Exam: HP0-606

Title : Data Protector Basics for Windows

Ver : 08.03.04
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QUESTION 1
Which information does the Catalog Database (CDB) store?
A: file version information
B: backup and restore sessions
C: configured devices and media pools
D: the number of sessions performed for a given time
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Once the Manager-of-Manager has been configured, Data Protector cells can be added with the function.
A: install
B: import
C: add cells
D: configure
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge that runs every day at .
A: 12.00
B: 15.00
C: 22.00
D: 00.00
Answer: A

QUESTION 4
To use he same device with different media pools several must be created.
A: media agents
B: media specifications
C: backup specifications
D: media rotation policies
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The Data Protector user account and its service MUST have permission to access the remote computer and
permission on
the Disk Agent client.
A: IP
B: Inet
C: Ipnet
D: Destination
Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The System Recovery Data file is automatically written two times. It is written once when backing up and
another time when backing up

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A: the file system: individual files

B: replacement files: directory trees
C: a CRITICAL object; Data Protector internal database
D: the CONFIGURATION object; the Data Protector internal database
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What lets logical volumes be mounted as disk drives?
A: domain ports
B: aparse points
C: eeparse points
D: object connect
Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Media can only be exported if the protection of the sessions has expired or a has been performed.
A: verify
B: recycle
C: re-scan
D: reinitialize
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the database?
A: device filenames and hostname
B: filenames mount point, and device
C: hostname mount point, and description
D: hostname device, and raw disk sections
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What does Data Protector use for Inter-Process Communication (IPC)?
A: global
B: remote
C: port 5555
D: shared memory + pipe/socket
Answer: D

QUESTION 11
The Data Protector encode object option used for encryption uses a simple algorithm implemented in a shared
"C" program library.
A: XOR
B: XNOT
C: XORD
D: XNAND
Answer: A

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QUESTION 12
Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles a network datastream?
A: Disk-> Device
B: Disk -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
C: Disk -V Source Device -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
D: Disk -> Memory of Source System -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles local datastream?
A: Disk -> Device
B: Disk -> Memory -> Device
C: Disk -> Memory -> Network -> Device
D: Disk -> Memory -> Destination Device
Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What feature of Data Protector dynamically determines which object (disk) should be backed up to which
device?
A: disk image
B: compression
C: load balancing
D: object distribution
Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Data Protector security is based on .
A: cells
B: clients
C: devices
D: sessions
Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What are the two main purposes for a media pool?
A: media condition and usage
B: logical organization and policies
C: physical description and location
D: to keep track of full backups and incremental backups
Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When backing up over a SAN Data Protector can be configured with a SCSI Library so that each client system
has its' own access to library robotics and drives. This is called .
A: device sharing

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B: SAN library access

C: direct library access
D: multi-drive library sharing
Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which type of media management service facilities communication among applications, robotic changers and
media libraries for NT systems?
A: Recovery Manager
B: Remote Control
C: Removable Storage Manager
D: Session Manager Binary Files
Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which function allows checking to see if the Data Protector data on a specified medium is readable?
A: verify
B: modify
C: specify
D: reinitialize
Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the default for that Data Protector uses on all clients for communication?
A: 5050
B: 5057
C: 5555
D: 5557
Answer: C

QUESTION 21
All catalog information of data written to media is stored in specific if appropriate logging option is selected.
A: Detail Catalog (DC)
B: Backup Control System (BCS)
C: Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D: Media Management Database (MMDB)
Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What are the three main media management PROTECTION features?
A: labeling, duplication and condition monitoring
B: media pool media usage and property specifications
C: on-line catalog media organization, and location tracking
D: logical organization of media, pools and allocation policies
Answer: A

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QUESTION 23
What are the three main media management library features?
A: labeling, duplication, and condition monitoring
B: media pool media usage, and property specifications
C: on-line catalog media organization and location tracking
D: logical organization of media pools and allocation policies
Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The Data Protector database on the Windows Cell Manager stores information on about file names.
A: 100 million
B: 200 million
C: 450 million
D: 700 million
Answer: C

QUESTION 25
The Media Management Database (MMDB) and Catalog Database (CDB) parts are implemented using an
embedded database consisting of table spaces. All the changes to the MMDB and CDB are updated using
A: binary files
B: direct access
C: transaction logs
D: session messages
Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What determines the amount of detail on files and directories written to the Data Protector database?
A: disk quota
B: logging level
C: load balancing
D: information store
Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What tracks the elapsed times of key operations and registers this data collection as well as volume data within
Data Protector?
A: Cost Recovery
B: Service Monitoring
C: HP Open View Operations
D: Application Response Measurement (ARM)
Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What service runs on each Windows system in the Data Protector cell and is responsible for communication
between the systems in the cell?
A: Omnilnet

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B: Cell Request Server (CRS)

C: Raima Database Server (RDS)
D: Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What process/service runs on the Data Protector cell manager. It starts and controls backup and restore sessions.
A: Omnilnet
B: Cell Request Server CRS)
C: Raima Database Server (RDS)
D: Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: B

QUESTION 30
On HP Disk Arrays only - a local mirror, where both disks are in he same array Data Protector integration uses
A: Control Unit
B: Business Copy
C: Continuous Access
D: Logical Volume Manager
Answer: B

QUESTION 31
A remote mirror technology with Data Protector integration uses
A: Control Unit
B: Business Copy
C: Continuous Access
D: Logical Volume Manager
Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Data Protector utilizes split-mirror technology to provide fast automated restore of file systems.
A: zero downtime
B: instant recovery
C: assisted recovery
D: one-button disaster recovery
Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Data Protector Single Server Edition provides the License-to-Use
A: for one split-mirror Cell Manager
B: for one Terabyte of raw disk space capacity for one Cell Manager
C: to backup one single server with an unlimited number of clients and one concurrently used backup drive
D: for one cell Manager running on any platform one concurrently used backup drive and an unlimited number
of backup clients.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 34
When you install Data Protector for the first time, it installs as a 60 days instant-on license. In special cases you
may be provided with a temporary license which is valid for .
A: 90 days
B: 120 days
C: 150 days
D: 180 days
Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is used for disk and media agent data transfer if the agents do NOT reside on the same host?
A: RMI
B: remote agents
C: stream sockets
D: pipe mechanisms
Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which script collects system data from the Data Protector cell manager? This script also collects configuration
data about the Data Protector installation and all log files involved in the cell.
A: get_info
B: get_data
C: get_obinfo
D: get_cell_info
Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which process starts the Data Protector desired agents?
A: inet
B: shmem
C: daemon
D: scheduler
Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which service regularly checks the files on a disk for identical files and replaces them with reparse points on
NT?
A: Include Single Instance (ISI)
B: Single Instance Storage (SIS)
C: Exclude Single Instance (ESI)
D: Identical Instance Storage (IIS)
Answer: B

QUESTION 39
The Instant Recovery license is required per of configured disk space included in the backup.
A: 1 GB

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B: 10 GB
C: 1 TB
D: 2 TB
Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Grouping media into logical groups are called media
A: sets
B: pools
C: types
D: groups
Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Once the Media Management Database have been merged from several cells into the Manager-of-Managers
functionality the database is known as the .
A: CMDB (Central Management Database)
B: MoMDB (Manager-of-Manager Database)
C: MMMDB (Merged Media Management Database)
D: CMMDB (Centralized Media Management Database)
Answer: D

QUESTION 42
What does the Centralized Media Management Database (CMMDB) allow the sharing of across several cells in
a Manager-of-Manager environment?
A: clients
B: cell managers
C: devices and media
D: performance
Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Where does the Data Protector data reside?
A: drive server
B: cell manager
C: client system
D: control manager
Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which three functions does the Data Protector Snapshot Agent automatically perform?
A: Creates the backup, performs an ioscan and configures LUN assignments.
B: Creates snapshot LUNs configures the backup host, and performs the backup.
C: Creates alternate paths for backups, starts the integration agents and exports the volume groups.
D: Creates the snapshot configures the volume groups and mounts the file systems on the backup host.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 45
Client systems to be backed up must have the Data Protector agent installed.
A: disk
B: media
C: restore
D: installation
Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What holds a repository of the Data Protector software packages for a specific architecture?
A: client system
B: installation server
C: Data Protector database
D: Data Protector scheduler
Answer: B

QUESTION 47
Which backup is similar to the configuration of Snapshot backups?
A: local
B: remote
C: split mirror
D: manager-of-manager
Answer: C

QUESTION 48
If the Virtual Array is out of LUNs the Data Protector local backup
A: fails
B: continues and writes a warming message in the log file
C: creates a child LUN via SNAPA and continues the back up
D: will allocate a phantom LUN, continue the backup and write a warming message in the log file
Answer: A

QUESTION 49
For each system in a cell what must be implemented for communications?
A: domain setup
B: hostname resolution
C: global master domain
D: a multiple cell environment
Answer: B

QUESTION 50
An incremental backup based on any previous Data Protector backup (full or incremental) which must still be
protected is called a backup.
A: filesystem
B: differential

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C: disk image
D: leveled incremental
Answer: B

QUESTION 51
To manage geographically remote cells centrally the cells must be configured in a environment.
A: Unix
B: domain
C: workgroup
D: manager-of-manager
Answer: D

QUESTION 52
What is a media pool?
A: a collection of media of the same age
B: a logical collection of media that belong together
C: a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
D: a concept that enables faster backup and restore
Answer: B

QUESTION 53
What files are backed up in an incremental backup? Files that have
A: only changed attributes
B: only changed permissions
C: been moved from one directory to another
D: a modification time newer than the previous time
Answer: D

QUESTION 54
By default what is enabled for Data Protector on NT systems?
A: security
B: encoding
C: software compression
D: hardware compression
Answer: D

QUESTION 55
In which type of media pool is the media NOT labeled or initialized until it is needed?
A: open
B: strict
C: loose
D: scratch
Answer: D

QUESTION 56
A backup session that starts writing data to the space remaining on the last medium used in the previous backup

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session is using a(n) media usage policy.

A: strict
B: loose
C: append able
D: non-append able
Answer: C

QUESTION 57
The Data Protector Media Session Manager (MSM) runs on which system(s) in the cell?
A: client only
B: cell manager only
C: client and cell manager
D: dedicated installation server
Answer: B

QUESTION 58
Back with is useful in dynamic environments.
A: fast queuing
B: disk discovery
C: backup queuing
D: express discovery
Answer: B

QUESTION 59
Cartridge memory support can be activated for the drives with the media type.
A: JOBDs
B: LTO-Ultrium
C: MC-Service Guard
D: Microsoft Cluster Server
Answer: B

QUESTION 60
The age of a medium is calculated as the number of months that have elapsed since the medium was formatted.
One a medium is older than the threshold number of months it is marked as poor. The default threshold is
months.
A: 12
B: 24
C: 36
D: 48
Answer: C

QUESTION 61
If the media in the device is formatted, but it is different than the one in the Prealoc List of the backup
specification and the media pool has a STRICT policy Data Protector
A: issues a mount request
B: continues and sends a message to the log file

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C: scans the media pool for a medium with a loose policy

D: scans the media pool for the next medium and continues
Answer: A

QUESTION 62
If the media in the device is NOT formatted, and the media pool to be used has a STRICT policy, Data
Protector .
A: issues a mount request
B: scans for the next formatted media to use
C: scans the media pool for a medium with a loose policy]
D: will automatically format the media with the strict policy
Answer: A

QUESTION 63
The usage of a medium is defined as the number of overwrites at the beginning of the medium. The default
threshold is
overwrites.
A: 250
B: 300
C: 350
D: 400
Answer: A

QUESTION 64
When backing up a Windows system which object two objects types does Data Protector support? Select TWO.
A: file system - NTFS
B: file system - HFS
C: host
D: NetWare
Answer: AC

QUESTION 65
When does Static Device Allocation occur?
A: The backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device.
B: Each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device.
C: Each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device.
D: Several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical devices.
Answer: B

QUESTION 66
Which files are NOT backed up in an incremental backup?
A: All directories irrespective of time.
B: Files that have changed attributes (chmod chown chgrp).
C: Files that have a modification time newer than the related object.
D: NFS mounted files that have a modification time newer than the related object.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 67
A disk image restore is a(n) restore of a disk image backup.
A: file-by-file
B: byte-by-byte
C: block-by-block
D: object-by-object
Answer: B

QUESTION 68
Parallel restore allows files to be restored to multiple devices at the same time. In order for a parallel restore to
work the disks must have been backed up to the same device using a concurrency of .
A: 1
B: greater than 1
C: parallel restore is NOT supported
D: concurrency does NOT need to be set
Answer: B

QUESTION 69
What are two prerequisites for installing Data Protector 5 on a Windows system? Select TWO.
A: Microsoft networking installed
B: NETBIOS over TCP/IP enabled
C: TCP/IP installed and running
D: Port 5555 available
Answer: CD

QUESTION 70
When adding Windows clients to a Data Protector cell what is the prerequisite to enable a backup operation?
A: ftp enabled on the remote machine
B: rexec privileges on the remote machine
C: user "omniback" being present on remote machine
Answer: C

QUESTION 71
When importing Windows clients into an Data Protector Cell which files are updated? Select TWO.
A: <OMNI HOME>/installation_server
B: <OMNIHOME>/cell_server
C: <OMNIHOME>/cell/cell_info
D: <OMNIHOME>/cell/export_hoss
Answer: BC

QUESTION 72
To import a Microsoft Cluster into an Omniback cell which is he correct sequence?
A: push out standard agents to each node import cluster, register sequence?
B: manually install standard agents import clients import cluster
C: manually install cluster aware agents import clients import cluster

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D: push cluster aware agents import cluster, import clients

Answer: C

QUESTION 73
What is the default for that Data Protector uses on all clients for communication?
A: 5050
B: 5057
C: 5555
D: 5557
Answer: C

QUESTION 74
What are the default user groups provided with Data Protector?
A: operator, user, and admin
B: operator, user, and security
C: operator, system, and admin
D: operator, system, and security
Answer: A

QUESTION 75
The standard memory recommendation for Data Protector is 500 MB. How much additional RAM is
recommended for each parallel backup session?
A: 10 MB
B: 20 MB
C: 30 MB
D: 40 MB
Answer: D

QUESTION 76
during the installation of a Data Protector Cell Manager on a Windows host which services are configured and
started? Select THREE.
A: SNMP
B: CRS
C: MMD
D: inet
E: RDS
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 77
To be able to operate DP5 Windows clients in a Data Protector installation running an HP-UX cell manager,
what else has to be installed?
A: another windows cell manager
B: a windows based installation server
C: a dedicated windows cell console
D: an OBDR module
Answer: B

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QUESTION 78
The installation of Data Protector on NT will abort if is NOT installed and configured on the cell manager
system.
A: NDMP
B: TCP/IP
C: inetd.sec
D: LMHOST
Answer: B

QUESTION 79
The Windows 2000 native drivers loaded for devices are NOT supported by Data Protector.
A: native
B: device LUNs
C: medium changers
D: enabled tape drives
Answer: C

QUESTION 80
What allows mapping of the library robotic control access so that it also works on the "direct access requesting
system?"
A: libtab
B: inittab
C: library
D: device
Answer: A

QUESTION 81
Which utility is installed with the media agent for use in interacting with the SCSI changers?
A: isl
B: inq
C: una
D: uma
Answer: D

QUESTION 82
The way to prevent collisions on a device caused by several systems talking to it at the same time is .
A: Logical Lock.
B: Device lock.
C: Lock names.
D: Physical Lock.
Answer: C

QUESTION 83
Magazines devices MUST be configured as .
A: Libraries.

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B: Standalone
C: Other devices.
D: Magazine supported.
Answer: A

QUESTION 84
Library can be configured so that each drive is connected to a different system within the Data Protector cell.
The different systems MUST Be configured into the cell and have the installed.
A: Media agent.
B: Device Library.
C: Library drive index.
D: Robotics Controller.
Answer: A

QUESTION 85
To verify the device configuration, right click on the created drive and choose medium.
A: Load.
B: Scan.
C: Check.
D: Configure.
Answer: B

QUESTION 86
When configuring library devices with Data Protector, how many SCSI IDs must be configured for a library
with four drives?
A: Only one they share the SCSI ID.
B: Two each drive shares the adjacent SCSI ID.
C: Four one for each drive.
D: Five one for each drive and one for the robotic.
Answer: D

QUESTION 87
The session manager will wait for a specified amount of time for amount request to be confirmed / cancelled.
This is called the parameter.
A: Mount Delay.
B: Mount script.
C: Mount Prompt.
D: Mount Deferral.
Answer: A

QUESTION 88
What does concurrency = 3 mean relative to backup?
A: 3 disk agents transferring data to 3 media agents.
B: I disk agent transferring data to 3 media agents.
C: I disk agent transferring data with a compression ration of 3:1.

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D: 3 disk agents transferring data to 1 Media agent.

Answer: D

QUESTION 89
For some linear tape devices (e.g. DLT), backup performance may be negatively impacted by a lack of
streaming. How could performance be improved?
A: Manually adjusting the tape speed settings on the drive.
B: Using the NTFS File system in steal of FAT.
C: Use a CIFS share as a source instead of a local mount.
D: Using a concurrency greater than I to stream from different media agents.
Answer: D

QUESTION 90
When adding a cluster to the Manager of Manager cell, make sure to enter its server name.
A: cell.
B: Host.
C: Virtual.
D: Shared.
Answer: C

QUESTION 91
In order to successfully administer all the cells in an enterprises environment, a common user in the group in
every cell in the environment is needed.
A: Virtual.
B: Admin.
C: Enterprise.
D: Manager of Manager.
Answer: B

QUESTION 92
By default, Data Protector can start up to backup sessions at the same time in order to optimize the load on the
Cell Manager.
A: 3
B: 4
C: 5
D: 6
Answer: C

QUESTION 93
Software compression is done by the when reading data from a disk.
A: Image.
B: Device.
C: Disk agent.
D: Cell Manager.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 94
Data Protector Media agents and disk agents use memory buffers. This memory is divided into a number of
buffer areas. One for each disk agent, depending on the device concurrency. By default, each buffer area
consists of disk agent buffers.
A: 4
B: 8
C: 16
D: 24
Answer: B

QUESTION 95
Data Protector Media Agents and Disk Agents use memory buffers during data transfer. Each buffer area
consists of . Disk Agent buffers which are the same size as the block size configured for the device.
A: 4
B: 8
C: 16
D: 32
Answer: B

QUESTION 96
When the object option "Display Statistics" is turned on what does it show?
A: Megabytes per hour for each object.
B: Object detail retained for a specific data.
C: Three levels of detail on files and directories.
D: How many files were handles during a backup session.
Answer: A

QUESTION 97
A disk image can be used when .
A: A target system is open.
B: There are a couple of files to back up.
C: It is necessary to track the file and directory structure.
D: There are lots of small files and a high backup speed is required.
Answer: D

QUESTION 98
When performing a backup on a Windows host, files may be open. In the case of registry files you may want to
exclude them from the file system and back them up with the object.
A: RAW
B: Snapshot.
C: Home drive.
D: Configuration.
Answer: D

QUESTION 99
To create the One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR) backup specification, a media pool must be created for

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DDS or LTO media with a(n) usage policy and a allocation policy.
A: Append able Strict.
B: Expendable loose.
C: Non=Appealed Strict.
D: Non Append able: loose.
Answer: D

QUESTION 100
What is a Data Protector general purpose Disaster Recovery module that can be used in all recovery scenarios
on NT?
A: Omnidr exe.
B: Omniutil exe.
C: Omnisrd. Exe.
D: ominoffir.exe.
Answer: A

QUESTION 101
On NT, what two ways can Disaster recovery using Disk Delivery be enacted?
A: Basic, enhanced.
B: Manual. Automatic.
C: Hosting system auxiliary disk.
D: Cell manager server, enhanced media.
Answer: C

QUESTION 102
When performing a full restore, use the Data Protector restore option to restore program files and libraries that
may be in use.
A: Overwrite.
B: Clean files.
C: Move busy files.
D: Restore Original files.
Answer: C

QUESTION 103
The process of Disaster Recovery is made up of a composite block of four phases. They are .
A: Plan, backup, restore, reactivate.
B: Backup, restore, configure, backup.
C: Backup installation, restore, configure.
D: Preparation, installation, reactivation, restoration.
Answer: D

QUESTION 104
A low database space event is triggered, by default, when the Data Protector database has less than of disk
space available.
A: 25 MB.
B: 50 MB.

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C: 100 MB.
D: 150 MB.
Answer: B

QUESTION 105
Media operations can be divided into two categories: pool operations and tape operations. Which is a pool
operation?
A: Export.
B: Format.
C: Recycle.
D: Copy.
Answer: B

QUESTION 106
There are two methods of preparing for the assisted manual disaster recovery. One method uses "Dr. Wizard" .
The other method uses the command on NT.
A: Omnidr. Exe.
B: Ominrid.exe.
C: Omisrdupdate.exe.
D: Ominutil.exe.restore.
Answer: C

QUESTION 107
When using One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR) On NT, there should be at least of free space on a boot
partition during backup.
A: 100 MB
B: 150 MB
C: 200 MB
D: 250 MB
Answer: B

QUESTION 108
The command used to restore any type of backup objects in the absence of working database is on NT.
A: Omnir.exe.
B: Omnirid.exe.
C: Omnioffir.exe.
D: Omnisrdupdate.exe.
Answer: C

QUESTION 109
What are the four sections of the System Recovery File.
A: Title, host, device, objects.
B: Title, hostname, directory structure, files.
C: Header, file system, cell manager, partitions.
D: Header, system, disk information critical objects.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 110
Formatting a medium more than once resets the media life quality information. Where is this information
stored?.
A: Global options file.
B: Media agent.
C: Media Management database.
D: Pool information file.
Answer: C

QUESTION 111
By default the media catalog limit is fixed to for all media types when backing up a large number of small files.
A: 6 MB.
B: 8 MB.
C: 12 MB.
D: 16 MB.
Answer: C

QUESTION 112
For any devices, Data Protector issues amount request when all the media .
A: are 80% full.
B: Are 95% full.
C: Are 100% full.
D: Have less than 50% capacity left.
Answer: C

QUESTION 113
Choose the correct device template for standalone devices for use with omni upload.
A: Tpstalone,dev.
B: Devstalone.dev.
C: Configuration dev.
D: Tpconfstalone dev.
Answer: A

QUESTION 114
What is the default permission for the default user group?
A; Start Backup.
B: Start Restore.
C: Media Configuration.
D: Device Configuration.
Answer: B

QUESTION 115
The permission criteria for "Client Configuration" allows a user to .
A: Add, delete modify assigned groups.
B: View, backup and restore assigned systems.

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C: Create, configure and delete backups and restores.

D: Perform installation and updates of assigned systems.
Answer: D

QUESTION 116
The permission criteria for "User Configuration" allows a user to .
A: Add, delete modify assigned groups.
B: View, backup and restore assigned systems.
C: Create, configure and delete backups and restores.
D: Perform installation and updates of assigned systems.
Answer: A

QUESTION 117
What is used to start a backup from the command line?
A: Ominib.
B: Ominibck.
C: Ominmm.
D: Omnicellbck.
Answer: A

QUESTION 118
What string is the called that is displayed in the location filed when the media is ejected from the slot?
A: Output Location.
B: Media Slot Location.
C: Mon Media Location.
D: Non Resident Location.
Answer: D

QUESTION 119
Disk discovery would be used in the backup type definition with .
A: CD mounted files systems.
B: Several removable volumes.
C: Small disks that are frequently mounted and unmounted.
D: NFS mount points that are periodically mounted and unmounted.
Answer: C

QUESTION 120
You are starting an incremental backup, but Data Protector cannot find a valid reference point version of the
object. What will Data Protector do?
A: The backup will do?
B: A mount request will be issued.
C: Data Protector will start a full backup.
D: Data protector will continue with incremental + 1
Answer: C

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QUESTION 121
Data Protector is scheduled for an incremental backup. Before the job runs the administrator changes the
description of an object leaving the host and disk the same. What will Data Protector do?
A: The backup will fail.
B: A mount request will be issued.
C: Data Protector will perform a full backup.
D: The incremental backup will run and reflect the description change.
Answer: C

QUESTION 122
What are the two ways to recover data with Instant Recovery?
A: Object type session.
B: File system, backup object.
C: Restore by search session ID.
D: Particular backup object hostname.
Answer: A

QUESTION 123
Data Protector starts a backup session based on a backup specification. The backup specification contains.
A: Commands to perform the backup.
B: A process that creates a copy of data on storage media.
C: A list of objects to be backed up and the devices or drives to be used.
D: A system's name and the connection to volumes or multiple application systems.
Answer: C

QUESTION 124
You use the "No Overwrite" option in restoring your system where the following file and directory structure
exists.
Directory ---1
Directory ---2
File -2 .
If File 1 and File 2 are deleted and a restore is performed selecting the contents of Directory 1 for restore, what
will be restored?
A: File -1 .
B: File - 1, File - 2.
C: File - 1, Directory - 2, File - 2.
D: Directory -1, File -1 , Directory - 2 File - 2.
Answer: A

QUESTION 125
The Data Protector Restore context offers two possible ways of browsing objects for restore. What are they?
A: Search Objects.
B: Query, Sessions.
C: Restore Search Restore Query.
D: Restore Objects Restore Sessions.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 126
What are the common input parameters for notification?
A: Name, Alarm, Session ID.
B: Session Id, Device, Media.
C: Name, Error, Trap Number.
D: Name, Message Level, Send Method.
Answer: D

QUESTION 127
Only the Data Protector users in the Admin group and those granted the user rights are given access to the Data
Protector reporting functionality.
A: Report, monitor, and log.
B: User, device and media.
C: Monitor, Backup, and restore.
D: Reporting notifications, and event log.
Answer: D

QUESTION 128
The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which three sections?
A: File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data.
B: segments, File Mark and Catalog information.
C: Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning.
D: Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information.
Answer: D

QUESTION 129
What is the result of a backed up session that is on media?
A: Media set.
B: Media group.
C: Media Backup.
D: Media Session.
Answer: A

QUESTION 130
What option can be sued to increase the reliability of backups over WAN links.
A: Extended link.
B: Session over.
C: Suspend.
D: Reconnect broken session.
Answer: D

QUESTION 131
The man page provides an overview of all the commands available to Data Protector.
A: Ominiinfo.
B: Ominmm.

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C: Omniintro.
D: Omnioverview.
Answer: C

QUESTION 132
The difference between a file system backup and ahost backup is the file system backs up .
A: Source data, file by file and specific objects are determined at run time and host backup backs up only file by
file.
B: The host data directories and the host backup backs up source data, file by file and specific objects are
determined at run time.
C: The source data, file by file and the host backup backs up source data, file by file and other backup objects
are determined at run time.
D: Source Data, directory by directory and the host backup backs up source data, file by file and specific objects
are determined at run time.
Answer: C

QUESTION 133
The pre/post execute scripts may cause interruptions during the preview mode of a backup. Which file needs to
be modified to turn pre/post exec off?
A: Omni/reconfig.
B: Omni/exe/config.
C: Omni/options/global.
D: Omni/options/reconfig.
Answer: C

QUESTION 134
When catalog protection has expired, what steps must be performed to read the contents of the Media?
A: Format and re initialize.
B: Copy the Media and import it back.
C: Export the Media and import it back.
D: Filter the media data and re read the contents.
Answer: C

QUESTION 135
When using the scheduler to start a backup at a specific time, on what basis are schedules created?
A: Per Media agent.
B: Per disk agent.
C: Per backup specification.
D: Per backup device.
Answer: C

QUESTION 136
The media type is only modifiable when the pool is created. How do you change the media type of a pool?.
A: Delete the pool and recreate it.
B: Use the GUI to rename the pool.
C: Delete the media type and rename it.

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D: Change the usage policy for the Media type within the pool.
Answer: A

QUESTION 137
What is the format for an Auto labeled tape?
A: MEDIA TYPE _ LABEL #
B: POOLNAME_LABEL #
C: MEDIA TYPE_NUMBER
D: POLLNAME_INCREMENT#.
Answer: D

QUESTION 138
How media are selected for backup can be influenced using the .
A: Media Pools.
B: mount request.
C: Media Allocation policy.
D: Media Management database.
Answer: C

QUESTION 139
Which group permission allows a user to start a backup without becoming the owner of the backup?
A: Switch sessions.
B: Backup from other users.
C: Backup from other clients.
D: Start backup from other client.
Answer; A

QUESTION 140
How can frequently used backup specification characteristics be saved?
A: With an object.
B: With a media set.
C: With an excel file.
D: With a template.
Answer: D

QUESTION 141
Which tool allows the supervision and administration of currently running backup and restore sessions?
A: View.
B: Notify.
C: Monitor.
D: reporter.
Answer: C

QUESTION 142
Which function performs a "Dummy run" of a backup?
A: Test.

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B: No backup.
C: Preview.
D: Repeat.
Answer: C

QUESTION 143
Reporting and Notification can be performed on the with a user interface and admin rights.
A: Cell manager only.
B: Client systems only.
C: Dedicated installation server.
D: Cell manager and client systems.
Answer: D

QUESTION 144
A low database space event is triggered, by default, when the Data Protector database has less than of disk
space available.
A: 25 MB.
B: 50 MB.
C: 100 MB.
D: 150 MB.
Answer: B

QUESTION 145
When does a mount request in a backup session appear/
A: Disk device goes off line.
B: Backup needs more media.
C: Cell request server process stops.
D: Media management service stops.
Answer: B

QUESTION 146
In a parallel restore, interleaved data from multiple objects is read concurrently from media in paths and
restored.
A: Dual.
B: A single.
C: Multiple.
D: Concurrent.
Answer: B

QUESTION 147
If a file must be restored while a backup is taking place, which activity takes precedence?
A: The restore takes the precedence.
B: The backup session aborts and needs to be restarted.
C: The backup session stops the restore takes place and the backup session resumes.
D: The backup session will complete, then the restore would take precedence over additional backup sessions.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 148
What holds information about the physical structure of the database, such as, database names, names and
locations of a database's data files and log files, and the time stamp of the database's creation?
A: Data files.
B: Control files.
C: Transaction logs.
D: The database server process.
Answer: B

QUESTION 149
In a mirrored environment, the backup definition would be enabled to include "Leave backup system enabled"
when .
A: The mirror is NOT in pair status.
B: The pair is left split after the backup.
C: The pair is 100% synchronized after backup.
D: The mirror is reattached to the primary disk after the backup.
Answer: B

QUESTION 150
In a mirrored environment, the backup definition would be enabled to include "Leave links split after backup"
when the .
A: Mirror is NOT in pair status.
B: Pair is left split after the backup.
C: Pair is 100% synchronized after backup.
D: Mirror is reattached to the primary disk after the backup.
Answer: D

QUESTION 151
The disaster recovery binaries accompany the system recovery data file. These binaries contain the already
backed up
which bring back the crashed system back to its original state.
A: Filesystem.
B: Recovery into file.
C: Configuration object.
D: Data protector database.
Answer: C

QUESTION 152
How many logging levels does Data Protector provide to control the amount of details on files and directories
written to the Data Protector databases?
A: 2
B: 4
C: 6
D: 8
Answer: B

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QUESTION 153
Where are all generated filesystem backup specifications stored?
A: $OMNI/datalists.
B: $OMNI/backuplist.
C: $OMNICONFIG/datalists.
D: $OMNICONFIG/backuplist.
Answer: C

QUESTION 154
What lets logical volumes be mounted as disk drives?
A: domain ports
B: aparse points
C: eeparse points
D: object connect
Answer: C

QUESTION 155
When installing Data Protector on NT, the message "error expanding host mane" Appears. Which file needs to
be configured?
A: NDMP.
B: TCP/IP.
C: Intetd.Sec.
D: LMHOST.
Answer: D

QUESTION 156
When debugging a remote installation on a Windows system, run .
A: xomin debug.
B: Manager debug.
C: Xomniadmin debug.
D: Manageradmin debug.
Answer: B

QUESTION 157
What is the default location for log files on a Windows cell Manager system?
A: $OMNIHOME
B: $OMNIHOME/log.
C: $OMNICONFIG.
D: $OMNICONFIG/Logs.
Answer: B

QUESTION 158
The Data Protector CRS (Cell Request Server) service on NT Fails to start and mmd. Exe invokes a Dr. Watson
Diagnosis. It appears that a corruption in the database log files has occurred. What should be done?
A: Set the communication domain.

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B: Change strick allocation to loose allocation.

C: Delete the mmd. Etc. file and restart the services.
D: Use TCP transport instead of local transport for the service.
Answer: C

QUESTION 159
If the error "The service did not start due to a logon failure" is received when running NT, verify that the .
A: Service always needs to be started manually.
B: Account is a member of the User group and has the "Log on as a service" user right set.
C: Account is a member of the Admin group and has the "Log as a service" user right set.
D: Account is a member of the Operator group and has the "Log on as a service" user right set.
Answer: C

QUESTION 160
If the user interface CANNOT be started and the online troubleshooting utility is NOT available, what should
be done?
A: Look at the logging files.
B: Access the informational file.
C: Access the troubleshooting file.
D: Reconfigure the global description file.
Answer: C

QUESTION 161
When the option is turned on, information is generated for every action and consumes a large amount of disk
space.
A: Debug.
B: All logging.
C: Transaction.
Answer: A

QUESTION 162
Which command checks the Data Protector services the Media management database consistency and that at
least one backup of the Data Protector Database exists.
A: Omni check.
B: Omni health.
C: Omni db checked.
D: Omni health check.
Answer: D

QUESTION 163
The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which three sections?
A: File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data.
B: segments, File Mark and Catalog information.
C: Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning.
D: Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 164
Where is the Web User Password encrypted and stored?
A: Web Access.
B: Omni Web Access.
C: Users Web Access.
D: Omni Java Web Access.
Answer: A

QUESTION 165
In a Data Protector Windows environment which service must be running on both the cell manager and the
client?
A: CRS.
B: Inet.
C: MMDB
D: MA.
Answer: B

QUESTION 166
Why would Data Protector fail to start a schedule session on NT?
A: The system clock is out of sync with the scheduler.
B: The Data Protector Manager switches to the Users context.
C: The Data Protector Manager switches to the Backup context.
D: The Data Protector service account is NOT in the Admin Group.
Answer: D

QUESTION 167
What are two common reasons for Data Protector failing to start an interactive backup?
A: Backup protection expired, unexpected mount requests.
B: Permissions are insufficient, licenses are NOT available.
C: No previous Full backup exists, the backup owner has changed.
D: Data Protector Manager switches to the users context, the time stamp does NOT match the system clock.
Answer: B

QUESTION 168
What is a central repository of all Data Protector related notifications called?
A: Event log.
B: Notification log.
C: Event database.
D: Data Protector database.
Answer: A

QUESTION 169
BY default, all notifications are configured to be sent to the Data Protector .
A: Event log.
B: Database.

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C: Session log.
D: Report group.
Answer: A

QUESTION 170
Which command automatically and periodically checks the status of the Data Protector services?
A: Ioinit.
B: db check.
C: Omni health check.
D: Omnimm.
Answer: C

QUESTION 171
What are possible reasons for Data Protector failing to start an interactive session? Select TWO.
A: Permissions are insufficient.
B: MMDB has exceeded its maximum size.
C: Media agent is not installed.
D: Licenses are not available.
Answer; AD

QUESTION 172
Which are possible reason for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A: Media is physically write protected.
B: Media Management database is full.
C: Media is not append able.
D: No previously full backup was run.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 173
Which option used with the omni db check command checks the core part of the internal database (MMDB and
CDB)?
A: -core
B: -quick
C: -filename
D: -extended
Answer: A

QUESTION 174
Which option used with the omnidbcheck command checks the MMDB and CDB parts WITHOUT information
about filenames?
A: -core
B: -quick
C: -filename
D: -extended
Answer: A

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QUESTION 175
Which is the Data Protector Database recovery file called?
A: odb.dat
B: orindex.dat
C: odatafiles.dat
D: obdrecovery.dat
Answer: B

QUESTION 176
Which recovery procedure retrieves the Data Protector database (OD)?
A: Import Database
B: OBDB Recovery
C: Transaction Replay
D: Guided Auto recovery
Answer: D

QUESTION 177
Where are the Reconnect Broken Sessions parameter settings are stored?
A: $OMNICONFIG/rc.
B: $OMNIHOME/omnire.
C: $OMNICONFIG/omnires.
D: $OMNIHOME/omniconfig.
Answer: B

QUESTION 178
When using cluster-aware applications running in a SAN and using Data Protector for backups and restores,
devices must be configured with hostnames.
A: virtual
B: logical
C: physical
D: fully-qualified
Answer: A

QUESTION 179
When formatting a Media Device a unique ID is generated and written to the .
A: Init file.
B: CRS.
C: Inet.
D: MMDB.
Answer: D

QUESTION 180
When a finished session is no longer displayed in the monitor context GUI, it is moved to the Data Protector
context.
A: View.
B: Database.

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C: Monitor finished.
D: Finished sessions.
Answer: B

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