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Q01 Which of the following statement is false

d. Specialist staff would normally be appointed to the HQ by national authorities on deployment


Wrong

Q02 Which of the following is not part of the Personal Staff Group?
b. Operations Officer

Q03 Which of the following is not an essential personal quality for staff.
b. Determination

Q04 Within a formation HQ, the Deputy Commander is the Commander’s principal staff officer?
False

Q05 Advisors are a critical component to a commander’s HQ, and are located within the Specialist Staff Group?
False

Q06 Army Succession Planning addresses gaps between the current competencies and future needs
True

Q07 Which of the following positions is NOT planned for through the Army Succession Plan?
a. Company Commander
WRONG

Q08 Army Succession Planning determines your standing on your Branch/Regiment/Corps Merit List
True

Q09 Who finalizes the list for Army wide appointments?


b. ASP Board

Q10 What are the four pillars of PD?


c. Education, Training, Experience, Self-development

Q11 Which of the following statement is true?


a. UER docket contains the following forms: CF 741A, 741B, 741C 741D.
WRONG

Q12 Members are responsible to update Monitor Mass at least once monthly.
False

Q13 If you want to record employment history in a UER you would use the Blue sheet
False

Q14 Employee Member Access Application (EMMA) is one programme, among many, that draws required
information from People Soft.
True

Q15 Which statement is incorrect.


b. Form CF 743 D is red
WRONG

Q16 The two Tiers of the PRV process are:


a. Annual Readiness Verification, and Mission Specific Readiness
WRONG
Q17 Which statement best defines the process of Reintergration
d. The process by which CF members return from a deployment to every day roles and activities at personal,
domestic, and organizational levels
Q18 PRV is conducted in two tiers each consisting of three parts
False

Q19 The Personnel Readiness Verification (PRV) process applies to Regular Force members only.
False

Q20 A readiness item status of RED in the PRV means the item requires more that 60 days to complete.
False

Q21 A CO is required to consult with the JAG, and report EVERY incident of sexual misconduct to both the military
police and the Director Military Careers Administration.
True

Q22 If you are visiting an outside unit in the performance of your duties, must you always seek an audience with the
officer in command of that visited unit?
True

Q23 A CO must personal retain all of the following duties, EXCEPT:


b. matters of routine or minor administration

Q24 As a CO, it is essential that you issue a set of Standing Orders.


True

Q25 The Army Learning Process (ALP) is broken down into four stages . They are:
c. Report, Analyze, Direct, Implement

Q26 Which statement best describes the Direct Stage of the ALP?
a. Army leadership are presented with the Plans of Action to address the KLI that have been assigned as their
responsibility.

Q27 A Post Exercise Report - provides an initial rapid analysis and report of an operation, test, trial, evaluation or
exercise.
False

Q28 After Action Reviews are normally conducted for platoon/troop level exercises and higher
False

Q29 The organization within LFDTS that supports the ALP is the Army Lessons Learned Centre (ALLC)
True

Q30 Who does the IMO typically work for in a formation HQ?
a. COS

Q31 At a unit or HQ, who performs security audits and monitoring functions including risk assessment?
d. ISSO

Q32 The CIC, Int Centre, Ops Centre and Plan Centre only have to appoint a SSIM if this is deemed necessary by
the responsible staff for that centre
False

Q33 Which one is the correct Security Classification/Designation?


a. Top Secret .... An Op Order for an upcoming defensive operation in-theatre

Q34 Who has the responsibility to protect information?


b. Everyone

Q35 In theory, collaboration is easier with ACIMS because info is stored centrally, and everyone working on a project
can view the required info
True

Q36 The four pillars of the Capability Development Continuum are


c. Conceive, Design, Build and Manage
Q37 Which is not a function performed by Director of Land Requirements (DLR)
d. Maintain scientific and technological awareness
WRONG

Q38 The Capability Development Record (CDR) is the mechanism through with COS Land Strat conducts and
records progressive work through the Army CD Process
True

Q39 The Scientific Advisor and Strategic Analyst, conducts research and analysis on national and international
strategic and scientific topics.
True

Q40 The deliverable within the CD Pillar Conceive are: the Statement of Operational Requirement (SOR), and the
preliminary PRICIE+G analysis.
False

Q41 In which category of the PRICIE + G process will you consider Battle Task Standards?
c.Concept and Doctrine

Q42 Which is not a category of the PRICIE + G process?


a. Evaluation and Validation

Q43 Director Land Force Requirements (DLFR), is mandated to establish and maintain a balanced combat capable
general purpose army, designed to carry out tasks in support of Canada's defence policy objectives.
False

Q44 Pillar 4, within the Capability Development Process, is Manage.


True

Q45 The process by which military forces are assembled, equipped, trained, certified and deployed to meet a force
employment requirement fall under the Personnel and Leadership category within the PRICIE + G process?
False

Q46 Which is not Material Authorization Document (MAD) used in the CF Supply System?
a. Unit Movement Staff Tables

Q47 Material Acquisition Requests (MARs) provide CF bases, stations and units with the authority to demand, issue
and use specified materiel
False

Q48 If CF personnel provide a suggestion or innovation for improvement of operations of any federal department or
agency, they may be eligible for a Suggestion or Merit Award (SA or MA)?
False

Q49 Technical Failure Reports (TFRs) are only used within the Land Equipment System (LEMS).
True

Q50 Which is not a purpose of a UCR?


b. Identifies operational requirements for equipment or construction that requires more timely approval than the
standard approval and acquisition procedures can provide.