capacity
b) Specific yield
c) Storage coefficient
d) Permeability coefficient (HR-AE) (Q-1)
Ans (a) The performance of a well is measured by its specific capacity.
Specific capacity is the discharge per unit drawdown of a well and it measures efficiency of
a well. A/C other parameter like specific yield, storage co – efficient and permeability co –
efficient are used for water bearing formation.
Specific capacity =
2. The Penman’s evapo-transpiration equation is based on

a) Water budget method
b) Energy balance method
c) Mass transfer method
d) Energy balance and mass transfer approach (HR-AE) (Q-4)
Ans (d) The Penman’s evapo – transpiration equation is bared on energy balance and mass
transfer approach.
3. A cylindrical open topped storage reservoir provided to protect the penstock against water
hammer pressure will be called as
a) Intake structure
b) Surge tank
c) Forebay
d) Trash rack (HR-AE) (Q-11)
Ans (b) Surge tank is used to protect penstock against water hammer pressure.

4. In a gravity dam the factor of safety against overturning should not be less than
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 4 (HR-AE) (Q-20)
Ans (b) In a Gravity dam, F.O.Soverturning 1.5
5. The embankment constructed in the river on the upstream side of the weir and at right
angles to the axis of the weir is known as
a) Divide wall
b) Fish ladder
c) Under sluices
d) Log chute (HR-AE) (Q-21)
Ans (c) The embankment constructed in the river on the upstream side of the weir and at right
angles to the axis of the weir is known as under sluices.

6. When a river starts meandering, the sediment carrying capacity

a) First decreases and ultimately increases
b) Fist increases and ultimately decreases
c) Remains unaffected
d) Changes erratically all the time leaving permanent braids (HR-AE) (Q-26)
Ans (a) When a river starts meandering the sediment carrying capacity first decreases and
ultimately increases.
7. Leaching is a process
a) By which alkali salts present in the soil are dissolved and drained away
b) By which alkali salts in soil come up with water
c) Of draining excess water of irrigation
d) Which controls water-logging (HR-AE) (Q-56)
Ans (a) Leaching is a process by which alkali salts present in the soil are dissolved and drained
away.

RAILWAY CHAPTER - 8
1. The vertical wear on tongue rail should not exceed which one of the following?
a) 6 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 15 mm (HR-AE) (Q-89)
Ans (b) The vertical wear on tongue rail should not exceed 10 mm.

RCC CHAPTER - 9
1. Which of the following ingredients of the cement impart colour, hardness and strength to
the cement
a) Iron oxide
b) Alumina
c) Magnesia
d) None of the above (HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-63)
Ans (a) Iron oxide in cement impact color, harness & strength to the cement.
2. Ordinary cement achieves about ___________ % of its final strength in Twenty Eight (28)
days.
a) 70%
b) 80%
c) 90%
Ans (c) Ordinary cement achieves about 90% of its final strength in 28 days.
3. Each bag of cement contains ___________ N of cement.

a) 500
b) 600
c) 700
Ans (a) Each bag of cement contains 500 N of cement i.e. 50 kg
4. For ordinary cement final setting time is

a) 10 hrs.
b) 15hrs.
c) 20hrs.
Ans (a) For ordinary cement final setting time is 10 hours

Initial setting time is 30 minutes.

5. Particular type of cement which contains high percentage of tricalcium silicate is known as
a) Quick Setting Cement
b) Rapid Hardening Cement
c) Low Heat Cement
Ans (b) S Earlier strength

later strength
Strength
time
Rapid Hardening cement:

6. A homogeneous mixture of binding material, adulterant and water is known as
a) Mortar
b) Clinkers
c) Slurry
Ans (c) A homogeneous mixture of binding material, adultrand & water is known as slurry.
7. Bulking of sand is depends upon

a) Void ratio
b) Moisture content
c) Grain size
Ans (b) Bulking of sand is depends upon Moisture content

Volume
4–6%
+
Moisture content
8. To separate fine aggregate from coarser one the sieve used is

a) BIS sieve no. 480
b) BIS sieve no. 500
c) BIS sieve no. 520
Ans (a) To separate the line aggregate from coarser one the sieve used is BIS sieve no 480 i.e.
475 mm
9. The BIS code which is meant for concrete mix is

a) BIS 456 : 1978
b) IS 800 : 1984
c) IS 2800 : 1979
Ans (a) Code for concrete mix : BIS 456 – 1978
10. Maximum and minimum diameter of slump cone are

a) 20 mm, 10 mm
b) 20 cm, 10 cm
c) 20 m, 10 m
Ans (b) Slump cone test

10 cm
30 cm
20 cm
Maximum diameter = 20 cm
Minimum diameter = 10 cm
11. In preparation of concrete if hand mixing is to be adopted then it is admisable to use

___________ ‘s more cement than specified
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
Ans (a) In preparation of concrete if hand mixing is to adopted then it is admissible to use 10’s
more cement than specified.
12. For Ordinary Portland Cement the curing period is about

a) 7 – 14 days
b) 7 – 28 days
c) 7 – 21 days
Ans (b)The curing period is 7 – 28 days.
13. The bulk density of ordinary concrete is about

a) 23 kN/m3
b) 25 kN/m3
c) 27 kN/m3
Ans (b)The bulk density of ordinary concrete is 2500 kg/ ie 25 KN /

14. The gunite is the mixture of cement and sand with a normal proportion
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 3
c) 1 : 4
Ans (a) Mixture of cement & sand in ratio 1 : 2 is used for ganite.
15.As per the provisions of IS : 456-2000, in the limit state method for design of beams,
limiting value of the depth of neutral axis in a reinforced concrete beam of effective depth
‘d’ is given as
a) 0.53 d
b) 0.48 d
c) 0.46 d
d) Any of the above depending on the difference grades of steel (HR-AE) (Q-90)
Ans (d) IS 456 – 2000, In L.S.M for design beams,
= limiting value of the depth of neutral axis

d Fe = 250
d Fe = 415
d Fe = 500
It depends on grade of steel
16.Unequal top and bottom reinforcement in a reinforced concrete section leads to

a) Creep deflection
b) Shrinkage deflection
c) Long term deflection
d) Large deflection (HR-AE) (Q-91)
Ans (b) Unequal top & bottom reinforcement in a reinforced concrete section lead to
shrinkage deflection.
The bond between concrete & steel restrain shrinkage. Therefore, the shrinkage
curvature is influenced by the area of tension & compression reinforcement equally.
The shrinkage curvature

Free shrinkage = 0.0003

D = overall depth of beam
√
For 0.25
0.65
√
For
Percentage of compression & tension steel respectively.
Thus shrinkage deflection can be eliminated by making compression steel equal to tension
steel.
17.Deflection can be controlled by using appropriate

a) Aspect ratio
b) Modular ratio
c) Span/depth ratio
d) Water/cement ratio (HR-AE) (Q-92)
Ans (c) deflection can be controlled by using the appropriate = * +
18.Loss of stress with time at constant strain in steel is called

a) Relaxation
b) Creep
c) Shrinkage
d) Ductility (HR-AE) (Q-93)
Ans (b) Loss of stress with time a constant strain in steel is called creep.
19.Increase in fineness modulus of aggregate indicates

a) Finer grading
b) Irregular grading
c) Gap grading
d) None of the above (HR-AE) (Q-94)
Ans (d) Increase in fineness modulus of aggregate indicates course grading.

20.A structural member subjected to compressive stress in a direction parallel to its

longitudinal axis is generally known as
a) Column
b) Stanchion
c) Strut
d) All of above (HR-AE) (Q-95)
Ans (d) Number having compression stress are : -
a. Column
b. Strut
c. Booms
d. Stanchion
e. Vertical poles
21.Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structure exceeds

a) 10m
b) 15 m
c) 35 m
d) 45 m
e) None of the above (HR-PH-AE) (Q-1)
Ans (d) Expansion Joints are provided if the concrete structure exceeds 45 mm.
22.Workability of concrete may be improved by adding

a) Fly ash
b) Hydrated lime
c) Calcium chloride
d) All the above
Ans (d) Workability of cement improve by

 Fly ash
 Calcium chloride
 Hydrated lime

23.In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its extreme compression
edge to
a) Tensile edge
b) Tensile reinforcement
c) Neutral axis of the beam
d) Longitudinal central axis
Ans (b) In a single r/f beam, affective depth is measured from its extreme compression edge to
tensile Reinforcement.
24.The anchorage value of a hook is assumed 16 times the diameter of the bar if the angle of
the bend is
a) 30o
b) 40o
c) 45o
d) All the above
Ans (c) The anchorage value of a hook is assumed 16 time the diameter of the bar if the angle
of bend is
25.The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam of 250 mm which
and 700 mm effective depth, are 6,25MPa and 25 MPa respectively. If m=15, the depth of it
neutral axis is
a) 200mm
b) 250mm
c) 300mm
d) 400mm
Ans (e)

In OAB
and ODC
=
=
4
= =
– 15x = 4x
19x = 10500
x = 552.63 mm
26.A column is regarded as a long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral
dimension exceeds
a) 10
b) 12
c) 20
d) 30
Ans (b) Column in R.C.C

Long column if r > 12
Short column if r 12
r = slenderness ratio =

27.The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is
a) ⁄
b) ⁄
c) ⁄
d) ⁄
Ans (d) The ratio of diameter of r/t bars and the slab thickness is 1/8 clause no. =
28. Diagonal tension in beam

a) Is maximum at neutral axis
b) Decreases below neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
c) Increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
d) Remains same
Ans (a) Diagonal tension in beam 1.5 max. at neutral axis
29. High carbon content in steel causes

a) Decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
b) Increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
c) Decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
d) Increases in both tensile strength and ductility
Ans (b) High carbon content in steel cause

Increase in tensile strength

decrease in ductility
Plastic range decrease
Brittle properly will increase
30.Prestressing losses in post –tensioned and pie-tensioned beams are respectively

a) 15% and 20%
b) 20 % and 15 %
c) 15 % and 15 %
d) 20 % and 20 %
Ans (b) Pre stressing losses in:

Post – tensioned beam : 20%
Pre – tensioned beam : 15%
31. At limit state of collapse in shear in case of web-shear cracks , it is assumed that the
concrete cracks when the maximum principal tensile stress exceeds a value of ftequal to
a) 0.25 √
b) 0.20√
c) 0.16√
d) 0.30√
Ans (a) = 0.25√ [L.S.M]

= 0.16√ [W.S.M]
32. Deep beams are designed for

a) Shear force only
b) Bending moment only
c) Both shear force and bending moment
d) Bearing
Ans (b) Deep beams are designed for only bending moment.

33. Design of one –way RC slabs for concentrated load is done by

a) Using pigeaud ‘s moment coefficients
b) Taking slab strip of unit width containing the load
c) Taking slab strip of width effective in resisting the load
d) Taking orthogonal slab strips of unit width containing the load
Ans (a) Design of one-way RC slabs for concentrated load is done by using Pigeaud’s moment
co-efficient.
34. The find defection due to all loads including the effects to temperature creep and
shrinkage and measured from the as cast level of supports, roofs and all other horizontal
members should not exceed
a) Span/350
b) Span/300
c) Span/250
d) Span/200
Ans (c) The final deflection due to all loads including the effect of temperature, creep &
shrinkage & measured from cast level of supports, roof and all other Horizontal member
should not exceed =
35. The assumption that the plane sections normal before bending remain normal after
bending is used
a) Only in working stress method of design
b) Only in limit state method of design
c) In both working
d) Only in ultimate load method of design
Ans (c) The Assumption that the plane section normal before bending remain normal after
bending is used in
working stress
limit state method
Prestressed method

36. The state of the two dimensional stresses acting on a concrete lamina consists of a direct
tensile stress ax= 1.5 N/mm2 and shear stress π =1.20 N/mm2 ,which causes cracking of
concrete. Then the tensile strength of concrete in N/mm2, is
a) 1.50
b) 2.08
c) 2.17
d) 2.29
e) None of the above (HR-AE) (Q-17)
Ans (c) major = + √( )
= + √( )
= 0.75 + 1.415
= 2.165
2.17 N/
37. The following two statements are made with reference to a simply supported under
reinforced RCC beam
I. Failure takes place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded
II. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased beyond yielding of steel
Which reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?
a) Both the statement

b) 1st is true but 2nd is false
c) Both the statements are ture
d) 1stis false but 2nd is true
Ans (d)Under rain forced R.l.C beam

1. Failure take place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yield – False
as in under r/f R.C.C beam the yield of steel come before than failure of concrete.
2. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased beyond yielding of steel.

38. A simply supported prestressed concrete beam is 6 m long and 300 mm wide. Its gross
depth is 600 mm. it is prestressed by horizontal
a) Zero
b) 5.55 N/mm2
c) 11.11 N/mm2
d) 15.68 N/mm2
Ans (c)
[stress at support] = y = 300 mm

=
= 5.555 5.555
[ ]
39. Which of the following deformations are important in case of deep beams when compared
to flexure alone
a) Shear
b) Axial
c) Torsional

d) Bearing
Ans (c) Torsion deformation are important in case of deep beam.
40. The losses in prestress in pre-tensioning system are due to

1. Elastic deformation of concrete
2. Friction
3. Shrinkage and creep of concrete
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 alone
d) 1 and 3
Ans (d) Pre – tensioning system :

2. Shrinkage of concrete
3. Creep of concrete
Post – tensioning system :
1. Friction
3. Shrinkage of concrete
4. Creep of concrete
41. The critical section for two-way shear of footing is at the

a) Face of the column
b) Distance from the column face
c) Distance from the column face
d) Distance from the column face
Ans (c) The vertical section for 2-way shear of footing is at the distance from the column face.

42. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post-tensioned in such a way that no tensile stress
develops at the time of post-tensioning. The distance of the tendon from the nearest face
must be
a) Between and
b) <
c) Between and
d) <
Ans (b) The distance of tendon from the nearest fail must be < d/6
43. An RC short column wit 300 mm x 300 mm square cross section is made of M20 concrete
and has 4 number of 20 mm diameter longitudinal bars of fe 415 steel. It is under the
action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring the refuction in the area of concrete
due to steel bars, the ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the column is
a) 1659 kN
b) 1548 kN
c) 1198 kN
d) 1069 kN
Ans (d) = 0.45 fck + 0.67 Ast

= 0.45 x 20 x [300 x 300 – Ast]
+ 0.67 x 415 x [Ast] = 1148.0 x N
Ast = 4 x ( ) = 1256
= 1060 kN
44. For avoiding the limit state of collages, the safety of RC structures is checked for
appropriate load combinations of dead load (DL) imposed load or live load (LL) wind load
(WL) and earthquake load (EL). Which of the following load combinations is NOT
considered?
a) 0.9DL + 1.5 WL
b) 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL
c) 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL + 1.5 EL
d) 1.2 DL + 1.2 IL + 1.2 WL

Ans (c) In L.S.M, the safety of R.C structure

0.9 DL + 1.5 WL
1.5 DL + 1.5 WL
1.2 DL + 1.2 WL + 1.2 IL
45.The maximum design stress and the area of the concrete stress block at Ultimate Limit
State of flexure in a singly reinforced rectangular section are
a) 0.447 fck and 0.362fckbxu
b) 0.362 fck and 0.447fckbxu
c) 0.67 fck and 0.447fckbxu
d) 0.87 fck and 0.362fckbxu
Ans (c) Max. design stress = 0.67

area of block = x x .67 fckb
= 0.447 fck b
46. The concept of locating neutral axis as a centroidal axis (in a reinforced concrete section
under flexure) is
a) True for WSM and not LSM
b) True for both linear and nonlinear material behaviors
c) True for both elastic and plastic materials
d) True for elastic material only
Ans (a) The concept of neutral axis is valid for WSM & LSM
47. The minimum flexural reinforcement of Fe 250 steel in the slabs according to IS 456: 2000
is
a) 0.0012 times gross area of concrete
b) 0.85/fy times the gross area of concrete
c) 0.4/(0.87fy) times the gross area of concrete
d) 0.6% of the gross area of concrete
Ans (a) Minimum flexural r/f of Fe 250 steel in slopes is 0.0012 times

SOIL CHAPTER - 10
1. The fine grained soil transported by water and deposited at the bottom of lakes is called as
a) Residual soil
b) Lacustrine soil
c) Marine soil
d) Colluvial soil (HR-AE) (Q-35)
Ans (b) Lacustrine soil is the fine grained soil transported by water & deposited at the bottom
of lakes.
2. The ratio between the total volume of voids and the total volume of solids is called
a) Porosity
b) Void fraction
c) Void ratio
d) Solid ratio (HR-AE) (Q-36)
Ans (c)Void ratio =
3. The weight of soil solid grains per unit volume of solids in a soil mass is called
a) Dry density
b) Density
c) Relative density
d) Bulk specific gravity (HR-AE) (Q-37)
Ans (b) Density = [ ]
4. A soil having uniformity coefficient more than 10 is called

a) Uniform
b) Fine
c) Coarse
d) Well graded (HR-AE) (Q-38)
Ans (d) uniformity co-efficient (Cu)
Sand = Cu > 4
Well graded
Gravel = Cu > 6

5. Plasticity index is numerically the difference between liquid limit and

a) Shrinkage limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Plastic limit
d) Consistency limit (HR-AE) (Q-39)
Ans (c) Plastic Index [ ] [ ] [ ]
Shrinkage limit
Plastic limit [IP = WL - WP]
Liquid limit
6. If the hydraulic gradient is unity, then the rate of flow across unit area of soil is called as
a) Coefficient of permeability
b) Coefficient of viscosity
c) Coefficient of hydraulic gradient
d) Coefficient of seepage (HR-AE) (Q-40)
Ans (a) discharge = Velocity x Area
Discharge = K x i x Area
I = hydraulic gradient = 1
k= = co-efficient of permeability
7. The curve showing the relationship between the dry unit weight and the water content of a
soil for given compactive effort is called
a) Compression curve
b) Moisture density curve
c) Settlement curve

d) Porosity curve (HR-AE) (Q-41)

Ans (b)
O.M.C. = Optimum Moisture Content

Where max dry unit weight
 Moisture – density curve
8. A soil has liquid limit of 40 % and plasticity index of 20 %. The plastic limit of the soil will be
a) 20 %
b) 60 %
c) 30 %
d) 40 % (HR-AE) (Q-71)
Ans (a) Liquid limit = 40%
Plastic Index = 20%

[ ] [ ] [ ]
= 40 – 20 = 20%
9. A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of 25 mm and 30 mm, respectively. The area of the
sampler is
a) 24 %
b) 34 %
c) 44 %

d) 54 % (HR-AE) (Q-72)
Ans (c) Ri = inner radii = 25 mm
Ro = outer radii = 30 mm
Area ratio =
= %
10.The change in the vertical stress in the solid mass estimated by Boussinesq’s equation
when Poisson’s ratio of soil changes from 0.3 to 0.5 will be
a) Nil
b) Reduction by 30 %
c) Increase by 50 %
d) Reduction by 20 % (HR-AE) (Q-73)
Ans (a) Vertical stress =
Where ( )
( )
Independent of Poisson’s ratio

11.The predominant mineral responsible for shrinkage and swelling in black cotton soils is
a) Illite
b) Kaolinite
c) Mica
d) Montmorillonite (HR-AE) (Q-74)
Ans (d) The predominant mineral responsible for shrinkage & swelling in black cotton soils is
montmorillonite because of present of Hydrogen bond between them
12.A square pile of section 30 cm x 30 cm and length 10 penetrates a deposit of clay having c =
5 kN/ and the mobilizing factor m = 0.8. What is the load carried by the pile by skin,
friction only?
a) 192 kN
b) 75 kN
c) 60 kN
d) 48 kN (HR-AE) (Q-75)
Ans (d) Skin friction = ̅ As = 0.8 x 5 x [ ]
Where As = surface area of pile (m2) = 4BL

Skin friction = 48 KN
13.Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress gives greater value of stress than that by one
Boussinesq’s formula, when r/z exceeds
a) 1.5
b) 2.5
c) 3.5

d) 4.5 (HR-AE) (Q-76)
Ans (a) Boussinesq’s formula
K
⁄
Where K = ( )
( )
Westergard’s formula
( )
( )
14.In laboratory compaction tests, the optimum moisture content of soil decreases
a) With increase of compaction energy and with decrease of coarse grains in the soil
b) With decrease of compaction energy and with increase of coarse grains in the soil
c) With increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil
d) With decrease of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil
(HR-AE) (Q-77)

Ans (c)
The OMC of soil decreases with increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in
the soil.
15.A soil has discharge velocity of 5 x m/s and a void ratio of0.50. Its seepage velocity
will be
a) 15 x m/s
b) 10 x m/s
c) 20 x m/s
d) 30 x m/s (HR-AE) (Q-78)
Ans (a) Seepage velocity =
𝜂=
⁄
m/s

BM CHAPTER - 11
1. The type of surface obtained when a rock is broken is known as
a) Cleavage
b) Pisolitic
c) Fracture
Ans (c) The type of surface obtained when a rock is broken is known as fracture.
2. Jumbo bags of cement contains ___________ kg of cement.

a) 200
b) 300
c) 500
Ans (d) Jumbo bag = 1000 kg of cement
3. The type of metamorphism which is caused mainly due to pressure is known as

a) Cataclastic Metamorphism
b) Dynamo thermal
c) Plutonic Metamorphism
Ans (c) The type of meta metamorphism which is caused mainly due t pressure is known as
plutonic metamorphism.
4. Which one is an example of monomineralic rock

a) Basalt
b) Quartz sand
c) Granite
Ans (b) Quartz sand is e.g. of mono minerallii rock.

5. The type of rock in which different sized rounded grains are cemented by some binding
material is known as
a) Pisolitic
b) Foliated
c) Conglomerate
Ans (c) The type of rock in which different sized rounded grains are cemented by some binding
material called conglomerate.
6. When a tree has received shock or injury during its young age then the type of defect
occur in it is known as
a) Burls
b) Callus
c) Upsets
Ans (a) When a tree has received shock or injury during young age then the type of defect
occur in it is known as Burls
7. Out of the following defects caused in timber which one is not caused due to seasoning
a) Wind cracks
b) Bow
c) Check
Ans (a) Defect due to seasoning

Bow check
wrap twist
8. During seasoning of timber which one of the following gets evaporated

a) Free moisture
b) Bound moisture
c) Both a & b

Ans (a)
Free moisture
[Seasoning of timber gets
evaporate free moisture ]
Bound moisture
9. In the process of brick manufacturing the step in which the clay is brought to a proper
degree of hardness so that it can be moulded easily is known as
a) Blending
b) Unsoiling
c) Tempering
Ans (c) tempering – proper degree of hardness
10. The process of grinding clay with water and making it plastic is known as
a) Pugging
b) Moulding
c) Weathering
Ans (a) Pugging process of grinding clay with water & making it plastic.
11. The temperature at which alumina and sand binds together resulting in increase of
strength and density of brick is
a) 650o C
b) 1100o C
c) 1500o C
Ans (b) The temperature at which alumina & sand binds together resulting in increase in
strength & density of brick is C

12. For a good quality brick minimum required crushing strength should be
a) 5.50 N/mm2
b) 6.50 N/mm2
c) 7.50N/mm2
Ans (a) Minimum crushing strength = 5.5 N/
13. Class A brick should have crushing strength ranging

a) 7 – 14 N/mm2
b) 14 - 21N/mm2
c) 21 - 28N/mm2
Ans (a) Class A brick crushing strength ranging 7-14 N/
14. Efflorescence in brick is mainly due to presence of

a) Excess lime
b) Soluble chemicals
c) Soluble salts
Ans (c) Efflorescence in brick is mainly due to pressure of soluble salt.
15.When a portion of brick is cut in such a manner that one of its longer face remains uncut is
known as
a) Header
b) Closer
c) Stretcher
Ans (b)
Closer

16. When a portion of brick is cut across the width then it is known as
a) Bat
b) Quains
c) Bed
d) none of the above (HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-78)
Ans (a) When a position of brick is cut across the width – Bat
17. The indentation made on the top of a brick is known as

a) Frog
b) Sill
c) Perpend
Ans (a)
The indentation made on the top of a brick is known as Frog.
18. Triangular shaped masonry work provided at the ends of a sloped roof is known as
a) Coping
b) Corbel
c) Gable
Ans (c) Triangular shaped masonry work provided at ends of sloped roof is gable.

19. An isolated vertical member made out of masonry work is known as

a) Pier
b) Column
c) Buttress
Ans (b) Column
20.The window provided on the sloping roof of a building is called as

a) Dormer window
b) Clear storey window
c) Bay window
d) Sky light window (HR-AE) (Q-49)
Ans - (d) The window provided on the sloping roof of a building is called as sky light window.
21.Frogs are made in the bricks

a) To reduce weight of the bricks
b) To indicate top side of bricks
c) In indicate name of manufacturer
d) To form a key for holding mortar (HR-AE) (Q-50)
Ans (d) Frogs are made in the bricks to form a key for holding mortar and to indicate name of
manufacturer but which is not primary concern.
22.To protect the top of a parapet wall from the action of rain water, it is provided with a
special course known as
a) Drip course
b) String course
c) Coping
d) Cornice (HR-AE) (Q-51)
Ans (c) To protect the top of a parapet wall from action of rain water, it is provided with a
special course known as coping

23. Granite is an
a) Igneous rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Sedimentary rock
d) All the above
Ans (a) Granite is igneous rock.
24. Refractory bricks resist

a) High temperature
b) Chemical action
c) Dampness
d) All the above
Ans (d) Refractory bricks resists

High temperature
chemical action
dampness
25. Seasoning of timber is done for

a) Increasing moisture content
b) Decreasing moisture content
c) Increasing strength of timber
d) Decreasing strength of timber
Ans (b) Seasoning of timber is done for decreasing moisture content.

26. Cast iron is used for

a) Structural works in beams
b) Small sized water pipes
c) Columns and struts
d) A & c
Ans (b) Cost iron is brittle in nature. It is used in large size water pipes.
27. Rapid hardening cement contains

a) Tri-calcium silicate
b) Tri – calcium aluminate
c) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
d) Di-calcium silicate
Ans (a) Rapid hardening cement contains S Tri-calcium Silicate.
28. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because

a) Its bearing capacity is low
b) Its permeability is uncertain
c) Its particles are cohesive
d) It undergoes volumetric changes due to changes in moisture content
Ans (d) Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundation because of large shrinkage & swellings.
29. A cavity wall is generally provided for

a) Heat insulation
b) Sound insulation
c) Prevention of dampness
d) All the above
Ans (d) Cavity wall is generally provided for that insulation, sound insulation and prevention of
dampness.

30. Weep holes are provide in retaining walls and breast walls
a) To drain off the water from the filling
b) To ventilate the stone masonry
c) To reduce the weight of the earth retained
d) To increase the compaction of the earth retained
Ans (a) Weep holes provided in retaining walls 7 breast walls to drain off water from the filling.
31.The height of dry stone masonry retaining walls should not be more than
a) 4 m
b) 6 m
c) 8 m
d) 10 m (HR-AE) (Q-34)
Ans (b) The height of dry stone masonry retaining wall should not be more than 6 m.

SOM CHAPTER – 12
1. Hinged support has __________ moments.
a) No
b) One
c) Two
Ans (a)
Vertical M=0
Reaction
Horizontal
Reaction
Hinged support has no moments.
2. Roller support has ___________ reaction.

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
Ans (a)
Roller
Vertical Reaction -
3. The point where the whole mass of a body is assumed to act or concentrate is known as
__________ of a body.
a) Centre of gravity
b) Centre of mass
c) Centre of Lamina
Ans (b) The point where the whole mass of a body is assumed to art or concentrate is known
as center of mass of a body.
E.g.

COM
Square plate
a
4. The centroid of a semi circular arc of radius D/2 is

a) ̅ ̅
b) ̅ ̅
c) ̅ ̅
Ans (a,b) Case I
Centroid
̅ = 0, ̅ =
Case II
x= ,y=o
O C

5. The centroid and centre of mass coincide if the _________ is uniform throughout the
body.
a) Density
b) Mass
c) Cross sectional area
Ans (a) Centroid and center of mass coincide it the Density is uniform throughout the body.
6. A propped cantilever of span L is subjected to a moment +M at the propped end, the

moment at the fixed end will be
a) – M/2
b) M/2
c) M
Ans (b) A propped cantilever of span L
M/2
B
A
anticlockwise M
anticlockwise
The nature of moment applied at B is same as nature of moment induce at A
7. A propped cantilever of span L is subjected to a moment +M at the propped end, the

reaction at the fixed end will be
a) M/L
b) 3M/2L
c) 2M/3L
Ans (b)

A B
e
M
A B
HR
Take moment about A
M+ - xl=0
= l =
M
+ =0 =
8. A beam fixed at both side and having a length of L is subjected to a central load W. The
support moments will be
a) – WL/8
b) – WL/12
c) – WL/16
Ans (a)
A B
as we know at fixed support

=0, =0

By area moment theorem the area of B.M.D is the change of slope.
= due to
B.M.D symmetry
Due to support
moment
Due to Point load in
simple supported
Theorem I of area moment Say

- = area of B.M.D
0–0= x x L + [- x L]
L= =
The support moment will be
9. A beam fixed at both side and having a length of L is subjected to uniformly distributed
load ‘w’, the support moment will be
a)
b)
c)
d) none of the above (HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-12)

Ans (a)
W
A B
= due to
symmetry
B.M.D
+
Due to support moment
Due to Point load in
simple supported
Theorem I of area – moment say

- =* +-[ ]
0 0
10. A beam fixed at both side and having a length of L is subjected to a central load W at a
distance ‘x’ from left end support and ‘y’ from right end support. The fixed end moment at
left support will be
a) – Wab2/I2
b) – Wa2b/I2
c) – Wa2b2/I2
Ans (a)
x y
a b
11. A beam fixed at both sides and having a span L is subjected to load W at its centre, the
deflection at centre will be
a) WI2/192EI
b) WI2/182EI
c) WI2/162EI

Ans (d)
w
Apply area moment theorem II, i.e

[Deflection] = Moment of an area b/w 2 pts
+
Due to support moment
Deflection due to simple ( ) upward
support with w
= ( ) downward
=* + =
net deflection = =* +
=* +
S= where given False
12. A continuous beam of two equal span L and having same section throughout is subjected
to a load W at the centres of two span. The bending moment at the central support will be
a) WL/4
b) 3WI/2
c) 3WI/16
Ans (c)
W B W
A
l l

Are moment distribution method

Step 1 : Distribution factor
BA I/L =
BC I/L
Step 2 : fixed end moment :

= =
= =
B C
1 0.5 0.5 1
Release
0 0
13. Strain energy due to bending moment in a member is given by

a) ∫
b) ∫
c) ∫
Ans (a) A strain Energy due to B.M in a member is given by

=∫
14. A cantilever beam is subjected to a linearly varying load of 0 at the free end to w at the
support. The deflection at the free end is given by
a) WI4/30EI
b) WI4/15EI
c) WI4/20EI

Ans (a)
wkN/m
o
x
l
deflection at free end = ?
use double integration method
* +
M=* +x
M=
EI = Integrate both sides
EI = + 1
EI y = + Gx + 2
end boundary condition:
at y = 0 at x = e
=0 at x = e
EI x 0 = +G =
EI (0) = - +
= - =
EI y = + x+

y=? at x = 0
y= Ans
15.Stresses which are normal to the plane on which they act are called
a) Normal stresses
b) Principle stresses
c) Direct stresses
Ans (a) Stresses which are normal to the plane on which they out are called Normal stress.
16. Strain is a measure of the _________ produced in the member by the __________.
a) Deformation, Load
b) Load, Deformation
c) Stress, Force
Ans (a) Strain is a measure of the deformation produced in the member by the load.
17. Strain is proportional to stress within ____________

a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Shrinkage limit
Ans (a) Strain in proportional to stress within Elastic limit.
18.The capacity for being drawn out plastically before breaking

a) Malleability
b) Durability
c) Ductility
Ans (c) The capacity for being drain out plastically before breakingcalled Ductility.

19.Near a free boundary the shear stress at any cross section must act in a direction
________ to the boundary.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Inclined
Ans (a) Near a free boundary the shear stress at any cross section must are in a direction
parallel to the boundary.
20. In simple tension, shear stress is equal to __________ the applied stress.
a) Half
b) One
c) Twice
d) None of above (HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-38)
Ans (a) In a simple tension, shear stress is equal to Half applied stress.
=0
=0
[mohr circle]
Note : In Question printing error

(shear stress)max. x applied stress

21. _____________ are the maximum and minimum of the normal stresses.
a) Principle stresses
b) Direct stresses
c) Longitudinal stresses
Ans (a) Principle stresses are maximum and minimum of the Normal stresses.
22. Maximum shear stress is ___________ the algebraic difference between the principal
stresses.
a) ½
b) 1
c) 2
Ans (a) Maximum shear stress is ½ the algebraic difference b/w the principle stresses.
23. On a principal plane, the value of shear will be

a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinity
Ans (a) On a principle plane, the value of shear will be zero.
24. The ratio of fluid pressure to volumetric strain is known as

a) Bulk modulus
b) Poisson’s ratio
c) Volumetric Elongation

Ans (a) Bulk modulus =
25.The relation between young’s modulus and bulk modulus is

a) E = 3K (1 – 2V)
b) 3E = 2K (1 – V)
c) E = K (1 – 2V)/2
Ans (a) a = E = 3 K [1 – 2 r]
E = Elasticity modulus
K = Bulk modulus
r = Poision’s ratio
26. The moment of inertia about the axis through the centroid is the __________.
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Average
Ans (a) The moment of inertia about the axis through the centroid is the minimum
Area
(A)
x x
y y
= +
=0
= = minimum

27.A body in which the particles change their position under the action of any external force
is called as
a) Deformable body
b) Rigid body
c) Plastic body
Ans (a) A Body in which the particles change their position under the action of any external
force is called as deformable Body.
28.A block is resting on an inclined plane of 25o. A force of 25 kN acts at 50o with the plane.
Determine vertical component of force.
a) 24.12
b) 25
c) 26.72
Ans (a)
Vertical component = 25 sin = 24.12 KN
29. A cantilever beam of length 5 m is subjected to a point load of 60 kN at the free end.
Determine the moment at the cantilever support if the load is inclined at 45o.
a) 212.13 kN
b) 343.25 kN
c) 432.63 kN
Ans (a)

moment at the cantilever support = 60 x sin x 5 = 212.13 KNm
30. A force F = 3i + j – 6k acts at a point A. Position vector A is 3i + 5j – 7k. What will be the
moment about origin ‘O’. The force is in Newton and the position vector is in m.
a) 12.62 Nm
b) 26.12 Nm
c) 62.12 Nm
Ans (b) moment = force. displacement

= [3i + j + 6k] [ 3i + 5j -7k]
=| |
= 23 + 3 + 12
F=
= 26.11 Nm
31. A particle is said to be in equilibrium when the resultant of all the forces acting on it is
____________
a) Zero
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
Ans (a) A particle is said to be equilibrium when the resultant of all the force acting on it is
zero.

32. The distance between the moment centre and the line of action of the force is called as
a) Principal force
b) Polygon of force
c) Arm of the force
Ans (c) The distance b/w the moment enter and the line of action of the fone is called Arm of
the tone.
33. Parallelogram law is used to determine the resultant of ___________ concurrent coplanar
forces
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Ans (a) Parallelogram law is used to determine the resultant of two con-current co-planar
forces.
& are side of parallelogram

= resultant = diagonal of parallelogram
34. In a concurrent force system __________ theorem is useful for finding the position of the
resultant of parallel forces.
a) Varignon’s
b) Newton’s
c) Couple’s
Ans (a) An con-current force system. Varignon’s theorem is useful for finding the position of
resultant of parallel force.

35.A body is in _____________ if it is either at rest or in moving with a uniform velocity.

a) Equilibrium
b) Motion
c) Inertia
Ans (a) A body is in equilibrium if it is either at rest or in moving with a uniform velocity.
36.The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a moment will be a
a) Rectangle
b) Triangle
c) Parabola
d) Cubic parabola (HR-AE) (Q-97)
Ans (a) The moment diagram
Bending moment diagram is rectangular is shape.
37.If all the dimensions of a bar are increased in the proportion n:1, the proportion with
which the maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase
in the ratio
a) 1:n
b) n:1
c) 1:
d) 1 :
Ans (e) Stress = =

Where S = unit weight
= density

Stress = =
i.e. it is independent of area only depend on length.
If all dimension are increased n times then stress increased times
38. Simple bending equation is

a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans (c) = =
It is equation for bending stress (F)
39. The shear stress, at any section of a shaft is maximum
a) At the center of the section
b) At a distance r/2 from the center
c) At the top of the surface
d) At a distance ⁄ r from the center
Ans (c) The shear stress is maximum at outer surface in shaft.

40. If a solid shaft is subjected to a torque T at its end such that the maximum shear stress
does not exceed f ,the diameter of the shaft will be
a)
b) √
c) √
d)
Ans (c) = =
D=( )
41. In a tension test the yield stress is 30 N/mm2 , the octahedral shear stressat the point is
a) 10 N/mm2
b) 15 N/mm2
c) 20 N/mm2
d) 25 N/mm2
Ans (a)
42. For a channel section the shear center lies at a distance of

a)
b)
c)
d)
e) None of the above

(d,b and t are the total depth of the section, width of the flange and common thickness
of flange and web respectively) (HR-PH-AE) (Q-90)
Ans (c)
e=
43. For a given material Young’s modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2.
The value of poisson’s ratio is
a) 0.15
b) 0.20
c) 0.35
d) 0.40
Ans (e) E = 2G [1 + ]
200 = 2 x 80 [1 + ]
= 1.25 = 1 +
= 1.25 – 1 = 0.25
= 0.25

STRUCTURE CHAPTER - 13
1. For a rigid body in two dimensions and in equilibrium which of the following conditions it
should satisfy
a) ∑ ,∑
b) ∑ ,∑
c) Both a & b
None of the above (HR-AE-PAPER-1) (Q-1)
Ans (c) For a rigid body in 2 – b in an equilibrium

M = 0, V = 0, H = 0
Both F = 0, H = 0 and V = 0, M = 0
2. For a plane truss if the number of members is equal to M, number of joints are R, then for
this truss to be determinate
a) 2J = M + R
b) J = M + R
c) 3J = M + 2R
Ans (a) For plane truss, to be determinate

2j = M + R where
j = joints in pin joint member
M = no. of members
R = Reaction (External)
e.g.
Here j = 5
M=7
R=3
L.H.S R.H.S
5 X 2 = 10 7 + 3 = 10
L.H.S R.H.S

3. Castigliano theorem is applicable

a) When the system behaves elastically
b) Only when principles of suspension is valid
c) For all statically determine structure
Ans (a) Castiglione theorem is applicable when the system behave elastically.
4. The theorem of three moments expressed the condition of

a) Equilibrium of forces
b) Slope compatibility
c) Maxwell’s Reciprocal relation
Ans (b) The theorem of 3 moments expressed the condition of slope compatibility.
5. Slope deflection method is used to solve

a) Statically Determinate Beam
b) Pin – Jointed Beam
c) Statically Indeterminate Beam
Ans (c) Slope deflection is used to solve statically indeterminate Beam.
6. Slope deflection method is used to analyze

a) Fixed beam
b) Continuous beam
c) Both a & b
Ans (c) Slope deflection method is used to analyze for fixed and continuous Beam.
7. Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives in the actual beam
a) Deflection
b) Slope
c) Shear

Ans (a) Shear force at any section in a conjugate beam given in the actual beam is slope.
Bending momentat any section in a conjugate beam given in the actual beam is deflection.
8. The moment area theorems in the structural analysis fall in the category of
a) Displacement Method
b) Stiffness Method
c) Force Method
Ans (c) Stiffness method / Displacement

Moment distribution method
deflection method
flexibility method / force method
SOM (Moment area theorem)
9. The theorem of three moments expressed the condition of

a) Support moment
b) Sheer force
c) Mid span moment
Ans (a) The theorem of 3 moment expressed the condition of support moment.
10. Maxwell – Betti Reciprocal theorem is based on

a) Principle of superposition
b) Principle of least work
c) Muller – Breslau principle
Ans (a) Maxwell – Betti – Reciprocal theorem is based on principle of superposition.
11.Stiffness is defined as
a) The value of moment to be applied to an end to cause slope of one radian.
b) Modulus of Rigidity
c) The ratio of moment produced at far end to the applied moment at the end.

Ans (a) Stiffness is defined as the value of moment to be applied to an end of curve slope of
one Radian e.g.
from area-moment theorem =

Stiffness = =( )
12. Carry over of a prismatic member is equal to ________ using moment distribution
connection.
a) Half (1/2)
b) One (1)
c) One third (1/3)
Ans (b)
Carry over of a prismatic member is equal to one * +
A B C
13. Distribution factor for an overhanging beam for cantilever portion is

a) Zero
b) Half
c) One
Ans (a) Distribution factor for an over hanging beam for cantilever position is zero i.e.
CD distribution factor = 0
A B C D

14. The rotational stiffness of a cantilever beam at its free end is

a) EI/L
b) 8EI/L
c) Zero
Ans (a) Rotational stiffness of a cantilever beam at its free end is
M
=1
l
Q=
=K=
15.In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members
meeting at any joint is always
a) Zero
b) Less than 1
c) 1
d) Greater than 1 (HR-AE) (Q-100)
Ans (c) In moment distribution the sum of distribution factor are always –
(distribution factor)1 = ∑
(distribution factor)2 = ∑
∑
Sum of distribution factor is = ∑ ∑
16.The principle of superposition states that the total deflection of a structure under different
sets of load is equal to the sum of deflections under each set of loads acting separately on
the structure if the loads are within,
a) Elastic limit
b) Limit state
c) Proportionally limit without bucking

d) Elastic limit including bucking

Ans (a) Principle of super position valid with in Elastic limit.
17. The curvature at any point along the curve representing the deformed shape of a beam is
given by
a) = ⁄
[ ]
b) = ⁄
[ ( ) ]
c) = ⁄
[ ]
d) =
[ ]
e) None of the above (HR-PH-AE) (Q – 54)
Ans (c) The curvature at any point along the curve representing the deformed shape of a beam
is = ⁄
[ ]
18. If a cantilever beam of span L and flexural rigidly EI carries a moment M concentrated at
the free end, the deflection at the end will be,
a)
b)
c)
d)

Ans (d)
Deflection = * + =
19. If a cantilever beam of length L and flexural rigidity EI is carrying a concentrated load P at
the free end, the total strain energy will be,
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans (c) Total strain Energy = P
= xPx( )=
[Formula valid for point load, not for uniform distributed load]
20. A uniform simply supported beam is subjected to a clock wise moment M at the left end.
The moment required at the right end of the
a) 2M
b) M
c) M/2
d) M/3

Ans (c)
21. The fixed end moment MFAB for the beam shown below is
a) Zero
b) M/2
c) M/4
d) M/8
Ans (c)
22. The moment required to rotate the near end of a prismatic beam through unit angle,
without translation the far end being fixed is
a) EI/L
b) 2EI/L
c) 3EI/L
d) 4EI/L
Ans (a)

Slope = Area of B.M.D

= =
Stiffness =
23. The flexibility coefficient for shaft of length L and torsional rigidity GJ under torsion at
mid-point is
a) L2/6GJ
b) L/2GJ
c) L/3GJ
d) L/GJ
Ans (d) Flexibility co-efficient =
= T=1
f= =
24. Generally the actions in a grid member are.

a) Axial force, twisting moment and bending moment
b) Shear force twisting moment and bending moment
c) Axial force, shear force and bending moment
d) Shear force and bi-axial bending moment
Ans (d) Actions in a grid member are designed for shear force bi – axial bending moment.
25. The number of unknowns to be determined in the stiffness method is equal to

a) Static indeterminacy
b) Kinematic indeterminacy
c) Sum of static and kinematic indeterminacy
d) Maximum of static indeterminacy and kinematic indeterminacy

Ans (b) No, of unknowns to be determined in the stiffness method is equal to ie kinematic
indeterminacy.
26. The force required to produce a unit translation displacement (without rotation) of one-
third point of a fixed beam of span L and of uniform flexural rigidity EI is
a) 729EI/2L3
b) 729EI/L3
c) 724EI/L3
d) 724EI/3L3
Ans (a)
F= + = L/3, = L/3
F= + =
Here = 1 i.e =
Using concept
27.The area of the influence line diagram for the fixed end moment of a fixed beam of span L
is
a) L2/8
b) L2/12
c) L2/16
d) L2/24

e) None of the above (HR-PH-AE - 7) (Q - 68)
Ans (a) Area =
28. A three-hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a uniform load w per unit horizontal length
the maximum bending moment is
a) wL2/4
b) wL2/8
c) wL2/12
d) zero
e) None of the above (HR-PH-AE - 7) (Q - 69)
Ans (d) Max. B.M will U.D.L w is zero

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HARYANA

i. Foundation is being Dug

2. Latest start of an activity is always

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Ans (c) In transition sewer

The continuity of sewer is maintained at the crown of the sewers.

3. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by the

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 3

4. Non disposal of solid waste may cause the spread of

5. Sewage sickness occurs when

7. Which of the following principal types of reactor is related to trickling filler?

Type reactor Application

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 4

11.The trap used for a water closet is called

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 5

d) Anti siphon trap (HR-AE) (Q-68)

MPN – Most probable number used to indicate presence of coliform.

13.Air binding may occur in

Ans (b) Problem occurs in Rapid filter are

(i) Air binding

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 6

Ans (c) Aquifers = both porosity and permeability

Aquifuges = neither porosity nor permeability

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 7

17.Water present in an artesian aquifer is usually

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 8

Ans (a) Pressure Head of water = 80 m

Discharge = velocity x area

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 9

5. The ratio of inertia force and viscous force is called as

Ans (a) Reynold’s number =

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 10

Ans (c) Shear velocity √

Dimension of shear velocity = LT – 1

8. A pumped storage plant is a

9. For a stream function, ϕ = - , the magnitude of velocity at the point (2,1) is

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Ans (a) Stream function at (2, 1)

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Ans (c) Kinematic viscosity = 1 centi stoke

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 13

Ans (a) S = Bed slope = 0.0009

discharge = 30 cumec = 30 m3/s

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16.Storage of water by impounding is required when

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 15

Ans (a) The Highest point on a carriage way is known crown

2. The widening of road is not required when its radius will be

3. Abrasion test is conducted to find

HEAD OFFICE SCO-188-189-190, LEVEL 1-4, SECTOR-34A CHANDIGARH. 9023791111/9878791111 Page 16

Ans (d) Viscosity test find the resistance to flow.

5. Sub base course is provided not to improve

Ans (b) Sub – base course is provide to improve.

a. Bearing capacity of sub grade.

Ans (b) IRC, Gradient for Roads

Terrain Ruling gradient Limiting gradient Experiment gradient

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7. A transition curve is introduced to change gradually the

Ans (d) length of transition curve (maximum of them)

For hilly terrain

From option answer will be 72 m as 89 m is not present in the option.

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