Académique Documents
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Reproductive
Questions
EMBRYOLOGY
1. Place a checkmark in the appropriate column for the embryologic origin of the organs. (p 595)
Embryologic
Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm
Derivative
Adenohypophysis
Muscle
Brain
Wall of gut tube
PNS
Bone
Kidneys
Oligodendrocytes
Spleen
2. What symptoms might a newborn suffering from neonatal abstinence syndrome display? (p 597)
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3. What two structures does the urachus connect? What two structures does the vitelline duct connect?
What are the clinical consequences of either of these ducts failing to close? (p 600)
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4. Describe the genetic signal that directs differentiation along the male pathway rather than the female
(default) pathway, naming specific cell types and factors. (p 604) __________________________
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ANATOMY
5. Describe the venous drainage flow from the left ovary/testicle. Describe the venous drainage flow
from the right ovary/testicle. To which lymph nodes do these structures drain? (p 606)
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6. On which side are varicoceles more common and why? (p 606) ___________________________
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7. Match the female reproductive system ligament to the structures it connects. (p 607)
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10. Which cells in the male reproductive tract secrete inhibin? Which secrete testosterone? (p 610)
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PHYSIOLOGY
11. What are the three major forms of estrogen? How do they compare in potency? (p 611) ________
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12. What are the three major sources of estrogens? (p 611) _________________________________
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15. What are the structural causes of abnormal uterine bleeding? (p 614) ________________________
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17. Where is hCG synthesized? When is hCG first detectable in the blood? In the urine? (p 614)
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18. In what pathologic states can hCG levels be elevated? (p 614) ____________________________
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21. What are the three major forms of androgens? How do they compare in potency? (p 617) _______
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PATHOLOGY
23. Klinefelter syndrome is associated with which karyotype? What are the clinical findings? (p 620)
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24. Turner syndrome is associated with which karyotype? What are the clinical findings? (p 620) ____
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25. In the chart, indicate whether the lab findings are elevated, decreased, or normal (p 621)
Diagnosis LH Testosterone
Defective androgen receptor
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Hypergonadotropic
hypogonadism
Testosterone-secreting tumor or
exogenous steroids
26. Define the following terms and list the risk factors. (p 623)
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27. What are the most common risk factors for ectopic pregnancy? (p 624) _____________________
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28. What are the risk factors for preeclampsia/eclampsia? (p 625) ____________________________
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30. Rank the incidence of gynecologic tumors in the United States from most common to least common:
cervical, endometrial, and ovarian. Then rank the prognosis of these tumors from worst to best.
(p 625) ________________________________________________________________________
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31. A 68-year-old female patient presents with porcelain-white plaques on her vulva with a red border.
What is her most likely diagnosis, and what disease could follow in later years? (p 626) ___________
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32. Match these gynecologic conditions with their associated findings. (pp 622, 624-629)
_____ A. Cervical carcinoma in situ 1. Too little amniotic fluid
_____ B. Choriocarcinoma 2. Too much amniotic fluid
_____ C. Dysgerminoma 3. Call-Exner bodies
_____ D. Endometriosis 4. Chocolate cysts
_____ E. Granulosa cell tumor 5. Dermoid cyst
_____ F. Krukenberg tumor 6. HPV types 16 and 18
_____ G. Mature cystic teratoma 7. Increased AFP level
_____ H. Oligohydramnios 8. Increased CA 125 level
_____ I. Ovarian cancer 9. Increased hCG level
_____ J. Polyhydramnios 10. Increased hCG and LDH levels
_____ K. Yolk sac tumor 11. Signet cells
33. What hormonal changes occur in polycystic ovarian syndrome? (p 627) ____________________
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34. Match these breast tumors with their associated diagnostic findings. (pp 631-632)
_____ A. Ductal carcinoma in situ 1. Bilateral
_____ B. Fibroadenoma 2. Ductal atypia
_____ C. Inflammatory carcinoma 3. Eczematous patches on nipple
_____ D. Intraductal papilloma 4. Hard mass with sharp margins
_____ E. Invasive ductal carcinoma 5. Increased tenderness prior to menstruation
_____ F. Invasive lobular carcinoma 6. Nipple discharge; benign
_____ G. Paget disease of breast 7. Peau d’orange
35. Match these testicular conditions with their associated diagnostic findings. (pp 633-634)
_____ A. Acquired hydrocele 1. Androblastoma
_____ B. Choriocarcinoma 2. Associated with lack of circumcision
_____ C. Leydig cell tumor 3. Dilated epididymal duct
_____ D. Seminoma 4. Dilated vein in pampiniform plexus
_____ E. Sertoli cell tumor 5. Increased fluid around testicle
_____ F. Spermatocele 6. Increased hCG level
_____ G. Squamous cell carcinoma 7. Most common testicular tumor
_____ H. Testicular lymphoma 8. Most common testicular tumor in older men
_____ I. Varicocele 9. Reinke crystals
_____ J. Yolk sac tumor 10. Schiller-Duval bodies
36. Why is benign prostatic hyperplasia more likely to cause urinary retention than prostatic
adenocarcinoma? (p 635) _________________________________________________________
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PHARMACOLOGY
38. Continuous leuprolide has _______________ (agonist/antagonist) properties, whereas pulsatile
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42. In which patients are oral contraceptive pills contraindicated? (p 638) _______________________
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43. What drugs are commonly used to treat BPH? (p 639) ____________________________________
44. What toxicities are associated with sildenafil, vardenafil, and tadalafil? Which class of heart
medications should these never be combined with? (p 639) ______________________________
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Answers
EMBRYOLOGY
1.
Embryologic
Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm
Derivative
Adenohypophysis √
Muscle √
Brain √
Wall of gut tube √
PNS √
Bone √
Kidneys √
Oligodendrocytes √
Spleen √
3. The urachus connects the bladder and the yolk sac; the vitelline duct connects the yolk sac to the
midgut lumen. Patent urachus leads to urine discharge from the umbilicus, and a vitelline fistula
leads to meconium discharge from the umbilicus.
4. The SRY gene on the Y chromosome produces testis-determining factor, which leads to
development of testes. Within the testes, Sertoli cells produce Müllerian inhibitory factor,
suppressing development of the female reproductive tracts, and Leydig cells produce androgens to
direct development of the male tracts.
ANATOMY
5. Left ovary/testicle → left gonadal vein → left renal vein → inferior vena cava. Right ovary/testicle →
right gonadal vein → inferior vena cava. Para-aortic lymph nodes.
6. Left side. In contrast to the right testicular vein which drains directly into the IVC, the testicular vein
on the left first drains into the left renal vein before draining into the IVC. This leads to a greater
pressure buildup in the left testicular vein relative to the right.
9. Adjacent Sertoli cells form tight junctions that serve as a blood-testis barrier.
PHYSIOLOGY
11. Estradiol is more potent than estrone, which is more potent than estriol.
16.
19. Decreased estrogen and increased FSH, LH, and GnRH levels.
20. Remember: HAVOCS: Hot flashes, Atrophy of Vagina, Osteoporosis, and Coronary artery disease,
Sleep disturbances.
21. Dihydrotestosterone is more potent than testosterone, which is more potent than androstenedione.
22. Differentiation of the internal genitalia (except prostate), growth spurts, deeping of the voice, closing
of the epipyseal plate, and libido.
PATHOLOGY
23. 47,XXY; testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall stature, long extremities, and gynecomastia.
24. 45,XO; short stature, ovarian dysgenesis, webbing of neck, preductal coarctation of the aorta, and
primary amenorrhea.
25.
Diagnosis LH Testosterone
Defective androgen receptor ↑ ↑
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism ↓ ↓
Hypergonadotropic
↑ ↓
hypogonadism
Testosterone-secreting tumor or
↓ ↑
exogenous steroids
26. A. Abruptio placenta: premature separation of placenta from uterine wall. Risk factors include
trauma, smoking, hypertension, and cocaine abuse.
C. Placenta increta: placenta penetrates into the myometrium. Risk factors same as for placenta
accreta.
D. Placenta percreta: placenta penetrates myometrium into surrounding uterine serosa. Risk
factors same as for placenta accreta and increta.
E. Placenta previa: placenta attaches to lower uterine segment. Risk factors include multiparity
and prior C-section.
27. Prior ectopic pregnancy, history of infertility, salpingitis (pelvic inflammatory disease), ruptured
appendix, prior tubal surgery, smoking and advanced maternal age.
28. Preexisting hypertension, diabetes, chronic renal disease, and autoimmune disorders.
30. For incidence: endometrial > ovarian > cervical. For prognosis: ovarian > endometrial > cervical.
32. A-6, B-9, C-10, D-4, E-3, F-11, G-5, H-1, I-8, J-2, K-7.
35. A-5, B-6, C-9, D-7, E-1, F-3, G-2, H-8, I-4, J-10.
36. In BPH the periurethral lobes enlarge to compress the urethra. Prostatic adenocarcinoma occurs
most commonly in the posterior lobe of the prostate, and the tumor would need to grow quite large
before it impinged on the urethra enough to cause urinary retention.
PHARMACOLOGY
38. Antagonist; agonist.
39. By preventing normal feedback inhibition and increasing LH and FSH release from the pituitary.
41. OCPs prevent the estrogen surge, which in turn prevents the LH surge, and thus ovulation.
42. Smokers >35 years old, patients with a history of thromboembolism and stroke, and those with a
history of migraines, breast cancer, or liver disease.
44. Headache, flushing, dyspepsia, impaired blue-green color vision, and severe hypotension. They
should never be taken with nitrates, as this combination can exacerbate hypotension even further.